PHINMA ARAULLO UNIVERSITY

COLLEGE OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION

1st Semester A.Y 2023 – 2024
CRI 165: Evidence
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read and identify each question carefully and choose the letter of the best
answer. Shade the circle of the corresponding letter in the answer sheet provided. Any forms of
cheating are STRICTLY PROHIBITED. Best of luck Warriors!

1. What rules requires kind of evidence as proof necessary to establish certain facts primarily
because they are trustworthy than the others?
a. Preferential
b. Analytical
c. Quantitative
d. Prophylactic
2. What is rule is being applied when there is a question whether to consider the evidence or
not?
a. Admissibility of evidence
b. Credibility of evidence
c. Materiality of evidence
d. Weight of evidence
3. Which among the following evidence can afford to offer greatest certainty to the fact in
issue?
a. Primary
b. Credibility
c. Materiality
d. Relevancy
4. What type of evidence is given by the prosecution to overcome or contradict evidence
already given?
a. Rebuttal
b. Sur rebuttal
c. Positive
d. Negative

5. What type of evidence is not excluded by the law when it tends to prove?
a. Material
b. Relevant
c. Direct
d. Competent
6. Which of the following is NOT considered as a qualification of witness?
a. Capacity of observation
b. Capacity of recollection
c. Capacity of knowledge
d. Capacity of communication
7. Which of the following circumstances makes the evidence incompetent ?
a. Evidence obtained in accordance with the constitution
b. Evidence obtained to third degree method of investigation
c. Evidence obtained in accordance with the law or statute
d. Evidence obtained that was based on the discretion of the court
8. Exclusion of evidence simple means _________________
 a. that the witness not subject for examination should be excluded from the court
b. that the evidence which are from testimonial but objectionable shall be excluded
c. that the evidence obtained unlawfully shall be excluded by the court and not admitted
d. none of these
9. It is the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his or
her claim or defense by the amount of evidence required by law
a. Circumstantial Evidence
b. Prima face Evidence
c. Preponderance of Evidence
d. Burden of proof
10. Which evidence is referred and classified that denies the occurrence of an event or existence
of a fact?
a. Conclusive
b. Prima facie
c. Negative
d. Positive
11. The DNA profile of a person as the natural father is an example of what type of evidence?
a. Conclusive
b. Documentary
c. Primary
d. Secondary
12. The declaration of a dying person may be admissible in evidence for several purposes such
as being offered as a dying declaration, a statement part of res gestae and or a dying
declaration against interest. In such case, it is considered as an example of?
a. Curative admissibility
b. Circumstantial evidence
c. Multiple admissibility
d. Corroborative evidence
13. Object evidence are those addressed to the senses of the court. They can be categorized as
follows except one:
a. Unique objects or objects that have readily identifiable marks.
b. Tangible and unique objects which appeals indirectly to the senses of the court.
c. Objects that are made unique.
d. Objects with no identifying marks and cannot be marked.
14. In all cases in which evidence of character or trait of character of a person is admissible ,
proof thereof may be made by any of the following EXCEPT

a. by testimony as to reputation
b. by testimony in form of opinion
c. by specific instances of a person ‘s conduct
d. by testimony of a witness who personally knows him
15. What presumption arises from evidence willfully suppressed?
a. would take advantage if produced
b. would be favored if produced
c. would be adversed if produced
d. the proponent merely exercise his right to presume innocent
16. Whose character may be proved if tends to establish the probability or improbability of
charge?
a. Accused
b. Offended party
 c. Prosecution
d. All of them
17. it is made by a person who is neither a party nor privy with a party to the suit .admissible only
when the declarant is unavailable as a witness
a. Admission against interest
b. Declaration against interest
c. Admission of a third party
d. Act or declaration about pedigree
18. In marital privilege rule, the application of the rule requires ____________.
a. valid marriage
b. common-law relationship
c. voidable marriage
d. void marriage

