1.

Components of Computer Hardware (Motherboard, o a) A storage device

Processor, Memory, Storage Devices) o b) A pathway for data transmission
1. Which component on the motherboard is responsible o c) A power supply module
for connecting the CPU to the memory? o d) An external peripheral device
o a) Northbridge o Answer: b) A pathway for data transmission
o b) Southbridge 10. The L3 cache in a CPU is primarily used to:
o c) CMOS o a) Store data for long-term access
o d) PCI Express o b) Speed up communication with RAM
o Answer: a) Northbridge o c) Store frequently accessed instructions and
2. The clock speed of a processor is measured in: data
o a) Bytes o d) Power the CPU during high loads
o b) Hertz o Answer: c) Store frequently accessed
o c) Cycles per second instructions and data
o d) Bits per second 11. Which hardware component uses "heat sinks" and
o Answer: b) Hertz "thermal paste"?
3. Which type of memory is considered volatile? o a) Hard Drive
o a) ROM o b) Processor
o b) SSD o c) RAM
o c) RAM o d) Network Interface Card
o d) Flash Memory o Answer: b) Processor
o Answer: c) RAM 12. Which type of motherboard slot is commonly used
4. What does the BIOS chip on the motherboard for graphics cards?
primarily store? o a) PCI
o a) Bootloader o b) AGP
o b) Operating System o c) PCI Express (PCIe)
o c) Firmware instructions o d) IDE
o d) Application data o Answer: c) PCI Express (PCIe)
o Answer: c) Firmware instructions 13. What does CMOS stand for?
5. SATA is primarily used to connect: o a) Central Memory Operating System
o a) Printers o b) Complementary Metal-Oxide
o b) Storage devices Semiconductor
o c) Monitors o c) Centralized Machine Output System
o d) Keyboards o d) Control Management Operating System
o Answer: b) Storage devices o Answer: b) Complementary Metal-Oxide
6. What is the primary function of the chipset on a Semiconductor
motherboard? 14. DDR4 RAM is an example of:
o a) Power supply regulation o a) Non-volatile memory
o b) Hardware configuration management o b) Synchronous dynamic RAM
o c) Data flow control between the CPU and o c) ROM technology
peripherals o d) Cache memory
o d) Graphic rendering o Answer: b) Synchronous dynamic RAM
o Answer: c) Data flow control between the 15. Which port is used to connect external storage
CPU and peripherals devices like flash drives?
7. Which of the following storage devices is fastest in o a) HDMI
terms of data access? o b) USB
o a) HDD o c) Ethernet
o b) SSD o d) VGA
o c) Optical Disc o Answer: b) USB
o d) Flash Drive 16. The ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) is a part of:
o Answer: b) SSD o a) Motherboard
8. A multi-core processor improves performance by: o b) CPU
o a) Increasing clock speed o c) RAM
o b) Enabling parallel execution of tasks o d) ROM
o c) Reducing energy consumption o Answer: b) CPU
o d) Increasing memory capacity 17. What is the function of a power supply unit (PSU)?
o Answer: b) Enabling parallel execution of o a) Provide power to peripheral devices
tasks o b) Convert electricity into a form suitable for
9. What does the term "bus" in computer hardware the computer's components
refer to? o c) Act as a storage backup
 o d) Enable wireless communication o c) Optimize graphics rendering
o Answer: b) Convert electricity into a form o d) Increase RAM speed
suitable for the computer's components o Answer: b) Manage redundant storage arrays
18. What does an HDMI port do? 27. What type of storage is used in modern
o a) Transmits video and audio data smartphones?
o b) Powers the monitor o a) HDD
o c) Provides Ethernet connectivity o b) SSD
o d) Controls external storage devices o c) Flash memory
o Answer: a) Transmits video and audio data o d) Optical drives
19. The term "clock multiplier" is related to: o Answer: c) Flash memory
o a) Memory speed 28. The primary purpose of thermal sensors on a
o b) Processor speed motherboard is to:
o c) Storage capacity o a) Increase processing speed
o d) Graphics rendering o b) Monitor component temperatures
o Answer: b) Processor speed o c) Reduce storage access time
20. A DIMM is associated with which hardware o d) Detect network activity
component? o Answer: b) Monitor component
o a) Processor temperatures
o b) RAM 29. What is the primary function of an M.2 slot on a
o c) Hard Drive motherboard?
