18-05-2025

1001CJS404162250005 PE

Physics

Section-1

1) Two particles A and B are projected from the same point in different directions in such a manner

that their velocity vectors are shown in the diagram :-

(1) TA = TB
(2) TA > TB
(3) TA < TB
(4) Can't be determined

2) The force will cause the particle to

(1) Speed up and curve upward

(2) Speed up and curve downward
(3) Slow down and curve upward
(4) Slow down and curve downward

3) A particle is projected from a horizontal plane (x-z plane) such that its velocity vector at time t is
given by . Its range on the horizontal plane is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

4) Two particle are projected from position 'A' and 'B' separated by a distance of 80 m on horizontal
ground. If both the particle collides in mid air. Select the correct statement [Both particles are
projected simultaneously]

(1) They will collide if angle of projection for 'A' is 37°

(2) Particle will collide between the two points 'A' and 'B'
(3) Particle will collide after 1 sec of projection
(4) They will collide if angle of projection for 'A' is 53°

5) Width of a river is 60m. A swimmer wants to cross the river such that he reaches from A to B
directly. Point B is 45m ahead of line AC (perpendicular to river). Assume speed of river and speed
of swimmer are equal. Swimmer must try to swim at angle θ with line AC. Value of θ is

(1) 37°
(2) 53°
(3) 30°
(4) 16°

6) The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing
due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the shortest path,
the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is, given by

(1) 45° west

(2) 30° west
(3) 0°
(4) 60° west

7) Two men A and B are running with velocities 5 m/s due east and 5 m/s due west respectively. The
rain is falling vertically downward with the velocity m/s. In order to be safe from rain how
should they hold their umbrellas?

(1) Both should hold the umbrella 30° above the east.
(2) Both should hold the umbrella 60° above the east.
(3) Man A should hold the umbrella 30° above the east and B 30° above the west.
(4) Man A should hold the umbrella 60° above the east and B 60° above the west.

8) In the given arrangement, n number of equal masses are connected by strings of negligible
masses. The tension in the string connected to the nth mass is -
(1)

(2)

(3) mg
(4) mng

9) A small ball of weight 10 N is suspended by two strings A and B as shown in the figure. Values of

tensions in the strings A and B are :-

(1) 80 N and 60 N respectively.

(2) 60 N and 80 N respectively.
(3) 6 N and 8 N respectively.
(4) 8 N and 6 N respectively.

10) Two smooth spheres each of radius 5 cm and weight W rest one on the other inside a fixed
smooth cylinder of radius 8 cm. The reactions between sphere and vertical side of the cylinder &

between the two spheres are :-

(1) W/4 & 3 W/4

(2) W/4 & W/4
(3) 3W/4 & 5 W/4
(4) W & W

11) In the shown figure all surfaces are smooth & system is in equilibrium. The compression in
spring will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) One end of a rope is fixed to a vertical wall and the other end is pulled by a horizontal force of
20N. The shape of the flexible rope is shown in figure. The mass of the rope is -

(1) 2 kg
(2) 3 kg
(3) 3.5 kg
(4) 4.5 kg

13) A projectile is given an initial velocity of . The equation of its path is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) y = 2x – 5x2
(2) y = x – 5x2
(3) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(4) y = 2x – 25x2

14) A bullet is fired at an angle θ with horizontal aiming towards a monkey. The bullet will hit the
monkey only if :-

(1) Monkey fall down at the same instant the gun is fired.
(2) Monkey fall down after the gun is fired.
(3) Monkey fall down before the gun is fired.
(4) Monkey remains stationary.

15) A projectile passes two points A and B at same height after 2 s and 6 s of its projection.
Horizontal separation between the points A and B is 120 m. The horizontal range is closest to [g =

10 m/s2]

(1) 180 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 240 m
(4) 260 m

16) Which of the following get affected by horizontal air flow in an oblique projection?

(1) horizontal range

(2) velocity at highest point
(3) time of flight
(4) Both (1) and (2)

Section-2

1) A ball was thrown from a point A with an initial velocity of 30 m/sec at an angle of 45° with the
horizontal on a planet Newtonia where value of acceleration due to gravity was 1/5th of the value on
earth. A wind was blowing in horizontal direction (in the plane of motion of ball) which cause a
constant acceleration of 2 m/s2. The range of projectile (in m) is given by

(1) 450
(2) zero
(3) 900
(4) 300

2) Two projectiles are projected with velocity vA, vB at angles θA (from horizontal) and θB (from
vertical) as shown in the figure below, such that vA > vB but having same horizontal component of

velocity. Which of the following is correct?

