26-03-2025

4504CMD303032240014 MD

PHYSICS

1) An object 1 cm tall is placed 4 cm in front of a mirror. In order to produce an upright image of

3cm height one needs :

(1) convex mirror ; R = 12 cm

(2) concave mirror ; R = 12 cm
(3) convex mirror ; R = 4 cm
(4) plane mirror of height 12 cm

2) The two slits at a distance of 1 mm are illuminated by the light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7m. The
interference fringes are observed on a screen placed at a distance of 1m. The distance between
third dark fringe and fifth bright fringe will be

(1) 0.65 mm
(2) 1.63 mm
(3) 3.25 mm
(4) 4.88 mm

3) If the intensity of one of the interfering waves is twice the intensity of the other wave, the value

of is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The first diffraction minimum due to a single slit diffraction is at θ = 30°, for a light of wavelength
5000 Å. The width of the slit is :-

(1) 1 × 10–4cm
(2) 2.0 × 10–4 cm
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 cm
(4) 5 × 10–4 cm

5) A vessel of depth t is half filled with oil of refractive index μ1 and the other half is filled with water
of refractive index μ2. The apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from above is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The maximum intensity in Young's double-slit experiment is I0. Distance between the slits is d = 5
λ, where A is the wavelength of monochromatic light used in the experiment. What will be the
intensity of light in front of one of the slits on a screen at a distance D = 10 d?

(1)

(2)

(3) I0

(4)

7) Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence
having surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is :-

(1) 48 × 103 J
(2) 10 × 103 J
(3) 12 × 103 J
(4) 24 × 103 J

8) find out power of the system :-

(1) + 5 D
(2) – 5 D
(3) + 10 D
(4) – 10 D

9) In a double slit experiment, the wavelength of monochromatic light used is λ and the distance
between the slits is d. The screen is at a distance D from the slits. If a bright fringe is formed
opposite to a slit on the screen then :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A simple magnifying lens is used in such a way that an image is formed at 25 cm away from the
eye. In order to have 11 times magnification, the focal length of the lens should be-

(1) 5 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 25 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

11) Two plane mirrors. A and B are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A light ray
is incident at an angle of 30° at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides
with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray undergoes reflections (including

the first one) before it emerges out is

(1) 28
(2) 31
(3) 32
(4) 34

12) A polaroid is place at 45° to an incoming unpolarised light of intensity I0. Now the intensity of
light passing through the polaroid after polarisation would be -

(1) I0
(2) I0/2
(3) I0/4
(4) zero

13) The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarized for reflection from air to glass
(refractive index is n).
(1) sin–1(n)
sin–1
(2)

(3)
tan–1
(4) tan–1(n)

14)

A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices and as
shown in the figure, the surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the
incident ray AB, we must have

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) The objective and the eyepiece of a microscope have focal lengths of 4 mm and 25 mm,
respectively. The objective produces a real image 30 times the size of the object. The final image is
viewed at infinity. The near point of the mircoscope user is at 25 cm. The overall magnification of the
microscope is :-

(1) 250
(2) 350
(3) 300
(4) 450

16) A lens is made of flint glass (refraction index - 1.5) (in air). When lens is immersed in liquid of
refraction index 1.25, the focal length :-

(1) increase by factor of 1.25

(2) increase by factor of 2.5
(3) increase by factor of 1.2
(4) decrease by factor of 1.2

17) In an EM wave propagating along negative X-direction magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of
3 × 1010 Hz along Y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–7 T. The expression for electric field will be
:-

10
(1) Ez = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
10
(2) Ez = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
10
(3) Ey = 30 sin 2π(100x – 3×10 t) V/m
(4) Ey = 300 sin 2π(100x – 3×1010 t) V/m

18) An object is placed at A(OA>f). Here f is the focal length of the lens. The image is formed at B. A
perpendicular is erected at O and C is chosen such that ∠BCA = 90°. Let OA =a, OB = b and OC = c.

Then the value of f is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) If 5% of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiated as visible light, how many quanta are emitted
per second by a 100W lamp (Assume wavelength of visible as 5.6 × 10–5 cm)

(1) 1.4 × 1019

(2) 3 × 103
(3) 1.4 × 1018
(4) 3 × 104

20)

A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred
to the surface is–

(1) E/c
(2) 2E/c
(3) Ec
(4) E/c2

21) Given that a photon of light of wavelength 10000Å has energy 1.23 eV. Now when light of
intensity I0 and wavelength 5000 Å falls on a photo cell the saturation current and stopping potential
are 0.40 µA and 1.36 V respectively. The work function is :-

(1) 0.43 eV
(2) 1.10 eV
(3) 1.36 eV
(4) 2.47 eV

22) The slab of a material of refractive index 2 shown in figure has curved surface APB of radius of
curvature 10 cm and a plane surface CD. On the left of APB is air and on the right of CD is water
with refractive indices as given in figure. An object O is placed at a distance of 15 cm from pole P as
shown. The distance of the final image of O from P, as viewed from the left is

