ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 1

PRACTICE TEST 1
I. Listening (2.0 points)
Part 1: Listen to Tom talking about living in Brighton. For questions 1 to 5, choose the correct answer.
Choose the correct answers (A, B, C, D).
1. Tom got his own flat_______ ago.
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years
2. My friends say the nightlife is __________
A. good B. bad C. funny D. boring
3. Tom’s stuffs are always getting___________
A. become B. lost C. caught D. stolen
4. The city is used to be a__________ place
A. dirty B. cold C. hot D. dangerous
5. Tom’s favourite place to eat out is_________
A. a restaurant near the sea B. a café near his office
C. a café by the sea D. a restaurant by the sea
Part 2: You will hear a man called Stephen Mills talking to a group of people about a trip to India to see
tigers. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
THE TIGER TOUR
Stephen's profession: _________(6)
Date of departure: __________ (7)
Number of tourists in group: __________ (8)
Type of accommodation: hotel
Means of transport in the park: - open truck in the north
- (9)___________ in the south
Meal not included: (10)__________on the last day
II. Reading (2.0 points)
Part 1: Read the passage and complete each blank with a correct world (A, B, C, D).
English Opens New Career Opportunities
English is an important language for all kinds of professional and personal goals. Whether you’re just
starting out in English, or you need some (11) _______ to keep going, understanding the importance of the
language will help you reach fluency and change your life.
Learning English can help you pursue and obtain more career opportunities. These days, the job market
is global - many companies need employees who can (12) _______ with partners and clients all over the
world. Very often, that means finding (13) _______ who speak English.
Are you job hunting? Are you looking for a promotion within your company? Do you just want to keep
your professional options open? Learning English is an important step forward to all of those goals.
The global job market has even (14) _______ new positions for bilingual people. By learning English, you
could become a translator, a language teacher or an English marketing professional (15) _______ a global
company.
No matter what career path you decide to pursue learning English is a valuable skill. It’ll help you
become a better, more sought-after employee as well as a more well-rounded person.
11. A. force B. power C. pressure D. motivation
12. A. tell B. communicate C. talk D. describe
13. A. employment B. employers C. employees D. employing
14. A. created B. made C. done D. taken
15. A. for B. into C. on D. at
Part 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the questions.
Pollution is an environmental concern for people throughout the world. One university study
suggests that pollutants in the water, air, and soil cause up to 40% of the premature deaths in the world’s
population. The majority of these deaths occur in developing countries.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 2

Water in many developing countries is contaminated with toxic chemicals, also known as toxins. The World
Health Organization (WHO) estimates that 1.1 billion people have little or no access to clean water. In
many of these regions the water that is used for drinking, cooking, and washing is the same water that is
used for dumping sewage and hazardous waste. Most developing countries cannot afford water treatment
facilities. Approximately 80% of infectious diseases in the world are caused by contaminated water.
Air pollution is a growing problem throughout the world. Indoor air pollution is one of the leading
causes of lung cancer. Families in developing countries use open stoves for cooking and heating their
homes. These homes do not have proper ventilation. The smoke, which is full of chemicals and carcinogens,
gets trapped inside where families eat and sleep. Outdoor pollution also causes disease and illness,
especially in industrial cities such as Beijing, China, where cancer is the leading cause of death. China relies
heavily on coal, which is considered the dirtiest source of energy. According to the European Union, only
1% of urban dwellers in China breathe clean air on an average day.
Soil pollution is also a major concern, both in industrial and developing countries. Pollutants such as
metals and pesticides seep into the earth’s soil and contaminate the food supply. Soil pollution causes major
health risks to entire ecosystems. This type of pollution reduces the amount of land suitable for agricultural
production and contributes to global food shortages.
As more people move to urban centres, premature deaths caused by pollution are expected to increase
worldwide. Today, the developed nations who achieved their wealth at the expense of the environment will
be held accountable for protecting the earth’s resources for future generations.

16. The passage mainly discusses_________________

A. main types of pollution, causes and effects.
B. premature deaths in developing countries.
C. study results on pollution.
D. an environmental concern for people.
17. What can result in approximately 80% of infectious diseases in the world?
A. Carcinogens B. Metals C. Pesticides D. Polluted water
18. What is the leading cause of death in Beijing, China?
A. Heart diseases B. Respiratory diseases
C. Cancer D. Pulmonary diseases
19. The word “pollutants” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by “_________”.
A. substances B. contaminants C. chemicals D. agents
20. Who is responsible for protecting the earth’s resources for future generations?
A. The developing nations faced with acute environmental problems.
B. The developed nations with modern technology.
C. The developing nations investing into the environment.
D. The developed nations achieving their wealth at the expense of the environment.
III. LANGUAGE (4 points)
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet.

21. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
A. garnish B. shallot C. simmer D. hyphen
22. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
A. involved B. decided C. explained D. allowed

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 3

23. No mountain in the world is ___________Mount Everest.
A. high B. the highest C. as high as D. higher than
24. At this time next month, I __________ as a primary English teacher at Green star School.
A. will work B. will be working C. will working D. will have worked
25. The doctor advised me __________ a rest after an exhausting working day.
A. to take B. to taking C. taking D. of taking
26. Some people expect to make mistakes in their studies and are capable __________ benefiting from
their mistakes.
A. in B. from C. of D. into
27. The bridge is ______________ because of the severe accident this morning.
A. accessible B. access C. accessibility D. inaccessible
28. If you feel bored to death, why don’t you _______ a new hobby such as making pottery or carving
wood?
A. take up B. take over C. take off D. take in
29. Forests provide __________ for a vast array of plants and animals, many of which are still
undiscovered.
A. place B. home C. shelter D. habitat
30. You will have more opportunities if you come to work in the city.
The word “opportunities” is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. possibilities B. difficulties C. advantages D. disadvantages
31. They decided to postpone their holiday until next year.
The word “postpone” is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. cancel B. spoil C. endanger D. continue
32. Physical changes are different for everyone at adolescence, so we don’t need to feel__________.
A. frustrated B. disappointed C. embarrassed D. informed
33. The doctor told him to __________ sweets and chocolate to lose weight.
A. keep over B. keep at C. keep off D. keep up
34. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence.
The scientist whose discovered penicillin received the Nobel Prize in 1945.
A. whose B. penicillin C. received D. in
35. Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentences.
“Let’s break for lunch,” said Mathew.
A. Mathew wanted to break for lunch.
B. Mathew insisted on breaking for lunch.
C. Mathew suggested breaking for lunch.
D. Mathew offered US a break for lunch.
36. Scientists have found out the vaccine against Coronavirus.
A. The vaccine against Coronavirus has been found out by scientists.
B. Scientists were found out the vaccine against Coronavirus.
C. The vaccine against Coronavirus was found out by scientists.
D. Scientists have been found out the vaccine against Coronavirus.
Part 2: Communication
Write ONE word in each blank to make complete conversations between two friends.
Nick: Have you heard about space tourism?
Jane: Yeah, it's becoming more popular these days.
Nick: I can't (37)___________ how expensive it must be to travel to space.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 4

Jane: I heard that some companies are offering trips for around $250,000.
Nick: That's still a lot of (38)__________, but I guess it's worth it for the experience.
Jane: Definitely. I would love to see the (39)_________ from space and experience weightlessness.
Nick: It would be amazing to be one of the first people to visit Mars, too.
Jane: Absolutely, but I think that's still a long way off. For now, I'll settle for a trip to the (40)
_____________ Space Station.

V. Writing. (2 points)
In about 120 words, write a paragraph about the advantages and disadvantages of eating out.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 5
 PRACTICE TEST 2

I. LISTENING (2.0 points)

Listen to people talking in ten different situations. Choose the correct answer ( A, B, C, or D ). You
will hear each conversation twice. Write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. What can’t the woman find ?
A. a knife B. a paintbrush C. a hammer D. a paint bucket
2. What is the weather forecast for tomorrow ?
A. heavy rain B. sunshine
C. sunshine with light showers D. hot and dry weather
3. What did the boy buy ?
A. the salad B. the tomatoes and the bread
C. newspapers D. the bread and some orange juice
4. Which present has the girl bought her mother ?
A. a CD B. a pair of earrings
C. a gold- coloured pen D. a music player
5. Which TV programme will they watch together ?
A. the wildlife programme B. the basketball match
C. the rock concert D. the football match
6. What time is the swimming lesson today ?
A. 4:30 B. 4:45 C. 5: 15 D. 5:30
7. Which subject does the boy like best ?
A. sports B. IT C. geography D. biology
8. What should the students take on the school trip ?
A. money, fruits, coloured pencils B. colour pencils, fruits
C. money, fruits D. money, coloured pencils
9. Where do the boys decide to go ?
A. go skateboarding B. go shopping
C. go to a computer game shop D. go to the movie
10. What has the girl lost ?
A. a mobile phone B. a pen C. a purse D. a bag
II. READING (2.0 points)
Part 1. Read the passage and complete each blank with a correct word. Write A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet.
Tourism is an activity in which the person moves from place to place for the purpose of recreation and
the identification of tourist sites. The person (11)_________ carries out this activity is called the tourist.
Tourism is divided (12)_________ to: internal tourism which is inside the country and an external tourism
which is outside the country. Tourism is of particular importance for the (13)_________ of the country as
a whole and citizens, such as: Tourism is an important source of funds and increasing the (14) _________
income of the country. Some countries rely mainly on tourism to provide capital and build projects in them.
Providing job opportunities for residents and thus reducing the unemployment rate. The exchange of
cultures and ideas (15)_________tourists and the country’s population are discussed every day to promote
tourism.
11. A. who B. which C. when D. where
12. A. of B. at C. in D. on
13. A. exciting B. interesting C. good D. benefit
14. A. nation B. national C. international D. nationality
15. A. and B. between C. near D. next

Part 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions. Write A, B, C or D on
your answer sheet.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 6

