MICROBIOLOGY – SCT 2 – SEMESTER 1

v SINGLE CHOICE:

1. For which of the following infections are humans the main reservoirs?
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Brucella abortus cattle
C. Listeria monocytogenes animals plants & soil
D. Mycobacterium kansasii environment

2. Shigella infection is never spread by

A. Food
B. Flies
C. Mosquitos 4 F’s
D. Dirty fingers
E. Human faeces

*** Shigella infection is never spread by:

A. Food
B. Flies
C. Dirty fingers
D. Chickens
E. Human faeces

*** Shigella infection is never spread by:

A. Food
B. Wine
C. Dirty fingers
D. Flies
E. Faeces

3. All of the following bacteria are frequent causative agents of bacterial food poisoning
except:
A. Clostridium
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Staphylococcus aureus
F. Bacillus cereus
G. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
H. Klebsiella pneumoniae
I. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

4. The treatment of choice for invasive (i.e. bloodstream) Pseudomonas aerug..?

A. Oxacillin
B. Metroidazole
C. Doxyciclin
D. Piperacillin + tazobactam
 E. Amoxiciliin + clavulanic acid

5. Acute glomerulonephritis after group A streptococcal infection can be associated with the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Streptoccocal pharyngitis
B. Streptococcal skin infection
C. Immune damage to the kidney
D. Streptococcal infection of the kidney
E. Elevated or rising antibodies to streptolysin O

6. Which of the following bacteria is the most important as the cause of …?

A. Bacillus cereus
B. Streptococcus pyrogenes
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Enterococcus faecalis
E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

7. An important virulence factor of mycobacterium tuberculosis is

A. A plasmid encoded exotoxin which causes caseating necrosis
B. A bacterial product that prevents phagosome – lysosome fusion
C. Lipopolysaccharide which induces polyclonal B cell activation
D. An exotoxin that ADP ribosylates host elongation factor – 2 (EF – 2)
E. Capsular polysaccharide which inhibit phagocytosis

8. Which of the following bacteria will least likely be transmitted to humans by inhalation?
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Nesseria meningitidis
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Haemophilus influenzae

*** Which of the following bacteria will least likely be transmitted to humans by inhalation?
A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
B. Nesseria meningitidis
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Haemophilus influenzae

*** Which of the following bacteria will least likely be transmitted to human by inhalation
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Neisseria meningitides
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Haemophilus ducreyi

9. For which one of the following bacterial vaccines are side effects an important concern?
A. The vaccine containing pneumococcal polysaccharide
B. The vaccine containing killed Bordetella pertussis cells
 C. The vaccine containing tetanus toxoid
D. The vaccine containing diphtheria toxoid

10. Which one the following statements concerning Brucelle is correct?

A. Brucellae are transmitted primarily by tick bite
B. The principal source of infection of Brucellae is the soil
C. Brucelle are found in reticuloendothelial cells and often cause granulomatous lesions
D. Brucella are obligate intracellular parasites
E. The principal reservoirs of Brucellae are small rodents

*** Which one the following statements concerning Brucelle is NOT correct?
A. Brucellae are transmitted primarily by tick bite via milk products or abraded skin
B. The principal reservoirs of Brucellae are household animals
C. Brucellae are found in reticuloendothelial cells and often cause granulomatous lesions
D. Brucellae are facultative intracellular parasites

11. All of the following statement about Yersinia pestis infections are true, EXCEPT
A. Wild rodents are the primary reservoirs
B. The disease can be effectively treated by streptomycin
C. The bubonic form may process to the pneumonic form
D. Primary pneumonic plague has lower lethality than bubonic plague

*** All of the following statements about Yersinia pestis infections are true except:
A. Wild rodents are the primary reservoir
B. The disease can be effectively treated by Penicillin G
C. The bubonic form may progress to the pneumonic form
D. The pneumonic form is far more contagious than the bubonic form