(1) 20 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 50 cm

23) A right angled glass prism is shown in the figure. A liquid film is in contact with the hypotenuse
face. A ray of light incident normally on the face AB will undergo total internal reflection from the

hypotenuse face. if the refractive index of the liquid is

(1)

(2)

(3) 1.7
(4) 1.5

24) The de-Broglie wavelength of a thermal neutron at 927°C is λ. It's wavelength at 327°C will be:-

(1) λ/2
(2)
(3)
(4) 2λ

25) In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 ×
1010 Hz and amplitude 63 V/m.
Statement I: The wavelength of the wave is 1.5 m.
Statement II : The amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is 0.21 µT.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

26) In a photoelectric emission, electrons are ejected from metals X and Y by light of frequency f.
The potential difference V required to stop the electrons is measured for various frequencies. If Y
has a greater work function than X, which graph illustrates the expected results :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped in black paper as shown in the figure
(1) No image will be formed by the remaining portion of the lens
(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less bright
(3) The central portion of the image will be missing
(4) There will be two images each produced by one of the exposed portions of the lens

28) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The
seperation between the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cm. The final image is formed at infinity.
The focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye-piece are

(1) 45 cm and –9 cm
(2) 50 cm and 10 cm
(3) 7.2 cm and 5 cm
(4) 30 cm and 6 cm

29) An electron of mass m when accelerated through a potential difference V, has de-Broglie
wavelenght λ. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton of mass M, accelerated through
the same potential difference will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) According to De Broglie, wavelength of electron in third orbit is 10–9 metre. Then the
circumference of orbit is :

(1) 10–9 m
(2) 2 × 10–9 m
(3) 3 × 10–9 m
(4) 4 × 10–9 m

31) A short linear object of length lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a
distance u from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is approximately equal to :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclear parts which have their velocities ratio equal to 2 : 1.
What will be the ratio of their nuclear radii ?

(1) 21/3 : 1
(2) 1 : 21/3
(3) 23/2 : 1
(4) 1 : 23/2

33) Which of the following is incorrect about a plane electromagnetic wave?

(1) The electric field and magnetic field have equal average values
(2) The electric energy and the magnetic energy have equal average values
(3) The electric field and magnetic field both oscillate in same phase
(4) The electric field and magnetic field oscillate in opposite phase

34) The wavelength of light in vacuum is 6000 Å and in a medium it is 4000 Å. The refractive index
of the medium is:

(1) 2.4
(2) 1.5
(3) 1.2
(4) 0.67

35) Let us find the Q value of fusion reaction 4He + 4He → 8Be, if of He = X and of Be = Y

(1) Q = 8Y – 8X
(2) Q = 8X – 8Y
(3) Q = 4Y – 4X
(4) Q = 4X – 4Y

36) The figure shown a logic circuit two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave forms
across A, B and C are as given. The logic circuit gate is:

(1) AND gate

(2) NAND gate
(3) OR gate
(4) NOR gate

37) A bubble in glass slab [μ = 1.5] when viewed from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from other
side then thickness of slab is-

(1) 3.75 cm
(2) 23 cm
(3) 10.5 cm
(4) 1.5 cm

38) A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit

shown in figure. The current through the diode is:-

(1) 5 mA
(2) 10 mA
(3) 15 mA
(4) 20 mA

39) In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased, are :-

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d)

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)

40) If the focal length of objective lens is increased, then magnifying power of

(1) Compound microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease

(2) Compound microscope and telescope both will increase
(3) Compound microscope and telescope both will decrease
(4) Compound microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase

41) The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the size of the object.
The distance of the object from the mirror is

(1) 30 cm
(2) 90 cm
(3) 120 cm
(4) 60 cm

42) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list :

List I List II
(Position of the object) (Magnification)

An object is placed at distance = focal

I A Magnification is -∞
length before a convex mirror

An object is placed at center of curvature

II B Magnification is 0.5
before a concave mirror

An object is placed at focus before a

III C Magnification is 1
concave mirror

An object is placed at distance = radius

IV D Magnification is -1
of curvature before a convex mirror

E Magnification is 0.33
(1) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-E
(2) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
(3) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-E
(4) I-B, II-E, III-D, IV-C

43) If ε0 and µo represent the permittivity and permeability of vacuum and ε and µ represents the
permittivity and permeability of medium then refractive index of medium is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A luminous object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from convex mirror. A plane mirror is set, so
that virtual image is formed by both mirror will coincide. If plane mirror is at distance of 12 cm from

object find out the focal length of mirror?

(1) +5cm
(2) – 5 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 25 cm

45) Statement - I: Microscope increases the visual angle formed by an object at the eye.
Statement - II: Microscope brings the image of the object closer.

Statement - I is true, statement - II is true, and statement - II is the correct explanation for
(1)
statement - I.
Statement - I is true, statement-II is true, and statement - II is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, and statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false, and statement - II is true

CHEMISTRY

1) Which one of following given compound do not gives acetanilide on treatment with aniline.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Salicylic acid.
'A' in above reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Statement-I : CH3–O–C3H7 and H5C2–O–C2H5 are metamers of each other.