 The large movement of the earth under the water caused a very huge and powerful tsunami. The tsunami
was called the Asian Tsunami in most of the world. It was called the Boxing Day Tsunami in England,
Australia, South Africa and Canada, because it happened on the holiday they call Boxing Day. The tsunami
caused a lot of damage to many countries such as the Philippines, Thailand, Indonesia and Sri Lanka. Waves
as high as thirty meters killed many people and damaged or destroyed a lot of buildings and other property.
Over 225,000 people died or were not found after the tsunami. The wave traveled as far as South Africa
(8,000km), where as many as 8 people died because of high water caused by the wave. Because of the
severe damage and the number of people the tsunami affected, over US$7 billion was donated to help the
survivors and to rebuild the areas damaged.
16. Why was the tsunami called the Boxing Day Tsunami in England ?
A. Because it happened on Boxing Day.
B. Because it happened when people were collecting boxes.
C. Because it happened when people were boxing.
D. Because it destroyed a lot of boxes.
17. How high were the waves ?
A. thirteen meters B. eight meters C. thirty meters D. eighteen meters
18. What were some people in South Africa killed by ?
A. earthquake B. high water C. property D. strong wind
19.What does the word “survivors” in the passage mean ?
A. people who were dead. B. offices which are rebuilt.
C. people who are left alive. D. houses which aren’t destroyed.
20. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _______.
A. The tsunami caused a lot of damage to Indonesia.
B. Many people died because of the high waves.
C. A lot of money was raised to help people.
D. The tsunami was called the Asian Tsunami only in Asia.
III. LANGUAGE (4.0 points)
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet.
21.Tim was very tired. He __________ for an hour.
A. has run B. had run C. was running D. runs
22. The smartphone is one of the __________ inventions ever.
A. useful than B. more useful C. most useful D. less useful
23.The firemen had to __________ the room to recue the children.
A. break into B. break out C. break on D. break down
24.They climbed the mountain __________ it was snowing heavily.
A. if B. although C.so that D. because
25.I was trying __________ him to change his mind.
A. persuade B. persuading C.to persuade D. persuaded
26.If Jane __________ hard, she __________ pass the examination.
A. works-could B. worked - can C. work-could D. worked-could
27.At this time yesterday, Nga __________ her homework.
A. was do B. was doing C. does D. did
28. My mobile phone, __________ I lost on the train last week, had all my contacts on it.
A. which B. whose C. who D. when
29. Recipes tell me to add one or two __________ of celery to a soup or stew.
A. cloves B. slices C. sticks D. bunches
30. Let’s wait here for her. I’m sure she’ll turn up before long.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 7
 The word “turn up” is CLOSEST in meaning to _________.
A. return B. arrive C. enter D. visit
31.She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.
The word “well-off ” is OPPOSITE in meaning to _________.
A. poor B. wealthy C. kind D. broke
32. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentences.
Men and women’s roles in society have been changed for decades now
A. Men B. in C. changed D. now
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentences.
33.He said to me “I am leaving tomorrow ”.
A. He told me that I was leaving tomorrow.
B. He told me that he was leaving the following day.
C. He told me that he was leaving the previous day.
D. He told me that he was leaving tomorrow.
34.Someone switched on a light and opened the door.
A. A light was switched on and the door was opened.
B. A light and the door were switched on was opened.
C. A light was opened and the door was switched on.
D. A light and the door were switched on were opened.
35. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
A. destination B. exhibition C. expectation D. variety
36. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
A. varied B. dipped C. picked D. sliced
Part 2: Communication
Write ONE word in each blank to make a complete conversation between two friends. Write the words
on your answer sheet.
Janet: I think we should study hard to get better job (37)_______ the future.
John: Yes, that’s important.
Janet: But (38) _______ is not the only way to achieve success.
John: Couldn’t agree more.
Janet: That’s (39) _______ I intend to drop school and find a job to earn money.
John: You want to drop school?
Janet: Yes. I don’t think I like going to school that much (40) _______ it’s too tiring and uninteresting.
John: I don’t think so.
IV. WRITING (2.0 points)
Write a paragraph of at least 120 words about your dream job and the qualities you need for that
job.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 8

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_______This is the end of the test.________

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 9

 PRACTICE TEST 3

I. LISTENING: (2.0 points)

A. Listen to Sue talking to a friend about her new clothes. Why did Sue decide to buy each thing? (1
point)
Example:
0 jeans _ F
CLOTHES SUE BOUGHT WHY?
1 jacket ……. A big
2 dress ……. B cheap
3 sweater ……. C expensive
4 coat ……. D light
5 T-shirt ……. E long
F purple
G short
H soft
B. You will hear some information about a pop concert (1 point)
Listen and complete questions 6-10.
POP CONCERT
Name of group: Red River
In London: From: October 28th

To: 6
November ………. ….…..…………………
Price of ticket: ………………………………
7 £ …………

Telephone number: 8 …………..………. ……………………

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Place …………………………………….
9 ..……………….…. Bank
Bank…………………………………………
In:
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10 Bank Hall
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Street ………..……………………………
II. READING (2.0 points) …………………. Street
Part 1. Choose the correct answers to complete the passage.(1.0 point)
SpaceX’s Crew Dragon Demo-2 is off to a roaring start. After a delayed launch earlier in the week, the
spacecraft (31) _______ at 3:22 pm EDT on Saturday. It left the planet and entered Earth’s orbit, where it
will later dock with the International Space Station (ISS), beginning a new (32) _______ of commercial
space tourism and exploration.
If all does as planned, the Crew Dragon capsule, which rides on the top of SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket,
will make (33) _______ to the ISS. The capsule is designed to fly mostly autonomously, but astronauts
Robert Behnken and Douglas Hurley will take the controls while in Earth’s orbit to test out its manual
capabilities. Docking with the ISS, however, is (34) _______ to be completely autonomous, which is a new
feature of the upgraded capsule. A second version of the capsule, the Cargo Dragon, is designed to use this
automated docking for seamless deliveries (35) _______ the ISS. After docking, the astronauts will live on
the space station for a few months - the exact timing is not yet decided - before getting back in the Crew
Dragon and returning to Earth.

11. A. took up B. got on C. lifted off D. flew around

12. A. stage B. era C. area D. field
13. A. 19 trip hours B. 19-hour trip C. a 19-hours trip D. a 19-hour trip
14. A. considered B. believed C. supposed D. said

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 10

15. A. on B. of C. toward D. to

Part 2. Read the passage carefully. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F) and choose the
correct answers. (1.0 point)
ROBOT TEACHERS
If you think of the jobs that robots could never do, you probably put doctors and teachers at the top of
the list. However, in some cases robots already perform better than doctors at diagnosing illness. Also,
some patients might feel more comfortable sharing personal information with a machine than with a person.
Could there be a place for robots in education after all?
British education expert Anthony Seldon thinks so. He predicts by 2027 robots will do the main job of
transferring information and teachers will be like assistants. Intelligent robots will read students’ faces,
movements and maybe even brain signals. Then they will adapt the information to each student. It’s not a
popular opinion and it’s unlikely robots will ever have empathy and the ability to really connect with
humans like another human can.
Teachers all over the world are leaving because it is a difficult job and they feel overworked. Perhaps
the question is not ‘Will robots replace teachers?’ but ‘How can robots help teachers?’ Office workers can
use software to do things like organise and answer emails, arrange meetings and update calendars. Teachers
waste a lot of time doing non-teaching work, including more than 11 hours a week marking homework. If
robots could cut the time teachers spend marking homework and writing reports, teachers would have more
time and energy for the parts of the job humans do best.
16. Robots are always better at diagnosing illness than doctors.
17. Education experts agree robots will fully replace teachers by 2027.
18. Anthony Seldon thinks teachers in the future will help robots in class.
19. Robot teachers will be able to read the brains and facial expressions of students and change the
information so that it fits each student.
20. One advantage of robot teachers is that they could empathise with students.
III. Language (4.0 points)
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet.
21. The artist, ________ painting you have bought, is a friend of my father’s.
A. whom B. whose C. from whose D. from whom
22. The lion ________ long a symbol of strength, power, and cruelty.
A. is B. was C. has been D. will be
23. Will you ________ me to water the flowers before we go out tomorrow?
A. remember B. suggest C. remind D. advise
24. Most developing countries are in ________ of capital and technical assistance.
A. lack B. need C. shortage D. excess
25. I tried _____some essential skills before applying for that job.
A. to master B. master C. mastered D. mastering
26. The more ________ and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confide B. confident C. confidently D. confidence
27. The weather is ________ this week than last week.
A. more good B. very good C. too better D. much better
28. More open discussions_____ online to help us reach a good decision.
A. will conduct B. will be conducted C. conducts D. conducted
29. My sister has gone to the baker’s to buy a ________ of bread.
A. loaf B. piece C. bit D. packet
30. Although there is much pollution in this city, ________.
A. but it is an ideal place to live
B. however it is an ideal place to live
C. there it is an ideal place to live
D. it is still an ideal place to live

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 11

 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
31. The mechanic tried hard to mend the washing machine, but without success.
A. build B. repair C. design D. break
32. If you didn’t contribute generously, we couldn’t continue with our project.
A. charitably B. generally C. officially D. locally
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
33. Education is free, but some people pay to send their children to private schools.
A. expensive B. popular C. public D. high
34. It is so good that the authorities have improved the public transport system here recently.
A. changed basically B. stopped using
C. made better D. made worse
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
35. -"Would you like milk or sugar in your tea?". “____________”
A. No sugar, please. B. No, just black tea, please.
C. Why not milk for me? D. Yes, a lot of milk.
36. -"What time did you phone Oggy last night?"
“____________”
A. I didn’t see him last night B. Oh, half of an hour
C. From my home D. At a quarter past ten
Part 2. Communication
Write ONE word in each blank to make a complete conversation between two friends. Write the words
on your answer sheet.
Jenny: Hi! Is that Dave? This is Jenny.
Dave: Yes Jenny, what (37)………….I do for you?
Jenny: I wanted to thank you for inviting me to your party. I had a great time.
Dave: I’m glad you enjoyed (38)……….
Jenny: You haven’t seen a dark blue coat lying around anywhere, have you? I lost it somewhere last
night.
Dave: There are a few bits and pieces here, let me have a (39)…………. Can you describe it for me?
Jenny: It’s dark blue (40)………….a dark red collar, a pocket and a dark red belt.
Dave: Yes, I have it here.
IV. Writing (2.0 points)
Write a paragraph of about 120 words to talk about an interesting lesson you’ve learnt recently and
explain why you like it.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 12

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---THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST---

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 13

 PRACTICE TEST 4

I. LISTENING (2.0 points)

I. You will hear some information about Finchester Zoo. (1.0 point)
Listen and complete the questions given.

FINCHESTER ZOO
Closed on: 0. Monday

Closing time in summer: 1………………………………. p.m.

Meeting place for tour: 2…………………………………….

At 2 p.m., see: 3……………………………. eat their food.

Zoo shop sells: BOOKS AND 4…………………………………………….

Child's ticket costs: 5……………………………………. pounds.

II. Listen to Eric talking to Mary about the weekend. Their friend Carlos is coming to visit them.
Choose the best answer (A, B C or D) for each space. (1.0 point)
6. What does Carlos hate?
A. shopping B. museums C. football D. walking
7. Where are they going to eat on Saturday evening?
A. At home B. in an Italian restaurant
C. in a Chinese restaurant D. in a Japanese restaurant
8. What are they going to do on Sunday morning?
A. go for a walk B. go for a drive
C. go to the cinema D. get up late
9. Where are they going to have lunch on Sunday?
A. in a café B. in a pub C. in a restaurant D. at home
10. They can't go to the cinema on Sunday afternoon because………….
A. Carol doesn’t like films B. Eric doesn’t like films
C. they don’t have time D. they have a meeting
II. READING: (2.0 points)
Part 1: Choose the correct answer from the options below, then complete the following passage (1pt)
Today, supermarkets are found in almost every large city in the world. But the first supermarket
(11)_________opened only fifty years ago. It was opened in New York by a man named Michael Cullen.
A supermarket is different (12)___________other types of stores in several ways. In supermarkets, goods
are placed on open shelves. The (13)__________ choose what they want and take them to the checkout
counter. This means that fewer shop assistants are needed than in other stores. The way products are
displayed is another difference between supermarkets and many other types of stores; (14)__________
example, in supermarkets, there is usually a display of small inexpensive items just in front of the checkout
counter: candies, chocolates, magazines, cheap foods and so on. Most customers (15)__________go to a
supermarket buy goods from a shopping list. They know exactly what they need to buy. They do the
shopping according to a plan.