19. Testimony of one possessing in regard to a particular subject or department of human

activity, knowledge not usually acquired by other person is considered as what type of
evidence?
a. Conclusive evidence
b. Rebuttal evidence
c. Expert evidence
d. Circumstantial evidence
20. What is required in proof beyond reasonable doubt?
a. absolute certainty
b. perfect certainty
c. moral certainty
d. All of the above
21. What if the accused admitted his guilt before the prosecution rest its case, what do you call
this?
a. Judicial Admission
b. Judicial Confession
c. Guilty Plea
d. Extra judicial admission
22. Which among the following refers to principle of shorthand rendering of fact?
a. The foreign law will be presumed to be the same as Philippine Laws and it will be
Philippine Laws which will be applied to the case.
b. Means false in one thing, false in everything.
c. False description does not invalidate the document
d. The witness may also testify on his impressions of the emotion, behavior, condition
or appearance of a person.
23. Arvin was caught in flagrante delicto selling drugs for P200,000.00. The police officers
confiscated the drugs and the money and brought them to the police station where they
prepared the inventory duly signed by PSSg Oscar Moreno. They were, however, unable to
take pictures of the items. Will this deficiency destroy the chain of custody rule in the drug
case?
a. No, a breach of the chain of custody rule in drug cases, if satisfactorily explained, will
not negate conviction.
b. No, a breach of the chain of custody rule may be offset by presentation in
court of the drugs.
c. Yes, chain of custody in drug cases must be strictly observed at all times to preserve
the integrity of the confiscated items.
d. Yes, compliance with the chain of custody rule in drug cases is the only way to prove
the accused’s guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
24. Considering the qualifications required of a would-be witness, who among the following is
INCOMPETENT to testify?
a. A person under the influence of drugs when the event he is asked to testify on took
place.
b. A person convicted of perjury who will testify as an attesting witness to a will.
c. A deaf and dumb.
d. A mental retardate.
25. During trial, plaintiff offered evidence that appeared irrelevant at that time but he said he was
eventually going to relate to the issue in the case by some future evidence. The defendant
objected. Should the trial court reject the evidence in question on ground of irrelevance?
a. No, it should reserve its ruling until the relevance is shown.
b. Yes, since the plaintiff could anyway subsequently present the evidence anew.
c. Yes, since irrelevant evidence is not admissible.
d. No, it should admit it conditionally until its relevance is shown.

26. Is evidence on collateral matters allowed?

a. Evidence on collateral matters shall be allowed, except if it establishes improbability
of the fact in issue.
b. Evidence on collateral matters shall not be allowed, except if it establishes probability
of the fact in issue.
c. Evidence on collateral matters shall not be allowed, except when it tends in any
reasonable degree to establish the probability or improbability of the fact in issue.
d. Evidence on collateral matters shall be allowed only when it does not establish
probability or improbability of the fact in issue.

27. To be able to secure evidence for the robbery case handled by PSSg Santos, without
consent intercept and recorded the conversation of the suspects, A and B, wherein he
overheard that, the two are having problem in the disposal of the cash they robbed in the
bank. Is the recorded conversation admissible in evidence?
a. No, because they it is violation of the rules of court
b. No, because it is violation of their right
c. No, because it is violation under RA 4200
d. Yes, because it is a direct evidence
28. Mr. X is working as a seafarer, while on board, he received information that his wife Y, is
having an affair with his colleague Z, and the former was pregnant, to be able to secure
evidence of the infidelity, Mr. X went home and subject his wife Y, to physical examination
including pregnancy test, which later found out to be positive. Is the result of pregnancy test
admissible as evidence against Y?
a. No, because they it is violation of her right against self-incrimination
b. No, because it is violation of their right to privacy
c. Yes, because it does not violate any right particularly self-incrimination
d. Yes, because it is a direct evidence

29. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility considered relevant to the fact and
issue
a. When it is not excluded by law
b. When it has a direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issues
c. When it is not repugnant
d. When it is not immoral
30. If the death is at issue, the body of the dead person is considered as what type of evidence?
a. Real
 b. Testimonial
c. Documentary
d. Medico legal
31. A person who can perceive and perceiving can make known his perception to other is under
the rules on evidence referred to as ___________
a. suspect
b. Victim
c. Informer
d. Witness

32. The character or quality which any material must necessarily possess for it to be accepted
and allowed to be presented or introduced as evidence in court.
a. Evidence
b. Admissibility
c. Weight of evidence
d. Authenticity of evidence
33. X confided to Neri that she committed adultery. Is the statement admissible in evidence?
a. Yes, because Neri is not a peace officer or investigating officer conducting custodial
investigation. There is no violation of constitutional right to remain silent or to
counsel.
b. No, the confession was inadmissible because it is in the form of an extra judicial
confession an extra judicial confession
c. No, the confession is not admissible because the same is not executed into writing
and no counsel was not present during the conduct of the same
d. None of the above
34. A and B were married. B was suspecting that her husband was keeping a mistress, so she
raided his office and obtained documents to show that he has mistress. Are the documents
admissible in evidence?
a. Yes, evidence obtained by the wife is prima facie evidence to establish that his
spouse is committing the crime of concubinage
b. No, evidence obtained by the wife is not admissible because it is a product of
trespassing
c. No, the evidence obtained by the wife is in violation of the privacy of communication
and correspondence and is inadmissible
d. None of the above
35. During trial, plaintiff offered evidence that appeared irrelevant at that time but he said he was
eventually going to relate to the issue in the case by some future evidence. The defendant
objected. Should the trial court reject the evidence in question on ground of irrelevance?
a. No, it should reserve its ruling until the relevance is shown.
b. Yes, since the plaintiff could anyway subsequently present the evidence anew.
c. Yes, since irrelevant evidence is not admissible.
d. No, it should admit it conditionally until its relevance is shown
36. Assuming that all conditions in the waiver were properly observed except the right to counsel
which was waived because A could not afford the service of one, A’s statement will be
_________________
a. admissible because A was informed of his right to counsel but he could not afford to
hire one
b. inadmissible because A must be provided with counsel free of charge
c. admissible because A did not insist on his right to counsel and he voluntarily waived
it
d. admissible in evidence against him because all the conditions were present in the
waiver
37. Which among the following refers to principle of shorthand rendering of fact?
 a. the foreign law will be presumed to be the same as Philippine Laws and it will be
Philippine Laws which will be applied to the case
b. means false in one thing, false in everything
c. false description does not invalidate the document
d. The witness may also testify on his impressions of the emotion, behavior, condition
or appearance of a person.
38. X was arrested by PO1 Tangol . Inside the police headquarters, he was accused of killing
Y .however ,.despite of serious accusation X did not deny the accusation . As an
investigator assigned in the case, how do you interpret his action?
a. X action is tantamount to admission by silence
b. X action is tantamount to admission by privies
c. X is merely exercising his right to remain silent
d. X action is admissible in evidence against him as an admission by a party
39. A statement tending to expose the declarant to criminal liability and offered to exculpate the
accused is not admissible unless _______________
a. Associate circumstances clearly indicate the trustworthiness of the statement
b. Corroborating circumstances clearly indicate the trustworthiness of the statement
c. Cumulative circumstances clearly indicate the trustworthiness of the statement
d. Circumstantial evidence clearly indicates the trustworthiness of the statement
40. The following are element of part of the res gestae EXCEPT
a. That the principal act res gestae be a startling occurrence
b. The statements were made before the declarant had time to contrive or devise a
falsehood
c. That the statement must concern the occurrence in question and its immediate
attending circumstances
d. The declaration is made under the consciousness of impending death