Statement-II : Metamerism arises due to different alkyl chains on either side of the polyvalent
functional group.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

4) The order of solubility of

in water is :

(1) I > II > III

(2) I < II < III
(3) II > III > I
(4) II > I > III

5) Enzyme are :-

(1) Proteins
(2) Minerals
(3) Oils
(4) Fatty acids

6)
Final product (B) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Ph3CH

(4)

7) A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aq. NaOH solution gives:-

(1) PhCH2OH and HCOONa

(2) PhCOONa and CH3OH
(3) PhCOONa and HCOONa
(4) PhCH2OH and CH3OH

8)

Least reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) Cyanohydrin of which of the following compounds forms a hydroxy acid, having chiral carbon, on
hydrolysis :-

(1) Formaldehyde
(2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Acetone
(4) 3-pentanone

10) Which of the following will give Tollen's and Cannizzaro reaction.

(1) CH3–CHO

(2)

(3) H–CHO
(4) Both (2) & (3)

11)
Product B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) CH3CH2Br CH3CH2CN end product of this reaction is :-

(1) CH3COOH
(2) CH3CH2COOH
(3) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(4) None

13) Asprin can be prepared by reacting salicylic acid with :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) Phenol z
product z is :-

(1) Benzaldehyde
(2) Benzoic acid
(3) Benzene
(4) Toluene

15) Which of the following amine does not give isocyanide test :-

(1)

(2) Amino benzene

(3) Ethyl amine
(4) N,N-Dimethyl aniline

16)

In which of the following compounds, N is not in conjugated with ring.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) How many number of 1º amines of the molecular formula C4H11N are possible?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 0

18) Which statement is incorrect in following –

(1) Sucrose is dextrorotatory

(2) After hydrolysis of sucrose, dextrorotatory glucose and laevorotatory fructose will obtained
(3) Laevorotation of fructose is more than dextrorotation of glucose
(4) Cane sugar gives equimolar mixture of D-(+)-glucose and D-(–)-fructose on hydrolysis

19) Which of the following disaccharide is a non-reducing suger :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

(1) NO2
(2) N2O
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O5

21) Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid ?

(1) CH4
(2) NH3
(3) H2O
(4) B2H6

22) Which of the following halogen form only one oxyacids (HOX)
(1) F
(2) Br
(3) I
(4) Cl

23) Correct increasing order of number of bonds in the following is:-

I. H2S2O7 II. H2SO3 III. H2SO4

(1) I < II < III

(2) II < III < I
(3) II < I < III
(4) I < III < II

24) The correct order of Lewis acid character for halides of Boron is

(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3

(2) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3 > BF3
(4) All have equal strength

25) The number of bonds in cyclic trimer of SO3 :-

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

26) Among the following oxoacid, the correct decreasing order of acid strength is ?

(1) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

(2) HClO > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO4
(3) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(4) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO > HClO3

27) Which metal does not show more than one oxidation state ?

(1) Co
(2) Zn
(3) Ti
(4) Mn

28) What is the oxidation number of Ti, whose magnetic moment is 1.73 BM ?

(1) +3
(2) +2
(3) +1
(4) +4

29) Which of the following element is transition metal?

(1) Pt
(2) Zn
(3) Hg
(4) Cd

30) In which of the following oxo-anion, all M–O bond length are not identical ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) Which of the following ion will be colourless.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) The conditions and consequence that favours the configuration in a metal complex are :

(1) Weak field ligand, high spin complex

(2) Strong field ligand, high spin complex
(3) Strong field ligand, low spin complex
(4) Weak field ligand, low spin complex

33) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Complex) (Hybridisation of central metal ion)
3–
(A) [CoF6] (I) d2sp3
2–
(B) [NiCl4] (II) sp3
3+
(C) [Co(NH3)6] (III) sp3d2
2–
(D) [Ni(CN)4] (IV) dsp2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
34) The correct order of the following complexes in terms of their crystal field stabilization energies
is:

2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
(1) [Co(NH3)4] < [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(en)3] < [Co(NH3)6]
2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
(2) [Co(NH3)4] < [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(en)3]
2+ 3+ 2+ 3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(NH3)4] < [Co(en)3]
3+ 3+ 2+ 2+
(4) [Co(en)3] < [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(NH3)4]

35) The correct statements about ethane-1,2-diamine as a ligand are:

(a)
It is a neutral ligand

(b) It is a bidentate ligand

(c) It is a chelating ligand

(d) It is a unidentate ligand

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d

36) Correct IUPAC name for H2[PtCl6] is:

(1) Hydrogen hexachloroplatinate(IV)

(2) Dihydrogen hexachloroplatinate(IV)
(3) Hydrogen hexachloroplatinic(IV) acid
(4) Hexachloridoplatinic(IV) acid

37) Total number of optical isomers [Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl)(py)] can show:

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

38) The complex that is used as an anticancer agent is:

(1) mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3
(2) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
(3) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2]
(4) Na2CoCl4

39) The octahedral complex will not show geometrical isomerism is :

(A and B are monodentate ligands)

(1) [MA4B2]
(2) [MA5B]
(3) [MA2B4]
(4) [MA3B3]

40) Which of the following cation does not form an amine complex with excess of ammonia?