12. Each of the following statements concerning Corynebacterium diphtheria is correct,

EXCEPT:
A. C. diphtheria is a Gram – positive rod that does not form spores
B. Toxin production is dependent on the presence of a lysogenized bacteriophage
C. Diphtheria toxoid should not be given to children under the age of 3 years
D. Antitoxin should be used to treat patients with diphtheria

13. Each of the following antibodies is used to treat disease caused by Mycobacterium
tuberculosis, EXCEPT:
A. Isoniazid (INH)
B. Pyrazinimide
C. Ethambutol
D. Ceftaxidime
E. Rifampin
F.Amoxicillin

14. For which one of the following bacteria is soil an important source of infection?
A. Francisella tularensis
B. Clostridium novyi
C. Neisseria mengitidis
 D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Bordella pertussis

15. Of the organism listed below, which one is the most frequent cause of impetigo?
A. Streptococcus pyrogenes
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
E. Neisseria meningitidis

16. Which of the following antibodies is the first choice in the treatment of gas gangrene…?
A. Peniciliin G
B. Ciproflocaxin
C. Gentamycin
D. Tobramycin

17. Which of the following gram – positive bacteria is the most frequent cause of urinary tract
infections?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Staphyloccoccus epidermdis
C. Pseudomonas …
D. Streptococcus mutans
E. Campy…

*** Which one of the following gram-positive is the most frequent cause of urinary tract
infections?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Staphylococcus hominis
D. Streptococcus mutans

18. Which of the following bacteria is the most important as the cause of transplacental
infections in humans?
A. Streptococcus pyrogens
B. Brucella abortus
C. Listeria mono…
D. Neisseria …

19. The pathogenesis of which one of the following disease does NOT involve exotoxins?
A. Pseudomembraneous colitis
B. Scalded skin syndrome
C. Haemolytic aromic syndrome
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Diphtheria

*** The pathogenesis of which one of the following diseases does NOT involve exotoxins?
A. Botulism
B. Pertussis
 C. Typhoid fever
D. Haemolytic-uremia syndrome

*** The pathogenesis of which one of the following diseases does NOT involve exotoxins
A. Botulism
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pertussis
D. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome
E. Diphtheria

20. Which of the following bacteria can produce an exotoxin causing flaccid paralysis?
A. Corynerbacterium diphtheria
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Lissteria monocytogenes

21. Which of the following tests can be used to differentiate Strepcoccus pneumoniae from
viridanas streptococci?
A. Coagulase test
B. Catalase test
C. Optochin test
D. Bacitracin sensitivity test

*** Which of the following tests is (are) used to differentiate Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococci?
A. Optochin test
B. Coagulase test
C. Catalase test
D. CAMP test catalase test is in order to differentiate strepto from staphylo

*** Which of the following tests can be used to differentiate Streptococcus pneumoniae from
other streptococci?
A. Catalase test
B. Bile-solubility test
C. Coagulase test
D. Optochin test

22. Which of the following statements concerning Legionella pneumophilia is not correct?
A. It is a causative agent of atypical pneumonia
B. It is a Gram negative rod that stains weakly with the standard Gram stain protocol
C. Legionellosis is frequently transmitted to close contacts of the diseased person
D. The disease can be effectively treated by macrolide antibiotics

*** Which of the following statements concerning Legionella pneumophilia is not correct?
A. It is a causative agent of atypical pneumonia
 B. It is inhibited by macrolide antibiotics
C. It is a Gram negative rod that stains weakly with the standard Gram stain protocol
D. Legionellosis can be diagnosis by the detection of bacterial antigens from the urine

*** Which of the following statements concerning Legionella pneumophila is correct?

A. It is a causative agent of typical pneumonia
B. It is rapidly killed by penicillin-G
C. It is a Gram-negative rod that stains weakly with Gram stain protocol
D. It is an obigate intracellular bacterium

23. Which of the following bacteria can be transmitted to humans by the bite of an arthropod
vector?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Yerinia pseudotuberculosis
D. Shigella sonnei

24. Which of the following is characteristics of tuberculoid type leprosy?

A. Large number of Mycobacterium leprae in the skin lesions
B. Negative lepromin skin test
C. Reduced cell mediated immune response to the bacterium
D. Relatively benign clinical source