(1) TA > TB
(2) HA > HB
(3) RA > RB
(4) RB > RA

3) The accelerations of a particle as seen from two frames S1 and S2 have equal magnitude 4 m/s2.

(1) The frames must be at rest with respect to each other.

The frames may be moving with respect to each other but neither should be accelerated with
(2)
respect to the other.
2
(3) The acceleration of S2 with respect to S1 may either be zero or 8 m/s .
2
(4) The acceleration of S2 with respect to S1 may be anything between zero and 8 m/s .

4) Select the correct alternative(s).

A cart moving on a horizontal plane with a constant acceleration g has a mass m attached from
(1)
its top with a string. Then the constant angle formed by the string with the vertical is 45°.
In the above case instead of string if there is spring, then also the constant angle remains the
(2)
same.
When the same cart moves over a smooth incline of angle 45° with constant speed then the
(3)
constant angle formed by the string with the line perpendicular to the roof of the cart is 45°.
When the same cart is coming down a smooth incline, constant angle formed by the string with
(4)
the line perpendicular to the roof is 0°.

Chemistry

Section-1
1)

Moles of K2Cr2O7 used to oxidise 1 mol Fe0.92O to Fe+3 are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) What will be the equivalent weight of H3PO4 in the reaction :

Ca(OH)2 + H3PO4 → CaHPO4 + 2H2O

(1) 98
(2) 49
(3) 138
(4) 32.67

3) A2Ox is oxidised to AO3– by MnO4– in acidic medium. If 1.5 × 10-3 mole of A2Ox requires 40 ml of
0.03 M-KMnO4 solution in acidic medium. Which of the following statement(s) is correct?

(1) The value of "x" = 1

(2) The value of "x" = 3
(3) Empirical formula of oxide is AO3.
(4) Empirical formula of oxide is A2O.

4) Given :
2MnO4–(aq.) + 5H2O2 + 6H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5O2 + 8H2O
100 ml 0.4M MnO4– reacts with 50 ml H2O2. The volume strength of H2O2 is.

(1) 11.35 V
(2) 22.7 V
(3) 34.5 V
(4) 44.8 V

5)

n-factor of Ba(SCN)2 when it reacts with oxidising agent and forms product, SO42–, CO32– & NO3– is -

(1) 8
(2) 64
(3) 32
(4) 16

6) In the reaction, 2Na2S2O3 + I2 = Na2S4O6 + 2NaI, I2 acts as :

(1) reducing agent
(2) oxidising agent
(3) oxidising as well as reducing agent
(4) none of the above

7) MnO4– is good oxidising agent in different medium changing to -

Changes in oxidation number respectively are -

(1) 1, 3, 4, 5
(2) 5, 4, 3, 2
(3) 5, 1, 3, 4
(4) 2, 6, 4, 3

8) Which of the following is a redox

(1) 2NaAg(CN)2 + Zn Na2Zn (CN)4 + 2 Ag

(2) BaO2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + H2O2
(3) N2O5 + H2O 2HNO3
(4) AgNO3 + KI AgI + KNO3

9) 100 ml of 2.45 % (w/v) H2SO4 solution is mixed with 200 ml of 7% (w/w) H2SO4 solution (density =
1.4 gm/ml) and the mixture is diluted to 500 ml. What is the molarity of the diluted solution ?
[Atomic mass : H = 1, S = 32, O = 16]

(1) 0.25 M
(2) 1.0 M
(3) 0.75 M
(4) 0.45 M

10) 2M, 4 litre NaCl aq. solution is mixed with 3M , 1 litre CaCl2 aq. solution, from resulting solution
50 ml sample is withdrawn & diluted to 1 litre. Molarity of Cl– in diluted solution is.

(1) 11/120
(2) 7/50
(3) 14/5
(4) 14/75

11) Percentage loss in mass on heating mixture of Na2CO3 & CaCO3 containing equal mass of the two
components will be

(1) 44%
(2) 22%
(3) 35%
(4) 50%

12) 9 moles of "D" and 14 moles of E are allowed to react in a closed vessel according to given
reaction. Calculate number of moles of B formed in the end of reaction if 4 moles of G are present in
the reaction vessel (% yield is given in the reaction ) Step I

Step II

(1) 2.4
(2) 30
(3) 4.8
(4) 1

13) 0.63 gm of dibasic acid was dissolved in water, the volume of solution was made 100 ml. 20 ml of

this solution was added with 10 ml, NaOH. What is molecular mass of acid

(1) 63
(2) 126
(3) 252
(4) 128

14)

A volume of 10 ml of gaseous C4Hx exactly requires 55 ml O2 for complete combustion.