(1) Ag+
(2) Cu2+
(3) Cd2+
(4) Na+

41) A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of which atomic orbitals?

(1) s, px, py, dyz

(2)
(3)
(4) s, py, pz, dxy

42) Which compound is soluble in NH4OH

(1) PbCl2
(2) PbSO4
(3) AgCl
(4) CaCO3

43) Assertion (A) :- Aqueous solution of Mohr’s salt gives the test of , Fe2+ and ions.
Reason (R) :- Mohr salt is a complex salt.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

44) What is the formula of Nesslar’s reagent ?

(1) NH2–Hg–OHg–I
(2) NH2–Hg–I
(3) K2HgI4
(4) NH2–O–Hg–HgI

45) What is the colour of ZnS precipitate

(1) Black
(2) White
(3) Green
(4) Reddish-brown

BIOLOGY

1) Select the incorrect match.

(1) Sickle cell - anemia - Autosomal recessive

Individuals lack enzyme which converts

(2) Phenylketonuria -
phenylalanine to tyrosine

(3) Haemophilia - Dominant disorder

Due to mutation in certain genes on x -

(4) Colourblindness -
chromosome.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II

a. Birds (i) Males AA + XO

b. Grasshopper (ii) Males AA + XY

c. Humans (iii) Females AA + XX

d. Drosophila (iv) Females AA + ZW

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

3) Which of the following is/are mendelian disorder?

(1) Thalassemia
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) All of these

4) A normal woman, whose father had colour blindness, married a normal man. What is the chance
of occurrence of colour blindness in the progeny?
(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 75%

5) Percentage of recombination between A and B is 9% and C and A is 17%, B and C is 26%, then the
arrangement of genes is:

(1) ABC
(2) ACB
(3) BCA
(4) BAC

6) If yellow body white eyed Drosophila is crossed with wild brown body red eyes drosophila. Then
what would be frequency of recombinants in F1 generation ?

(1) 100%
(2) 1.3%
(3) 98.7%
(4) 0%

7) Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis.
Select the correct statement.

(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis

(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
(3) Sickle cell anaemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

8) Given pedigree represents inheritance of myotonic dystrophy which is an autosomal dominant

disorder. What will be genotype of parents ?

(1) Mother - aa Father - AA

(2) Mother - AA Father - aa
(3) Mother - Aa Father - aa
(4) Mother - aa Father - aa

9) Given figure depicts.

(1) Syndrome due to aneuploidy of autosome
(2) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(3) Individual have 47 chromosomes
(4) All of these

10) In histone protein which amino acids are present more abundantly:-

(1) Lysine and alanine

(2) Arginine and valine
(3) Glycine and arginine
(4) Lysine and arginine

11)

In an organism DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :-

(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%

(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

12) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) E.Coli
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

13) Assertion : DNA replication is semiconservative method.

Reason : Each newly synthesised DNA molecule would have one parental and one newly
synthesised strand

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) An E.coli cell with heavy DNA is incubated in culture medium containing light isotope of
nitrogen. After 40 minutes find out percentage of light DNA?

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 0%

15) Choose the odd one w.r.t. given figure.

(1) Figure shows that DNA replication occur within replication fork
Helicase enzyme breaks hydrogen bond between two strands and results in formation of Y-
(2)
shaped structure
(3) ‘B’ is lagging strand and synthesised in 3' → 5' direction
(4) The parent DNA template with polarity 3' → 5' has continuous replication

16) Find the sequence of binding of the following aminoacyl tRNA complexes during translation to a
mRNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence 3' TACATGGGTCCG 5'. Choose the

answer showing the correct order of alphabets.

(1) 1,2,3,4
(2) 2,1,3,4
(3) 1,2,4,3
(4) 2,1,4,3

17)

Match the column :-

A B

Peptide bond
(A) rRNA (i)
formation
 Codon
(B) tRNA (ii)
identification

(C) SnRNA (iii) Splicing

Genetic
(D) mRNA (iv)
information

Option :
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

18) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

One codon codes for only

(A) Triplet (i)
one amino acid

One amino acid is coded by

(B) Non-ambiguity (ii)
more than one codon

A codon is made up of
(C) Universality (iii)
three N2 bases.

From bacteria to human

(D) Degeneracy (iv) beings UUU codes for
phenyl alanine
(1) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (i)
(2) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (ii)
(3) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(4) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii)

19) Statement-I : In eukaryotes regulation can be exerted at only translational level.

Statement-II : UTRs are required for efficient translation process.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

20) Read the following statements with respect to HGP and choose the correct set of statements :
(a) Human Genome Project (HGP) was called a mega project.
(b) In HGP the commonly used hosts were Algae and Viruses.
(c) Chromosome 1 has fewest genes and the Y has the most genes.
(d) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

21) Statement-I :- DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in
DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA.
Statement-II :- Satellite DNA are sequences which codes for some proteins and form a large
portion of human genome.