*** Characteristics of lepromatous type leprosy include:

A. Large number of mycobacterium leprae in the skin lesions
B. Positive lepromin skin test
C. Reduced cell mediated immune response to the bacterium
D. Relatively benign clinical course

25. Which of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct?

A. It is a facultative anaerobic Gram – positive bacterium
B. The bacterium will cause manifest disease only in a minority of infected persons
C. It is very sensitive to drying and kill easily by disinfectants
D. Multidrug – resistance is often associated with producing beta – lactamase enzymes

**** Which of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct?

A. It is a facultative anaerobic Gram – positive bacterium
B. It is very sensitive to drying and kill easily by disinfectants
C. Multidrug – resistance is often associated with producing beta – lactamase enzymes
D. It grows slowly, often requiring 3 – 6 weeks before colonies appear

*** Which of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct?

A. It is a facultative anaerobic gram-labile bacterium
B. It grows slowly, often requiring 3-6 weeks before colonies appear
C. Multidrug-resistance is often associated with producing β-lactamases enzymes
D. Isoniazid (INH) is still the cornerstone of the combination therapy
*** Which of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct?
A. It contains a high amount of lipids in the cell wall, which makes it acid-fast
B. It grows slowly, often requiring 3-6 weeks before colonies appear
C. It is more resistant to environmental stress than most other vegetative bacteria
D. It may survive phagocytosis by inhibiting the fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome.

26. Which of the following disease is least likely caused by Staphylococci?

A. Folliculitis
B. Pseudomembranous colitis
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Toxikus shock syndrome
E. Carbunculus

*** Which of the following diseases is least likely caused by Staphylococci?

A. Furuncies
B. Impetigo
C. Cellulitis
D. Scalded skin syndrome
E. Postpartum endometritis

*** Which of the following diseases is least likely caused by Staphylococci

A. Impetigo
B. Furuncles
C. Scarlet fever
D. Scalded skin syndrome
E. Cellulitis

27. Which of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus is correct?

A. It is a catalase negative, coagulase positive Gram – positive coccus
B. The treatment of choice is amoxicillin
C. Serologic tests are useful in the diagnosis
D. Some strains can produce enterotoxin that causes vomiting & diarrhea

28. Which of the following pathomechanisms are involved in the clinical manisfestation caused
by Staphyloccocus aureus?
A. Pyrogenic pathomechanism
B. Toxin – mediated pathomechanism
C. Hypersensitivity – mediated pathomechanism
D. A and B answers are correct
E. A, B and C answers are correct

29. What do antibiotic resistance mechanisms for Methicillin Resistant Staphyloccocus aureus
and the increasing penicillin resistance in Streptococcus pneumoniae have in common?
A. Plasmids encoding transposons with beta – lactamase
B. Altered target in the form of D – Ala – D – lactate
C. Penicillin binding proteins that are resistant to beta – lactams
D. Membrane pumps to keep intracellular levels of beta – lactams low
30. Protein A of Staphylococcus aureus by binding to the Fc region of IgG and by this
A. Makes the bacterium beta hemolytic inhibit complement activation —> no opsonization —> visible.
B. Attaches the bacterium to epithelial cells
C. Binds antibodies to activate complement
D. Attaches host proteins to the bacteria to make it immunologically invisible
E. Degrade IgA

31. Which of the following statements concerning Neisseria gonorrhoeae is correct?

A. It induces strong immunity to subsequent reinfections
B. It can be cultured on blood agar medium
C. It grows best under anaerobic conditions facultative anaerob
D. It can cause … in some infected patients
E. Virulent organism process capsule

32. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by

A. … infection up the urinary tract
B. Locally produced but systemically active toxin
C. Bacteria infecting the kidneys through the blood after intestinal infection
D. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
E. Type III hypersensitivity reaction

33. All of the following bacteria are obligate anaerobic. Gram – negative rods except:
A. Fusobacterium
B. Bacteroides
C. Veillonella gram negative coccus
D. Porphyromonas
E. Prevotella