o d) Power Supply o a) Connect hard drives
o Answer: b) RAM o b) Connect high-speed SSDs
21. The term "hyper-threading" refers to: o c) Connect external peripherals
o a) Adding more cores to a processor o d) Support power distribution
o b) Simulating multiple logical cores on a o Answer: b) Connect high-speed SSDs
single physical core 30. Which of the following determines the total number
o c) Increasing RAM bandwidth of memory modules a motherboard can support?
o d) Boosting clock speed automatically o a) Chipset
o Answer: b) Simulating multiple logical cores o b) Power supply
on a single physical core o c) BIOS version
22. ECC memory is primarily used in: o d) Form factor
o a) Consumer laptops o Answer: a) Chipset
o b) High-performance gaming PCs
o c) Servers and workstations 2. Primary and Secondary Storage Devices
o d) Mobile devices 1. Which of the following is a primary storage device?
o Answer: c) Servers and workstations o a) SSD
23. Which component is critical for the BIOS to retain o b) RAM
settings when the PC is off? o c) HDD
o a) RAM o d) Optical Disc
o b) CMOS Battery o Answer: b) RAM
o c) Hard Drive 2. The main characteristic of primary storage is:
o d) Power Supply o a) High capacity
o Answer: b) CMOS Battery o b) Volatility
24. NVMe is a standard for: o c) Durability
o a) Network connectivity o d) Portability
o b) High-speed solid-state drives o Answer: b) Volatility
o c) Motherboard design 3. What is the typical use of secondary storage?
o d) Virtual memory allocation o a) Temporary data storage
o Answer: b) High-speed solid-state drives o b) Long-term data storage
25. Which storage device uses magnetic platters to store o c) Processing instructions
data? o d) Executing programs
o a) SSD o Answer: b) Long-term data storage
o b) HDD 4. Which memory is directly accessed by the CPU?
o c) NVMe Drive o a) ROM
o d) RAM o b) RAM
o Answer: b) HDD o c) SSD
26. What is the function of a RAID controller? o d) Flash Memory
o a) Boost CPU performance o Answer: b) RAM
o b) Manage redundant storage arrays
5. The access time of SSDs is significantly lower than o d) Pixels
HDDs because: o Answer: b) Bytes
o a) They use magnetic storage 13. What type of memory retains its data even when the
o b) They have no moving parts computer is powered off?
o c) They store data sequentially o a) RAM
o d) They use optical technology o b) ROM
o Answer: b) They have no moving parts o c) Cache Memory
6. Which of the following is an example of non-volatile o d) Registers
memory? o Answer: b) ROM
o a) Cache memory 14. Virtual memory is primarily created using:
o b) RAM o a) RAM
o c) ROM o b) ROM
o d) Register o c) HDD or SSD
o Answer: c) ROM o d) Flash Memory
7. What is the primary function of a cache memory? o Answer: c) HDD or SSD
o a) Store long-term data 15. What does "RAID" stand for?
o b) Increase processing speed by storing o a) Random Access Information Disk
frequently used data o b) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
o c) Perform complex calculations o c) Reliable Access In Data
o d) Manage virtual memory o d) Read Access Information Disk
o Answer: b) Increase processing speed by o Answer: b) Redundant Array of Independent
storing frequently used data Disks
8. Which secondary storage device uses magnetic disks 16. The primary disadvantage of HDDs compared to SSDs
for data storage? is:
o a) SSD o a) High cost per GB
o b) Flash Drive o b) Limited capacity
o c) HDD o c) Slower read/write speeds
o d) ROM o d) Lack of durability
o Answer: c) HDD o Answer: c) Slower read/write speeds
9. EEPROM stands for: 17. Which of the following is NOT a type of secondary
o a) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read- storage?
Only Memory o a) HDD
o b) Extended Erasable Programmable Read- o b) RAM
Only Memory o c) SSD
o c) Electronically Editable Programmed RAM o d) CD-ROM
o d) External Erasable Programmable ROM o Answer: b) RAM
o Answer: a) Electrically Erasable 18. Which of these uses optical storage technology?