(1) Statement I and II are correct

(2) Statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct

22) Sacred groves, Khasi and Jaintia hills located in

(1) Meghalaya
(2) Manipur
(3) Mizoram
(4) Madhya Pradesh

23) The given table contains type of microbe (Column I), Scientific name (Column II) and commercial
product (Column III). Some names are replaced by A, B, C and D. Identify the correct names.

(1) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum, C – Yeast (fungus), D – Penicillin

(2) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum, C – Yeast (algae), D – Penicillin
(3) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum, C – Yeast (prokaryote), D – Penicillin
(4) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum, C – Agaricus (fungus), D – Penicillin

24) The diagram below shows a typical biogas plant. With few structure labelled as A, B and C.

Identify A, B and C.

(1) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Oxygen, C – Dung, water

(2) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide, C– Dung, water
(3) A – Sludge, B – Ethylin, Carbon dioxide, C – Dung, water
(4) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide, C – Sewage

25) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II

A Statins I Yeast

Blood-cholesterol
B Ethanol II
lowering agent

C Dung III Insect-resistant plant

D Bt-cotton IV Biogas
(1) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
(2) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
(3) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(4) A-IV; B- II; C-I; D-III

26) Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for

(1) Species-specific narrow spectrum pesticidal applications.

(2) Species-specific broad spectrum pesticidal applications
(3) Species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal applications
(4) Species-specific broad spectrum insecticidal applications

27) Which one of the following is not used in organic farming?

(1) Glomus
(2) Earthworm
(3) Oscillatoria
(4) Snail

28) The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats were
introduced on the island. This is apparently due to

(1) Lower intrinsic rate of goat.

(2) The greater browsing efficiency of the goats.
(3) Limiting resource.
(4) Inferiority of the goat

29) The reason for prickly pear cactus to spread is Australia is brought by :

(1) Availability of water & sunlight

(2) Anthropogenic activity
(3) Availability of predator in Australia
(4) Absence of cactus feeding animals

30) When resources in the habitat are unlimited. In such conditions population growth can be seen
by which equation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Nt = No e.rt

31) Which of the following is not an example of coevolution.

(1) Orchid and Bee

(2) Opuntia and Cactoblastis
(3) Yucca and Pronuba
(4) Wasp and Fig

32) Identify A, B, C and D in this figure.

A: Immigration (I), B: Emigration (E),

(1)
C: Natality (B), D: Mortality (D)
A: Natality (B), B: immigration (I),
(2)
C: Mortality (D), D: Emigration (E)
A: Mortality (D), B: Emigration (E),
(3)
C: Natality (B), D: Immigration (I)
A: Mortality (D), B: Natality (B),
(4)
C: Emigration (E), D: Immigration (I)

33) Which statement stands true for an "Urn" shaped pyramid?

(1) A low percentage of pre-reproductive individuals

(2) Positive growth in population
(3) High birth rate
(4) Growth rate becomes zero

34) If in a pond there were 50 fishes last year and through reproduction 20 new fishes are added,
taking the current population to 70, calculate the birth rate (in terms of offsprings per fishes per
year).

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.5

35) When the population density reaches the carrying capacity, the logistic growth curve is said to
be in:

(1) Lag phase

(2) A phase of acceleration
(3) A phase of deceleration
(4) Asymptote

36) The correct order of the process of decomposition is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Which one of the following regarding ecological pyramid is not correct ?

(1) In most ecosystems, the pyramids of number are upright.

(2) In tree-dominanted ecosystem the pyramid of number is inverted.
(3) The pyramid of energy expresses mainly productivity.
(4) In aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is upright.

38)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Assertion: Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration.
Reason: Secondary productivity is produced by heterotrophs.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

40) Which one of the following statement is correct about decomposition ?

Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin, and quicker if detritus is rich
(1)
in nitrogen and water - soluble substances like sugars.
Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water - soluble substances like
(2)
sugars, and quicker if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in cellulose, and quicker if detritus is rich in
(3)
phosphorus and water insoluble substance.
(4) Decomposition rate is quicker if detritus is rich in lignin, and lower if detritus is rich in sulphur.
41)

(1) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III

(2) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(3) A – I, B – III, C – II , D – IV
(4) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV

42) In 'rivet popper hypothesis' (Paul Ehrlich) rivet indicates :

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Biosphere
(3) Organism
(4) Species

43) The species - area relationship studied by Alexander von Humboldt is a straight line on a
logarithmic scale and is represented by equation Log S = Log C + Z Log A in this equation 'S' stands
for :-

(1) Species richness

(2) Area
(3) Slope of the line
(4) Regression coefficient

44)

Match the threats to biodiversity with their descriptions :-

Threat Description

(A) Habitat loss (1) Extinction due to mutual dependence

(B) Over-exploitation (2) Excessive harvesting of species

(C) Alien invasions (3) Introduction of exotic species disrupting natives

(D) Co-extinction (4) Fragmentation of natural habitats

(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(4) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

45) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

Column-I Column-II

A. Broadly utilisation (i) Lantana

B. Reserpine (ii) Amazon rainforests

C. Narrow utilitarian (iii) Fibre and firewood

Invasive weed
D. (iv) Rauwolfia
species
(1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

46) Statement I: Typhoid and pneumonia are bacterial infection.