*** All of the following bacteria are obligate anaerobic gram negative bacteria rods except:
A. Fusobacterium
B. Bacteroides
C. Porphyromonas
D. Eubacterium
E. Prevotella

34. Each of the following statements concerning Bacteroides fragitis is correct EXCEPT
A. B fragilis is a gram negative obligatory anaerobic rod
B. The capsule of B fragilis is an important virulence factor
C. fragilis is less prevalent in the human intestine than E.Coli
D. B. fragilis infections are characterized by foul – smelling pus

35. Polysaccharide antigen is used to immunise against

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Corynebacterium diphtheria
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Neisseria meningitidis
 F. Clostridium tetani

36. Infected persons are least likely reservoirs of infection by:

A. Enterotoxic E. coli
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Shigella flexneri
D. Helicabacter pylori
E. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
F. Campylobacter jejuni

37. Which of the following does not require special media for culture (other than…)
A. Bordella pertussis
B. C…bacterium diphtheria
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E. Legionella pneumophila

38. Each of the following statements concerning Histoplasma capsulatum is correct, EXCEPT:
A. The natural habitat of H. Capsulatum is the soil
B. H. Capsulatum is transmitted by ariborn conidia to lungs of humans
C. Within the body, H. Capsulatum grows mainly within macrophages
D. It has a polysaccharide capsule
E. Most infections are not symptomatic and do not require treatment by antifungal

39. A hyperemic edema of the larynx and epiglottis that rapidly leads to respiratory
obstruction in young children is most likely caused by
A. Klesiella pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Haemophilus influence
E. Haemophilus hemolyticus

40. Signs that suggest infection with anaerobic bacteria include

A. Negative aerobic culture
B. Gas in tissues
C. Proximity to mucosal surfaces
D. Foul smelling discharge
E. All of the above

41. Which of the following infection has a major source other than human?
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Candida albicans
C. Corynebacterium diphtheria
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Salmonella typhi

42. The most common fungal infection in hospital is:

A. Cryptococcosis
 B. Candidiasis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Coccidioidosis
E. Blastomycosis

43. Sporothrix schenkii is a causative agent of:

A. Opportunistic mycoses
B. Cutaneous mycoses
C. Subcutaneous mycoses
D. Superficial mycoses
E. Systemic mycoses
44. In community acquired meningitis the most common route of transmission of
bacteria…the meninges is
A. Direct inoculation via trauma
B. Direct spread from otitis media, sinusitis, or mastoiditis
C. Via the blood
D. A ruptured brain abscess
E. Via a cribriform plate defect

45. The pathogenesis of bacterial endocarditis includes which of the following?

A. Endotoxin damage to the heart muscle
B. Intracellular bacteria growing in the heart cells
C. Bacteria growing extracellular on a heart valve
D. Bacteria occluding coronary arteries
E. An immunological reaction to heart muscle cells

46. Disseminated gonococcal infection manifests itself primarily as:

A. Arthritis of small to medium joints and a maculopapular rash
B. Pneumonia and upper respiratory tract infection
C. Pharyngitis
D. Upper urinary tract infection
E. Dysentery

47. The most frequent cause of osteomyelitis is

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. Treponema pallidum

48. Deep wound infections with accumulations of gas and necrosis in tissues is most often…
A. A spore – forming, obligate anaerobic that secreted exotoxins
B. A gram – positive coccus
C. An obligate anaerobe, gram – negative rod
D. A halophilic, comma – shaped gram – negative bacterium
E. A pleiomorphic gram positive, filamentous rod

49. Which antibiotic should be used to treat infections by methicillin resistant S. aureus?
 a. Amoxicillin
b. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
c. Vancomycin
d. Ceftazidime
e. Polymixin

50. Fecal leukocytes are found in stools of persons infected with:

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. Shigella flexneri
D. Virbio cholerate
E. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (E. Coli)