Programmable Read-Only Memory o a) HDD
10. Which of the following is fastest in terms of data o b) CD-ROM
access time? o c) Flash Drive
o a) Optical Disc o d) SSD
o b) HDD o Answer: b) CD-ROM
o c) RAM 19. Which of these can be considered both primary and
o d) SSD secondary storage?
o Answer: c) RAM o a) RAM
11. What does the term "write cycles" refer to in Flash o b) ROM
memory? o c) Cache
o a) The number of times data can be written o d) Flash memory
to it o Answer: d) Flash memory
o b) The time taken to write data 20. The most common interface for external hard drives
o c) The data retention capability is:
o d) The energy efficiency of the memory o a) SATA
o Answer: a) The number of times data can be o b) IDE
written to it o c) USB
12. The capacity of a storage device is typically measured o d) PCIe
in: o Answer: c) USB
o a) Hertz 21. Which storage type has the highest durability for
o b) Bytes harsh environments?
o c) Cycles o a) HDD
 o b) SSD o b) RAM types
o c) Flash Memory o c) Flash memory cells
o d) Optical Discs o d) RAID configurations
o Answer: b) SSD o Answer: c) Flash memory cells
22. DRAM refreshes its data using:
o a) Magnetic fields 3. Networking Components
o b) Electrical signals
o c) Clock pulses 1. Which device operates at the OSI Model Layer 2 and
o d) Laser beams is responsible for forwarding data based on MAC
o Answer: b) Electrical signals addresses?
23. Which technology does an SSD rely on for storing o a) Hub
data? o b) Switch
o a) Magnetic platters o c) Router
o b) Transistors o d) Modem
o Answer: b) Switch
o c) Laser etching
2. A router operates primarily at which layer of the OSI
o d) Fiber optics
model?
o Answer: b) Transistors
o a) Data Link Layer
24. SRAM is typically used for:
o b) Network Layer
o a) Virtual memory
o c) Transport Layer
o b) Cache memory o d) Application Layer
o c) Main memory o Answer: b) Network Layer
o d) Secondary storage 3. What is the primary function of a hub in a network?
o Answer: b) Cache memory o a) Direct traffic based on IP addresses
25. The primary function of ROM is to: o b) Broadcast data to all connected devices
o a) Store user data o c) Filter data packets by MAC addresses
o b) Load and execute BIOS/firmware o d) Manage connections to the internet
o c) Act as temporary storage o Answer: b) Broadcast data to all connected
o d) Provide high-speed processing devices
o Answer: b) Load and execute BIOS/firmware 4. What is the main advantage of a switch over a hub?
26. Secondary storage devices are generally slower than o a) Lower cost
primary storage because: o b) Reduced power consumption
o a) They use non-volatile memory o c) Reduced network collisions
o b) They have higher capacity o d) Faster routing of IP packets
o c) They are located further from the CPU o Answer: c) Reduced network collisions
o d) They use volatile memory 5. Which device combines the functionality of a router
o Answer: c) They are located further from the and a modem?
CPU o a) Access point
o b) Gateway
27. What is the main limitation of tape drives for
o c) Network Bridge
storage?
o d) DSL Router
o a) Limited capacity
o Answer: d) DSL Router
o b) High cost
6. A firewall primarily operates at which layers of the
o c) Sequential access
OSI model?
o d) Poor durability
o a) Physical and Data Link Layers
o Answer: c) Sequential access o b) Network and Transport Layers
28. A hard drive's rotational speed is measured in: o c) Application and Presentation Layers
o a) Hertz o d) Transport and Session Layers
o b) Revolutions per minute (RPM) o Answer: b) Network and Transport Layers
o c) Bytes per second 7. Which device is used to connect multiple networks
o d) Cycles per second and determine the best path for data packets?
o Answer: b) Revolutions per minute (RPM) o a) Switch
29. Which storage device is best suited for archival o b) Router
purposes? o c) Hub
o a) HDD o d) Repeater
o b) SSD o Answer: b) Router
o c) Optical Disc 8. What does an access point (AP) do in a wireless
o d) Flash Drive network?
o Answer: c) Optical Disc o a) Connects wired devices
30. NAND and NOR are types of: o b) Acts as a gateway to the internet
o a) HDD technology
 o c) Enables wireless devices to connect to a o d) BGP
wired network o Answer: c) STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
o d) Manages IP address assignments 17. A network interface card (NIC) operates at which OSI
o Answer: c) Enables wireless devices to layer?
connect to a wired network o a) Physical Layer
9. Which device is used to regenerate and amplify o b) Data Link Layer
network signals? o c) Network Layer
o a) Hub o d) Transport Layer
o b) Repeater o Answer: b) Data Link Layer
o c) Switch 18. What is the main purpose of a gateway in a network?