The value of "x" is :

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 10

15) C6H5OH (g) + O2 (g) ⟶ CO2 (g) + H2O (l)

Magnitude of volume change if 30 ml of C6H5OH (g) is burnt with excess amount of oxygen, is

(1) 30 ml
(2) 60 ml
(3) 20 ml
(4) 10 ml

16) 10 ml of a compound containing 'N' and 'O' is mixed with 30 ml of H2 to produce H2O (l) and 10
ml of N2 (g). Molecular formula of compound if both reactants reacts completely, is

(1) N2O
(2) NO2
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O5

Section-2

1) 200 ml of 0.3 M Ca(OH)2 will be completely neutralized by

(1) 1200 ml of 0.1 M HCl

(2) 600 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4
(3) 400 ml of 0.1 M H3PO4
(4) 600 ml of 0.2 M HNO3

2) Dichromate ion in acidic medium oxidizes stannous ion as:

(1) The value of x : y is 1 : 3

(2) The value of x + y + z is 18
(3) a : b is 3 : 2
(4) The value of z – c is 7

3) A compound contains atoms A, B and C. The oxidation number of A is 2+, of B is +5 and of C is –2.
The possible formula of the compound is/are -

(1) ABC2
(2) B2(AC3)2
(3) A3(BC4)2
(4) A9B6C24

4) A sample of a mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 gm was treated to precipitate all the Ca as
CaCO3, which was then heated and quantitatively converted to 1.12g of CaO. Calculate the % of
CaCl2 in the mixture.
(At . wt. : Ca = 40, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)

(1) Mixture contains 50% NaCl.

(2) Mixture contains 60% CaCl2.
(3) Mass of CaCl2 is 2.22 g.
(4) Mass of CaCl2 is 1.11 g.

Biology

Section-1

1) Which of the following structures represents a stable lipid-water interaction in protoplasm?

(1) Structure A
(2) Structure B
(3) Structure C
(4) Structure D

2) Peroxisomes are often noticed in proximity of mitochondria. This is due to the fact that the
products can be transported to mitochondria. Which of the following functions is most relevant to
this explanation?

Peroxisomes use oxygen to break fatty acids down into smaller molecules that are then used as
(1)
fuel for cellular respiration.
(2) Peroxisomes oxidise alcohol to detoxify it in liver.
(3) Peroxisomes transfer hydrogen from toxins to oxygen rendering them harmless.
(4) Peroxisomes produce H2O2 and also convert it to water.

3) The amount of DNA present per cell during a nuclear division is represented as a bar diagram

below.] What phases are represented X and Y?

(1) X-Prophase-I, Y - S phase

(2) X-Prophase-I, Y - Prophase II
(3) X-Metaphase II, Y - Prophase II
(4) X-Anaphase I, Y - Telophase I

4) A count was made of the number of cells showing different stages of mitosis in a zone of an onion
root tip. The following results were obtained.
 Percentage of total number of
Stage
dividing cells

prophase 85.0
metaphase 7.7
anaphase 2.9
telophase 4.4

From this it can be deduced that :

(1) Prophase takes much longer than the other stages.
(2) The division process was just starting.
(3) Telophase is the shortest phase in mitosis.
(4) The sample used for the count was too small.

5) Which of the following statements describes a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a
diploid organism?

Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in

(1)
meiosis I.
Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate meiosis
(2)
II.
(3) DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I.
(4) Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.

6) The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is –CH2–OH. The R group or side chain of the
amino acid leucine is –CH2–CH–(CH3)2. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a
globular protein in aqueous solution?

(1) Serine would be in the interior and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
(2) Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
(3) Both serine and leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein.
(4) Both serine and leucine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein.

7) Which of the following structures and processes can exist in eukaryotic cells and in all prokaryotic
cells?
I. Nuclear envelope
II. Ribosomes
III. Introns
IV. ATP synthesis
V. rRNA 18S
VI. Cell membrane
VII. DNA polymerase
VIII. Cytoskeletal elements

(1) I, II, III and VIII

(2) II, IV, VI and VIII
(3) I, III, V and VII
(4) II, IV, V and VI
8) Chloroplasts and mitochondria share similarities. From the following characteristics, use 1, 2, 3,
or 4 to select those to both chloroplasts and mitochondria.
i. both contain ribosomes.
ii. both are single-membrane bounded structures.
iii. both are double-membrane bounded structures.
iv. both undergo reactions that are primarily oxidative in nature.
v. both undergo chemiosmosis.
vi. both have similar, although not identical, electron transfer systems.
vii. both undergo reactions that are primarily reductive in nature.
viii. both contain DNA and RNA.