Statement II: Common cold is caused by viral infection.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement–I is correct and II is incorrect
(3) Statement–I is incorrect and II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

47) Identify A, B and C.

(1) A → Cannabinoids, B → Cocaine, C → Morphine

(2) A → LSD, B → Cocaine, C → Heroine
(3) A → Cocaine, B → LSD, C → Morphine
(4) A → Cocaine, B → Cannabinoids, C → LSD

48)

Normal Cancerous
Properties
Cells Cells

Tumor formation A B

Contact inhibition C D

Metastasis E F
(1) A-Yes, B-No, C-No, D-Yes, E-No, F-Yes
(2) A-No, B-Yes, C-Yes, D-No, E-No, F-Yes
(3) A-No, B-Yes, C-No, D-Yes, E-No, F-Yes
(4) A-Yes, B-No, C-Yes, D-No, E-Yes, F-No

49) How many of the below are correct about given diagram :-

(a) Mediator of AMI

(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help B-cell produce them
(c) H2L2 molecule
(d) Glycoprotein molecule

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

50) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Infection
1 Bacteria a Plasmodium i
of lungs

Wuchereria Fever
2 Virus b ii
bancrofti with chill

Haemophilus Inflammation
3 Protozoa c iii
influenzae of lower limbs

Infection of
4 Helminth d Rhino virus iv upper respiratory
tract
(1) 2-c-i, 1-d-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii
(2) 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii, 2-c-iv, 1-d-i
(3) 4-b-iii, 3-a-ii, 1-c-i, 2-d-iv
(4) 4-b-iii, 3-a-i, 1-c-ii, 2-d-iv

51) The yellowish fluid....(i)....secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has
abundant....(ii)....antibodies to protect the infant.
Correct words to fill (i) and (ii) are:

(1) (i)–Cholesterol (ii)– IgA

 (2) (i)–Colostrum (ii)– IgG

(3) (i)–Cholestrol (ii)– IgA

(4) (i)–Colostrum (ii)– IgA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Characterstic of acquired immunity is ?

(1) Differentiation between self and nonself.

(2) Specificity
(3) Retains memory
(4) All of the above

53) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including lymphocytes,
are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

54)

The following two organs are examples of secondary lymphoid organs

(1) Spleen and thymus

(2) Lymph nodes and thymus
(3) Spleen and MALT
(4) Bone marrow and thymus

55) Assertion : Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA) is technique that serve the purpose of
early diagnosis.
Reason : ELISA is based on principle of antigen-antibody interaction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

56) Which of the following is/are the use of genetically modified plant ?
 a To enhance nutritional quantity of food

b Make crops more resistant to abiotic stress

c To reduce post harvest losses

(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C

57) Assertion : C peptide is not present in the mature insulin.

Reason : Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and
pigs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

58) Which of the following statement is correct for cure of ADA deficiency?

(1) ADA enzyme replacement therapy is short-term cure.

Lymphocytes are mortal cells, so genetically engineered lymphocyte cell can bring permanent
(2)
cure.
(3) Patient doesn't required periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocyte cell.
(4) ADA gene can be transferred in last stage of embryo for permanent cure.

59) Assertion : Milk of transgenic cow, Rosie is nutritionally a more balanced product for human
babies than natural cow milk.
Reason : Milk of transgenic cow of Rosie has human milk protein - ∝ - lactalbumin.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

60) Transgenic animals produces biological product such as -1-antitrypsin, which is used to treat :-

(1) Emphysema
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Cancer

61) Cotton bollworm controlled by –

(1) Cry I Ac, Cry II Ab

(2) Cry I Ac, Cry II Ac, Cry I Ab
(3) Cry II Ac, Cry I Ab
(4) Cry I Ab

62)
(a) and (b) are :-

(a) Roots of a typical control plants.

(1) (b) Transgenic plants root 5 days after deliberate infection of nematode but protected through
novel mechanism.
(a) Transgenic plants root 5 days after deliberate infection of nematode but protected through
(2) novel mechanism.
(b) Roots of a typical control plants.
(a) Host plant-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infestation.
(3)
(b) Roots of a typical control plants.
(a) Roots of a typical control plants.
(4)
(b) Host plant-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infestation.

63) Which of the following is not true about pBR 322 vector ?

(1) It has more than one types of restriction sites.

(2) It has two drug resistance genes, tetR and ampR
(3) It was developed by Bolivar and Rodriguez
Selectable markers present in it can differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the
(4)
basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of chromogenic substrate

64) Consider the following statement and select the correct option :-
(A) Any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, is called a recombinant protein.
(B) Stirned tank reactor facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.
(C) The down stream processing involved separation, purification and formulated with suitable
preservative.