51. The antibody that develops after an episode of pneumococcal pneumonia may not protect
against subsequent pneumococcal diseases because:
A. The antibody is only against the pneumococcal C polysaccharide
B. Antibody levels are present only for a few weeks
C. The polysaccharide is not immunogenic
D. The different pneumococcal polysaccharides and their antibodies do not cross protect
E. Anticapsular antibody is not protective

52. All of the following statements concerning Neisseria gonorrhoea are correct EXCEPT:
A. It confers solid immunity to subsequent reinfections
B. It can be cultured on chocolate agar medium
C. It grows best in the presence of 2-10% CO2
D. It can cause pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Virulent organisms possess pili

*** All of the following statements concerning Neisseria gonorrhoea are correct EXCEPT:
A. It confers no – immunity to subsequent reinfections
B. It can be cultured on chocolate agar medium
C. It grows best in the presence of 2-10% CO2
D. It can cause pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Virulent organisms possess capsule

53. All of the following diseases are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis infection except
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Endocervicitis
C. Nephritis
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Urethritis

54. The Ghon complex, a lesion in the lung and the regional lymph nodes is found in:
A. Tuberculoid leprosy
B. Primary tuberculosis
C. Scrofula
D. Cervicofacial actinomycosis
E. Pneumococcal pneumoniae
55. Of the organisms listed below, which of the most frequent bacterial cause of pharyngitis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
E. Neisseria meningitidis
56. What of the following bacteria will least likely cause meningitis:
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

*** What of the following bacteria will least likely cause meningitis:
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. E. coli
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Mycobacterium leprae

57. Which of the following bacteria is most significant as the causative agent of neonatal
meningitis:
A. Brucella abortus
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Neisseria meningitides
E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
58. Antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis is caused by an exotoxin elaborated by:
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Toxigenic strains of E. coli
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Listeria monocytogenes

59. Each of the following statements concerning Bacteroides fragilis is correct except:
A. B. fragilis is a gram negative obligate anaerobic rod
B. B. fragilis forms endospores, which allow it to survive in the soil
C. The capsule of B. fragilis is an important virulence factor
D. B. fragilis infections are characterised by foul-smelling pus
E. B. fragilis is less prevalent in the human intestine than E.coli

60. Haemolytic-uremic syndrome is most closely associated with

A. Vibrio cholerae O1
B. Haemophilus influenzae type B
C. E.coli O157:H7
D. Salmonella typhi
E. Campylobacter jejuni
v MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Detecting antibody response against the microbe has diagnostic utility in all of the
following, except:
A. Chlamydia pneumoniae
B. Chlamydia Psittaci
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

2. All of the following infections can be transmitted to humans by ticks except

A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Rickettsia rickettsia
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Rickettsia prowazekii

3. Which statement is not correct? Human Leptospira infections are acquired

A. From contaminated drink
B. From contaminated food
C. Via arthropode vector
D. By swimming in contaminated water

4. Which one of the following bacteria will most likely cause intrauterine infection?
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. Listeria monocytogenes

5. Each of the following statements concerning the fluorescent treponemal antibody

absorbed (FTA – ABS) test for syphilis is correct EXCEPT:
A. The test is specific for Treponema pallidum
B. The patient’s serum is absorbed with saprophytic treponemes before during the test
C. Once positive, the test remain so despite adequate therapy
D. The test is rarely positive in primary syphilis

6. An epidemic of meningitis affecting all age groups is most likely caused by

A. Streptpcoccus agalactiae
B. Coli K1
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Neisseria meningitidis serogroup A

7. Each of the following statements concerning clostridia is correct, EXCEPT:

A. Pathogenic clostridia are found in the soil and /or in the normal flora of the colon
B. Pseudomembranous colitis is due to toxin produced by Clostridium perfrigens
C. Anaerobic conditions at the wound site are required to cause tetanus
D. Botulism can be prevented by boiling food prior to eating
8. Which one of the following zoonotic illnesses has NO arthropod vector?
A. Plague
B. Lyme disease
C. Brucellosis
D. Epidemic typhus

*** Which one of the following zoonotic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by the
bite of an arthropod vectors?
A. Tularemia
B. Salmonella
C. Plague
D. Brucellosis

