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Exam : SY0-701

Title : CompTIA Security+

Certification Exam

Vendor : CompTIA

Version : DEMO

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NO.1 An organization is struggling with scaling issues on its VPN concentrator and internet circuit
due to remote work. The organization is looking for a software solution that will allow it to reduce
traffic on the VPN and internet circuit, while still providing encrypted tunnel access to the data center
and monitoring of remote employee internet traffic. Which of the following will help achieve these
objectives?
A. Deploying a SASE solution to remote employees
B. Building a load-balanced VPN solution with redundant internet
C. Purchasing a low-cost SD-WAN solution for VPN traffic
D. Using a cloud provider to create additional VPN concentrators
Answer: A
Explanation:
SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge. It is a cloud-based service that combines network and
security functions into a single integrated solution. SASE can help reduce traffic on the VPN and
internet circuit by providing secure and optimized access to the data center and cloud applications
for remote employees. SASE can also monitor and enforce security policies on the remote employee
internet traffic, regardless of their location or device. SASE can offer benefits such as lower costs,
improved performance, scalability, and flexibility compared to traditional VPN solutions. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-
701, 9th Edition, page 457-458 1

NO.2 Which of the following describes a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system,
application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system?
A. SIEM
B. DLP
C. IDS
D. SNMP
Answer: A
Explanation:
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring
tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system.
SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and
dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements.
SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and
reduce operational costs. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing,
page
393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and
Auditing, page 397.

NO.3 A company prevented direct access from the database administrators' workstations to the
network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database
administrator use to access the database servers?
A. Jump server
B. RADIUS

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C. HSM
D. Load balancer
Answer: A
Explanation:
A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user's
workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or
devices that are not directly reachable from the user's workstation, such as database servers. A jump
server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is
also known as a jump box or a jump host12.
RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is
not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and
permissions of users or devices that request network access34.
HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure
storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and
applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access
remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5
.
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or
devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve
the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers,
or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the
delivery of the services that run on them . References = How to access a remote server using a jump
host Jump server RADIUS Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) Hardware Security
Module (HSM)
[What is an HSM?]
[Load balancing (computing)]
[What is Load Balancing?]

NO.4 A systems administrator is redesigning now devices will perform network authentication. The
following requirements need to be met:
* An existing Internal certificate must be used.
* Wired and wireless networks must be supported
* Any unapproved device should be Isolated in a quarantine subnet
* Approved devices should be updated before accessing resources
Which of the following would best meet the requirements?
A. 802.IX
B. EAP
C. RADIUS
D. WPA2
Answer: A
Explanation:
802.1X is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices
trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It supports the use of certificates for authentication, can
quarantine unapproved devices, and ensures that only approved and updated devices can access
network resources. This protocol best meets the requirements of securing both wired and wireless

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networks with internal certificates.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network
security and authentication protocols.

NO.5 An organization would like to store customer data on a separate part of the network that is not
accessible to users on the main corporate network. Which of the following should the administrator
use to accomplish this goal?
A. Segmentation
B. Isolation
C. Patching
D. Encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Segmentation is a network design technique that divides the network into smaller and isolated
segments based on logical or physical boundaries. Segmentation can help improve network security
by limiting the scope of an attack, reducing the attack surface, and enforcing access control policies.
Segmentation can also enhance network performance, scalability, and manageability. To accomplish
the goal of storing customer data on a separate part of the network, the administrator can use
segmentation technologies such as subnetting, VLANs, firewalls, routers, or switches. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 1

NO.6 A systems administrate wants to implement a backup solution. the solution needs to allow
recovery of the entire system, including the operating system, in case of a disaster. Which of the
following backup types should the administrator consider?
A. Incremental
B. Storage area network
C. Differential
D. Image
Answer: D
Explanation:
An image backup, also known as a full system backup, captures the entire contents of a system,
including the operating system, applications, settings, and all data. This type of backup allows for a
complete recovery of the system in case of a disaster, as it includes everything needed to restore the
system to its previous state.
This makes it the ideal choice for a systems administrator who needs to ensure the ability to recover
the entire system, including the OS.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, domain on Security Operations.