o d) Router o a) Extend the range of a network
o Answer: b) Repeater o b) Convert protocols between different
10. What is the primary function of a network bridge? network types
o a) Connect two different networks o c) Assign IP addresses dynamically
o b) Filter traffic between two network o d) Manage access points
segments o Answer: b) Convert protocols between
o c) Convert analog signals to digital signals different network types
o d) Serve as a gateway to the internet 19. Which device is responsible for ensuring QoS
o Answer: b) Filter traffic between two network (Quality of Service) in a network?
segments o a) Router
11. In a wireless network, which frequency bands are o b) Switch
commonly used? o c) Modem
o a) 1 GHz and 2 GHz o d) Firewall
o b) 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz o Answer: a) Router
o c) 10 GHz and 20 GHz 20. A Layer 3 switch differs from a Layer 2 switch in that
o d) 500 MHz and 1 GHz it:
o Answer: b) 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz o a) Uses MAC addresses for forwarding
12. Which networking device assigns IP addresses o b) Provides routing capabilities
dynamically to devices? o c) Amplifies network signals
o a) Router o d) Converts data from analog to digital
o b) DHCP Server o Answer: b) Provides routing capabilities
o c) Modem 21. What is the main role of a load balancer?
o d) DNS Server o a) Reduce network collisions
o Answer: b) DHCP Server o b) Distribute network traffic evenly across
13. What is the primary function of a DNS server? servers
o a) Assign IP addresses to devices o c) Filter network packets by MAC address
o b) Convert domain names to IP addresses o d) Assign IP addresses
o c) Manage network firewalls o Answer: b) Distribute network traffic evenly
o d) Route traffic between different networks across servers
o Answer: b) Convert domain names to IP 22. A proxy server is used primarily for:
addresses o a) Storing data
14. Which device can perform Network Address o b) Filtering and managing client requests
Translation (NAT)? o c) Providing wireless connectivity
o a) Hub o d) Routing packets
o b) Router o Answer: b) Filtering and managing client
o c) Switch requests
o d) Repeater 23. What does PoE (Power over Ethernet) enable?
o Answer: b) Router o a) Faster data transmission over Ethernet
15. What does a modem do? o b) Transmitting power and data over a single
o a) Converts analog signals to digital and vice Ethernet cable
versa o c) Connecting multiple subnets
o b) Routes packets across networks o d) Reducing the need for wireless access
o c) Filters traffic based on IP addresses points
o d) Manages network switches o Answer: b) Transmitting power and data over
o Answer: a) Converts analog signals to digital a single Ethernet cable
and vice versa 24. What kind of cable is commonly used in Ethernet
16. Which protocol is used by switches to prevent loops networks?
in a network? o a) Coaxial Cable
o a) OSPF o b) Fiber Optic Cable
o b) RIP o c) Twisted Pair Cable
o c) STP o d) Parallel Cable
 o Answer: c) Twisted Pair Cable o c) Handle user permissions
25. Which of these is a disadvantage of wireless networks o d) Provide network access
compared to wired networks? o Answer: b) Interface between hardware and
o a) Higher speed the OS kernel
o b) Easier scalability 3. Which subsystem in Windows handles GUI-based
o c) Higher latency and lower security applications?
o d) Greater physical infrastructure o a) POSIX
requirements o b) Win32 Subsystem
o Answer: c) Higher latency and lower security o c) NTFS
26. Which device is necessary to connect to an ISP? o d) Kernel
o 3zza) Switch o Answer: b) Win32 Subsystem
o b) Modem 4. What is the role of the Windows Registry?
o c) Hub o a) Store system-wide and user-specific
o d) Repeater configurations
o Answer: b) Modem o b) Manage memory allocation
27. What is the role of an ARP in a network? o c) Process I/O requests
o a) Resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses o d) Implement security policies
o b) Filter packets based on IP addresses o Answer: a) Store system-wide and user-
o c) Manage routing tables specific configurations
o d) Encrypt network traffic 5. In Windows architecture, which mode allows direct
o Answer: a) Resolve IP addresses to MAC access to hardware resources?
addresses o a) User Mode
28. Which protocol is commonly used for remote o b) Kernel Mode
management of networking devices? o c) System Mode
o a) FTP o d) Protected Mode
o b) Telnet o Answer: b) Kernel Mode
o c) SMTP 6. What is the function of the Windows Executive?