11. A. is B. has been C. was D. were

12. A. in B. from C. of D. with

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 14

13. A. customers B. managers C. assistants D. sellers
14. A. in B. for C. of D. by
15. A. who B. what C. which D. whom
Part 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answers. (1 pt)
The changing roles of the modern-day father
Fathers used to act as the ‘breadwinner’ of their family, and as the teacher of moral and religious values.
Today, however, those roles are gradually changing.
Changes in economic roles
More and more women are going out to work and earn money. This increases the budget of the family.
Apart from that, there are various social welfare programmes which financially assist mothers in supporting
their children. Both these changes have greatly impacted the role of fathers because they make paternal
financial support less essential for many families.
Changes in caregiving roles
With the burden of financial support reduced, and with a changing concept of a father's role, modern day
fathers tend to be more involved in children's caregiving. They are now spending more time and energy on
their children.
Psychological research across families from all ethnic backgrounds suggests that the influence of a father's
love and attention is as great as that of a mother's. Fatherly love helps children develop a sense of their
place in the world, which helps their social and emotional development.Moreover, children who receive
more love from their fathers are less likely to have behavioural problems.
This trend is still increasing and its effects will become clearer and clearer in the future, especially in
traditionally male-dominated societies.
16. Which of these is NOT the traditional role of a father?
A. financial supporter B. teacher of moral values
C. religious educator D. caregiver
17. The influence of a mother's love is. that of the father's.
A. more important than B. less important than
C. as important as D. much greater than
18. Children who get more fatherly love will_______________ behavioural problems.
A. never have any B. have fewer C. have more D. have a lot of
19. The changing roles of the father will be seen more clearly in.
A. traditionally male-dominated societies B. developed countries
C. economically independent societies D. ethnic groups
20. The word ‘who’ in paragraph 4 refers to.
A. development B. fathers C. children D. mothers
III. LANGUAGE: (4.0 points)
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation:
21. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
A. challenged B. reduced C. employed D. performed
22. Choose the word that has the stress different from the rest.
A. microgravity B. maintenance C. parabolic D. atmospheric
Choose the best answer a, b, c or d to complete the sentence.
23.Even though I spoke English, sometimes I didn’t understand the _______ of some areas because some
words meant something else.
A. accent B. pronunciation C. dialect D. derivative
24. I would like a __________of broccoli and two carrots.
A. slice B. head C. bunch D. clove
25. I have _______ to four tourist attractions that need to be visited this year.
A. pulled it down B. broken it out
C. shrunk it from D. narrowed it down
26.The _______ happened in thick fog and caused a seven-mile tailback on the motorway.
A. pile-up B. touchdown C. mix-up D. jet lag
27. Susan ______ a bit of Spanish when she was living in Mexico.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 15
A. looked up B. got by in C. picked up D. took in
28. A snake or a spider is the animal_________ she'd like to keep as a pet.
A. where B. what C. that D. when
29. My grandfather is the___ oldest artisan in the village; Ngoc`s grandfather is the oldest.
A. first B. second C. most D. one
30. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence:
The environmentalist suggest planting more trees to improve the city’s landscape and the environment as
well
A. suggest B. planting C. city’s landscape D. as well
31. This sports center is so small that it cannot ___________ the demands of local residents.
A. keep up with B. face up to C. deal about D. set up
32. Please decrease the volume. I’m doing my homework.
The word: “decrease” is closet meaning to________.
A. turn up B. turn down C. turn off D. turn on
33. Komodo dragons are huge reptiles that can grow to three meters long and weigh 160 kilos.
The word: “huge” is opposite meaning to________.
A. violent B. little C. impressive D. complicated
34. This theory has now been proved to be false.
A. People had proved this theory to be false.
B. People proved this theory to be false.
C. People have proved this theory to be false.
D. People have been proved this theory to be false.
35. “I’m leaving tomorrow,” he said.
A. He said he was leaving the following day.
B. He said he is leaving the following day.
C. He said he is leaving the previous day.
D. He said he was leaving the previous day.
36. I last met him ten years ago.
A. I have recently seen him.
B. I haven’t seen him for ten years.
C. The last time I saw him was last year.
D.I am going to meet him in ten years.
Part 2: COMMUNICATION:
Complete the conversation between two friends. What does Helen say to Amy?
Amy: Helen, you went to university, didn’t you? Can I A. I don’t like history much.
ask you something? B. What about your parents?
Helen: (0) __C__ C. Of course you can. What’s the problem?
Amy: I can’t decide what subject to study at university? D. Well, that’s an interesting and useful science subject.
Helen: Which subject are you best at? E. Where will you study?
Amy: I always do well in chemistry exam. F. I agree. Money is quite important but I think your
Helen: (37) _______ teachers are right.
Amy: I don’t agree. I don’t like it. What I really enjoy G. Have you talked to your teachers about it?
studying is history.
Helen: (38) ______
Amy: Yes, they all say I should choose the subject I
enjoy the most.
Helen: (39) ______
Amy: Well, Dad wants me to do business studies so that
I can earn a lot like you !
Helen: (40) _______
Amy: So I should choose history then !

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 16

IV: WRITING: ( 2.0 points)
Write a paragraph of around 120 words about a wonder of Vietnam that you are most interested In.
Use the following questions as clues.(1.5m)
- What is the wonder you like?
- Where is it?
- What are the features of that wonder?
- What makes you impressed most?
- How do you feel when you visit it?
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THE END

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 17

 PRACTICE TEST 5

I. Listening (2 points)
Part 1. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D. (1 point)
1. How much fish of the world do Japanese people consume?
A. More than 10%. B. Less than 10%. C. Exactly 10%. D. Nearly 10
2. Why does Japan have a booming fishing industry?
A. Because Japan has low rate of cancer.
B. Because Japan has the highest life expectancy.
C. Because Japan is a country surrounded by water.
D. Because Japan has a small population.
3. What are the advantages of eating fish?
A. It is affordable and good for the economy in general.
B. It can treat cancer.
C. It is good for people’s health.
D. Both A and C.
4. How is eating fish good for your health?
A. It is good for your brain, your eyes and reducing the risk of heart diseases.
B. It is good for your skin, your blood and reducing the risk of heart diseases.
C. It is good for your skin, your eyes and reducing the risk of lung diseases.
D. It is good for your brain, your blood and reducing the risk of lung diseases.
5. Why is Japan among the countries that have the highest life expectancy?
A. Because Japan is an island nation.
B. Because Japanese people eat much fish.
C. Because Japanese fish is better than other countries.
D. Because Japanese people rarely get sick.
Part 2: Listen to Jenny talking about her English learning experience. Choose the best answer A, B,
or C. (1 point)
6. How did Jenny learn English?
A. Through cartoons B. Via satellite C. By watching films
7. Who made her learn that way?
A. Her teacher B. Her mom C. Her friends
8. Jenny picked up English through _________ the language.
A. reading B. speaking C. experiencing
9. Jenny is good at _________
A. using English naturally B. English grammar C. listening to English
10. Jenny _________
A. doesn’t like English exercises.
B. has no mistakes in her exercises.
C. still does the exercises at home.
II. Reading (2 points)
Part 1:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the numbered blanks. (1 point)
The volume of traffic in many cities in the world today continues to expand. This causes many problems,
including serious air pollution, lengthy delays, and the greater risks of accidents. Clearly, something must
be done, but it is often difficult to (11) _____people to change their habits and leave their cars at home.
One possible approach is to make it more expensive for people to use their cars by increasing charges
for parking and (12) _____ tougher fines for anyone who (13)______ the law. In addition, drives could be
required to pay for using particular routes at different times of the day. This system, known as “road
pricing”, is already being introduced in a number of cities, using a special electronic card fixed to
windscreen of the car.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 18
 Another ways of (14) ______with the problem is to provide cheap parking on the outskirts of the city,
and strictly control the number of vehicles allowed into the center. Drivers and passengers then use a special
bus service for the rest final stage of their journey.
Of course, the most important thing is to provide good public transport. However, to get people to (15)
_____the comfort of their cars, public transport must be felt to be reliable, convenient and comfortable,
with fares kept at an acceptable level.
11. A. make B. arrange C. suggest D. persuade
12. A. carrying down B. putting of C. bringing in D. taking away
13. A. crosses B. refuses C. breaks D. cracks
14. A. doing B. handling C. dealing D. solving
15. A. pass on B. give up C. throw away D. leave out
Part 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or You’re your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (1 point)
The strongest part of every human body is the heart. The heart is an amazing muscle. Unlike other
muscles, the heart never gets tired, and it never stops during your lifetime. How strong is the human heart?
Well, get a tennis ball and squeeze it. Your heart squeezes this hard to push blood through your body. How
many times can you squeeze that tennis ball? Your heart does this 100,000 times each day!
The heart has four "rooms" or chambers. Each “room” has a “door” or valve. The upper rooms are atria,
and the bottom rooms are ventricles. The basic job of the heart is to move blood through the body. Blood
first moves into the heart from the right atrium. Then, it moves down into the right ventricle and out into
the lungs. Blood comes back into the heart by the left atrium and then moves down into the left ventricle.
Finally, the heart pumps the blood back out in the body.
When you exercise, your heart beats faster. This is because your muscles are using more oxygen. The
average heart beat is about 70 beats a minute. You can find your fastest, heathy heart beat by subtracting
your age from 220. For example, the maximum heart beat for a 20-year-old is about 200 beats per minute.
Your heart can beat faster than this, but it is not healthy.
16. The author mentions ‘a tennis ball’ in order to
A. show that tennis players must have healthy hearts.
B. show how many times your heart beats each day.
C. give an example of the heart's strength.
D. show your heart is stronger than your hand.
17. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A. The human heart is a muscle.
B. The human heart has five chambers.
C. The human heart never gets tired.
D. The human heart beats 100,000 times a day.
18. According to the paragraph 2, where does blood go after it leaves the right ventricle?
A. To the lungs B. To the body
C. To the left atrium D. To the left ventricle
19. The word ‘maximum’ in the passage is closest meaning to
A. best B. hardest C. highest D. most dangerous
20. It can be inferred from the passage that
A. blood brings oxygen to the body
B. you lose blood when you exercise
C. blood moves quickly through the body
D. sport players need more blood
III. Language (4.0 points)
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 19

Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet.
21. A lot of tourists go to Japan to go skiing ____________ winter.
A. of B. on C. at D. in
22. ____________ the weather was so bad, we couldn’t go camping.
A. Because B. Although C. In spite of D. Because of
23. I always check my results carefully because I want to avoid ____________ mistakes.
A. to making B. to make C. make D. making
24. Mai is intelligent student in my class.
A. most B. the most C. more D. the more
25. How _________ milk is there in the carton?
A. a lot of B. many C. much D. little
26. You don’t seem very ____________ about the party. Don’t you want to go tonight?
A. enthusiast B. enthusiastic C. enthusiastically D. enthusiasm
27. This city has one of the most___ underground rail networks in the world.
A. efficient B. fashionable C. cosmopolitan D. fascinated
28. Mary: I can’t find my wallet, Tom.
Tom: Don’t worry. I’ll help you to for it.
A. look B. take C. put D. turn
29. If you like, I can _____________ flowers on the cushion covers for you.
A. grow B. make C. embroider D. knit
30. Our visit to Ha Long Bay was great. It was such an unforgettable experience. The word
“unforgettable” is CLOSEST in meaning to .
A. uncomfortable B. boring C. memorable D. frightening
31. In developing countries, a lot of people are still living in poverty. The word “unforgettable” is
OPPOSITE in meaning to .
A. illiteracy B. health C. wealth D. difficulty
32. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence
They decided having a picnic in the country as it was a sunny day.
A. having B. in C. as D. was
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentences
33. Because of her good performance, she received good comments.
A. Although her performance was good, she received good comments.
B. Because her performance was good, she received good comments.
C. Because her good performance, she received good comments.
D. Despite her good performance, she received good comments.
34. They reported that the explosion happened right after conference.
A. It is reported that the explosion happened right after conference.
B. It was being reported that the explosion happened right after conference.
C. It reported that the explosion happened right after conference.
D. It was reported that the explosion happened right after conference.
35. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
A. furniture B. natural C. appliance D. energy
36. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others
A. speakers B. neighbours C. nations D. parents

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 20

Part 2: Communication
Write ONE word in each blank to make a complete conversation between two friends. Write the
words on your answer sheet.
Kitty: There's nothing left in the fridge. Let's eat out tonight.
Kevin: That's a good idea. Shall we go to Pizza King?
Kitty: Are you kidding? The prices there are higher (37) any other place.
Kevin: What about Little Italy? It's more reasonable.
Kitty: The food there is good, (38) the music is terrible.
Kevin: You can ask them to change the CD for some cool pop music.
Kitty: I didn't know that. Let's go to Little Italy then.
Kevin: By the way, (39) is the best type of pizza there?
Kitty: I like Hawaiian pizza. It's awesome!
Kevin: I don't fancy pizza with fruit on it. I like seafood.
Kitty: You can try the seafood pizza then. It includes fish, squid, and shrimp.
Kevin: Sounds delicious! Let's go quickly. I'm starving.
Kitty: Shall we go by bike?
Kevin: Are you joking? It's pouring with rain outside.
Kitty: Let's go (40) taxi then.
IV. Writing (2.0 points)
Self-study is a very important factor that helps students get success in their study. Write a paragraph
of 80-120 words about the benefits of self-study.
Your writing should answer the following questions.
- How do you spend your time in self-study effectively?
- Give some benefits of self-study.