9. Which of the following infections is zoonosis?

A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Rickettsia prowazeki
C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

10. Each of the following statements concerning epidemic typhus is correct, EXCEPT
A. The disease is characterized by a rash
B. The Weil – Felix test can aid in diagnosis of the disease
C. The disease is caused by a rickettsia
D. The causative agent is transmitted from rodents to human by a tick

11. Isolation of the causative agent by culture has a role in the diagnosis of each the infections,
EXCEPT:
A. Erysipelas
B. Syphilis
C. Diphtheria
D. Typhoid fever

12. Each of the following statements concerning Treponema is correct, EXCEPT:

A. T pallidum produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase
B. T pallidum cannot be grown on conventional laboratory media
C. T pallidum is mainly transmitted by sexual intercourse
D. Patients infected with T pallidum produce antibodies that react with cardiolipin

13. Disseminating infection will involve most probably the central nervous system if the
infecting … is
A. Sporothrix schenkii
B. Aspergillus flavus
C. Candida albicans
D. Cryptococcus neoformans

14. What is the common habitat fungi causing systemic infections?

A. Animals
B. Humans
 C. Ticks
D. Soil

15. The arthropode vectors transmitting rickettsial diseases to human include

A. Ticks
B. Fleas
C. Lice
D. Mosquitos

16. Which of the following medium has the highest selectivity for fungi?
A. Loewenstein – Jensen medium
B. Loffler medium
C. MacConkey agar
D. Sabourand medium

17. What is the mechanism of action used by Amphotericin B to prevent the growth of fungi?
A. Inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol
B. Targets the cell wall
C. Disrupts fungal cell membrane
D. Targets the ribosome

18. Which of the following bacteria is not an important causative agent of urinary tract?
A. Coli
B. Proteus (Morganella) morganii
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Salmonella typhi

19. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in
immunocomplement patient?
A. Serratia marcescens
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Nocardia asteroids

20. Which of the following is not an obligate intracellular bacterium?

A. Chlamydia
B. Coxiella
C. Rickettsia
D. Mycoplasma

21. Which of the following is not characteristic for a CSF sample in a case of purulent
bacterial meningitis?
A. Large number of leukocytes
B. Predominance of lymphocytes
C. Lower than normal glucose level
D. Higher than normal protein level

22. Vaccination with capsular polysaccharides is not used against

 A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Vibrio cholera
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Haemophilus influenzae

23. Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Streptococcus pyrogenes
D. Ricktettsia typhi

24. Bacteria causing enteritis or enterocolitis include

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Proteus vulgaris

*** Bacteria causing enteritis or enterocolitis include:

A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Campylobacter jejuni

*** Bacteria causing enteritis or enterocolitis include:

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Helicobacter pylori

25. Detection of antibody response is used in the laboratory diagnosis of infections caused by:
A. Brucella abortus
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Neisseria meningitidis

*** Detection of antibody response is used in the laboratory diagnosis of

A. Brucella abortus
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Salmonella enteritidis

26. Stained smears of clinical samples may help the diagnosis of:
A. Gonorrhoea
B. Purulent meningitis
C. Gas gangrene
D. Tuberculosis
*** Stained smears of appropriate clinical samples may help the diagnosis of:
A. Gonorrhoea
B. Diphtheria
C. Gas gangrene
D. Streptococcal pharyngitis

27. Which of the following statements concerning Neisseria meningitidis is (are) correct?
A. It is an obligate anaerobic, gram – negative diplococcus
B. The polysaccharide capsule is an important virulence factor
C. It is the main causative agent of bacterial meningitis under the age of 4 weeks
D. It produces an enzyme capable digesting IgA molecules

*** Which of the following statements concerning Neisseria meningitidis is correct?

A. It is an obligate anaerobic, gram-negative diplococcus
B. It has a polysaccharide capsule that is antiphagocytic
C. It is the main causative agent of bacterial meningitidis under the age of 2 weeks
D. It produces an enzyme capable of digesting IgG molecules