o d) IMAP o a) Manage power settings
o Answer: b) Telnet o b) Provide a framework for the kernel and
29. VLANs are used to: subsystems
o a) Separate network traffic logically within a o c) Handle desktop environments
switch o d) Manage user sessions
o b) Increase physical network security o Answer: b) Provide a framework for the
o c) Manage wireless connections kernel and subsystems
o d) Extend the range of a network 7. Which of the following file systems is supported
o Answer: a) Separate network traffic logically natively by Windows?
within a switch o a) ext4
30. What is the function of a patch panel in a network? o b) FAT32
o a) Route packets between networks o c) ReiserFS
o b) Organize and connect Ethernet cables o d) ZFS
o c) Provide wireless connectivity o Answer: b) FAT32
o d) Manage IP addressing 8. Which Windows component is responsible for
o Answer: b) Organize and connect Ethernet managing user credentials?
cables o a) Winlogon
o b) LSA (Local Security Authority)
4. Operating Systems (Windows and Linux Architectures) o c) Task Manager
o d) Event Viewer
Windows Architecture o Answer: b) LSA (Local Security Authority)
9. The NTFS file system in Windows is known for its:
1. Which of the following is a core component of the o a) Journaling capabilities
Windows operating system architecture? o b) Limited file size support
o a) Kernel Mode o c) Lack of security features
o b) User Accounts o d) High compression ratios
o c) Firewall o Answer: a) Journaling capabilities
o d) BIOS 10. What is the primary purpose of the Windows Task
o Answer: a) Kernel Mode Scheduler?
2. What is the primary role of the Windows HAL o a) Monitor system performance
(Hardware Abstraction Layer)? o b) Automate tasks at predefined times
o a) Manage file systems o c) Manage user accounts
o b) Interface between hardware and the OS o d) Optimize system startup
kernel
 o Answer: b) Automate tasks at predefined 19. What does the Linux command lsmod display?
times o a) Loaded kernel modules
o b) File permissions
o c) Disk usage statistics
o d) Running processes
Linux Architecture o Answer: a) Loaded kernel modules
20. SELinux is primarily used for:
11. The Linux kernel operates in: o a) Managing filesystems
o a) User Space o b) Enhancing system security with mandatory
o b) Kernel Space access controls
o c) Protected Space o c) Providing virtual machine support
o d) Network Layer o d) Enabling GUI for Linux systems
o Answer: b) Kernel Space o Answer: b) Enhancing system security with
12. Which of the following is a feature of the Linux mandatory access controls
kernel?
o a) Monolithic kernel structure
o b) Absence of device drivers
o c) No support for networking General Operating Systems Concepts
o d) Minimal hardware compatibility
o Answer: a) Monolithic kernel structure 21. Which type of kernel is used in Windows?
13. What is the role of the init system in Linux? o a) Microkernel
o a) Manage filesystems o b) Hybrid kernel
o b) Handle process startup and management o c) Monolithic kernel
o c) Provide network security o d) Nano kernel
o d) Compile the kernel o Answer: b) Hybrid kernel
o Answer: b) Handle process startup and 22. In Linux, what is the purpose of the /proc directory?
management o a) Store user files
14. Which Linux command is used to display kernel o b) Manage temporary files
version details? o c) Provide a virtual filesystem for kernel and
o a) uname -r process information
o b) kernel -v o d) Hold logs for system events
o c) lsmod o Answer: c) Provide a virtual filesystem for
o d) modprobe kernel and process information
o Answer: a) uname -r 23. In Windows, which tool allows users to manage disk
15. What is the primary role of the Linux shell? partitions?
o a) Provide a graphical user interface o a) Task Manager
o b) Act as a command-line interpreter o b) Disk Management
o c) Manage hardware devices o c) Event Viewer
o d) Allocate memory for processes o d) Device Manager
o Answer: b) Act as a command-line interpreter o Answer: b) Disk Management
16. Which Linux file contains information about mounted 24. Which Linux command is used to change file
filesystems? permissions?
o a) /etc/fstab o a) chmod
o b) /etc/mtab o b) chown
o c) /proc/mounts o c) lsattr
o d) All of the above o d) mv
o Answer: d) All of the above o Answer: a) chmod
17. What is the function of a daemon in Linux? 25. What is the purpose of the System Call Interface
o a) Provide kernel-level security (SCI) in Linux?