NO.7 Visitors to a secured facility are required to check in with a photo ID and enter the facility
through an access control vestibule Which of the following but describes this form of security
control?
A. Physical
B. Managerial
C. Technical
D. Operational

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Answer: A
Explanation:
A physical security control is a device or mechanism that prevents unauthorized access to a physical
location or asset. An access control vestibule, also known as a mantrap, is a physical security control
that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must
close before the second set opens. This prevents unauthorized individuals from following authorized
individuals into the facility, a practice known as piggybacking or tailgating. A photo ID check is
another form of physical security control that verifies the identity of visitors. Managerial, technical,
and operational security controls are not directly related to physical access, but rather to policies,
procedures, systems, and processes that support security objectives. References: CompTIA Security+
Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 341; Mantrap (access control) - Wikipedia2

NO.8 Which of the following activities uses OSINT?

A. Social engineering testing
B. Data analysis of logs
C. Collecting evidence of malicious activity
D. Producing IOC for malicious artifacts
Answer: C

NO.9 Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?

A. Firmware version
B. Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or
a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be
updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific
vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered
with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device
settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to
keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity. References = CompTIA Security+
Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page
10.

NO.10 Which of the following data protection strategies can be used to confirm file integrity?
A. Masking
B. Encryption
C. Hashing
D. Obfuscation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hashing (C)is aone-way cryptographic functionthat produces afixed-length digestrepresenting the

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original data. If the file changes-even by one bit-the hash will change, making it ideal for verifyingdata
integrity.
While encryption protectsconfidentiality, and masking/obfuscation protectdata visibility, onlyhashing
ensures integrity.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Objectives, Domain 1.2 - "Data protection methods: Hashing
for integrity verification."

NO.11 An organization wants to limit potential impact to its log-in database in the event of a breach.
Which of the following options is the security team most likely to recommend?
A. Tokenization
B. Hashing
C. Obfuscation
D. Segmentation
Answer: B
Explanation:
To limit the potential impact on the log-in database in case of a breach, the security team would most
likely recommend hashing. Hashing converts passwords into fixed-length strings of characters, which
cannot be easily reversed to reveal the original passwords. Even if the database is breached,
attackers cannot easily retrieve the actual passwords if they are properly hashed (especially with
techniques like salting).
Tokenization is used to replace sensitive data with a token, but it is more common for protecting
credit card data than passwords.
Obfuscation is the process of making data harder to interpret but is weaker than hashing for
password protection.
Segmentation helps isolate data but doesn't directly protect the contents of the login database.

NO.12 While conducting a business continuity tabletop exercise, the security team becomes
concerned by potential impacts if a generator fails during failover. Which of the following is the team
most likely to consider in regard to risk management activities?
A. RPO
B. ARO
C. BIA
D. MTTR
Answer: D
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is a key metric in risk management, reflecting the
time required to repair a failed component, such as a generator, and restore operations. Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section:
"Business Continuity Metrics".

NO.13 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has developed information security policies that
relate to the software development methodology. Which of the following would the CISO most likely
include in the organization's documentation?
A. Peer review requirements
B. Multifactor authentication

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C. Branch protection tests

D. Secrets management configurations
Answer: A

NO.14 After creating a contract for IT contractors, the human resources department changed
several clauses. The contract has gone through three revisions. Which of the following processes
should the human resources department follow to track revisions?
A. Version validation
B. Version changes
C. Version updates
D. Version control
Answer: D