*** Which of the following statements concerning Neisseria meningitidis is correct?

A. It is an oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococcus
B. It produces an enzyme capable of digesting IgG molecules
C. It has a polysaccharide capsule that is antiphagocytic
D. It produces an exotoxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase

28. Shigellae
A. Rarely cause generalized infections
B. Have only humans as reservoirs
C. Have a very low infective dose (ID50) in humans
D. Are able to invade the mucosal cells of the large intestine

*** Shigellae
A. Have animal reservoirs
B. Have a very low infective dose in humans
C. Cause ulceration of the duodenum and jejunum
D. Rarely cause generalised infection

29. Which of the following statements concerning enteroinvasive strains of E.Coli is (are)
correct?
A. They are producing toxins stimulating adenylate cyclase
B. They may cause haemolytic-uremic syndrome
C. They can cause diarrhea only in small babies
D. They cause disease mainly in the large intestine

30. Which of the following statements concerning Helicobacter pylori is (are) correct?
A. H. Pylori infection can be diagnosed by a “urea breath” test
B. It frequently causes pertussis and peptic ulcers
C. Chronic infection may predispose to gastric carcinoma
D. It is a gram – negative, curved rod
*** Which of the following statements concerning Helicobacter pylori is (are) correct?
A. H. Pylori infection can be diagnosed by a “urea breath” test
B. It frequently causes gastritis and peptic ulcers
C. Chronic infection may predispose to gastric carcinoma
D. It is a gram – positive, curved rod

31. Which of the following is (are) involved in the pathogenesis of cholera?

A. Ingestion of large amounts of V. cholerae
B. Binding of bacteria in the cells of the small intestine
C. Production of a potent enterotoxin
D. Invasion of the epithelial cells of duodenum and jejunum

32. Disease may be transmitted to humans who drink unpasteurised milk containing
A. Mycobacterium bovis
B. Brucella abortus
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Yersinia persis

*** Diseases may be transmitted to humans who drink unpasteurised milk containing
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Brucella abortus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Listeria monocytogenes

33. Humans are the main reservoirs for infections caused by

A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Campylobacter
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

*** Humans are the sole reservoirs for infections by:

A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Mycobacterium kansasii

34. Actinomyces species

A. Have Gram – positive cell wall
B. Are commonly found in the oral cavity
C. Have long branching filaments
D. Are facultative anaerobes

35. Which of the following statements concerning Q fever is (are) correct?

A. It is caused by Rickettsia typhi
B. Rash is a prominent feature of the disease
C. Humans are the main reservoirs of the agent
D. It is transmitted by respiratory aerosol
36. Which of the following bacteria can replicate intracellularly?
A. Samonella typhi
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Mycobacterium kansaii
D. Brucella melitensis

37. Which of the following statements concerning Mycoplasma pneumoniae is (are) correct?
A. The organism cannot be cultured in vitro
B. It can cause atypical pneumonia
C. The treatment of choice is 3rd generation cephalosporins
D. The disease is frequently associated with a rise in the … of cold agglutinins

38. Which of the following bacteria infect only human

A. Chlamydia pneumoniae
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Chlamydia psittaci

39. Tetanus prevention includes

A. Basic immunization with tetanus toxoid in childhood
B. Surgical excision of necrotic parts of wounds
C. Post – exposure booster vaccination with toxoid
D. Passive immunization with antitoxin in certain cases

40. Which of the following diseases can be treated effectively with Penicillin – G?
A. Streptococcal pharyngitis
B. Scalded skin syndrome
C. Primary syphilis
D. Plague

41. Which of the following methods are used in the diagnosis of meningitis caused by Neisser
meningitidis?
A. Direct demonstration of bacteria from CSF by Gram stain
B. Isolation of bacteria by culture
C. Demonstration of capsular antigen from CSF by latex agglutination
D. Demonstration of specific antibodies from the patient

42. Which of the following laboratory tests are useful in the diagnosis of skin infection cause
Candida albicans?
A. Detection of antibodies from serum sample
B. Isolation by culture
C. Skin hypersensitivity test
D. Direct demonstration in stained smears