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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 21

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THE END

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 22

 PRACTICE TEST 6

I/ LISTENING (2 points)
PART 1: You will hear a student telephoning a school. Listen and complete the missing
information.
INTERNATIONAL LANGUAGE SCHOOL
Next course begin:
Date: (1) 3rd__________________
Class begin at: (2)_____________________
Be there at about: (3)_____________________
Address: (4)___________London Road
Near: (5)_____________________
PART 2: Listen to a man asking the information in a travel agency. Tick A, B or C.
6. The man has to go to ________ next week.
A. Argentina B. England C. Korea
7. The plane leaves at________
A. 3 p.m. B. 12 a.m. C. 2 p.m.
8. The bus station is in _________________
A. Bill street B. Mill street C. Hill street
9. The journey to the airport takes______________
A. 1 hour 15 minutes B. 1 hour 30 minutes C. 1 hour 45 minutes
10. The man’s ticket to buenos Aires will cost____________
A. £240 B. £300 C. £320
II/ READING (2 points)
Part 1: Read the passage and complete each blank with a correct word.
Mui Ne is located 24 kilometres northeast of Phan Thiet city. It is a fishing village as well as a
familiar tourism area in Binh Thuan province. (11)………. lovely scenery of swaying coconut trees, Mui
Ne, meaning "sheltered peninsula”, is one of the famous and popular holiday (12) ……. in the world with
15-kilometre strip of resorts along the beach.
Thanks to the shallow and slopped beaches, the blue and clean water, nice sun rarely behind the
clouds and cliffs battered by the waves of the sea, sometimes Mui Ne is (13) …………. Hawaii of Viet
Nam. The beaches are fantastic with activities such as surfing and kitesurfing. But the most (14) …………
scenery at Mui Ne is moving lines of golden sand which is called "Sand Dunes" by local people. The sand
is always moving because of the wind and looks like moving waves from afar and that is (15) ………….the
dunes never look like the same. The scenery is more fascinating at dawn. Mui Ne is really a good wonder
for those who are interested in photography.
11. A. For B. With C. Through D. In
12. A. destinations B. places C. camps D. seasons
13. A. regarded B. found C. judged D. considered
14. A. attraction B. attracted C. attractive D. attracting
15. A. reason B. the reason C. reason why D. the reason why
Part 2: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer
The education system of the 21st century has changed radically with the integration of the technology
in every sector. At the same time, the students are more matured than the previous time. Now, in the twenty-
first century education depends on Thinking Skills, Interpersonal Skills, Information Media, Technological
Skills as well as Life Skills. Especially, the education of the present time emphasizes on life and career
skills. Now there has no value for rote learning. In general, it needs to meet the industry need. To clarify,
the teaching will be effective when a student can use the lesson outside of the classroom.
For changing the globalizing world, the role of the teachers is essential to improve the sustainable
education. At the same time, inspiring and guiding the students in increasing employability skills with the
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 23
digital tools is the prerequisite for a teacher. Thus, a teacher in the twenty-first century will be a digital
teacher. Teachers are not the facilitator for learning of the students only, and now they are responsible for
training the students for increasing employability skills, expanding the mind, growing digital citizenship,
critical thinking, and creativity as well as sustainable learning. Thus, the winning of the students is the win
of the teachers.
With the passage of time and integration of technology in every sector, the teacher’s role has changed
a lot. They need to enrich some skills to develop their students. Otherwise, the students will not get the
lesson, and it will increase the rate of educated unemployed in the digital era.
16. What is the topic of the passage?
A. The decline of traditional educational system.
B. The role of education in the 21st century.
C. The impact of teachers on student achievement.
D. The changing role of teachers in 21st century schooling.
17. What is rote learning?
A. A teaching approach based on practical activities
B. An educational method that centres on big-picture ideas
C. A memorization technique based on repetition
D. A collaborative learning approach based on group work
18. According to the passage, the teachers of the 21st century ____________.
A. should pay more attention to new digital tools
B. can take their lessons outside of the classroom
C. need to find ways to improve digital citizenship skills
D. must help their students develop employability skills
19. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to ____________.
A. education B. technology C. rote learning D. teaching
20. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. The roles of teachers are evolving due to changes in technology.
B. If the students aren’t educated, they will be unemployed in the digital era.
C. A 21st century education gives students the skills they need to succeed in their careers.
D. Teachers no longer function as lecturers but as facilitators of learning.
III/ LANGUAGE (4 points)
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation
21. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
A. cooked B. searched C. pleased D. experienced
22. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
A. privacy B. dominate C. creative D. versatile
23. He didn’t get the job …………….he had all the necessary qualifications.
A. despite B. although C. so D. however
24. Were we to have enough time, we …………to you.
A. will write B. would write C. write D. can write
25. The plants need ………….daily.
A. watering B. to water C. water D. watered
26. Confidence is the key to his …….……….
A. succeed B. success C. successful D. successfully
27. Her Chinese is a bit…………….She hasn’t spoken for years.
A. punctual B. rusty C. commercial D. harmonious
28. He is the man about …………….I told you.
A. that B. which C. whom D. who
29. Mr.David got his car ……….last week.
A. paint B. to paint C. painted D. painting
30. Ba: Dad! I got mark 9 on my English test!
Mr Ha: That’s wonderful. I’m…………….that you are working hard.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 24
 A. pleased B. sorry C. worried D. disappointed
31. English has become a flexible language in which the same word can operate as many parts of
…………….
A. statement B. structure C. speech D. sentence
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentences:
32. Think it through very carefully. Or else, you will not come up with the right answer.
A. If you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
B. Although you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
C. However carefully you think it through, you will not come up with the right answer.
D. Unless you think it through very carefully, you will not come up with the right answer.
33. “Why don’t you put a better lock on the door?" said John.
A. John suggested to put a better lock on the door.
B. John asked why not putting a better lock on the door.
C. John suggested putting a better lock on the door.
D. John made us put a better lock on the door.
34. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence.
Water has been vital to the development and survivor of civilization.
A B C D
35. Komodo dragons are huge reptiles that can grow to three meters long and weigh 160 kilos. The
ANTONYM of “huge” is ………….
A. little B. violent C. impressive D. complicated
36. Wildlife on Earth is disappearing fast and will continues to do so unless urgent action is taken. The
SYNONYM of “disappearing” is ………….
A. vanishing B. damaging C. polluting D. destroying
Part 2: Communication
Write ONE word in each blank to make a complete conversation between Nam and his Dad. Write the
words on your answer sheet.
Nam: Dad, can you tell me about your (37)……….?
Dad: Of course, dear! What do you want to know?
Nam: Hmm, I learnt that students had to help their parents with farming. Is it true?
Dad: Yes, it is. Besides, we also took care (38)…….our siblings while our parents worked.
Nam: It must (39) ………. tiring! How about your pastime?
Dad: We often played football on the soil ground with a plastic ball only. Hide and seek was another game
(40) …………we never got bored of.
Nam: Sounds fun. I wish I could experience your childhood once.
IV/ WRITING (2 points)
Write a letter of around 120 words to give advice to a friend who is feeling very stressed out. Begin
your letter with “Dear John,” and end your letter with your name, Lisa.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 25

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THE END

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 26

 PRACTICE TEST 7

I. LISTENING (2.0 points):

Part 1. Listen and write the correct letters for question 1 to 5. You will hear five people talking about
their cities. What changes or improvements do the people suggest for each city? (1pt)
A. have a few inexpensive stores at the mall
1. ……
B. build bigger highways
2. ……
C. open some nightclubs
3. ……
D. build more parks downtown
4. ……
E. open a restaurant that serves good salads
5. ……
F. plant more trees

Part 2. For question 6 to 10. Listen to the radio interview about high-achieving teenagers and complete
the missing information. (1pt)
6. Justin Bieber is considered the greatest ____________ of high-achieving teenagers through using
new technology.
7. Justin Bieber has over 35 million ____________on Twitter.
8. Having early fame and influence often cause negative _________.
9. Tavi Gevinson posted on her blog photos of herself wearing _____________ combinations of
clothes and wrote about them.
10. Tavi's blog soon built up a huge followers, and many of them were _______.
II. READING ( 2 points)
Part 1: Read the text again and try to guess the meaning of the following words from the context, then
match the words with their definition.( 1 pt)
Explore Hang Son Doong, the world’s largest cave.
Stretching more than five kilometres long and researching heights of 200 meters, the main carven of Hang
Son Doong is large enough to house an entire New York City block. In 2013 Hang Son Doong was opened
to the public for the first time. The journey to Hang Son Doong is not for the faint-hearted. Involving two
days of intense jungle trekking and river crossing to reach the entrance, nights are spent camping inside the
cave and the nearby Hang En, now known to be the third largest cave in the world. Once inside, hikers are
expected to climb, crawl and swim through underground rivers to arrive at the end of the cave. Its an
adventure like no other. Despite the physical demands, guests are perfectly cared with. Two caving experts,
three local guides, two chefs, two park rangers and 20 porters join many expeditions. They ensure everyone
welfare and safety, and the preservation of the cave is looked after with expert precision.

11. House N. a very strong request.

12. Faint-hearted M. Similar
13. Like no other L. Not confident or brave enough
14. Welfare O. Capture
15. Demand P. People’s health and happiness
K. To keep; to contain; to hold.
R. Unique; very special
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. ( 1,0pt).
You can do a few things to make homework less stressful. First, be sure you understand what you have to
do in your assignment. Write it down in your notebook if you need to, and don’t be afraid to ask questions
about what is expected.
Second, use any extra time you have at school to work on your homework. Many schools have libraries
that are specifically designed for students to study or to get their homework done.
Third, pace yourself. You need to plan your time. If it is a heavy homework day, you will need to devote
more time to your homework.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 27
Whenever you need some help, the first person you should ask for help is your teacher. Sometimes, it is
good to have someone explain something that you are not completely sure of. In addition, you might also
be able to get some help from another student. If there is a friend who is a good student, think about asking
that person to study with you.
16. In order to make homework less stressful, the first thing to do is ________________
A. to remember the deadline
B. to understand what you have to do in your assignment
C. to go to the school library as soon as possible
D. to know who can do it for you
17. If you have any extra time at school, you should_______________________
A. spend time with your friends
B. use it to make your day planner
C. use it to understand the assignment
D. study or get your homework done
18. The word “devote” in the third paragraph can be best replaced by the word “________”.
A. reduce B. spend C. develop D. waste
19. When a student needs some help, the first person to ask for help is ________
A. the best student at school B. his teacher
C. a member in his family D. his friend
20. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Students can follow some advice to avoid worrying about homework.
B. Students should ask their teachers for help when they need it.
C. Students might get some help from their friends.
D. Students can do their homework in school libraries.
III. LANGUAGE (4.0 points)
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation ( 3.2 pts)
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet.
21. Women have attempted ________ the financial burden with their spouses.
A. to share B. sharing C. shared D. share
22. Men used to be the breadwinners in our country, but now women go to work and many of
them ________.
A. make a bundle B. burn the midnight oil
C. once in a blue moon D. the sky's the limit
23. ________ he's young, she's the most famous artisan in the village.
A. When B. Although C. Due to D. So that
24. All food products should carry a list of __________ on the packet.
A. elements B. materials C. foods D. ingredients
25. I believe you will all succeed__________ passing the grade- 10 entrance examination.
A. on B. at C. in D. for
26. It took him years to __________ the shock of his wife dying.
A. take on B. get over C. go off D. put off
27. If you want to stay slim and healthy, you ________reduce the amount of fast food you eat every day.
A. may B. should C. can D. will
28. No city in America has ________ monuments and museums into one area as Washington District of
Columbia.
A. as much B. such many C. as many D. a few
29. You don't have to go to a supermarket for that. Just wait for a street___________ to go past, and buy.
A. person B. vendor C. supplier D. purchaser
30. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence
The questions the teacher wrote on the board was not easy.
A B C D

