AIR LAW

1- Which of the following is not an emergency frequency?

a. 121.5 MHZ
b. 243.0 MHZ
c. 2182 KHZ
d. 123.45 MHZ
2- The signal from pilot to the marshaller which means “brakes applied “ is:
a. Fist clenched in front of the face then fingers extended
b. Arms extended, palms outwards, then move hands inwards to cross in front of the
face
c. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clencg
fist
d. Hands crossed in front of the face, palms outwards, then move arms outwards

3- Which of the following statements regarding alerting service is correct?

a. The alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an
aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have
been received
b. Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference, shall be informed about this
c. Alerting service and flight information service are often provided by the same ATS
units
d. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to the subject
of unlawful interference

4- Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The maneuvering area includes hangars
b. The apron is a part of the maneuvering area
c. The apron is a part of the movement area
d. The movement area includes terminal buildings

5- The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
a. The medical assessment is issued
b. The licence is delivered to the pilot
c. The licence is issued or renewed
d. The licence is issued or validated

6- ---------- is defined as an area of specified dimensions enclosing a runway or taxiway to

provide for the safety of aircraft operations:
a. A strip
b. A shoulder
c. An obstacle free zone
d. A threshold
7- Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: “ a special NOTAM series
notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due
to the volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud”
a. VULTAM
b. NAVTAM
c. ASHTAM
d. VOLCAM

8- Which state shall judge, according to the corresponding airworthiness requirement, if a

damaged aircraft is airworthy or not?
a. The state in which the damage occurred
b. The state of manufacture
c. The state of design
d. The state of registry

9- Which of the following annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications
for a crew license to have international validity?
a. Annex 4
b. Annex 2
c. Annex 1
d. Annex 3
10- Where no minimum flight altitude have been established for IFR flights, which statement
concerning minimum flight altitudes for IFR flights is correct?
a. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600m (2000ft)
above the highest obstacle located within 8 NM of the estimated position of the
aircraft
b. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 300m (2000ft)
above the highest obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimated position of the
aircraft
c. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600m (2000ft)
above the highest obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimated position of the
aircraft
d. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 300m (1000ft)
above the highest obstacle located within 8 NM of the estimated position of the
aircraft

11- The age of an applicant for a commercial aeroplane or helicopter pilot license CPL shall not
be less than:
a. 17 year of age
b. 21 year of age
c. 18 year of age
d. 16 year of age
12- When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously
operate this mode:
a. Only when directed by ATC
b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace
d. Regardless of ATC instructions
13- What is the medical assessment required for a commercial pilot icense?
a. CPL medical assessment
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 1
14- ASDA ( Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
a. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway(if stopway
provided).
b. The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if
provided)
d. The length of the take-off run available plus length of theclearway

15- The centerline and crossbar light of a precision approach category I lighting system shall be
fixed lights, showing variable intensity of the following colour:
a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. White
d. Green
METEROLOGIE

1- In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows:

a. Direct from HIGH to LOW pressure areas.
b. Clockwise around both anti-cyclones and cyclones
c. Clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anti-cyclones
d. Clockwise around anti-cyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones

2- Which of the following weather is a warning of condition that cloud be potentially hazardous
to aircraft in flight:
a. SPECI
b. ATIS
c. SIGMET
d. TAF

3- During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tailwind.
In the absence of a pilot action the aircraft:
i. Flies above the glide path
ii. Flies below the glide path
iii. Has an increasing true airspeed
iv. Has a decreasing true airspeed
a- 2,4
b- 1,4
c- 2,3
d- 1,3

4- With which of the following types of clouds is +RA precipitation most commonly associated?
a. NS
b. AC
c. SC
d. ST

5- Dew point is defined as:

a. The temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result
in the absorption of latent heat
b. The lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressre
c. The lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative
humidity
d. The temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given
pressure
6- What is condensation?
a. The change of state from ice to liquid water
b. The change of state from liquid water to water vapor
c. The change of state from vapor to liquid water
d. The change of state from ice to water or from water vapor to ice
7- During flight in clouds, which of the following means is the best one to identify the position
of embedded CBs?
a. Weather radar
b. Aircraft observations
c. The pilot requests the position of the CBs from ATC controller
d. Significant weather chart
8- Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure belt?
a. 55° - 75°
b. 10° - 15°
c. 35° - 55°
d. 25° - 35°
9- The height of the lifting condensation level id determined by:
a. Temperature and dew point at the surface
b. Temperature at surface and air pressure
c. Wind and dew point at the surface
d. Wet adiabatic lapse rate and dew point at the surface
10- Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?
a. ST
b. CS
c. AS
d. CC
11- When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 meters it is classified as:
a. Fog
b. Dust fog
c. Haze
d. Mist
12- The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:
a. The highest terrain within a radius of 8 KM from the observation station
b. Mean sea level
c. The pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
d. Airfield level
13- What is a trend forecast?
a. An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
b. A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
c. A route forecast valid for 24 hours
d. A routine report
14- The TAF weather message are:
a. Airport forecasts
b. Hourly or semi-hourly weather observations
c. Special weather observations
d. Landing forecasts of the “trend” type

15- For a similar pressure gradient and air density, the geostrophic wind speed will be:
a. Greater at 60°N than at 30°N
b. Greater at 30°N than at 60°N
c. Equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal componenet
 d. The same at all latitudes north or south of 15°

16- With what type of cloud is DZ precipitation most commonly associated?

a. CB
b. ST
c. CC
d. CU

17- In general, the meterological visibility during RAINFALL compared to during DRIZZLE is:
a. Less
b. The same
c. Greater
d. In rain below 1000m, in drizzle more than 2000m

18- On the ground, an altimeter will read …….. ft if correct QFE is set and ……. If correct QNH set:
a. 0ft, airfield height
b. 0ft, airfield altitude
c. 0ft ,airfield elevation
d. Airfield elevation, airfield altitude

19- Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?

a. Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes
b. Frontal thunderstorms
c. Thermal thunderstorms
d. Orographic thunderstorms

20- At what degree of icing should ICAOs “ change of course and/or altitude desirable”
recommendation be followed:
a. Light
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Extreme
NAVIGATION GENERAL

1- Given GS = 95 Kts / distance from A to B: 480NM

The distance from A to B ?
a- 4 hrs 59 min
b- 5 hrs 03 min
c- 5 hrs 00 min
d- 5 hrs 08 min

2- On a direct Mercator chart, a Rhumb line appears as a:

a. A straight line
b. Small circle concave to the nearer pole
c. Omplex / spiral curve
d. Curve convex to the nearer pole

3- The duration of civil twilight is the time:

a. Between sunset and when the center of the sun is 12° below the true horizon
b. Agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
c. Needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to apparent height of the
6°
d. Between sunset and when the center of the sun is 6° below the true horizon
4- A nautical mile is equivalent to:
a. 1852 meters
b. 1609 meters
c. 1500 meters
d. 5280 feet

5- How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 min 45 sec if GS is 135 Kts?

a. 39 NM
b. 2.36 NM
c. 3.25 NM
d. 3.94 NM

6- An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross
that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 271 KTS. What is the minimum rate of descent
required?
a. 1700 ft/min
b. 2000 ft/min
c. 1900 ft/min
d. 1800 ft/min

7- At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:

a. Depends on the true heading
b. Depends on the type of compass installed
c. Depends on the magnetic heading
d. Varies slowly over time
8- An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 120 NM from a VOR and to cross
that VOR at FL130. Mean GS during descent is 288 KTS. What is the minimum rate of descent
required?
a. 960 ft/min
b. 860 ft/min
c. 890 ft/min
d. 920 ft/min

9- An aircraft is planned to fly from position A to postion B, distance 480 NM at an average GS

of 240 Kts. It departs A at 10:00 UTC. After flying 150 NM along track from A, the Aircraft is 2
min behind planned time. Using actual GS experienced,, what is the revised ETA at B?
a. 12:03
b. 12:06
c. 11:53
d. 11:57

10- At 04:22 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320 Kts, is on the direct track to a VOR 185 NM distant. The
aircraft is required to cross the VOR at FL80. For a mean rate od descent of 1800 ft/min at a
mean GS of 232 Kts, the latest time at which to commence descent is:
a. 04:48
b. 04:45
c. 04:51
d. 04:54

11- The diameter of the earth is approximately:

a. 18500 Km
b. 6350 Km
c. 12700 Km
d. 40000 Km

12- When dealing with heights and altitudes in international aviation, the following units are
used, subject to the choice of individual states:
a. Feet only
b. Meters only
c. Statute miles and meters
d. Feet and meters