o b) Run background services o a) Provide security to applications
o c) Manage user authentication o b) Allow user applications to communicate
o d) Monitor system performance with the kernel
o Answer: b) Run background services o c) Compile the kernel
18. The bootloader in Linux is responsible for: o d) Manage user accounts
o a) Compiling the kernel o Answer: b) Allow user applications to
o b) Loading the kernel into memory during communicate with the kernel
system startup 26. In Linux, GRUB stands for:
o c) Managing user sessions o a) Graphical User Boot
o d) Allocating system memory o b) Grand Unified Bootloader
o Answer: b) Loading the kernel into memory o c) General Resource Utility Boot
during system startup o d) Global Resource Utility Bootloader
 o Answer: b) Grand Unified Bootloader o Answer: c) Identify the location of the
27. Which tool is used in Windows to monitor system operating system
resource usage in real-time? 5. Which modern replacement of MBR supports larger
o a) Task Manager storage devices and more partitions?
o b) System Monitor o a) GPT
o c) Disk Cleanup o b) FAT32
o d) Resource Optimizer o c) NTFS
o Answer: a) Task Manager o d) EXT4
28. In Linux, the sudo command allows: o Answer: a) GPT
o a) Regular users to execute commands as the 6. What is the role of the bootloader in the boot process?
root user o a) Manage hardware resources
o b) Kernel debugging o b) Load the kernel into memory
o c) Automation of repetitive tasks o c) Check system firmware
o d) Installing software updates o d) Handle user authentication
o Answer: a) Regular users to execute o Answer: b) Load the kernel into memory
commands as the root user 7. In Linux systems, which bootloader is commonly
29. The Windows pagefile is used to: used?
o a) Manage user sessions o a) GRUB
o b) Extend physical memory using disk storage o b) LILO
o c) Backup system files o c) PXE
o d) Log user activities o d) UEFI Loader
o Answer: b) Extend physical memory using o Answer: a) GRUB
disk storage 8. What is the primary purpose of PXE (Preboot
30. What is the primary function of the Linux cron utility? Execution Environment)?
o a) Schedule tasks to run automatically at o a) Boot systems over a network
specified times o b) Manage dual-boot systems
o b) Monitor system performance o c) Optimize boot times
o c) Configure network settings o d) Update BIOS firmware
o d) Manage user accounts o Answer: a) Boot systems over a network
o Answer: a) Schedule tasks to run 9. During the boot process, which phase involves the
automatically at specified times kernel initializing hardware and starting system
processes?
5. Booting Process of Computers o a) Pre-boot phase
o b) Bootstrap phase
1. What is the first program executed when a computer o c) Kernel phase
starts? o d) User space initialization phase
o a) Operating System o Answer: c) Kernel phase
o b) Bootloader 10. What is the role of init/systemd in the Linux boot
o c) BIOS/UEFI process?
o d) Kernel o a) Load the kernel into memory
o Answer: c) BIOS/UEFI o b) Start and manage system services
2. In the booting process, which of the following checks o c) Perform hardware diagnostics
hardware components and loads the bootloader? o d) Initialize network settings
o a) CMOS o Answer: b) Start and manage system services
o b) POST
o c) GRUB
o d) Kernel
o Answer: b) POST 11. In Windows, what is the name of the bootloader?
3. Which memory chip stores the BIOS firmware? o a) GRUB
o a) RAM o b) Winloader.exe
o b) ROM o c) Bootmgr
o c) EEPROM o d) ntldr
o d) Flash Memory o Answer: c) Bootmgr
o Answer: d) Flash Memory 12. The Secure Boot feature ensures:
4. What is the primary purpose of the Master Boot o a) The integrity of the operating system
Record (MBR)? during startup
o a) Store user files o b) Faster boot times
o b) Load the operating system kernel o c) The use of encrypted hard drives
o c) Identify the location of the operating o d) Compatibility with legacy hardware
system o Answer: a) The integrity of the operating
o d) Initialize hardware devices system during startup
13. Which tool is used to configure boot options in
Linux?
o a) fdisk 21. In UEFI, what is the purpose of the ESP (EFI System
o b) grub-mkconfig Partition)?
o c) fsck o a) Store BIOS firmware
o d) blkid o b) Store bootloaders and configuration files
o Answer: b) grub-mkconfig o c) Backup operating system files
14. Which component is responsible for storing o d) Enhance hardware compatibility
bootloader configurations in Linux? o Answer: b) Store bootloaders and
o a) /etc/fstab configuration files
o b) /boot/grub.cfg 22. What happens during the POST (Power-On Self-
o c) /proc/mounts Test)?