41. An offer made prior to the filing of criminal complaint ____________.

a. can be an implied admission of guilt
b. is not admission of liability
c. cannot be an implied admission of guilt
d. is admission of liability
42. The following matters are proper subjects of judicial notice except?
a. An administrative regulation or order pending effectivity.
b. Quezon City is located in the Natioinal Capital Region.
c. Municipal ordinances in force the municipalities where the MCTC sits.
d. Video conferencing or teleconferencing such as the use of Skype is now a way of
conducting business transactions.
43. As between a private and public document, which of the following is admissible in evidence
without further proof of due execution or genuineness?
a. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in Hawaii
b. Certificate of baptism obtained from the records officer the parish church.
c. Official record of the Philippine Embassy in Dubai, United Arab Emirates certified by
the Vice- Consul with official seal.
d. A clear and well-kept acknowledgment receipt dated July 13, 1985 signed by the
creditor, showing payment of a loan, found among the preserved file of the debtor.
44. The following pertains the concept of the chain of custody rule embodied in Section 21 of the
Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002 EXCEPT
 a. The purpose of the chain of custody rule is to preserve the integrity and evidentiary
value of the seized items.
b. The links in the chain of custody are the people who actually handled or had custody
of the seized items.
c. The fact of an unauthorized possession of illegal drugs shall be sufficient to create
moral certainty that would sustain the finding of guilt.
d. The identity of the prohibited drug essentially should be established beyond
reasonable doubt.
45. When the subject of the inquiry is the contents of a document, the best evidence admissible
is the original document itself. This however is not an absolute rule. All but one of the
following are the exceptions to the ORIGINAL DOCUMENT rule.
a. When the original is a public record in the custody of a public officer or is recorded in
a public office.
b. When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party against whom the
evidence is offered, and the latter produce it after reasonable notice.
c. When the original has been lost, or destroyed or cannot be produced in court, without
bad faith on the part of the offeror.
d. When the original consists of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot
be examined in court without great loss of time and the fact sought to be established
from them is only the general result of the whole

46. Court may refuse exhibition of object evidence and rely on testimonial evidence alone if

a. Exhibition is contrary to public policy, morals or decency;

b. It would result in delays, inconvenience, unnecessary expenses out of proportion to

the evidentiary value of such object;

c. Evidence would not be confusing or misleading;

d. The testimonial or documentary evidence already presented clearly portrays the

object in question as to render a view thereof unnecessary.

47. In an alleged Homicide or murder cases, what are the possible real or object evidence that
may be found in the body of the victim?
a. Wounds
b. Blood
c. Fingerprint
d. A & B
e. None of the above
48. An evidence that can be exhibited to, examined or viewed by the court
a. Object Evidence
b. Testimonial Evidence
c. Documentary evidence
d. Medico legal evidence.
49. In an alleged murder or homicide case, the following object evidences may be exhibited to,
examined or viewed by the court to determine that the crime has been committed, EXCEPT
a. The photograph of the victim taken at the crime scene
b. The autopsy report of the medico legal officer who performed the examination
 c. The cadaver of the victim
d. The crime scene sketch portraying the injury sustained, the location of the wounds
and position of the victim
50. Placing a weapon in the hand of the dead who was unlawfully killed to plant evidence is a
concrete example of inadmissible evidence, this statement is __________
a. Correct
b. Irrelevant
c. Incorrect
d. None of the Above