13- You leave A to fly to B (475 NM away) at 10:00 hours. Your ETA at B is 11:30. At 10:40 you are
190 NM from A. What ground speed is required from now on to arrive on time to B?
a. 317 Kts
b. 330 Kts
c. 342 Kts
d. 360 Kts
14- A ( 46°N , 145° E) and B (57° N , 165° W) what is the difference in longitude between A and B
a. 020°
b. 130°
c. 050°
d. 001°
15- The scale is 1/500 000. What true distance is represented by 44 cm on the map?
a. 2200000 cm
b. 2200 Km
c. 22 Km
d. 220 Km

16- On a map, 60 cm represents 450 km on the Earth, what is the scale?

a. 1/750000
b. 1/7.5
c. 1/75000
d. 1/7500000
PROCEDURE OPERATIONELLE

1- What is the definition of required Navigation Performance (RNP):

a. A statement of the navigation performance required during a pilot skill test
b. A statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation with a defined
airspace
c. A statement of the navigation performance necessary during flight test for a new
aircraft type
d. A statement of the navigation performance required when installing a new
navigation aid on the ground

2- In the event of an enroute HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation

Performance Specification ) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-to-air
communication is:
a. 118.80 MHZ
b. 123.45 MHZ
c. 121.80 MHZ
d. 128.80 MHZ

3- Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is
established:
a. Drag
b. Lift
c. Spin up
d. Lift destruction

4- What is the meaning of the abbreviation OTS?

a. Oceanic track separation
b. Organized track system
c. Oceanic track service
d. Oceanic track system

5- Who is the responsible for providing an Operations Manual in accordance with AIR OPS for
the use and guidance of the operations personnel:
a. The owner of the aircraft
b. The aircraft producer
c. The aircraft operator
d. The national authority

6- In addition to informing each state, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the
state of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must
immediately notify the:
a. State of the operator, the EASA and ICAO
b. State of registry of the aircraft and the EASA
c. State of registry of the aircraft, the state of the operator and ICAO
 d. State of registry of the aircraft and the state of the operator only

7- Minimum navigation performance specification (MNPS) airspace in the applicable area of the
north atlantic is defined between the following flight level:
a. FL280 and FL475
b. FL270 and FL400
c. See level and FL660
d. FL285 and FL420

8- When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their

speed at the threshold (VAT) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the
landing configuration (VS0) at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:
a. 1.3
b. 1.45
c. 1.5
d. 1.15

9- Senior cabin crew member notices traces of smoke in the passenger cabin but can not
positively identify its source of origin. The aircraft commander is notified and after the
relevant abnormal checklist has been completed. His/her action will be to:
a. Uses the cargo compartment fire extinguisher since fire is present in the cabin cargo
compartement is the most likely
b. Divert to the nearest aerodrome
c. Activate the passenger oxygen system and procced to the nearest alternate
aerodrome
d. Use the hand fire extinguishers by applying their contents into the area where the
smoke is coming from

10- The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:

a. Above 5000 ft
b. Below 2500 ft
c. Between 2500 ft and 3500 ft
d. Between 3500 ft and 5000 ft

11- In case of a cargo compartment fire, the system which should be switched off, is generally
the:
a. Total air-conditioning
b. Trim air
c. Pressurization
d. Ventilation of the cargo compartment
12- If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
a. Not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast
b. Take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed
c. Take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate
aerodrome
d. Select two destination alternates

13- When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the left side, you adopt,
whenever possible:
a. A different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and
under its path
b. A different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and
above its path
c. A different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under
its path
d. An identical flight path to the one the preceding aircraft

14- When taking off after a wide body aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
a. In front of the point where the aircraft’s wheels have touched down.
b. Beyond passing the point where the aircraft’s wheels have touched down
c. At the point where the aircraft’s wheels have touched down and the wind side of the
runway
d. At the point where the aircraft’s wheels have touched the ground and on the
underwind side of the runway

15- Personnel records about crew member training, checking and qualification shall be stored for
a period of:
a. Long enough until he/she moved to another company
b. The last 2 training records must be kept
c. 3 years
d. 7 years

16- The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
a. Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes
b. Water may only be used for minor fires
c. A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire
d. Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide

17- In calm wind condition, an aircraft at take-off creats tip vortices that:
a. Stagnate on the runway
b. Separate outwards on each side of the runway
 c. Separate outwards to the right side only
d. Separate outwards to the left side only