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 28

31. She turned down his invitation to the party and now he's really upset. The word “turned down” is
CLOSEST in meaning to .
A. considered B. continued C. refused D. examined
32. I have a problem with my classmates at school and I don't know who to talk to, so I feel so depressed.
The word “depressed” is OPPOSITE in meaning to .
A. worried B. tense C. stressed out D. delighted
33. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others
A. achieve B. mechanic C. architect D. chemical
34. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
A. frustrated B. confident C. delighted D. embarrassed
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentences
35. Finish your homework or you can't go out with your friend.
A. Unless you finish your homework, you can’t go out with your friend.
B. If you don't finish your homework, you can go out with your friend.
C. Unless you finish your homework, you can go out with your friend.
D. If you finish your homework, you can't go out with your friend.
36. Scientists have discovered that there is water on Mars.
A. It was discovered by scientists that there is water on Mars.
B. It had been discovered by scientists that there is water on Mars.
C. It is discovered by scientists that there is water on Mars.
D. It has been discovered by scientists that there is water on Mars.
Part 2: Communication ( 0.8 pt)
Write ONE word in each blank to make a complete conversation between two friends. Write the
words on your answer sheet.
Waiter: Hello.
Jamie: Hi. A table for two, please.
Waiter: Of course. Over here, please. Here’s the menu.
Sally: Thank you.
Waiter: Are you ready (37) order?
Sally: Yes, we are.
Waiter: What would you like for your (38) ?
Jamie: I’d like French onion soup, please.
Sally: And I’ll have a tomato salad, please.
Waiter: And for your main course?
Jamie: Mmm, I’m not sure. I don’t know whether to have the steak or Thai (39) .
Sally: Oh, I’d like the Thai chicken and rice please.
Jamie: OK, me too.
Waiter: So that’s (40) Thai chicken and rice.
IV. WRITING (2.0 points)
Write a letter around 120 words to give your friend, Alice who is feeling very stressed out because of
her pressure at school some advice.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 29

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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 30

 PRACTICE TEST 8

I. Listening (2pts)
Listen to people talking in ten different situations. Choose the correct answer (A,B,C,D). You will
hear each conversation twice. Write A,B,C or D on your answer sheet.
1.Where did the man lose his passport?
A. Inside the restaurant B. At the train station
C. On the street D. Outside the restaurant
2.Who is the woman the man is asking about?
A. Margaret B. Becky C. Judy’s sister D. Cindy’s
daughter
3.What does the woman suggest that the man do?
A. Walk to the hotel B. Take a taxi C. Carry his luggage D. Get a cab
4. What is the relationship between the two speakers?
A. They’ve not met before. B. They met each other last night.
C. They've known each other for a long time. D. They are old friends
5. Where are the two speakers?
A. At the train station B. Inside a bar
C. At a Lost Property Office D. At the travel agency
6. What did the man lose at the swimming pool?
A. His towel and sunglasses B. His book and sunglasses
C. Both his towel and book D. His sunglasses and swimming cap
7. What is Michael likely to do this coming weekend?
A. Stay in bed B. Go camping
C. See a doctor D. Talk on the phone
8. What is the problem with the man?
A. He is not in his office. B. He can’t find the bakery.
C. He has a bad toothache. D. He has a cough.
9. In what order of streets do you need to walk to go to the restaurant?
A. Pine Street to Apple Road, then to Orange Street.
B. Apple Road leads to Orange Street, which leads to Pine Street.
C. Pine Street to Orange Street, then to Apple Road.
D. Orange Street connects to Pine Street, which connects to Apple Road.
10. What does the doctor think about Kent?
A. The doctor believes Kent has no serious issues.
B. He wants Kent to come to hospital tomorrow.
C. He thinks Kent should stay home and rest.
D. Kent's doctor believes he has a major problem.
II. READING (2.0 pts.)
Part 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Nonverbal communication, or "body language", is communication by facial expressions, head or eyes
movements, hand signals, and body postures. It can be just as important to understand (11) ________words
are. Misunderstandings - often amusing (12) _________sometimes serious - can arise between people from
different cultures if they misinterpret nonverbal signals. For example, take the differences in meaning of a
gesture (13) ________is very common in the United States: a circle made with the thumb and index finger.
To an American, it means that everything (14) _________OK. To Japanese, it means that you are talking
(15) ________money. In France, it means that something is worthless. Meanwhile in Greece, it is an

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 31

obscene gesture. Therefore, an American could unknowingly offend a Greek by using that particular hand
signal.
11. A. as B. than C. more D. less
12. A. although B. but C. unless D. in order to
13. A. who B. where C. why D. that
14. A. is B. are C. were D. was
15. A. around B. about C. among D. ahead
Part 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
Colours are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important
to me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Colour directly affects your emotions. Colour both reflects the current state of your emotions and is
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The colour that you choose to wear either
reflects your current state of being or reflects the colour or emotion that you need.
The colours that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course,
they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the colour all
day! I even choose items around me based on their colour. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on
the colour or emotion that I need for the day. So, you can consciously use colour to control the emotions
that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Colour, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are
meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in
motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be
open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
16. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Colourful clothes can change your mood.
B. Emotions and colours are closely related to each other.
C. Colours can help you become healthy.
D. Colours are one of the most exciting.
17. Which of the following can be affected by colour?
A. your need for thrills B. your friend's feelings
C. your appetite D. your mood
18. Who is more influenced by colours you wear?
A. The people around you are more influenced.
B. No one is influenced.
C. You are more influenced.
D. The people who wear those colours, not you.
19. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the colour black B. exposing yourself to bright colours
C. being open to your emotions D. ignoring your emotions
20. The term "intimately" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. closely B. clearly C. obviously D. simply
III. LANGUAGE (4.0 pts.)
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation
21. You should really try to be more open ______ suggestions if you want to create the best
product possible.
A. to B. about C. of D. for
22. David will be here at two o’clock ______ he gets the next train.
A. although B. as C. if D. since
23. They don’t allow us ______ here.
A. park B. to park C. to parking D. parking

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 32

24. I don’t have as ______ money as my sister.
A. less B. many C. a lot D. much
25. Travelers to ______ Egypt should not miss out on cruises down ______ Nile River.
A.X/ the B. X/X C. the/the D. the/X
26. The ______ of technology in school will make learning and teaching more interesting and effective.
A. applying B. applicant C. application D. applicator
27. Marie ______ over the study guide one last time before the test.
A. got B. went C. came D. took
28. Our tickets to Australia include a ______ for two nights in Singapore.
A. overpass B. underpass C. platform D. stopover
29. There’s somebody behind us. I think we are ______.
A. follow B. following C. are followed D. being followed
30. Hunting for meat and burning forests for soil cause destruction to wildlife. The word “destruction” is
OPPOSITE in meaning to ______
A. damage B. protection C. contamination D. discovery
31. The astonishing speed of technological development makes it necessary for individuals to learn new
skills. The word “ necessary ” is CLOSET in meaning to ______.
A. vital B. benefit C. excited D. unique
32. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence.
Dreams are commonly made up of either visual and verbal images.
A. commonly B. made up of C. either D. verbal images
Choose the sentence that is closet in meaning to each of the given sentences.
33. We started to write to each other three years ago.
A. We used to write to each other for three years.
B. We have written to each other for three years.
C. We wrote to each other since three years.
D. We used to write to each other in three years.
34. “How long have you worked here?” he asked.
A. He asked me how long I had worked there.
B. He asked me for how long I had worked there.
C. He asked me if I had worked there long.
D. He asked me how long had I worked there.
35. Choose the word with the differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress.
A. tendency B. charity C. occasion D. friendliness
36. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
A. laughed B. washed C. helped D. weighed
Part 2: Communication
Write ONE word in each blank to make a complete conversation between two people. Write the words
on your answer sheet
Man: Hey, Kathy. I'm thinking about renting a movie for tonight's party, and I want to know what
(37)______ of movies you like.
Woman: Okay. What kind of movies do you have in mind?
Man: Well, what about (38)______ ?
Woman: Ah, I don't really like action movies. Too much violence.
Man: Okay, do you like comedies?
Woman: Now, I do enjoy comedies.
Man: Fine. Well, what do you think of horror movies or love stories?
Woman: Uh. I'm not really crazy about (39)______, but love stories are often fun to watch. Oh, and I
really like foreign (40)______ , too.
Man: Okay. I'll go to the video store and see what I can find. Thanks.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 33
IV. WRITING (2.0 pts)
Write an email of about 120 words to Alex. Tell him about your dream job in the future.
Begin your letter with “Dear Alex,” and end your letter with your name, Zeal.
You should base on some suggestions below:
- What is your dream job?
- What will you have to do in that job?
- Why do you love that job?
- What abilities should you have to do it well?
- What personalities should you have to do it well?
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THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 34

 PRACTICE TEST 9

I. LISTENING (1.5 ps)

Part 1: Question 1-5: Listen to two phone messages and circle the best answer (A, B, or C ). You
will hear the recording two times.(0.5m)
1. She is having a party at _________
A. the swimming pool at her house. B. work. C. her cousin’s house.
2. To get to the party, drive ___________
A. straight on Forest Road. B. right on Forest Road. C. left on Forest Road.
3. The house is the first big house _______
A. on the left. B. on the right. C. down at the end of the road.
4. If you go by public transport, take _______
A. bus 18 to Brownsville. B. bus 80 to Brownsville. C. bus 80 to Forest Road.
5. If you take a bus, ________
A. you can walk from the town to the house.
B. there is a bus stop outside the house.
C. somebody will drive you from the town to the house.