51. Which of the following instances is direct evidence?

a. The testimony of the eyewitness pointing to the suspect as the one responsible for
the crime
b. The CCTV footage portraying how the crime was committed
c. The result of the ballistic examination over the murder weapon licensed or registered
in the name of the suspect
d. All of the above
52. Proof of fact or facts from which if taken singly or collectively, the existence of the particular
fact in issue may be inferred or presumed as a necessary or probable consequence.
a. Direct Evidence
b. Indirect Evidence
c. Associative Evidence
d. Circumstantial Evidence
53. In a Bigamy case, one of the requisites is that there should be a prior and existing marriage.
April contracted a second marriage on well-founded belief that her husband, a soldier who
was absent for four consecutive years was presumed dead. The husband who appeared to
be alive, filed a Bigamy case against April, will the said case prosper?
a. No, because according to the rules a person who are absent for four consecutive
years is presumed dead.
b. Yes, because April contracted a second marriage without any declaration of nullity of
the first marriage.
c. It depends as when April first instituted a summary proceedings for the
declaration of the presumptive death of the absentee before contracting a
second marriage.
d. None of the above
54. In the assessment of probative value of DNA evidence, the following considerations should
be considered, EXCEPT
a. The chain of custody
b. The DNA testing methodology
c. Accredited DNA laboratory
d. All of the above
55. When a witness is called to the witness stand to testify, his examination in a hearing should
be __________
a. done in open court
b. done under oath or affirmation
c. done in judicial proceedings
d. done in an open court under oath or affirmation
56. If the prosecution witness is called to the witness stand under oath or affirmation, or the
defense witness is called to the witness stand under oath or affirmation, the cross
examination on the said witness can be done by whom?
a. The prosecutor
b. The defense counsel
 c. The prosecution counsel
d. The adverse party
57. May collateral matters be allowed in evidence?
a. No, except when they tend in any reasonable degree to establish probability or
improbability of the fact in issue
b. No, it is impossible to establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue in a mere
collateral matter
c. Yes, collateral matters aids in the elucidation of legal problems
d. None of the above
58. It means that evidence, otherwise improper, is admitted to contradict improper evidence
introduced by the other party
a. Curative Admissibility
b. Multiple Admissibility
c. Collateral Matters
d. Indirect Evidence
59. What is the extent of the value of the paraffin wax test?
a. A paraffin wax test determines who is the perpetrator of the crime involving firearms
b. A paraffin wax test can establish only the presence or absence of nitrates on
the hand
c. A paraffin wax test can aid to convict an individual for the commission of a crime
d. All of the above
60. What is the extent of the applicability of the parole evidence?
a. The parole evidence rule applies to an agreement in writing, regardless of
whether written contract is a public or private document
b. The parole evidence rule applies to an agreement made orally, regardless of whether
such agreement comes to an end or not
c. The parole evidence rule applies to agreements made orally or in writing regardless
the same was agreed upon by both parties or not
d. None of the above
61. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party
who does or says nothing when the act or declaration is such as naturally to call for action or
comment if not true, and when proper and possible for him/her to do so, may be given in
evidence against him/her.
a. Admission by privies
b. Admission by co-conspirator
c. Admission by silence
d. Admission by co-defendant
62. These pertains to statements or writings attributed to a person not on the witness stand,
which are being offered not to prove the truth of the facts stated therein, but only to prove
that such were actually made.
a. Independently Relevant Statements
b. Hearsay Evidence
c. Expert witness testimony
d. All of the above
63. A public document enjoys the presumption of regularity. It is prima facie evidence of the truth
of the facts stated therein and a conclusive presumption of its existence and due.
a. The statement is true
b. The statement is false
c. The statement is somewhat true
d. None of the foregoing
64. In which of the following instances is the quantum of evidence ERRONEOUSLY applied?
a. To Writ of Amparo cases, substantial evidence.
b. To satisfy the burden of proof in civil cases, preponderance of evidence.
 c. To overcome a disputable presumption, clear and convincing evidence.
d. To rebut the presumptive validity of a notarial document, substantial evidence.
65. When a Motion to Quash search warrant is denied, the best remedy is _______
a. appeal the denial order.
b. file a motion to suppress evidence.
c. file an injunction suit.
d. file a certiorari petition.
66. Which of the following statements is not accurate?
a. A plea of guilty later withdrawn is admissible in evidence against the accused
who made the plea.
b. An unaccepted offer of a plea of guilty to a lesser offense is inadmissible in evidence
against the accused.