18- The term decision height (DH) is used for:

a. An indirect approach
b. A conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre
c. A precision approach
d. A conventional approach

19- In the area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied
between FL290 and FL410 inclusive is
a. 2000 ft
b. 500 ft
c. 1000 ft
d. 1500 ft

20- An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut-off handle. The fire handle will be
switched off when:
a. Fire is no longer detected
b. The fire shut-off handle has been pulled
c. The fire extinguisher has been triggered
d. All the fire extinguisher connected to this engine have been triggered
CSM

1- The condition which can causes detonation are:

a. Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow
b. High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute
c. Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute
d. High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute

2- Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:

a. Fluid loss
b. A decrease fluid temperature
c. An increased fluid temperature
d. An increased fluid pressure

3- Engine oil reservoirs are sometimes located at the front of the engine:
a. Because it is the most distant position from the exhaust
b. To utilize the structure necessary to contain the oil to form the engine accessory
gearbox and provided mounting points for oil and fuel pumps
c. To provide an attachment point for the mounting of the compressor and turbine
bearings
d. To allow the hot oil to heat the air intake

4- Engine compartment decking and firewalls are typically manufactured from:

a. Asbestos blankets
b. Aluminium alloy sheet
c. Composite materials such as carbon, Kevlar and fibre and glass
d. Stainless steel or titanium sheet

5- For a turbine engine, the self-sustaining speed relates to the minimum RPM at which the
engine:
a. Will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage
b. Is deigned to IDLE after starting
c. Operates most efficiently in the cruise
d. Will continue to run without further assistance

6- Apart from flight into known icing conditions, the intake system of a diesel engine:
a. Needs to be heated to prevent ice on the air filter
b. Needs to be heated at low power settings, due to prevent vaporization heat
c. Is never heated because a diesel engine is an injection engine
d. Is never heated because diesel engine operate at very high temperatures
7- The capacity of a battery is the:
a. Intensity withstood by the battery during charging
b. Number of cycles(charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without
deterioration of its cells
c. No-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current
d. Amount of ampere-hours that a fully battery can supply

8- The purpose of baffles fitted in wing fuel tanks is to:

a. Close the vent lines in case of turbulence
b. Limit high fuel flow during refueling operations
c. Restrict undesirable fuel movement during a continuous sideslip
d. Damp out movement of the fuel in the tank

9- One of the function of a gas turbine engine subsonic intake is to:

a. Increase airflow velocity
b. Increase total pressure
c. Decrease static temperature
d. Decrease airflow velocity

10- Which statement is correct?

i. The freezing point for jet A is at a lower temperature than that for jet B
ii. The flash point for jet A is at a lower temperature than that for jet B
a- i is incorrect, ii is correct
b- i is correct, ii is correct
c- i is incorrect, ii is incorrect
d- i is correct, ii is incorrect

11- for a subsonic airflow, air passing through a divergent duct:

a. decreases in pressure and velocity
b. increase in velocity and decreases in pressure
c. increase in pressure and velocity
d. decreases un velocity and increases in pressure

12- which of the following is true with respect to heating of pitot and static sensors on IFR
certified aircraft?
a. Pitot and static sensing is never heated on aircraft
b. Both pitot and static sensing is always heated
c. Combined pitot/static tubes are always heated but static ports are never heated
d. Pitot tubes are always provided with a heater while static points may also be heated
13- The power of a normally aspirated piston engine decreases during a climb with a constant
power lever setting because of the decreasing:
a. Temperature
b. Air density
c. Engine temperature
d. Humidity

14- From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain
the same mixture the fuel flow should:
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Remain the same
d. Increase or decrease, depending on the engine type

15- The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to:

a. Distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refueling
b. Tap fuel deposits / sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank
c. Increase the fuel level at the boost pump location and prevent cavitation
d. Ventilate the tank during refueling under high pressure

16- What are the most frequently used materials in a monocoque or semi-monocoque structure?
a. Aluminium or magnesium alloy
b. Steel
c. Wood
d. Composite fibers

17- Specific fuel consumption is defined as the:

a. Designed duel consumption for a given RPM
b. Mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time
c. Quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at a maximum operating
conditions
d. Maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft

18- A SAFE LIFE aircraft structural component:

a. Has multiple load paths
b. May be used during a limited number of cycles or flight hours
c. Is so strong that it never will fail during a declared time period
d. Should have enough strength during the whole lifetime of an aircraft

19- Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize
this when a plane is used every day or so is to:
a. Keep tanks topped off (full) when plane is not in use
b. Drain tanks at end of each day’s flight
c. Use only high octane gasoline
 d. Keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight

20- “Nose-wheel shimmy” may be described as:

a. Aircraft vibration caused by the nose-wheel upon extension of the gear
b. The oscillatory movement of the nose-wheel when extended prior to landing
c. The amount of free movement of the nose-wheel before steering takes effect
d. A possibly damaging vibration of the nose-wheel when moving on the ground

21- A battery capacity of 5 Ah means that the battery can provide

a. 5 Ampere for 1 hour
b. 5 Ampere for 5 hours
c. 10 Ampere for 10 minutes
d. Maximum current for 5 hours
FH

1- A pilot successfully completes a difficult and stressful landing at an aerodrome. The next time
a landing is attempted under the same conditions and at the same aerodrome, the pilot is
likely to experience:
a. A higher level of stress
b. A lower level of stress
c. The same stress level at the first landing
d. The pilot should only attempt a landing at the same aerodrome if the condition are
improved

2- Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can
sometimes lead to hazardous situations with this statement in mind, select the response
below which could lead to such a hazard:
a. Anticipating that the weather may deteriorate
b. Mishearing the contents of reply from an air traffic controller when a non-standard
procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipated
c. Anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned
d. Anticipating the sequence of items on a check list

3- What is meant by COMPLANCENCY:

a. To question possible solution
b. Unjustified self-confidence
c. An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to crew resources management
d. Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying

4- What is the definition of error tolerance in error management strategies?

a. Error tolerance means minimizing the probability that an error occurs and also
minimizing the extent of an error
b. Error tolerance means avoiding errors
c. Error tolerance means that it will be simple to reset a system back to a safe state
d. Error tolerance means minimizing the effect of errors by making a system as tolerant
as possible towards errors

5- Which gas or fluid used or transported in aviation is both extremely toxic and corrosive?
a. Fire extinguishing agent
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Mercury
d. Hydraulic fluid

6- “ it will not happen to me”, can be used as an example to illustrate which attitude?
a. Resignation
b. Anti-authority
 c. Macho
d. Invulnerability

7- Noise inducted hearing loss in influenced by:

a. The intensity of the noise not its duration
b. The duration of a noise but not its intensity
c. The suddenness of onset a noise
d. The duration and intensity of a noise

8- Internal respiration
a. Is the exchange of a carbon dioxide and oxygen in the lung
b. Is a metabolic process that takes place inside the cells during which oxygen is used
and carbon dioxide produced
c. Is the process of inflating the lungs during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
d. Is the term for respiration inside the pressure cabin

9- What is hypovigilance?
a. Hypovgilance is a phase of high vigilance
b. Hypovgilance is a phase of increased sensory perception
c. Hypovigilance is a state in which individuals need higher level of sensory stimulation
to stay awake
d. Hypovigilance is a state in which individuals need lower level of sensory stimulation
to stay awake

10- What triggers stress in humans?

a. Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological activation
b. The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced
c. Objective stimulation from the environment regardless of subjective perceptions
d. Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of light, noise, the smell of
smoke

11- The sleep pattern is closely associated with:

a. Heat rate
b. Adrenal gland
c. Blood pressure
d. Body temperature

12- What role should automation play with respect to flight safety?
a. Automation should be used as an aid to the pilot and not as an end itself
b. Automation should be used as much as possible to replace the pilot who will
inevitably makes mistakes
c. Automation should be used where pilots have to make decisions and manual flying
should be compulsory in good weather conditions
 d. Automation should be used on flight when weather conditions are poor to enhance
flight safety

13- The three types of authority gradient cockpits are:

a. Authoritative, laissez-faire and synergistic
b. Autocratic, laissez-faire and synergistic
c. Autocratic, followership and synergistic
d. Authoritative, followership and synergistic

14- The normal sleep cycle is approximately every ………minutes :

a. 180
b. 60
c. 120
d. 90

15- The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:

a. 16 cycles per minute
b. 4 cycles per minute
c. 32 cycles per minute
d. 72 cycles per minute

16- Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of:
a. Descending
b. Yawing
c. Spinning
d. climbing

17- Angular accelerations are perceived by:

a. The otoliths
b. The receptors in the skin and the joints
c. The semi circular canals
d. The cochlea