Part 2: Question 6-10: You will hear a woman phoning for information about a boat trip. You will
hear the conversation twice.(1m)
Boat trip on the River Dee
Days of boat trip: Friday and Sunday
Get on boat at the: (6) _________________________
Time boat leaves: (7) _______________________ pm
Boat goes to: (8) _________________________
On boat, you can buy: (9) _________________________
Coast of adult ticket: (10) £_______________________

II.COMMUNICATION (0.5m)
Complete the conversation. What does Ben say to his mother? For questions 11-13, mark the correct
letter A-G
Mother: So, Ben, did you enjoy your first day back at school? A. Just one. We sat next to each other.
Ben: Yes, it was fine. We’re got some great new teachers. B. Yes, it’s too easy for me.
Mother: Oh, that’s good. Are there any new students ? C. Just a little. Can I watch TV first?
Ben: (11) ……………………………………. D. Alright. Will you be able to drive us?
Mother: Really? Do you think you’ll be friends? E. Where shall I meet him?
Ben: (12) ……………………………………. F. Maybe. I’m going to ask if he wants to
Mother: Why don’t you invite him to go at the weekend instead? go swimming with me tomorrow.
Ben: (13) ……………………………………. G. I’ll see what he thinks tomorrow then.
Mother: I’m sure I can find time for that.
Ben: (14) ……………………………………
Mother: Good idea. Now, have you got any homework?
Ben: (15) ………………………………….
Mother: I’d prefer you to do your homework now, please.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 35

III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (4 ms) Choose the best answer.
16. - A: The new camera didn’t work.
- B: _______________
A. I’m not sure. B. I’ll take it to the shop. C. I’ll see. D. I’ve got it.
17. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.
A. magnificence B. destination C. affordable D. accessible
18. Beet greens are the most _____ part of the vegetable and can be cooked like any other dark leafy
green.
A. traditional B. careful C. colourful D. nutritious
19. Have you been in _____ capital city of _____ Vietnam?
A. an / the B. the / the C. the / ø D. ø / the
20. When she came _______, she found herself in hospital.
A. round B. off C. over D. out
21. Mr. John turns the TV……….to see the hot news.
A. off B. on C. up D. down
22. I don’t have enough free time. I wish I _____ more free time.
A. had had B. have C. didn’t have D. had
23. I told a joke, ________ nobody laughed.
A. so B. but C. and D. or
24. During Perfume Pagoda festival, a large number of ____ flock to the pagoda to pray for happiness and
prosperity in the coming year.
A. spectators B. passengers C. pilgrims D. travellers
25. When I was looking through my papers, I came across this picture. The SYNONYM of “ came
across” is _____.
A. saw by no chance B. intentionally sought for
C. accidentally discovered D. destroyed by mistake
26. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money. The ANTONYM of “ fake”
is ______.
A. faulty B. original C. bad D. authentic
27. What should we do to ______ the environment?
A. provide B. repair C. protect D. reduce
28. I've lost my keys. Can you help me to________ them?
A. look for B. look after C. look up D. look at
29. We can't go along here because __________.
A. the road was repaired B. the road is being repaired
C. the road is being D. the road is repaired
30. She said she _______ collect the documents for me after work.
A. had B. did C. must D. would
31. Adding a small ________ of salt to a cup of bitter coffee will help cut the bitterness.
A. pinch B. cup C. bag D. handful
32. Circle A, B, C, or D which needs correction.
I suggest to have (A) a separate (B) basket for (C) newspaper (D).
33. A lot of _____ were built to solve the traffic jam problem at intersections.
A. trams B. flyovers C. skytrains D. tunnels
34. If we go on littering, the environment will be seriously ___________.
A. pollute B. polluted C. pollution D. pollutants
35. Choose the word whose the underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three.
A. scheme B. mechanic C. machine D. chemistry

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 36

IV. READING (2 ms)
Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions. (1m)
Teenagers today live in a very competitive world. It is (36) ______ important than ever to succeed
at school if you hope to have a chance in the job market afterwards. It's no wonder that many young people
worry about (37) _____ their parents, their peers and themselves. To try to please everyone, they take on
too many tasks until it becomes harder and harder to balance homework assignments, parties, sports
activities and friends. The result is that young people suffer from stress.
There are different ways of dealing with stress. Everyone knows that caffeine, in the form of coffee or
soft drinks, keeps you awake and alert. But caffeine is a drug (38) ______ can become addictive. In the
end, like other drugs, caffeine only leads to more stress. There are better ways to deal with stress: physical
exercise is a good release for stress, (39) ______ it increases certain chemicals in the brain which calm you
down. You have to get enough sleep to (40) ______ stress and to stay healthy and full of energy.
36. A. most B. much C. more D. less
37. A. confiding in B. taking after C. running into D. letting down
38. A. which B. when C. who D. where
39. A. therefore B. because C. so D. so that
40. A. keep B. avoid C. take D. attend
Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.(1m)
Do you ever think about what schools will be like in the future? Many people think that students
will study most regular classes such as Maths, science and history online. Students will probably be able to
these subjects anywhere using a computer. What will happen if students have problems with a subject?
They might connect with a teacher through live video conferencing. Expert teachers from learning centres
will give students help wherever they live.
Students will still take classes in a school, too. Schools will become places for learning social skills.
Teachers will guide students in learning how to work together in getting along with each other. They will
help students with group projects both in and out of the classroom.
Volunteer work and working at local businesses will teach students important life skills about the
world they live in. This will help students become an important part of their communities. Some experts
say it will take five years for changes to begin in schools. Some say it will take longer. Most people agree,
though, that computers will change education the way TVs and telephones changed life for people all over
the world years before.
41. What will happen if students meet difficulties with a subject?
A. They will telephone the teachers who are staying at the school to seek their help.
B. Schools will organise a live video conference for teachers to help students with problems.
C. Teachers from learning centres will give them help through live video conferencing.
D. They will meet their teachers in person for help with problems with the subject.
42. Students will still go to school to _____.
A. play with their friends B. use computers
C. learn social skills D. learn all subjects
43. The main role of teachers in the future will be _____.
A. providing students with knowledge B. guiding students to learn computers
C. helping students with group projects D. organising live video conferences
44. Students will learn important life skills through _______.
A. going to school every day B. taking online classes
C. doing volunteer work D. working in international businesses
45. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Computers will change education in the future.
B. Kids won’t have to go to school in the future.
C. All classes will be taught online in the future.
D. Teachers will help students from home in the future.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 37

V. WRITING (2ms)
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the given one.
46. Nobody told me that my son was ill.
A. I was told that my son was ill.
B. My son wasn't told to be ill.
C. My son was told not to be ill
D. I wasn't told that my son was ill.
47. She said, “Shut the door!”
A. She asked me whether I would shut the door.
B. She said that I should shut the door.
C. She shouted and said to shut the door.
D. She ordered me to shut the door.
48. If you can’t drive, who is going to drive your car?
A. If you can’t drive, by whom is your car going to be driven?
B. If you can’t drive, who is going to be driven your car?
C. If you can’t drive, whom is your car going to be driven?
D. If you can’t drive, who your car is going to drive?
49. I am not you, but I think you should call your father right now.
A. If I were you, I would call your father right now.
B. If I were you, I would call my father right now.
C. If I was you, I should call my father right now.
D. If I were not you, I would call my father right now.
50. Mary’s mother bought her an iPhone 14 on her birthday.
A. It was an iPhone 14 that was bought Mary by her mother on her birthday.
B. It was an iPhone 14 that was bought for Mary on her birthday.
C. It was an iPhone 14 that Mary’s mother bought her on her birthday.
D. It was an iPhone 14 that Mary’s mother bought for her on her birthday.
Write a paragraph (from 80 to 120 words) about your eating habits. Include information about your
meals, your opinion about your eating habits and possible changes.(1m)
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 38
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Good luck !

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 39

 PRACTICE TEST 10

I. Listening (2.0 points)

Part 1: Listen to Sarah talking to a friend about her holiday photographs.
What place is each person in?
For questions 1-5, write a letter A-H next to each person.
You will hear the conversation twice.
People Places Answer
0. Sarah’s mother A. castle 0. E
1. Carloine B. cathedral 1.
2. Jack C. hotel 2.
3. Sarah D. market 3.
4. Peter E. mountains 4.
5. Sarah’s father F. museum 5.
G. restaurant
H. sea
Part 2: Listen to Sue talking to her friend, Jim, about the new sports centre.
For questions 6-10, choose A, B or C. You will hear the conversation twice.
6. Which bus goes to the sport centre?
A. 15 B. 18 C. 25
7. From Monday to Saturday the sports centre is open from.
A. 6 a.m B. 7 a.m C. 9 a.m
8. If Sue goes swimming, she must take
A. soap B. a swimming hat C. a towel
9. At the sports centre, you can buy
A. sandwiches B. fruit C. drinks
10. Jim and Sue are going to the sports centre next.
A. Wednesday B. Thursday C. Saturday
II. Reading (2.0 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and mark letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best
completes each blank.
Many books, newspapers, airports and air-traffic control, technology, sports, pop music and advertising
have English as the (11)______ language. In general, the universal language on the Internet is English. The
majority of the electronically stored information around the world is in English. You can travel to any
English-speaking country without the need of having a (12)______.
Usually, if you don’t know the language your trip would be hard and maybe you wouldn’t enjoy it.
Nowadays in the competitive job market, it is necessary to speak English. So (13)______ you learn English,
you will have a better chance of getting a job that pays more. English is also helpful when you go to a
different country because it is a global language. A lot of educational information is in English; therefore,
to have access to this material or maybe communicate with (14)______ students, it is necessary to have
knowledge of English.
It is necessary to learn English if you are (15)______ to study at a foreign university or school. Usually
many educational institutions will provide you preparatory courses to improve your English language skills,
but you have to have at least a medium level of knowledge.
11. A. unofficial B. local C. major D. regional
12. A. specialist B. translator C. businessman D. writer
13. A. however B. if C. unless D. although
14. A. other B. most C. enough D. only
15. A. thinking B. dreaming C. planning D. object
Part 2: Read the following passage and mark letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions that follow.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 40

 Taking a Working Holiday
One of the most difficult things young people face when they want to travel is the lack of funds. During
summer holidays and possibly at weekends, they are able to take on part-time jobs, but the money they
make is just a drop in the bucket of what they need to travel far away. For example, traveling to Australia
from Viet Nam can be quite expensive just for an airline ticket, and to a lot of students wanting to travel, it
can seem out of reach.
For students wanting to travel to Australia and New Zealand in particular, however, they are in luck.
Although many countries offer working holidays, these two countries are well - known for offering them.
When a young person signs up to get a working holiday visa, he only pays for the round-trip airfare to get
to either place and only needs to carry some extra cash for incidentals. Once he is there, a job awaits where
he can earn some money.
Many of the jobs require little or no experience, such as picking fruit or working in a busy pub out in the
countryside. Some of the jobs require more experience that most people are unlikely to have, such as being
a certified welder to work for eight weeks on a farm. That shouldn't discourage you, though, because there
is always something to be found if you search hard enough.
There are many websites that advertise working holidays in Australia and New Zealand. If you have the
courage and are looking for a way to make a little money and see the world, it might be just the ticket you
were looking for.
16. What can seem out of reach for young people?
A. Being able to find a part-time job. B. Being able to travel.
C. Being able to get time off from school. D. Being able to earn money.
17. Which students are in luck according to the passage?
A. The ones who want to go to Australia and New Zealand.
B. The ones who have part-time jobs.
C. The ones who are on holiday
D. The ones who have airline tickets
18. Where can people find working holidays advertised?
A. In magazines. B. On the radio.
C. In travel guidebooks. D. On the Internet.
19. According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. Some working holidays are not paid.
B. People on working holidays must be from Australia or New Zealand.
C. A young person needs a special visa to go on a working holiday.
D. Picking fruit is the only job available for young people on working holidays.
20. Why would a student NOT want to take a working holiday?
A. To earn money. B. To show how fearful he is.
C. To see the world. D. To visit a new place.