o d) /etc/systemd o a) Kernel is loaded into memory
o Answer: b) /boot/grub.cfg o b) Hardware diagnostics and initialization
15. What is the purpose of the BIOS CMOS battery? o c) OS services are started
o a) Power the motherboard during startup o d) Filesystems are mounted
o b) Store system date and time settings o Answer: b) Hardware diagnostics and
o c) Enhance CPU performance initialization
o d) Boot the kernel 23. In Linux, which command updates the GRUB
o Answer: b) Store system date and time configuration?
settings o a) grub-mkconfig
16. In Linux systems, which runlevel corresponds to o b) update-grub
multi-user mode with networking but no GUI? o c) grub-install
o a) 1 o d) grubcfg
o b) 3 o Answer: b) update-grub
o c) 5 24. What is the typical size of an MBR?
o d) 6 o a) 512 bytes
o Answer: b) 3 o b) 1 KB
17. What happens if the bootloader cannot find the o c) 2 MB
operating system? o d) 4 GB
o a) The system powers off o Answer: a) 512 bytes
o b) The boot process halts with an error 25. What is the role of the Windows kernel during boot?
message o a) Check hardware diagnostics
o c) The kernel is reloaded o b) Initialize the system and start essential
o d) It switches to a secondary bootloader services
o Answer: b) The boot process halts with an o c) Load GUI components
error message o d) Authenticate users
18. What is the purpose of chainloading in bootloaders? o Answer: b) Initialize the system and start
o a) Load another bootloader from the current essential services
bootloader 26. In Linux, which command displays boot logs?
o b) Optimize the boot process o a) dmesg
o c) Handle dual-boot systems o b) lsblk
o d) Load kernel modules dynamically o c) mount
o Answer: a) Load another bootloader from the o d) sysctl
current bootloader o Answer: a) dmesg
19. What does the Windows BCD (Boot Configuration 27. What is the last stage of the boot process?
Data) store? o a) Loading the operating system kernel
o a) System drivers o b) Initializing hardware devices
o b) Boot settings and configurations o c) Starting user processes and services
o c) User session data o d) Loading the bootloader
o d) Application logs o Answer: c) Starting user processes and
o Answer: b) Boot settings and configurations services
20. What is the purpose of the initramfs in Linux? 28. In Windows, what does the "safe mode" boot option
o a) Provide temporary root filesystem during do?
boot o a) Skip loading non-essential services and
o b) Compile kernel modules drivers
o c) Manage system logs o b) Bypass user authentication
o d) Create user accounts o c) Optimize boot speed
o Answer: a) Provide temporary root filesystem o d) Run diagnostic tools
during boot o Answer: a) Skip loading non-essential
services and drivers
 29. What is the primary difference between BIOS and o c) Support for larger storage devices
UEFI? o d) Cross-platform compatibility
o a) BIOS supports GPT; UEFI does not o Answer: b) Prevention of data corruption
o b) UEFI supports graphical interfaces and during crashes
larger partitions 7. Which Linux command is used to check and repair a
o c) BIOS loads the OS kernel directly; UEFI filesystem?
does not o a) fsck
o d) UEFI is only used in Linux systems o b) mkfs
o Answer: b) UEFI supports graphical o c) mount
interfaces and larger partitions o d) umount
30. In Linux, which directory contains files used by the o Answer: a) fsck
bootloader? 8. In a hierarchical filesystem, what is the topmost
o a) /boot directory called?
o b) /root o a) Parent directory
o c) /proc o b) Root directory
o d) /etc o c) Home directory
o Answer: a) /boot o d) System directory
o Answer: b) Root directory
6. Filesystems 9. What is the default filesystem for macOS?
o a) HFS+
1. What is the primary role of a filesystem in an o b) APFS
operating system? o c) ZFS
o a) Managing network protocols o d) EXT4
o b) Organizing and storing data on storage o Answer: b) APFS
devices 10. Which filesystem is specifically designed for flash
o c) Booting the operating system memory storage devices?
o d) Executing application software o a) FAT32
o Answer: b) Organizing and storing data on o b) exFAT
storage devices o c) ReiserFS
2. Which filesystem is used by default in most Linux o d) Btrfs
distributions? o Answer: b) exFAT
o a) NTFS
o b) FAT32
o c) EXT4
o d) HFS+
11. What is the function of inode in a Unix/Linux
o Answer: c) EXT4
filesystem?