18- Excessive exposure to noise can damage:

a. The eardrum
b. The semi circular canals
c. The ossicles
d. The sensitive membrane in the cochlea
19- When turning in IMC, head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This is
prevention against:
a. Pressure vertigo
b. Autokinesis
c. Oculogyral illusion
d. Coriolis illusion

20- Who in aviation industry is responsible for flight safety?

a. Aircrew
b. Everyone involved
c. Aircrew and ground crew
d. Management, aircrew, ground crew, and ATC personal
PDV

1- That point where airflow leaves the surface of an aerofoil is known as:
a. The separation point
b. The stagnation point
c. The critical point
d. The transition point

2- If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not zero, an aeroplane would:
a. Fly a path with a constant curvature
b. Be difficult to control
c. Experience an angular acceleration about that axis
d. Not be affected because the situation is normal

3- When an airplane enters ground effect:

a. The effective angle of attack is decreased
b. The induced angle of attack is increased
c. The lift is increased and the drag is decreased
d. Drag and lift are both reduced

4- VLE defined as the:

a. Maximum landing gear extended speed
b. Maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended or retracted
c. Maximum flap extended speed
d. Maximum authorized speed

5- The axes of an aircraft by definition must all pass through the:

a. Flight desk
b. Aircraft datum
c. Centre of pressure
d. Centre of gravity

6- What happens if the number of blades on a propeller is increased?

a. The drag will be lower during a descent with engine failure
b. The torque of the propeller will decrease ( assume constant RPM )
c. The power absorption of the propeller will decrease
d. The solidity of the propeller will increase
7- What causes a load factor to increase? ( all other relevant factors being constant)
a. Reward CG location
b. Increased aeroplane mass
c. Increased air density
d. Vertical gusts

8- If a twin engine jet aeroplane commences a take-off on runway 27 and the current wind is
210°/15Kts, what is the critical jet engine in case of an engine failure during take-off run?
a. The left engine is the critical engine
b. The right engine is the critical engine
c. There is no critical engine
d. Both engines are critical engines

9- For a subsonic flow the continuity equation states that if the cross-sectional area of a tube
increases, the speed of the flow:
a. First increases then decreases
b. Does not change
c. Increases
d. Decreases

10- Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct?
a. The position is undetermined during axing, in particular with tailwind
b. The servo tab can also be used as trim tab
c. The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection
d. Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller

11- The speed of sound is affected only by the ………. Of the air
a. Density
b. Humidity
c. Pressure
d. Temperature

12- An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 Kts IAS and 1000 ft/min this condition
a. Drag is less than combined forces that move the aeroplane forward
b. Lift is equal to weight
c. Lift is less than drag
d. Weight is greater than lift

13- Rotation around the longitudinal axis is called:

a. Sideslip
b. Rolling
c. Pitching
d. Yawing
14- The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to approximately M= 1.3 is called the:
a. Hypersonic range
b. Supersonic range
c. Transonic range
d. Subsonic range

15- Flaperons are controls, which combine the function of:

a. Flaps and ailerons
b. Elevators and ailerons
c. Flaps and speed brakes
d. Flaps and elevators

16- How much time will it take to turn 90° when using a rate one turn?
a. 90 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 2 minutes

17- The result of spoiler surfaces deploying are:

a. Lift and drag increases
b. Lift and drag decreases
c. Lift increases and drag decreases
d. Drag increases and lift decreases
COMMUNICATION

1- An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:

a. 7600
b. 7700
c. 7500
d. 7200
2- If you are requested to reported to report your height. To which Q-code setting would you
refer?
a. QBI
b. QNH
c. QDM
d. QFE

3- What does the abbreviation “MLS” mean?

a. Microwave Landing System
b. Minimum Safe Level
c. Mean Sea Level
d. Minimum Sector level

4- Which abbreviation is used for the term “CONTROL ZONE”?

a. CTA
b. CZ
c. CTZ
d. CTR
5- When the term “SCATERED” is used in an aviation routine weather report, the amount of
covering the sky is:
a. More than half but less than overcast(5 to 7 oktas)
b. Half or less than half (3 or 4 oktas)
c. Sky entirely covered (8 oktas )
d. No clouds below 5000 feet/GND

6- What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit(switched on)?

a. The frequency can not be used by others
b. None
c. Others station will have to use the word twice technique
d. Readability will improve for all stations