(1) A and C are correct while B is wrong

(2) A, B and C are correct
(3) C and B are correct while A is wrong
(4) Only A is correct while B and C are wrong

65)

The first capital letter in the name of restriction enzymes indicates

(1) Order in which enzymes were discovered

(2) Order in which enzymes function inside the body
(3) Genus of the prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated
(4) Order in which enzymes were synthesised inside the prokaryotic cell.

66)

Match column-I with column-II, and choose the correct combination from the option given below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Hind II (i) Recognition sequence

(b) pBR 322 (ii) Restriction enzyme

(c) GAATTC (iii) Antibiotic resistance gene

(d) ampR (iv) Cloning vector

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

67) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

(1) It is a soil bacterium

(2) It produces crown gall (tumour) in dicot plants.
(3) Only T-DNA of Ti plasmid gets incorporated into plant genome.
(4) Entire Ti plasmid gets incorporated into plant genome.

68) Bacterial colonies that have a foreign DNA fragment inserted into the plasmid will appear white
because-

(1) tetR gene can be cleaved by β-galactosidase

(2) Lac-Z gene shows insertional inactivation due to insertion of foreign DNA
(3) Lac-Z gene is active
(4) Both tetR and ampR genes have been inactivated.

69) In order to insert alien DNA at the site of tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322 the restriction
endonuclease used can be

(1) Pvu I
(2) Cla I
(3) Sal I
(4) Pst I

70) Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction endonuclease.
Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) The first discovered restriction endonuclease was Hind-II

 Today we know less than 200 restriction endonuclease enzymes that have been isolated from 23
(2)
strains of bacteria.
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA

71) First recombinant DNA was made by linking __A__ with a __B__ of __C__. Choose the option
which correctly fill the blanks A, B and C.

A B C

Antibiotic
Salmonella
(1) resistant Plasmid
typhimurium
gene

Antibiotic
Escherichia
(2) resistant Plasmid
coli
gene

Antibiotic
Chromosomal Salmonella
(3) sensitive
DNA typhimurium
gene

Antibiotic
Chromosomal Escherichia
(4) sensitive
DNA coli
gene
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
This step is known as

(1) Precipitation
(2) Elution
(3) Spooling
(4) Fragmentation

73) There are two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in E.coli. Which
of the following enzyme prevents the digestion of DNA of E.coli by its own enzyme?

(1) DNase
(2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Methylase
(4) RNase

74) During the process of gel electrophoresis DNA move toward the .....A.... because they are ....B....
charged. Hore A and B are.

(1) Cathode and Positive respectively

(2) Cathode and Negative respectively
(3) Anode and Positive respectively
(4) Anode and Negative respectively

75) Read the following statements and select the incorrect statement(s).
a. Cellulase is used to degrade the cell wall of plant.
b. Chitinase is used to degrade the cell wall of fungus.
c. Lysozyme is used to degrade the cell wall of animal.
d. Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol.

(1) Only a and b

(2) Only c
(3) Only c and d
(4) Only b, c and d

76) Mark the restriction endonuclease enzyme amongst the following which is active at the
given palindromic sequence of

(1) Eco Rl
(2) Bam Hl
(3) Hind II
(4) Sma I

77) Assertion : Micro injection is direct method of gene transfer.

Reason : Bacteriophage are used as gene cloning vectors.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

78) PCR technique using Taq enables directly the (a) of billions of copies of an original piece or
(b) in a tube with minutes. Select the option which fills the blanks (a and b) correctly?

(1) a-Synthesis, b-RNA

(2) a-Amplification, b-DNA
(3) a-Synthesis, b-Protein
(4) a-Amplification, b-Protein

79) Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are:

(1) Small and directionless

(2) Random and directional
(3) Random and directionless
(4) Small and directional

80) Assertion: Wolf and tasmanian wolf shows convergent evolution.

Reason: They have different origin but developed similar adaptive features.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

81) Which of the following is not related to Harold Urey and Stanley Miller experiment (1953) ?

(1) Provide evidence in favour of chemical evolution

(2) They took CH4, H2, NH3 and CO2
(3) Water vapours are at 800°C
(4) Simple amino acids like glycine, alanine and aspartic acid were formed.

82) Select the correctly matched option from the column I and column II :

Column I Column II

Lived in East-African
(a) Ramapithecus (i)
grasslands

(b) Australopithecus (ii) Probably ate meat

(c) Homo habilis (iii) Existed about 15 mya

(d) Homo erectus (iv) First human like being

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

83) Who among the following worked in Malay Archipeiago and came to similar conclusions as
Darwin?

(1) Alfred Wallace

(2) Thomas Malthus
(3) Karl Ernst Von Baer
(4) Hugo de Vries

84)

Select the correct statement for given figure of natural selection :-

(1) Type (a) natural selection operates in changing environment
(2) Type (b) natural selection favour mean character value
(3) Type (c) selects both extreme variants
(4) Type (b) operates in constant enviornment

85) How many of the following factor are known to affect the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?
gene migration, genetic drift, mutation, natural selection gene flow, gene recombination

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

86) The biggest dinosaur had about 20 feet height and huge, fearsome, dagger - like teeth. The name
of it is

(1) Ichthyosaurus
(2) Triceratops
(3) Tyrannosaurus
(4) Stegasaurus

87) Primitive atmosphere was reducing because :

(1) Hydrogen atoms were few

(2) Hydrogen atoms were active and there was no free molecular oxygen.
(3) Nitrogen atoms were more
(4) Oxygen atoms were more

88) According to theory of spontaneous generation?