43. Direct demonstration of the causative agent by microscopy is used in the diagnosis of
A. Clostridial myonecrosis
B. Cutaneous mycosis
 C. Gonorrhoea
D. Salmonella enterocolitis

44. Which of the following statements concerning mucormycosis is (are) correct?

A. The source of the causative agent is the environment
B. Hyphae typically grow in the blood vessels and cause necrosis of tissue
C. Diabetes is an important predisposing factor to the disease
D. The infection readily spreads from human to human

45. Which of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus neoformans is (are) correct?
A. Its natural habitat is the soil, especially associated with birth feces
B. The initial site of infection is usually the skin
C. Budding yeasts are found in the lesions
D. It is an important cause of pneumonia in healthy young adults

46. The environment is the principle source of infection caused by

A. Coccidioides immitis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Candida albicans

47. The most important protective function of the antibody stimulated by Diphtheria
immunisation is
A. To opsonize the pathogen
B. to prevent growth of the pathogen
C. To prevent the adherence of the pathogen
D. To neutralise the toxin of the pathogen

48. All of the following antibiotics can be effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa except:
A. Amoxicillin and Clavulanic acid
B. Amikacin
C. Gentamycin
D. Piperacillin

49. The treatment of choice for invasive (bloodstream) Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections is:
A. Oxacillin
B. Metronidazole
C. Doxycyclin
D. Piperacillin
E. Amoxicillin and Clavulanic acid

50. Which of these following diseases is caused least likely by exotoxin producing bacteria:
A. Whooping cough
B. Gas gangrene
C. Diphtheria
D. Pneumococcal meningitis
51. For which of the following bacterial vaccines are toxic side effects an important
concern?
A. The vaccine containing pneumococcal polysaccharide
B. The vaccine containing killed Bordetella pertussis cells
C. The vaccine containing tetanus toxoid
D. The vaccine containing diphtheria toxoid

52. A positive skin tuberculin test indicates:

A. No immunity to mycobacterium tuberculosis infections
B. Resistance to the development of tuberculosis
C. Previous exposure to Mycobacteria
D. Active pulmonary tuberculosis

53. The soil is the natural habitat for certain microorganisms of medical importance.
Which one of the following is least likely to reside there?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Clostridium novyi
F. Neisseria meningitidis
G. Streptococcus pneumoniae

54. Which one of the following antibiotics is least likely effective in the treatment of
infections caused by gram negative obligate anaerobic bacteria
A. Metronidazole
B. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
C. Gentamycin
D. Imipenem

55. Which one of the following antibiotics is MOST likely effective in the treatment of
infections caused by gram negative obligate anaerobic bacteria
A. Metronidazole
B. Penicillin G
C. Gentamycin
D. Vancomycin

56. Which one of the following bacteria can cross the placenta to cause fetal infections in a
pregnant woman?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Brucella abortus
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

57. In which of the following infections is Staphylococcus saprophyticus considered

obligate pathogen?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Pneumonia
 C. Enteritis
D. Urocystitis

58. What kind of allergic complications can following infections by Streptococcus

pyogenes?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Toxic shock syndrome

*** Which of the following manifestations are associated with Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Scarlet fever

59. Which of the following is associated with group B streptococci?

A. Βeta hemolysis
B. Neonatal sepsis and meningitis
C. Vaginal carriage in some healthy women
D. Erysipelas

60. Potential virulence factors of Haemophilus influenzae includes:

A. Endotoxin
B. IgA protease
C. Polysaccharide capsule
D. Exotoxin

61. Which of the following statements concerning Legionella pneumophilia

A. It is a causative agent of atypical pneumonia
B. It is inhibited by macrolide antibiotics
C. It is a Gram negative rod that stains weakly
D. Legionellosis can be diagnosed by the detectable by human to human

62. Isolating the causative bacteria is NOT expected from patients suffering from:
A. Shigellosis
B. Diphtheria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Glomerulonephritis

*** Isolating the causative bacteria is not expected from patients suffering from
A. Impetigo
B. Adulthood botulism
C. Salmonellosis
D. Rheumatic fever