7- What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control
centre ( no radar)?
a. Approach
b. Center
c. Control
d. Radar
8- An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is
assumed to:
a. Land at the destination aerodrome
b. Return to the aerodrome od departure
c. Land at the alternate aerodrome
d. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome

9- An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway in use. What is the correst phraseology
to indicate it will follow this instruction?
a. Wilco
b. Holding Short
c. Will stop before
d. Roger

10- What does the instruction “GO-AROUND” mean?

a. Overtake the aircraft ahead
b. Carry out a missed approach
c. Make a 360° turn
d. Proceed with your message

11- Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis?
a. I say again
b. Confirm
c. Read back
d. Verify

12- What is the Q-code for magnetic bearing from the station
a. QTE
b. QDR
c. QDM
d. QFE

13- The message addressed to an Area control centre “ request radar vectors to circumnavigate
adverse weather” is:
a. A meteorological message
b. A flight safety message
c. An urgency message
d. A message relating to direction finding
14- To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the ATC
controller:
a. Runway vacated
b. Runway cleared
c. Runway free
d. Clear of runway

15- What does the word “RECLEARED” mean?

a. Consider that transmission as not sent
b. Permission for proposed action granted
c. A error has been made in my last transmission
d. A change has been made to your clearance
Performance

1- Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
a. High mass
b. Headwind
c. Tailwind
d. Low mass

2- Vs0 is defined as follows:

a. Stalling speed in a specified configuration
b. Reference stalling speed in a specific configuration
c. Stalling speed in landing configuration
d. Reference stalling speed in landing configuration

3- At a given mass, the stalling speed of a light twin engine piston aircraft is 100 Kts in landing
configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain on short final is:
a. 110 Kts
b. 100 Kts
c. 115 Kts
d. 130 Kts

4- An airport has a 2600 meters long runway, and a 1000 meters clearway at each end of that
runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance
available cannot be greater than:
a. 3100 meters
b. 3600 meters
c. 3900 meters
d. 4600 meters

5- Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires:

a. No change
b. An increase in VREF
c. A steeper approach path
d. An increase in approach speed

6- Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:
a. A shorter take-off distance and an equal climb
b. A longer take-off distance and a better climb
c. A better climb and an equal take-off distance
d. A shorter take-off distance and a better climb
7- The take-off distance required increases:
a. Due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack
b. Due to headwind because of the drag augmentation
c. Due to lower gross mass at take-off
d. Due to slush on the runway

8- Which of the following statements is correct?

a. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane
b. VR should be higher than V1
c. VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG
d. VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel off the runway

9- The TODA is:

a. Declared runway length plus clearway and stopway
b. Declared runway length plus stopway
c. Declared runway length plus clearway
d. Declared runway length only

10- The speed VS is defined as:

a. Speed for best specific range
b. Safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway
c. Design stress speed
d. Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable

11- An aircraft has two certified landing flaps position, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead
of 35°, the aircraft will have:
a. A reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
b. A reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
c. An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
d. An increased landing distance and better go-around performance

12- The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
a. The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane
b. The maximum range for a jet aeroplane
c. The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane
d. The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane
13- VY is defined as:
a. Speed for best rate of descent
b. Speed for best angle of climb
c. Speed for best rate of climb
d. Maximum speed which should be used in a climb

14- VX is defined as:

a. Speed for best rate of descent
b. Speed for best angle of climb
c. Speed for best rate of climb
d. Maximum speed which should be used in a climb

15- The flight path angle is the angle between the:

a. Path of the aircraft relative to true north
b. Longitudinal axis and the path of the aircraft
c. Path of the aircraft relative to the ground
d. Longitudinal axis and the horizon

16- 4 mm of rain is covering a runway. The runway is:

a. Contaminated
b. Damp
c. Wet
d. Flooded

17- Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tire sped
limited take-off?
a. A low runway elevation and a cross wind
b. A high runway elevation and tailwind
c. A high runway elevation and a headwind
d. A low runway elevation and a headwind
IB
1- On a TCAS (traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective resolution advisory (RA) is a
resolution advisory:
a. Which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him
not to modify his current vertical speed rate
b. Asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft
c. Asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft
d. Asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft

2- The measurement of the turbine temperature or the EGT is carried out at the:
a. Intake of the high pressure chamber
b. Outlet of the combustion chamber
c. Inlet of the combustion chamber
d. Outlet of the high pressure stage of the turbine