(1) i, iii, vi, vii and viii only

(2) i, iv, vi, vii and viii only
(3) ii, iv, v, vii and viii only
(4) ii, iii, vi, vii, and viii only

9) The diagram below represents the digestive system from _________ group of animals.

(1) ruminant herbivore

(2) non-ruminant herbivore
(3) bird
(4) carnivore animal

10) Oxygen-hamoglobin saturation curve can be obtained by plotting the amount of oxyhemoglobin
present at different partial pressures of oxygen. The dashed line indicates the oxygen saturation
curve obtained for a healthy individual (body temperature 37°C and blood pH 7.4)
 In which of the following conditions, will the curves P
be obtained?

(1) pH 7.2 and temperature : 37°C

(2) pH 7.6 and temperature : 20°C
(3) pH 7.2 and temperature : 40°C
(4) pH 7.4 and temperature : 40°C

11) Oxygen dissociation curves for two types of haemoglobin molecules P and Q are shown below.

Select the correct interpretation.

(1) Haemoglobin P is more efficient as an oxygen carrier than as an oxygen store.

(2) An elevated temperatures, curve for P will shift towards curve for Q.
(3) P is more effective in unloading oxygen at very low partial pressures.
(4) Haemoglobin P is likely to be present in actively metabolising tissues.

12) Refer to the figure below.

The diagram is referring

to what physiological process?

(1) Cocurrent gas exchange

(2) Countercurrent gas exchange
(3) Nondirectional ventilation and gas exchange
(4) Cross-current gas exchange

13) Nutritionally, the consumption of feces (coprophagy) makes more sense for hindgut fermenters
than foregut fermenters. Why?

Nutrients produced by microbes in the hindgut are not absorbed; therefore, coprophagy enables
(1)
hindghut fermenters to absorb nutrients produced by microbes.
Microbial symbionts are not activated to produce nutrients unless they have passed through the
(2)
digestive system at least twice.
Microbial symbionts are rarely excreted; therefore coprophagy enables hindgut fermenters to
(3)
increase the population of beneficial microbes.
(4) The microenvironment in the hindgut is more favorable to microbes compared to the foregut.

14) The following graphs represent activities of different enzymes (A to D) at different temperature
and pH :

Observe the graphs carefully and infer which of the following options given below (most likely)
presents correctly the combinations A, B, C and D.

A-enzyme of thermophilic bacteria; B - typical human enzyme; C-pepsin (stomach enzyme) ;D-
(1)
Trypsin (intestinal enzyme)
A-enzyme of thermophilic bacteria; B - typical human enzyme; C-trypsin (intestinal enzyme) ;D-
(2)
pepsin (stomach enzyme)
A- typical human enzyme; B -enzyme of thermophilic bacteria; C-trypsin (intestinal enzyme); D-
(3)
pepsin (stomach enzyme)
A- typical human enzyme; B -enzyme of thermophilic bacteria; C- pepsin (stomach enzyme); D-
(4)
trypsin (intestinal enzyme)
15) Haldane effect plays more important role in promoting carbon dioxide transport than that of the
bohr’s effect in promoting oxygen transport because

oxyhaemoglobin is a stronger acid which donates hydrogen ion which in turn displace carbon
(1)
dioxide from blood.
(2) carbaminohaemoglobin is a stronger acid that splits into hydrogen ion and bicarbonate.
(3) carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid that lowers the pH in tissue.
(4) carbon dioxide is less soluble in venous blood than in arterial blood.

16) Oxygen content of tissues / organs of Australian sea lion at two developmental stages is shown in

the bar graph. Three tissues

represented by X, Y and Z are respectively :

(1) Brain heart and lungs

(2) Lungs, blood and muscles
(3) Lungs, heart and brain
(4) Blood, muscles and lungs

Section-2

1) If a fluorescing protein is attached to many free ribosomes in a cell and the cell is photographed
after a time interval, the colour will appear.

(1) in cytoplasm
(2) along rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) along wall of nucleus
in cytoplasm, along rough endoplasmic reticulum, along wall of nucleus and in the matrix of
(4)
mitochondria.