NO.15 Malware spread across a company's network after an employee visited a compromised
industry blog. Which of the following best describes this type of attack?
A. Impersonation
B. Disinformation
C. Watering-hole
D. Smishing
Answer: C
Explanation:
A watering-hole attack is a type of cyberattack that targets groups of users by infecting websites that
they commonly visit. The attackers exploit vulnerabilities to deliver a malicious payload to the
organization's network. The attack aims to infect users' computers and gain access to a connected
corporate network. The attackers target websites known to be popular among members of a
particular organization or demographic. The attack differs from phishing and spear-phishing attacks,
which typically attempt to steal data or install malware onto users' devices1 In this scenario, the
compromised industry blog is the watering hole that the attackers used to spread malware across the
company's network. The attackers likely chose this blog because they knew that the employees of the
company were interested in its content and visited it frequently. The attackers may have injected
malicious code into the blog or redirected the visitors to a spoofed website that hosted the malware.
The malware then infected the employees' computers and propagated to the network.
References1: Watering Hole Attacks: Stages, Examples, Risk Factors & Defense ...

NO.16 Client files can only be accessed by employees who need to know the information and have
specified roles in the company. Which of the following best describes this security concept?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario described, where client files are only accessible to employees who "need to know" the
information, reflects the concept of confidentiality. Confidentiality ensures that sensitive information

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is only accessible to those who are authorized to view it, preventing unauthorized access.
Availability ensures that data is accessible when needed but doesn't focus on restricting access.
Integrity ensures that data remains accurate and unaltered but doesn't pertain to access control.
Non-repudiation ensures that actions cannot be denied after they are performed, but this concept is
unrelated to access control.

NO.17 A company has a website in a server cluster. One server is experiencing very high usage, while
others are nearly unused. Which of the following should the company configure to help distribute
traffic quickly?
A. Server multiprocessing
B. Warm site
C. Load balancer
D. Proxy server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Aload balancerdistributes incoming traffic evenly across multiple servers to prevent any single server
from becoming overloaded. This ensureshigh availability, scalability, and optimal performanceof the
company's website.
Server multiprocessing (A)refers to the use of multiple processors within a single server but does not
distribute traffic across multiple servers.
A warm site (B)is a disaster recovery strategy, not a method for balancing real-time traffic.
A proxy server (D)acts as an intermediary between users and web services but does not distribute
server load.
Using aload balancerallows forefficient traffic management and prevents server overload.

NO.18 A newly identified network access vulnerability has been found in the OS of legacy loT
devices. Which of the following would best mitigate this vulnerability quickly?
A. Insurance
B. Patching
C. Segmentation
D. Replacement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks or segments, each with
its own security policies and controls. Segmentation can help mitigate network access vulnerabilities
in legacy loT devices by isolating them from other devices and systems, reducing their attack surface
and limiting the potential impact of a breach. Segmentation can also improve network performance
and efficiency by reducing congestion and traffic. Patching, insurance, and replacement are other
possible strategies to deal with network access vulnerabilities, but they may not be feasible or
effective in the short term. Patching may not be available or compatible for legacy loT devices,
insurance may not cover the costs or damages of a cyberattack, and replacement may be expensive
and time-consuming. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page
142-143

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NO.19 An employee fell for a phishing scam, which allowed an attacker to gain access to a company
PC. The attacker scraped the PC's memory to find other credentials. Without cracking these
credentials, the attacker used them to move laterally through the corporate network. Which of the
following describes this type of attack?
A. Privilege escalation
B. Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection
D. Pass-the-hash
Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario describes an attacker who obtained credentials from a compromised system's memory
and used them without cracking to move laterally within the network. This technique is known as a
"pass-the-hash" attack, where the attacker captures hashed credentials (e.g., NTLM hashes) and uses
them to authenticate and gain access to other systems without needing to know the plaintext
password. This is a common attack method in environments where weak security practices or
outdated protocols are in use.
References =
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course discusses credential-based attacks like pass-
the- hash, emphasizing their impact and the importance of protecting credential stores.

NO.20 Which of the following is the first step to take when creating an anomaly detection process?
A. Selecting events
B. Building a baseline
C. Selecting logging options
D. Creating an event log
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first step in creating an anomaly detection process is building a baseline of normal behavior
within the system. This baseline serves as a reference point to identify deviations or anomalies that
could indicate a security incident. By understanding what normal activity looks like, security teams
can more effectively detect and respond to suspicious behavior.
References =
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Monitoring and Baselines.