c. An offer to pay or payment of medical expenses arising from injury is not evidence or
proof of civil/criminal liability for the Injury.
d. In civil cases, an offer of compromise by the accused is admissible as an implied
admission of guilt.
67. In which of the following the Parole Evidence Rule applies?
a. In subsequent agreements placed on issue.
b. To written agreements or contractual documents.
c. In judgment on a compromise agreement.
d. To will and testaments
70. Under the Rules of Electronic Evidence, "ephemeral electronic conversation" refers to the
following, EXCEPT
a. text messages
b. telephone conversations
c. faxed document
d. online chatroom sessions
71. How may an ordinary citizen give his opinion regarding the handwriting of a person?
a. When he has to testify only as to the mental and emotional state of the one who
authored the handwriting
b. When it is the handwriting of one whom he has sufficient familiarity
c. When he is a questioned document examiner
d. When he is a graduate of criminology
72. What doctrine allows evidence obtained by police officers in an illegal search and seizure to
be used against the accused?
a. Silver platter
b. Exclusionary doctrine
c. Fruit of the poisonous tree
d. Miranda ruling
73. What rule is observed when generally, there can be no evidence of a writing, the contents of
which is the subject matter of inquiry?
a. secondary evidence
b. parole evidence
c. corollary evidence
d. original evidence
74. In what instance can alibi (the weakest defense) acquire commensurate strength in
evidential value?
a. when it changes the burden of proof
b. when evidence for the prosecution is strong
c. where no positive and proper identification has been satisfactorily made
 d. when questions on whether or not accused committed the offense is clear
75. In an alleged robbery case, Pedro who is deaf and mute witnessed the commission of the
crime. He is the sole eyewitness to the crime. Is Pedro, under the rules on evidence eligible
to testify in court as a witness despite his incapacity to relate verbally what he had seen?
a. No, because he cannot communicate to the court what he witnessed
b. Yes, because he can perceive and perceiving and can make known his perception
to others
c. No, because his disability to speak is tantamount to inability to make known his
perception to others
d. Yes, provided with the approval of the court
76. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is considered as
containing all the terms agreed upon and there can be, between the parties and their
successors-in-interest, no evidence of such terms other than the contents of the written
agreement. This refers to:
a. Original Document Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence Rule
77. The ultimate fact to be proven or that which a party wants to proves to the court
a. Factum Probandum
b. Factum Probans
c. Actus Reus
d. Mens Rea
78. When may circumstantial evidence be sufficient to obtain conviction?
a. There is more than one circumstance
b. The facts from which the inference are derived were proven
c. When combined proof beyond reasonable doubt may be established
d. All of the foregoing
79. It refers to evidence consisting of the narration of a person, known as a witness, made under
oath and in the course of the judicial proceedings in which the evidence is offered
a. Real evidence
b. Documentary evidence
c. Electronic evidence
d. Testimonial evidence
80. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Admissibility means any material which is irrelevant and competent
b. Weight refers to the value give to the material after it has been admitted
c. There can be proof even without evidence
d. Rules on Evidence vary in different courts
81. Evidence will be excluded if it was gained through evidence uncovered in an illegal arrest,
unreasonable search or coercive interrogation. This is known as:
a. Miranda Doctrine
b. Doctrine of the Fruit of Poisonous Tree
c. Doctrine of Absorption
d. All of the above
82. A party who call for the production of a document and inspect the same _______
a. is obliged to offer it as evidence
b. is not obliged to offer it as evidence
c. may be obliged to offer it as evidence
 d. shall be obliged to offer it as evidence
83. It is outside evidence which is introduced to prove a fact not appearing on the face of a
document.
a. secondary evidence
b. best evidence
c. evidence aliunde
d. indirect evidence
84. If X makes statement before the media admitting his participation in a previous murder and
the rest of his statement pointing to Y and Z as his co-actor in the murder. Against whom X
statement is admissible in evidence?
a. X only
b. X and Y only
c. X, Y and Z
d. Y and Z only
85. When documentary or object evidence is refused to admit by the court, how tender of
excluded evidence is made?
a. It may have the same attached to or made part of the record
b. It may state for the record the name and other personal circumstances of the
witness and substance of the propose testimony
c. It may have the same detached from the record
d. It may have the same stricken out from the record
86. What classification of evidence is referred to when the evidence denies the occurrence of an
event or existence of a fact, as when the accused presents witness who testify that the
accused was at their party when the crime was committed.
a. Negative Evidence
b. Conclusive Evidence
c. Prima facie Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence

Case 1- P/Corporal Cardo Dalisay responded to a call for police assistance and upon arrival at the
place alluded to, he was able to talk to the victim who was catching his breath while being
transported to the nearest hospital. The victim was able to relate to the lawman who shot and
wounded him in the chest. The victim was pronounced dead upon arrival by the attending physician.
In the prosecution of the crime wherein P/Corporal Cardo Dalisay was issued subpoena
testificandum to testify.
87. Based on the given case what do you call the revelation made by the victim before he died?
a. Statements of unsound person
b. Declaration of the facts of the case
c. Dying Declaration
d. Verbal testimony
88. Will the testimony of P/Corporal Edu Manzano be admitted by the court hearing the case of
murder despite that the victim expired and cannot testify personally? Is the testimony an
exception to the Hearsay Rule?
a. Yes, because a dying person will not tell a lie?
b. No, because the declaration is hearsay and P/Corporal Edu Manzano has no
personal knowledge over the case
c. Yes, the declaration of a person made under the consciousness of an
impending death is an exception to the Hearsay Rule
d. All of the above.
89. A person for the period of seven (7) years, being unknown whether or not the absentee still
lives, he or she is considered dead for all purposes, except for those of succession. The
statement is
a. True
b. False
c. somewhat true
d. None of the foregoing
90. When a Motion to Quash search warrant is denied, what is the best applicable remedy?
a. Appeal the denial order.
b. File a motion to suppress evidence.
c. File an injunction suit.
d. File a certiorari petition.
91. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of
an impending death?
a. Parol Evidence
b. Ante mortem statement
c. Suicide note
d. Dead man statute
92. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in state criminal prosecutions in
the famous case of
a. Miranda vs Arizona
b. Otit vs Jeff
c. Mapp vs Ohio
d. Milkey vs Wett
93. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the
proposition affirmed.
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence
d. best evidence
94. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case?
a. Yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished
b. Yes, under the law he is a competent witness
c. No, he is incompetent as a witness
d. Yes, because crime charge is one committed by the wife
95. The declaration of a dying person may be admissible in evidence for several purposes such
as being offered as a dying declaration, a statement part of res gestae and or a dying
declaration against interest. In such case, it is considered as an example of?
a. Curative admissibility
b. Circumstantial evidence
c. Multiple admissibility
d. Corroborative evidence
96. Object evidence are those addressed to the senses of the court. They can be categorized as
follows except one:
a. Unique objects or objects that have readily identifiable marks.
b. Tangible and unique objects which appeals indirectly to the senses of the court.
c. Objects that are made unique.
d. Objects with no identifying marks and cannot be marked.

97. What is the Latin term of presumption that cannot be contradicted ?

a. presumption homonis
 b. presumption of law
c. Juris et de Jure
d. Juris tantum
98. Jose a suspect was forced to make confession where he revealed he took shabu from Pedro
based on this knowledge the Police officer went to the house of Pedro and search his room
and found a shabu . The confession of Jose is inadmissible, because of
______________________
a. fruit of the poisonous tree
b. exclusionary rule
c. doctrine of silver plotter
d. Locard exchange principle
99. If a witness cannot be compelled to testify against his parent or other direct ascendants, this
is said to be a
a. Parental Privilege
b. Filial Privilege
c. Formal Privilege
d. Informal Privilege
100. Which of the following is an exception to disqualification by reason of marriage?

a. Consent is given by the party spouse

b. In a civil case filed by wife against the husband
c. In a criminal case for a crime committed by husband against the wife or the latter's
direct descendants or ascendants
d. All of the above

101.
102.

103.
104.