III. Language (4.0 points)

Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation
Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions
21. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
The synonym “abundance” is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.
A. sufficiency B. excess C. small quantity D. large quantity
22. My elder sister failed her exam, which depressed my parents.
The word “depressed” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________.
A. pleased B. disappointed C. encouraged D. embarrassed
23. If you come to England, it will be a good ________ for you to improve your English.
A. experience B. advantage C. possibility D. opportunity
24. My friends were all extremely ________ when they heard I’d lost my job.
A. obedient B. sympathetic C. confident D. tolerant

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 41

25. It would be ________ to switch the machine off at night.
A. economy B. economize C. economic D. economical
26. The tram’s clanging sounds have gone deep into the ________ of Hanoians.
A. hearts and minds B. minds and souls
C. bodies and spirits D. hearts and bodies
27. You should ________ the price before you buy that car.
A. earn a living B. take into account C. take a break D. break the bank
28. Daisy loves going to this place ________ it's the quietest place in her city.
A. so that B. though C. as D. so
29. Are those the novels ________ you have been looking for?
A. whom B. which C. who D. whose
30. By this time last night, he ________ the application form and had it sent.
A. finished B. will have finished C. had finished D. had been finished
31.We’ve spent a lot of time ________ around the town.
A. wandered B. wandering C. to wander D. wander
32. David gave up German in order to concentrate ________ his French.
A. to B. for C. in D. on
33. I can’t ________ your loud music any longer. I’m leaving.
A. make out B. keep up with C. put up with D. hold on to
34. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence.
We gave orders to the director whose passed us on to the foreman.
A. whose B. director C. gave D. us
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentences.
35. Lan is very busy at work. However, she takes good care of her children.
A. In spite of being busy at work, Lan takes good care of her children.
B. Lan takes good care of her children but she is very busy at work.
C. Though Lan was very busy at work, she took good care of her children.
D. Although Lan was very busy at work, she did not take good care of her children.
36. They think that the prisoner escaped by climbing over the wall.
A. The prisoner is thought escaped by climbing over the wall.
B. The prisoner is thought having escaped by climbing over the wall.
C. The prisoner is thought to have escaped by climbing over the wall.
D. The prisoner is thought to escape by climbing over the wall.
37. He had a lot of money, but now he doesn’t.
A. He used to having a lot of money, but now he doesn’t.
B. He used to had a lot of money, but now he doesn’t.
C. He was used to have a lot of money, but now he doesn’t.
D. He used to have a lot of money, but now he doesn’t.
38. He is late for school so he can’t get the lesson.
A. If he was late for school he couldn’t get the lesson.
B. If he were late for school, he could get the lesson.
C. If he wasn’t late for school he can get the lesson.
D. If he weren’t late for school, he could get the lesson.
39. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
A. published B. wandered C. weaved D. informed
40. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
A. environment B. adolescence C. disappointed D. independence
Part 2: Communication (0.5 point)
Write ONE word in each blank to make a complete conversation between the tourists and the locals.
Daniel: Jane, I’m so sorry (41)_______ canceling the movie night with you last Friday.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 42

Jane: It would be easier to accept if you hadn’t stood me (42)_______ for 30 minutes and then texted me
that you couldn’t come.
Daniel: I’m so sorry. There was an urgent incident at my work, so I was (43)_______ dealing with it.
Jane: Okay okay, I (44)_______ it. But next time, please don’t (45)_______ your date.
Daniel: There won’t be a ‘next time’.
IV. Writing (2. points)
Your name is John. Your friend Alex, who is feeling very stressed out, has written to you to ask for some
advice on how to improve stress.
Write a letter of about 120 words to Alex to help him. Give him 3 advice. Include details and examples to
support your answer.

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---This is the end of the test.----

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 43

 PRACTICE TEST 11

A. LISTENING: (2pts)
Part 1: listen to Jamie talking to his mother about a flat
1.Jamie will go to a university from the new flat?
A.by bicycle B.by bus C.on foot
2.The new flat is………………….
A.over a shop B.on a noisy road C.next to a café
3.How much will Jamie pay a week for the flat?
A.£200 B.£40 C.£14
4.What doesn’t the flat have?
A.a cooker B. a fridge C. a washing machine
5.Jamie agrees to move into the new flat on……………….
A.Saturday B.Sunday C.Monday
Part 2: you will hear some information about a place called Sea World
Sea World
Open: Tuesday – Sunday
Closed during month of : (6)……………………….
Watch a film about the sea in: (7)The……………………….Centre
Dolphin show starts at: (8)…………………………p.m
Shop sells: (9)………………………and books
Child’s ticket costs: (10)£……………………….
II.Reading: (2.0pts)
Part 1: Read the passage and complete each blank with a correct word (A, B, C, or D).
Eight out of ten British schools require students to wear school uniforms. Wearing a uniform
has been regarded as part of British school tradition for a long time, and makes a good (11)________
on people. Some schools have used the idea of school uniform as a(n) opportunity to let the students
(12)________ themselves by designing their uniform so they could play a part in deciding what they
would wear every day.
The UK government has just announced the results of a study (13)________ actually dread the
beginning of the school year because they cannot afford to buy their children school uniforms. This is
because schools in (14)________ areas make arrangements with one local shop so that their uniforms
can only be bought there, and this enables the shop to increase the prices (15)________ it doesn't have
any competition. The result of the survey is that pressure will now be put on schools to deal with the
problem and make sure that uniforms can be bought at reasonable prices
11. A. recognition B. effect C. impression D. reaction
12. A. express B. expressive C. expressively D. expression
13. A. whom B. which C. who D. what
14. A. much B. every C. many D. each
15. A. although B. despite C. because of D. because
Part 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best option to answer each of the following.
Tourism will always have an impact on the places visited. Sometimes the impact is good, but often
it is negative. For example, if lots of people visit one place, then this can damage the environment. The
question is - how can we minimize the problems without preventing people from travelling and visiting
places? The main aim of ecotourism is to reduce the negative impact that tourism has on the
environment and local people. The idea is to encourage tourists to think about what they do when they
visit a place.
It's great to talk about protecting the environment, but how do you actually do this? There are a
number of key points. Tourists shouldn't drop litter, they should stay on the paths, they shouldn't
interfere with wildlife and they should respect local customs and traditions.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 44

 Some people see ecotourism as a contradiction. They say that any tourism needs infrastructure
- roads, airports and hotels. The more tourists that visit a place, the more of these are needed and, by
building more of these, you can't avoid damaging the environment.
16. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Some Dos for Eco tourists. B. Benefits and drawbacks of ecotourism.
C. A brief introduction about ecotourism. D. Some Don'ts for eco-tourists.
17. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to________.
A. People B. problems C. tourists D. places
18. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity to protect the
environment?
A. Respecting local customs and traditions. B. Not interfering with wildlife.
C. Hunting wildlife. D. Not littering.
19. The word "avoid" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.
A. present B. prevent C. protest D. pretend
20. According to the passage, ecotourism aims at________.
A. preventing tourists from travelling B. reducing the tourism problems
C. finding a new form of tourism D. stopping ecotourism altogether
III. Vocabulary and Grammar (4.0 points):
Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and pronunciation
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet.
21. Have you been to Antelope Canyon? That place is _________!
A. over the moon B. out of this world
C. the sky’s the limit D. written in the stars
22. ________ the cities do not provide better and cheaper mass transport, the traffic problem will get worse.
A. Since B. Even though C. Before D. If
23. Recipes tell me to add one or two ________ of celery to a soup or stew.
A. cloves B. slices C. bunches D. sticks
24. The paintings___ Mr. Brown has in his house are worth around £100,000.
A. whose B. which C. what D. whom
25. Many tourists decided not to go to Iraq_________their love of the Iraqi civilization.
A. though B. despite C.due to D.or
26.Ann was very surprised to find the door unlocked. She remembered _________ it before she left.
A.to lock B. locking C.lock D.she locks
27. We are trying to travel as cheaply as possible. The ANTONYM of ' possible’ is.
A. inconceivable B. absurd C. unimportant D. irregular
28. “Mom, I’ve got the first rank in class this semester!” “ ”
A. Well done! B. Thank you! C. Never mind! D. Let’s go!
Choose the phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part.
29. She left school and immediately started to make her own way without help from her family.
A. find her living B. try her living C. hold her living D. earn her living
Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part.
30 Mike was very upset to hear that the holiday had been cancelled.
A. worried B. unhappy C. excited D. angry
31. This is the first time his children have tried Japanese cuisine.
A. His children tried Japanese cuisine at first.
B. His children last tried Japanese cuisine a long time ago.
C. His children tried Japanese cuisine before.
D. His children have never tried Japanese cuisine before.
32. People believe that Viet Nam has been successful in dealing with Covid-19.
A. Viet Nam is believed to being successful in dealing with Covid-19.
B. Viet Nam was believed to have been successful in dealing with Covid-19.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 45

 C. It is believed that Viet Nam has been successful in dealing with Covid-19.
D. It was believed that Viet Nam has been successful in dealing with Covid-19.
33. “If I were you, I would raise money for the poor,” I said to Thomas.
A. I said Thomas to raise money for the poor.
B. I asked Thomas why he doesn’t raise money for the poor.
C. I asked Thomas why he didn’t raise money for the poor.
D. I advised Thomas to raise money for the poor.
34. Although her height is limited, she wishes to become a famous model.
A. Despite her limited height, she wishes to become a famous model.
B. Despite her limited height, she wished to become a famous model.
C. In spite her limited height, she wishes to become a famous model.
D. Despite her limited height, she wishes to became a famous model.
35. The teacher said: “I will explain the problem one more time."
A. The teacher said I would explain the problem one more time.
B. The teacher said she would explain the problem one more time.
C. The teacher said she will explain the problem one more time.
D. The teacher said she explained the problem one more time.
Part 2: Communication:
Write one word in each blank to make a complete conversation between two friends. Write the
words on your answer sheet.
Alice: Hi Sarah! Are you going to Grace’s party tomorrow?
Sarah: I haven’t decided yet.
Alice: Oh, come on! It’ll be fun.
Sarah: Oh, Ok then. (36)……………. are you getting there?
Alice: I’m driving. And there is still space in my car.
Sarah: Great. I’ll go with you then. What about a present?
Alice: I’ve bought one- We can say it’s from both of us.
Sarah: Thanks. I’ll give you some (37)……………. for that and I’ll get a card.
Alice: Great – I’ll (38)…………………. my name on it. Shall I pick you up at 7 o’clock?
Sarah: That’s fine. You know the (39)……………………. to my house, don’t you?
Alice Of course! By the way – I can’t stay too late at the party.
Sarah: No problem – I have (40)………………………work the next day anyway.
Alice: Me too!
IV. Writing (2.0pts)
In about 120 words, write a paragraph about some benefits of the future means of transport you
like most.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 46

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---THE END—

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 47

 PRACTICE TEST 12

I. LISTENING (2 POINTS)
Part 1. You will hear a conversation about a holiday English course.
Listen and complete questions. You will hear the conversation twice. (1point)
HOLIDAY ENGLISH COURSE
Place: Oxford
1. Students must be: (1)……………………………… years old or more.
2. Starting date: (2)…………………………… July.
3. Students stay with:(3) ……………………………………
4. Price of course: (4)£ ……………………………….
5. College: (5)……………………………… Street.
Part 2. Listen to Jane telling her father about the extra subjects she is doing at school.
What subjects does she do on each day? Write a letter A-H next to each day. You will hear the
conversation twice. (1 point)
Example: 0: Monday C Subjects
A. art
Days B. computer club
6. Tuesday …. C. Japanese
7. Wednesday …. D. piano
8. Thursday …. E. science
9. Friday …. F. Spanish
10. Saturday …. G. swimming
H. tennis

II. READING (2.0 POINTS)

Part 1: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage (1point).
Most people think of computers as very modern inventions, products of our new technological (11)
_______. But actually the idea for a computer was worked out over two centuries ago by a man called
Charles Babbage. Babbage was born in 1791 and grew up to be a brilliant mathematician. He drew up plans
for several calculating machines (12)______he called “engines”. (13)______the fact that he started building
some of these, he never finished any of them. Over the years people have argued whether his machines
would ever work. Recently, however, the Science Museum in London has finished building an engine based
on one of Babbage’s designs. (14) _______has taken six years to complete and more than four thousand
parts have been specially made. Whether it works or not, the machine will be on show at a special exhibition
in the Science Museum (14)_____ remind people of Babbage’s work.
11. A. old B. age C. time D. years
12. A. whose B. who C. these D. which
13. A. Despite B. In spite C. Though D. Since
14. A. One B. He C. They D. It
15. A. to B. as C. for D. so
Part 2: Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.(1point)
Nowadays, teenagers have changed considerably in comparison to the teens in the past in how they
spend their free time.
This is a “technology” generation. For teens in today’s world, mobile phones, the Internet, and TV
are essential parts of their everyday life. Most teenagers prefer watching TV and surfing the Internet to
reading books. They don’t like reading because watching TV is easier and they don’t have to use their own