3. Which filesystem was introduced by Microsoft to o a) Storing file content
replace FAT32? o b) Storing metadata about files
o a) NTFS
o c) Storing user permissions
o b) exFAT
o d) Defining filesystem types
o c) ReFS
o Answer: b) Storing metadata about files
o d) ZFS
12. What does "mounting" a filesystem mean?
o Answer: a) NTFS
o a) Formatting a storage device
4. What is the maximum file size supported by the o b) Attaching a filesystem to the directory tree
FAT32 filesystem?
o c) Creating a new partition
o a) 2 GB
o d) Encrypting a filesystem
o b) 4 GB
o Answer: b) Attaching a filesystem to the
o c) 8 GB
directory tree
o d) 16 GB
13. Which filesystem is known for its scalability and used
o Answer: b) 4 GB
in enterprise applications?
5. Which feature is supported by NTFS but not by o a) ZFS
FAT32? o b) EXT3
o a) File permissions and encryption
o c) FAT16
o b) Cross-platform compatibility
o d) HFS
o c) Faster read/write speeds
o Answer: a) ZFS
o d) Partition booting
14. What is the purpose of the "df" command in Linux?
o Answer: a) File permissions and encryption
o a) Create new filesystems
6. What does journaling in a filesystem ensure? o b) Display disk space usage
o a) Enhanced speed during file transfers
o c) Format storage devices
o b) Prevention of data corruption during
o d) Repair filesystems
crashes
o Answer: b) Display disk space usage
15. What does the "mkfs" command do in Linux? o b) A block storing filesystem metadata and
o a) Mount a filesystem configuration
o b) Create a new filesystem o c) The topmost directory in a filesystem
o c) Check filesystem integrity o d) A backup of user data
o d) Delete filesystems o Answer: b) A block storing filesystem
o Answer: b) Create a new filesystem metadata and configuration
16. Which filesystem supports snapshots natively? 24. Which of the following is not a journaling filesystem?
o a) EXT4 o a) EXT3
o b) ZFS o b) EXT4
o c) FAT32 o c) FAT32
o d) NTFS o d) XFS
o Answer: b) ZFS o Answer: c) FAT32
17. What does the "umount" command do in Linux? 25. Which command is used to display the type of a
o a) Unmount a filesystem filesystem in Linux?
o b) Delete a filesystem o a) blkid
o c) Repair a filesystem o b) df -T
o d) List mounted filesystems o c) lsblk
o Answer: a) Unmount a filesystem o d) mount
18. Which filesystem feature allows access control and o Answer: a) blkid
security in NTFS? 26. What does the term "filesystem hierarchy" refer to?
o a) Encryption o a) Directory structure used to organize files
o b) Journaling o b) Priority levels of filesystems
o c) Access Control Lists (ACLs) o c) Storage capacity of the filesystem
o d) File compression o d) Compatibility of filesystems across
o Answer: c) Access Control Lists (ACLs) platforms
19. What is the block size of a filesystem? o Answer: a) Directory structure used to
o a) The size of individual files organize files
o b) The smallest unit of storage allocated to a 27. In Windows, which command checks and repairs
file NTFS filesystems?
o c) The size of the storage device o a) chkdsk
o d) The amount of memory required to load the o b) fsutil
filesystem o c) diskpart
o Answer: b) The smallest unit of storage o d) defrag
allocated to a file o Answer: a) chkdsk
20. Which filesystem supports transactional writes for 28. Which filesystem is designed for distributed storage
high reliability? systems?
o a) Btrfs o a) NFS
o b) EXT2 o b) ZFS
o c) FAT16 o c) GlusterFS
o d) ReFS o d) EXT4
o Answer: d) ReFS o Answer: c) GlusterFS
29. What is the primary advantage of Btrfs over EXT4?
o a) Support for compression and snapshots
o b) Better compatibility with Windows
o c) Faster read/write speeds
21. In Linux, which file contains information about
mounted filesystems? o d) Simpler implementation
o a) /etc/fstab o Answer: a) Support for compression and
o b) /etc/mtab snapshots
o c) /proc/mounts 30. In Linux, which directory typically stores system
o d) /var/log/fs.log configuration files?
o a) /var
o Answer: c) /proc/mounts
o b) /etc
22. What is the purpose of the "tune2fs" command in
o c) /usr
Linux?
o a) Adjust filesystem parameters o d) /opt
o b) Create a new filesystem o Answer: b) /etc
o c) Mount a filesystem
o d) Repair a corrupted filesystem
o Answer: a) Adjust filesystem parameters
23. What is a superblock in the context of filesystems?
o a) A block containing the actual file data