(1) Life came from pre-existing life
(2) Life came from both living and non-living matter
(3) Life came from pre-existing, non-living, organic molecules
(4) Life originated from decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.

89) Many fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
responsible for :-

(1) Filariasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Ringworms
(4) Amoebiasis

90)

(1) A–IgA, B–Heparin, C–Steroids

(2) A–IgA, B–Steroids, C–Histamine
(3) A–IgE, B–Histamine, C–Steroid
(4) A–IgG, B–Steroids, C–Histamine
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 1 4 1 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 2 1 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 2 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 3 1 2 1 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 4 4 1 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 3 1 1 2 2 3 4 4 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 4 1 4 4 2 3 4 4 2 2 1 1 3 2 1 2 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 2 4 3 2 1 1 1 4 4 4 3 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 1 1 1 1 3 2 4 3 4 4 4 3 2 4 2 1 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 1 3 4 3 2 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

asinθ =

a sin 30 =
a ≈ 10–6 m

3)

4) sin θ

7) ⇒ =
= 24 × 103 J

10)

14)

Conceptual.

17) f = 3 × 1010 H2 B0 = 10–7T

E0 = CB0 = 3 × 108 × 10–7 = 30 V/m

Ez = E0sin (Kx – wt)

 =

19) Energy radiated as visible light

= × 100 = 5 J/s
Let n be the number of photons emitted per second,
Then nhv = E = 5.

∴
= 1.4 × 1019

21)
E2 = 2E1 = 2 × 1.23eV = 2.46 eV

(K.E)max = eV0 = 1.36eV

– (KE)max
= 2.46 – 1.36 = 1.10eV

24)

Use : KE ∝ temperature ∝ (momentum)2

26)

Work function of 'Y' is greater than 'X' and slope of V versus f is h/e.

0
28) m = –5 = f = 5fe
L = f0 + fe = 36
6fe = 36 ⇒ fe = 6 cm, f0 = 5fe = 30cm

29)

32)
 33)

The electric field and magnetic field oscillate in opposite phase

36)

A=0 1 1 0 0 1 0
B=0 0 1 1 0 0 1
A=0 1 1 1 0 1 1
∵C=A+B
∴ It is OR gate

39) In forward Biasing VP > Vn

40)

CHEMISTRY
46)
Hence CH3–CH=O do not give acetanilide with aniline

48)

Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

50)

Enzymes are proteins in nature.

68)
(I) (II) (III)

74) Group 12 elements (Zn, Cd, Hg) are d-block elements but not transition element due to
their full filled (n – 1) d10ns2 electronic configuration.

77) For 3d4

If ligand is SFL : (Low spin)

If ligand is WFL : (High spin)

78)
 79) Order of CFSE

SFL : NH3 < en

86) A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of s, px, py and atomic orbitals.

87) AgCl is soluble in NH4OH

88) Mohr salt is a double salt (addition compound) which when dissolved in H2O dissociates
into simple ions but this is not the case with complex compound.

90) ZnS is white in colour.

BIOLOGY
91) Ncert Pg No: 89

92) Ncert Pg No: 85, 86

95) [PMT 2004]

99)

XIIth New NCERT, Pg 76

102)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

103) NCERT Pg. # 104

104)

NCERT_Pg. No. 90

107)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 114, 115, 111

108) NCERT XII Pg. 112

110) NCERT, Pg # 119,120,121

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 104,105

134)

NCERT-XII, Page # 222,223

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 142,143

138)

NCERT XII, Page # 141,142

139)

NCERT-XII Pg#135

140)

NCERT Pg. No. 147-149

143)

NCERT-XII, Page # 149

144)

NCERT Pg.No. 154

145) NCERT, Pg.#1 83

147) NCERT XII Pg#211 (E)

NCERT XII Pg#231 (H)

148) NCERT-XII-Page No. # 211 (E), 231, 232 (H)

149) NCERT Pg. # 213

151) NCERT Page # 164

152) NCERT Pg. # 210

153)

NCERT Pg. No. 169

155)

The first capital letter in the name of restriction enzyme indicate genus of the prokaryotic cell
from which they were isolated.

156)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 199,195,196

158)
NCERT XII pg.no - 200

160)

NCERT XII Pg # 195

161)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 194

162) NCERT-XII, Pg # 198

163)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 195

165)

NCERT XII Pg # 171

167)

NCERT-XII Pg # 198 & 201

172) NCERT(XII) Pg#140/151(H) Para:7.9

175) NCERT XII, Page # 121

176)

NCERT-XII Pg#124

178) NCERT XIIth Pg.#127

179)

NCERT-XII, Page # 149 (E), 161(H)

180) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 153, Para. # 8.2.5