NO.21 An incident response specialist must stop a malicious attack from expanding to other parts of
an organization.
Which of the following should the incident response specialist perform first?
A. Eradication
B. Recovery
C. Containment
D. Simulation
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Containment (C)is thefirst critical stepduring a security incident tostop the spreadof the attack. This
could include isolating affected systems, disabling accounts, or blocking malicious traffic.
According to theIncident Response Lifecycle, the order is typically:Identification # Containment #
Eradication # Recovery # Lessons Learned.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Objectives, Domain 5.4 - "Incident response process:
Containment as the immediate action."

NO.22 Cadets speaking a foreign language are using company phone numbers to make unsolicited
phone calls lo a partner organization. A security analyst validates through phone system logs that the
calls are occurring and the numbers are not being spoofed. Which of the following is the most likely
explanation?
A. The executive team is traveling internationally and trying to avoid roaming charges
B. The company's SIP server security settings are weak.
C. Disgruntled employees are making calls to the partner organization.
D. The service provider has assigned multiple companies the same numbers
Answer: B
Explanation:
If cadets are using company phone numbers to make unsolicited calls, and the logs confirm the
numbers are not being spoofed, it suggests that the SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) server's security
settings might be weak. This could allow unauthorized access or exploitation of the company's
telephony services, potentially leading to misuse by unauthorized individuals.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, especially on SIP security and common
vulnerabilities.

NO.23 In a rush to meet an end-of-year business goal, the IT department was told to implement a
new business application. The security engineer reviews the attributes of the application and decides
the time needed to perform due diligence is insufficient from a cybersecurity perspective. Which of
the following best describes the security engineer's response?
A. Risk tolerance
B. Risk acceptance
C. Risk importance
D. Risk appetite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk appetite refers to the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its
objectives. In this scenario, the security engineer is concerned that the timeframe for implementing a
new application does not allow for sufficient cybersecurity due diligence. This reflects a situation
where the organization's risk appetite might be too high if it proceeds without the necessary security
checks.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of risk
management and understanding organizational risk appetite.

NO.24 Which of the following is the primary purpose of a service that tracks log-ins and time spent
using the service?
A. Availability

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B. Accounting
C. Authentication
D. Authorization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Accounting logs user activities such as log-ins and usage duration, which is part of the AAA
framework (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting).

NO.25 A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote
desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should
the security analyst recommend?
A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server
D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length
Answer: B
Explanation:
A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a
public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and
locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a
target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security
and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that
filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the
internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A
security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the
remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with
VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services,
page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1

NO.26 A site reliability engineer is designing a recovery strategy that requires quick failover to an
identical site if the primary facility goes down. Which of the following types of sites should the
engineer consider?
A. Recovery site
B. Hot site
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: B
Explanation:
A hot site is a fully operational offsite facility that is equipped with hardware, software, and up-to-
date data, and is ready to take over operations immediately if the primary site fails. This allows for
minimal downtime and quick failover, meeting the requirement for rapid recovery.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Domain 4.4: "Hot sites are ready to take over

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operations instantly with minimal downtime." Exam Objectives 4.4: "Summarize business continuity
and disaster recovery concepts."

NO.27 An administrator needs to perform server hardening before deployment. Which of the
following steps should the administrator take? (Select two).
A. Disable default accounts.
B. Add the server to the asset inventory.
C. Remove unnecessary services.
D. Document default passwords.
E. Send server logs to the SIEM.
F. Join the server to the corporate domain.
Answer: A C

NO.28 Which of the following are cases in which an engineer should recommend the
decommissioning of a network device? (Select two).
A. The device has been moved from a production environment to a test environment.
B. The device is configured to use cleartext passwords.
C. The device is moved to an isolated segment on the enterprise network.
D. The device is moved to a different location in the enterprise.
E. The device's encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
F. The device is unable to receive authorized updates.
Answer: E
Explanation:
An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a
security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the
encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may
expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed
from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.
References
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671
CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512