2) Which of the following statements of comparison between proteins and DNA is correct?

(1) Both of them are heteropolymers.

(2) DNA forms a helical structure while proteins do not have helical structures.
(3) Denaturation of proteins is usually irreversible while denaturation of nucleic acids is reversible.
(4) Both of them are denatured by higher temperature and extreme pHs

3) The figure below depicts glucose transport into intestinal cells. Study the figure carefully and
identify the correct statements.

(1) 1 is a Uniport Transporter while 2 is a Symport Transporter

(2) 1 is a Symport Transporter while 2 is a Uniport Transporter
(3) 3 is Na+ ions While 4 is K+ ions
(4) 3 is K+ ions and 4 is Na+ ions

4) The pressure in the 'space' between lungs and chest wall is known as intrapleural pressure. The
following statements are related to the intrapleural pressure at different phases of respiration:
Which one of the following combinations is correct?

At the end of quiet expiration the tendency of the lung to recoil from chest wall is balanced by
(1)
the recoil of chest wall in opposite direction, and intrapleural pressure is subatmospheric.
(2) At the start of inspiration the intrapleural pressure is subatmospheric.
(3) The intrapleural pressure becomes more negative during inspiration.
(4) The intrapleural pressure attains value above atmospheric pressure during expiration.
 ANSWER KEYS

Physics

Section-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
A. 1 2 2 4 4 2 4 1 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 4

Section-2

Q. 17 18 19 20
A. 2,3 1,2,3 4 1,2,3,4

Chemistry

Section-1

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
A. 3 2 2 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 2 2 3

Section-2

Q. 37 38 39 40
A. 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 3,4 1,3

Biology

Section-1

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56
A. 1 2 2 1 1 2 4 1 2 2 2 4 1 4 1 4

Section-2

Q. 57 58 59 60
A. 1,2,3 1,3,4 2,3 1,2,3
 SOLUTIONS

Physics

Chemistry

21) Fe0.920 → Fe+3

nf = = 0.76
no. of geq K2Cr2O7 = no. of geq Fe0.92O
moles × 6 = 1 × 0.76

22) Ca(OH)2 + H3PO4 → CaHPO4 + 2H2O

n.f. = 2

E=

23) 1.5 × 10-3 × (10-2x) = 0.03 × 5× x=3

24)

Volume st. = 2 × 11.35 = 22.7 V

29)

100 mL of 2.45%

2.45% ⇒ It means, 100 mL of solution contains 2.45 g H2SO4

2nd solution ⇒ 200 mL, 7%

Mass of solution = density of solution × volume of solution
= (1.4 × 200) = 280 gm

⇒ 7%

⇒ % =

⇒ 7=

⇒ wt. of solute (H2SO4) =

Total mass of H2SO4 = (2.45 + 19.6) = 22.05 gm
Total volume after dilution = 500 mL = 0.5 L

Moles of H2SO4 =

∴ M=

= 0.45 M

31) Assume total mass = 200 gm

∴ Mass of CaCO3 = 100 gm
Then loss in mass = 44 gm
∴ Percentage loss = 22%

32) mol

34)

(B)

10ml

35)

C6H5OH (g) + O2 (g) ⟶ CO2 (g) + H2O (l)

Volume of realtant = 30 + 30 x 7 = 240 ml
Volume of product = 30 x 6
= 180 ml
Only gases are considered
Volume charge = 240 - 180
= 60 ml

36)
 Correct option is (C)
N2O3 + 3H2 → H2O + N2
as molar ratio of H2 N2 are
3:1

37) m eq of
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

38)

40)

CaCl2 + NaCl = 4.44

mass of CaCl2

Biology

54)

A - Typical human enzyme.

B - Enzyme of thermophilic bacteria.
C - Pepsin (stomach enzyme)
D - Trypsin (intestinal enzyme)

55) Haldane effect plays more important role in promoting carbon dioxide transport than that
of the bohr’s effect in promoting oxygen transport because oxyhaemoglobin is a stronger acid
which donates hydrogen ion which in turn displace carbon dooxide from blood.

56)

Blood, muscles and lungs

59)

1 is a Symport Transporter while 2 is a Uniport Transporter

3 is Na+ ions While 4 is K+ ions
60)

At the end of quiet expiration the tendency of the lung to recoil from chest wall is balanced by
the recoil of chest wall in opposite direction, and intrapleural pressure is subatmospheric.
At the start of inspiration the intrapleural pressure is sonsubatmospheric.
The intrapleural pressure becomes more negative during inspiration.