3- VNE is the maximum speed:

a. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected
b. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
c. Which must never exceeded
d. With flaps extended in landing position

4- VNO is the maximum speed:

a. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected
b. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
c. Which must never exceeded
d. With flaps extended in landing position

5- A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger power
output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as:
a. An amplifier
b. An autopilot
c. A feedback control circuit
d. A servomechanism

6- If the acceleration of an aircraft is zero, its velocity:

a. Will increase
b. Will decrease
c. Is constant
d. Is always zero
7- At high angle of attack, the airplane stall protection system is:
i. Extend flaps
ii. Increase thrust
iii. Inhibit pitch up trim
a- i
b- i,ii,iii
c- Ii,iii
d- iii

8- during a category III automatic approach, the position signals in vertical plane under 200
ft are based on:
a. a radio altimeter
b. an altimeter set to the QFE
c. an altimeter set to the QNH
d. an altimeter set to 1013 hpa

9- Alarms are standardized and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not
immediately, are signaled by the colour:
a. Red
b. Amber
c. Green
d. Flashing red

10- The altitude at which the apparent wander of a directional gyro is equal to 0 is:
a. The equator
b. Latitude 30°
c. Latitude 45°
d. The north pole

11- The aural alert associated with the mode 1 (excessive descent rate) of the GPWS is:
a. TERRAIN
b. DON’T SINK
c. TOO LOW TERRAIN
d. SINKRATE

12- If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
a. Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred
b. Gradually indicate a zero
c. Under-read
d. Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale
13- Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the mode
selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?
a. OFF – STBY – ALIGN – NAV
b. OFF – ON – ALIGN – NAV
c. OFF – STBY – ATT – NAV
d. OFF – ALIGN – NAV - ATT

14- The error in altimeter readings caused by the variations of the static pressure near the
source is known as:
a. Instrument error
b. Hysteresis effect
c. Position error
d. Barometric error

15- Which of the following lists all the stage of flight when it is possible to change the route
in active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft:
a. Only once the aircraft is airborne
b. Only before take-off
c. Only before the flight plan activated
d. At any time before take-off and throughout the flight

16- The vertical speed indicator VSI is fed by:

a. Differential pressure
b. Total pressure
c. Dynamic pressure
d. Static pressure

17- The low altitude radio altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
a. Myriametric
b. Centimetric
c. Decimetric
d. Metric
MC

1- An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered
into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated
take-off safety speeds:
a.Are unaffected but V1 will be increased
b.Will not be achieved
c. Will be greater than required
d.Will give reduced safety margins

2- Traffic load is the:

a. Zero fuel mass minus dry operating mass
b. Dry operating mass minus the disposable load
c. Dry operating mass minus the variable load
d. Take-off mass minus zero fuel mass

3- The traffic load is defined as:

a. The total mass of flight crew, passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel
b. The total mass of crew and passenger excluding any baggage or cargo
c. The total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including any non revenue load
d. The total mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel

4- The fuel index:

a. Is used to calculate the correct position of the CG due different locations of the fuel
tanks
b. Is a standard value given by EASA and can be used for different types of aircraft
c. Is only used for aeroplanes with wing tip tanks
d. Is the difference between the zero fuel mass index and DOI

5- The distance from the datum to the centre of gravity of a mass is called:
a. Index
b. Force
c. Moment
d. Moment arm or balance arm

6- The maximum zero fuel mass (MZFW) is a mass limitation for the:
a. Allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking
b. Strength of the fuselage
c. Strength of the wing root
d. Total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing
7- Which statement bout palletised cargo true?
a. It can be loaded without any specific loading equipment
b. It comprises passenger baggage on pallets which is stored in cargo holds
c. It is not used anymore because of the lack of protection
d. It consist of individual items stored on pallets and secured with nets and/or straps

8- In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:

a. Decrease longitudinal static stability
b. Increase longitudinal stability
c. Not influence longitudinal static stability
d. Not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

9- The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded inta an aeroplan’s tanks is given as 3800 US
Gallons. If the fuel density is given as 0.79 the mas of fuel which may be loaded is:
a. 18206 Kg
b. 14383 Kg
c. 11364 Kg
d. 13647 Kg

10- The centre of gravity is the:

a. Neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
b. Centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
c. Focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
d. Point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated

11- When must be a centre of gravity be computed?

a. After every 400 hrs inspection
b. Prior to every flight
c. At least every four hours
d. During every yearly inspection