NO.29 An employee clicked a link in an email from a payment website that asked the employee to
update contact information. The employee entered the log-in information but received a "page not
found" error message.
Which of the following types of social engineering attacks occurred?
A. Brand impersonation
B. Pretexting
C. Typosquatting
D. Phishing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to
be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites, banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of

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phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or
providing sensitive information, such as log-in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this
scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the employee to
update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website
that mimicked the appearance of the real one.
The employee entered the log-in information, but received a "page not found" error message. This
indicates that the employee fell victim to a phishing attack, and the attacker may have captured the
employee's credentials for the payment website. References = Other Social Engineering Attacks -
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.2, CompTIA Security+: Social Engineering Techniques & Other Attack ...
- NICCS, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th
Edition]

NO.30 An accounting clerk sent money to an attacker's bank account after receiving fraudulent
instructions over the phone to use a new account. Which of the following would most likely prevent
this activity in the future?
A. Standardizing security incident reporting
B. Executing regular phishing campaigns
C. Implementing insider threat detection measures
D. Updating processes for sending wire transfers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Updating wire transfer processes to include verification steps (such as requiring dual approval or
verifying account changes via a secondary communication method) canprevent
fraudulenttransactions. Attackers often use business email compromise (BEC) or pretexting to trick
employees into transferring funds to fraudulent accounts.
Standardizing security incident reportingis useful for tracking security events but does not prevent
fraud in real time.
Executing regular phishing campaignsimproves awareness but does not enforce a verification process
for financial transactions.
Implementing insider threat detectionfocuses on internal risks but does not specifically prevent
external fraud.
Amore secure wire transfer processwith additional verification steps is the most effective measure
against fraudulent transactions.

NO.31 A software developer wishes to implement an application security technique that will provide
assurance of the application's integrity. Which of the following techniques will achieve this?
A. Secure cookies
B. Input validation
C. Static analysis
D. Code signing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Code signing (D)usescryptographic digital signaturesto confirm theintegrity and authenticityof
software code.

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It ensures that the code hasnot been alteredafter being signed, providing assurance that the
application is trustworthy.
This aligns withCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Domain 2.3: Application security techniques, which
includescode signingas a method to validatecode integrity.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Objectives, Domain 2.3 - "Code signing: Validates integrity and
origin of the software."

NO.32 While reviewing logs, a security administrator identifies the following code:
<script>function(send_info)</script>
Which of the following best describes the vulnerability being exploited?
A. XSS
B. SQLi
C. DDoS
D. CSRF
Answer: A

NO.33 A security engineer is installing an IPS to block signature-based attacks in the environment.
Which of the following modes will best accomplish this task?
A. Monitor
B. Sensor
C. Audit
D. Active
Answer: D
Explanation:
To block signature-based attacks, the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) must be in active mode. In
this mode, the IPS can actively monitor and block malicious traffic in real time based on predefined
signatures. This is the best mode to prevent known attack types from reaching the internal network.
Monitor mode and sensor mode are typically passive, meaning they only observe and log traffic
without actively blocking it.
Audit mode is used for review purposes and does not actively block traffic.

NO.34 Which of the following allows a systems administrator to tune permissions for a file?
A. Patching
B. Access control list
C. Configuration enforcement
D. Least privilege
Answer: B
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:Access control lists (ACLs) allow administrators to fine-tune file permissions by
specifying which users or groups have access to a file and defining the level of access. Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control
Mechanisms".

NO.35 An external vendor recently visited a company's headquarters tor a presentation. Following
the visit a member of the hosting team found a file that the external vendor left behind on a server.

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The file contained detailed architecture information and code snippets. Which of the following data
types best describes this file?
A. Government
B. Public
C. Proprietary
D. Critical
Answer: C
Explanation:
The file left by the external vendor, containing detailed architecture information and code snippets, is
best described as proprietary data. Proprietary data is information that is owned by a company and is
essential to its competitive advantage. It includes sensitive business information such as trade
secrets, intellectual property, and confidential data that should be protected from unauthorized
access.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of data
classification and protection.

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