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 48

imagination. Teenagers prefer to spend free time in front of a computer rather than to do physical activities
such as playing football, riding bikes or going swimming. According to a recent study, teenagers growing
up in the 1970s and 1980s enjoyed more than two hours of outside play each weekday, and a further nine
hours at weekends, whatever the weather. However, today's teens play outside for just over an hour each
weekday, and fewer than five hours on Saturdays and Sundays.
Teens now often communicate to their friends by instant messages instead of talking face-to-face.
When they want to share their feelings or some private thoughts, they will post them on Facebook. This
makes it easier to get comments or receive encouragement from friends. Keeping a diary is out of date now.
Teens now spend more time meeting friends in places like fast food restaurants or cafes. They like to
eat fast food, greasy food and sugary drinks more than home-cooked meals. This leads to obesity.
In conclusion, the lifestyle of teenagers has changed a lot compared to the past. Parents should
encourage their children to play outdoors more. This helps them not only stay active and healthy but also
socialize with friends as well as create treasured childhood memories.
16. What is NOT mentioned as the differences among teens now and then?
A. Entertainment B. Behavior
C. Eating habits D. Playing sports
17. Why do today’s teens prefer watching TV to reading books?
A. Because they don’t have to imagine. B. Because they are lazy.
C. Because they like playing sports D. Because they hate going to the library.
18. The underlined word “This” refers to__________.
A. eating at home B. eating habit
C. going on a diet D. eating out habit
19. According to the passage, teens now use computers __________.
A. to shop for clothes online B. to book tables at a restaurant
C. to communicate D. to order fast food
20. This passage is about__________.
A. the technology teenagers’ use B. the generation gap
C. the differences between teenagers today and in the past D. the teenagers’ eating habit
III. LANGUAGE (4.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Vocabulary, grammar and pronunciation:
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
21. Lan has her own dream to be a doctor, so she always ___________ to being an artist as her family
wants her to be.
A. dismiss B. refuses C. objects D. confirms
22. I don’t think this book is ___________. You shouldn’t waste your time reading it.
A. informatively B. informal C. uniform D. informative
23. We live near each other; ___________ , I hardly see her.
A. therefore B. however C. lest D. although
24. This question is quite easy but ___________ students can come up with the answers.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
25. I didn’t study as well as my friends so now I am trying to practice to keep___________ them.
A. up with B. on with C. up to D. back from
26. Mary has now ___________ to the point where her English is almost fluent.
A. arrived B. advanced C. approached D. reached
27. I suffer from depression and anxiety, but I don't know__________ to get over my problems.
A. what B. how C. where D. which
28. Mr. John told us that the kids who __________ in tests often __________ the others were lucky.
A. succeeded - thought B. succeeded - had thought
C. didn’t succeed - were thinking D. didn’t succeed - thought
29. Did you have __________ nice holiday? Yes, It was __________ best holiday I've ever had.
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 49
A. an/ a B. a/ the C. ø/ the D. the/ a
30. To entertain tourists, the local people have to change usual foods to suit their tastes.
The word “entertain” is CLOSEST in meaning to__________.
A. satisfy B. enjoy C. attract D. persuade
31. After a very short time, this kind of music becomes wildly popular among the youth.
The word “popular” is OPPOSITE in meaning to__________.
A. appealing B. attractive C. unknown D. common
32. Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence.
The boy whom is imitating other foreign speakers is in grade 9.
A. The B. whom C. other D. in
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentences.
33. I am a lot worried about the English exam because my vocabulary is poor.
A. If my vocabulary were richer, I wouldn’t be worried about the English exam.
B. If my vocabulary was richer, I would be worried about the English exam.
C. If my vocabulary is richer, I wouldn’t be worried about the English exam.
D. If my vocabulary were richer, I would be worried about the English exam.
34. Many small children don't learn how to swim so they often suffer from drowning.
A. I wish small children learn how to swim.
B. I wish small children don’t learn how to swim.
C. I wish small children learned how to swim.
D. I wish small children didn’t learn how to swim.
35. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.
A. alternative B. adaptable C. biologist D. academic
36. Choose the words whose underlined part is pronounced different from that of the others.
A. preserved B. embarrassed C. applied D. studied
Part 2: Communication
Write ONE word in each blank to make complete conversation between the customer and the seller.
Customer: (37)……………… me, where is this vase from?
Seller: It’s from France. One (38)……….…. our new arrivals.
Customer: How much is it?
Seller: It’s two hundred.
Customer: That’s (39)……………. Seventy
Seller: One hundred and fifty.
Customer: One hundred.
Seller: Okay, it’s a special discount (40)…….…… you.
IV. WRITING (2 POINTS)
Write a paragraph of 100 - 120 words about the benefits of tourism on your city/country.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 50

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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 51

 PRACTICE TEST 13

I. LISTENING: ( 2 pts)
A. Listen to the following interview with a graphic designer. Fill each of the gaps with NO MORE
THAN THREE words. You will listen TWICE. (1m)
The Work of a Graphic Designer
- What they do:
+ (1) ________________ to deliver a message
+ Work with both images and (2) ________________
+ Combine (3) ________________
- What the job requires:
+ BA in graphic design
+ (4) ________________ that shows creativity and originality
+ Good (5) ________________
B. Listen to the recording about how to make Vietnamese spring rolls: ( 1pt)
Complete the notes by filling each blank with NO MORE THAN THREE words and/ or a number
from what you hear. You will listen TWICE.
INGREDIENTS
- Basic ingredients: minced pork, bean thread noodles, eggs, carrots, bean sprouts; and some spices.
- Need to have (6) _____________ and dipping sauce.
For questions 7 – 10, put the steps of making spring rolls (A – D) in the right order. You will listen
TWICE.
A. Make long thin rolls
B. Take the rolls out from the pan
C. Put ingredients into a big bowl
D. Fry the rolls in heated oil
- Step one: (7) _____________
- Step two: (8) _____________
- Step three: (9) _____________
- Step four: (10) _____________
III. READING (2 pts)
A/ Read the passage below carefully and choose the best option A, B, C, or D. (1 point)
Charity organizations are responsible for most of the help extended to the destitute. Each
organization caters to a different group of people. The Red Cross is a well-known organization that has
centres in countries all over the world. It had its beginnings in a small Italian town in 1859. A fierce battle
was taking place then and forty thousand people were wounded. The medical services of the army were
inadequate. The situation horrified a Swiss businessman who then wrote a book depicting the dreadful
situation. His book was the impetus for the setting up of charity organizations.
Today, countries emulate the workings of the Red Cross. They carry out fun raising activities to help
children who cannot receive an education or victims of natural disasters. Both the young and old contribute
willingly to these organizations. In fact, without these charity organizations, millions of people around the
world would perish because of poverty and natural disasters.
In India, a compassionate woman started PUSS (Palli Unnayan Sevi Samiti). Supported by social workers
and teachers, she has helped hundreds of children receive a proper education. Without her help, the literacy
rate in India would be much lower than what it is today. Charity organizations are crucial today. They
cannot function without the benevolent people who help to run these organizations.
(Adapted from: Comprehension Fast Forward 6 – J. Lee – SAP)
11. Charity organization _______.
A. are willing to most of the help even people not having food.
B. only help people who don’t have food and other things necessary for life
C. are in charge of deaf people who don’t have money.
D. provide food and drinks for a group of people.

ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 52

12. The word “well-known” (line 2) has closest meaning with_______
A. thankful B. popular C. available D. gratitude
13. The first centre of the Red Cross was in_______.
A. India B. Switzerland C. Italy D. Singapore
14. The purpose of setting up the Red Cross is helping_______.
A. sick children B. injured soldiers C. hungry people D. beggars
15. According to the passage, India is facing the problem of_______
A. loss of natural resources B. poor and hungry children
C. homeless children D. uneducated children
B. Read the passage, and do the task that follow: (1 pt)
Five Ways To Improve Your Spoken English At Home
First, you should improve your English pronunciation because good pronunciation will help people
understand your spoken English clearly, even if you don’t know many words. Second, most English learners
read too much and listen too little. If you want to improve your English speaking, spend more time listening!
Listen to the audio while you read the text, then read the text out loud, trying to imitate the pronunciation
you hear in the audio.
Then, reading English texts out loud will train your mouth and lips to pronounce English words more
naturally. I suggest reading every text out loud twice. The first time, read slowly and focus on pronouncing
each word correctly. Circle the words that are difficult to pronounce and repeat each one ten times. The
second time, read faster and focus on making your English flow, speaking each sentence with a natural
rhythm.
In addition, whenever you learn a new word, try saying it in a complete sentence. If you do this with
every new English word you learn, it will help you speak English in complete sentences more naturally.
Finally, if you don’t have contact with native English speakers, watch TV shows and films in
English with English subtitles to learn English conversation patterns.
Finds words in the passage to match these definitions.
16. copy the way to do something (paragraph 1): _________________
17. make the sound of a word or a letter (paragraph 2):_____________
18. be produced in an easy way (paragraph 2):____________________
19. a repeated patterns of sounds (paragraph 2): _____________________
20. words shown at the bottom of a film to explain what is being said (paragraph 4):____________

III. Language (4.0 points)

Part 1: Vocabulary, Grammar and Pronunciation
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet.
21. My mobile phone, ________ I lost on the train last week, had all my contacts on it.
A. whose B. that C. which D. whom
22. I like living in the countryside. It’s_______ living in a town.
A. peaceful than C. more peaceful as
B. more peaceful than D. the most peaceful
23. The weather was terrible yesterday. It rained so_______ that people could_______ go out
A. hardly- hard B. hardly- hardly C. hard- hard D. hard- hardly
24. Whenever Mr. Johnson sees the kids playing football, he wishes he ______young again.
A. is B. will be C. was D. can be
25. No city in America has________monuments and museums into one area as Washington, DC.
A. as many B. such many C. as much D. a few
26. Companies have to be ________ to customer demand.
A. responding B. responsively C. responsible D. responsive
27. My glasses are in my book bag, but I don’t remember_______ them there.
A. putting B. to put C. put D. I put
28. It looks like they’re going to succeed_______ their present difficulties.
A. yet B. because of C. even though D. despite
ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 53
29. She is a ______
A. young tall gorgeous lady B. tall young gorgeous lady
C. gorgeous young tall lady D. gorgeous tall young lady
30. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that indicate the word/phrase which is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part.
The boy was brought up with a family in the countryside.
A. reared B. raised C. bred D. grown
31.Find a mistake in one of the four underlined parts in the following sentence.
She was walking along the country road when suddenly the wind was blowing her hat off.
A. along B. country road C. was blowing D. off
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the given sentences.
32. She said to him, “You should stop smoking.”
A. She warned him not to stop smoking. B. She said to him you should stop smoking.
C. She advised him to stop smoking. D. She asked him if he should stop smoking.
33. Without the air, we would die.
A. If there is no air, we will die. B. If there were no air, we would die.
C. If there is no air, we would die. D. If there were no air, we will die.
34.Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined:
A. explore B. expedition C. resort D. environment
35/ Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others:
A. ingredient B. recipe C. tablespoon D. benefit.
Part 2: Communication
Write ONE word in each blank to make a complete conversation between two friends. Write the words
on your answer sheet.
Laura: Hi, Rooney.
Rooney: Hi, Laura.
Laura: How’s it (36)________?
Rooney: I’m (37)_________ so good.
Laura: What’s the (38)_________with you?
Rooney: I broke my arm. What should I do ?
Laura: I think you visit a therapist.
Rooney: I have visited my therapist, (39)_________ I’m still painful.
What would you do if you were in my situation.
Laura: If I were you , I would take a rest and read a book or watch TV.
Rooney : Thank you very much. I appreciate it.
Laura: I’m glad I could (40) _________.
IV. Writing (2.0 points): Write a paragraph of around 120 words about three practical ways that
students can do to save energy. Use examples to support your ideas
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 54
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ENGLISH PRACTICE TEST 55

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