NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

6. X is a battery of emf 6 V and internal resistance 1 ohm.
Physics - Section A The potential at point P in the figure is:
1. The refractive index of a material of a plano-concave
lens is 5/3, and the radius of curvature is 0.3 m. The focal
length of the lens in air is:
1. -0.45 m
2. -0.6 m
3. -0.75 m
4. -1.0 m

2. The far point of a short-sighted eye is 200 cm. The

power of the corrective lens is:
1. -0.5 D 1. 6 V
2. 2 D 2. 5 V
3. 1 D 3. 3 V
4. -1.5 D 4. 2 V

3. The refractive index of glass is 1.9. If light travels 7. Two charged particles are projected into a region in
through a glass slab of thickness d in time t and takes the which a magnetic field is perpendicular to their velocities.
same time to travel through a transparent beaker filled After they enter the magnetic field, it must be true that:
with water upto a thickness 1.5 d, then the refractive index 1. the charges are deflected in opposite directions
of water is: 2. the charges continue to move in a straight line
1. 1.27 3. the charges move in circular paths
2. 1.33 4. the charges move in circular paths but in opposite
3. 1.20 directions
4. 1.50
8. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform
4. Two electric bulbs, one of 200 V - 40 W and the other speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the
of 200 V - 100 W are connected in a domestic circuit. circle. If velocity is increased to 4v and the magnetic field
Then: at the center remains unchanged, the radius changes to:
1. they have equal currents through them. (Take Initial radius = r)
2. the resistances of both the bulbs are same. 1. r/2
3. the resistance of the bulb of 40 watt is more. 2. r/3
4. the resistance of the bulb of 100 watt is more. 3. 2r
4. 3r
5. A house is served by 220 V supply line. In a circuit
protected by a fuse marked by 9 amp, the maximum 9. A photon with energy E has same energy as kinetic
number of 60- W lamps in parallel that can be turned on, energy of a proton. Let λ be the de-Broglie wavelength
1

is: of the proton and λ be the wavelength of the photon. The

2

1. 44 ratio λ /λ is proportional to:

1 2

2. 20 1. c0
3. 22 2. c1/2
4. 33
3. c-1
4. c-2

10. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is ν . 0

When the light of frequency ν = 2ν is incident on it,

0

the maximum velocity of photoelectrons is 4 × 10 m/s. If

6

the frequency of incident radiation is increased to 5ν then

0

the maximum velocity of photoelectrons (in m/s) will be:

1. (4/5) × 10 6

2. 2 × 10 6

3. 8 × 10 6

4. 2 × 10 7

Page: 1
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
11. Representing the stopping potential V along y-axis 17. A mass is suspended from a vertical string in the cabin
and (1/λ) along x-axis for a given photocathode, the of a lift moving uniformly upwards, then tension in the
curve is a straight line, the slope of which is equal to: string is:
1. e
1. T = T0
hc

2. hc
2. T > T0
e

3. ec
3. T < T0
h

4. he 4. T = 2T0
c
(where T0 is the tension in the string when the lift is in
12. Thermal neutrons are those which: rest position)
1. are at very high temperatures.
2. move with high velocities. 18. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is
3. have kinetic energies similar to those of surrounding given by:
molecules. F =600−2 × 10 t
5

4. are at rest. Where F is in newton and t in second. The force on the

bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is
13. An element has binding energy 8 eV/nucleon. If it has the average impulse imparted to the bullet?
total binding energy 128 eV, then the number of nucleons 1. 9 N-s
are: 2. zero
1. 8 3. 0.9 N-s
2. 14 4. 1.8 N-s
3. 16
4. 32 19. If the kinetic energy of a particle is doubled, the de-
Broglie wavelength becomes:
14. If R1 is the input resistance and R2 is the output 1. 2 times
resistance, the voltage gain A in common-emitter 2. 4 times
configuration is: 3. √2 times
1. A=α (R /R )
2 1
4. (1/√2) times
2. A=β (R /R )
2 1

3. A=α
4. A=β 20. Force on an object constrained to move along Z-
direction is given by:
→
15. For the given circuit, the potential difference between F = (5^i +10^j−6k)^
N

C and D is: The work done by this force in moving the body a
distance of 8 m along the z-axis is:
1. 24 J
2. -24 J
3. 48 J
4. -48 J

21. A body of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 20 m on the

ground and it rebounds to a height of 0.2 m. If the loss in
1. 0 potential energy is used up by the body, then what will be
2. 5 volt the temperature rise? (Specific heat of the material = 0.09
3. 10 volt
cal gm-1 oC-1)
4. 15 volt
1. 5oC
16. In the case of p-n junction diode at a high value of 2. 4oC
reverse bias, the current rises sharply. The value of reverse 3. 8oC
bias is known as: 4. none of these.
1. zero voltage
2. zener voltage
3. inverse voltage
4. critical voltage

Page: 2
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
22. Two particles of equal masses have velocities 28. For the cyclic process shown , the work done is:
→ →
v =2 i m/s and v =2 j m/s. The first particle has an
^ ^
1 2

→
acceleration ^ ^
a = (3 i +3 j) m/s
2
, while the acceleration
of the other particle is zero. The centre of mass of the two
particles moves in a:
1. circle
2. parabola
3. straight line
4. ellipse

23. A closed tube partly filled with water lies in a

horizontal plane. The tube rotates about a perpendicular 1. Negative
bisector with angular velocity ω. If the tube stops rotating, 2. Positive
the moment of inertia of the system: 3. Zero
1. increases. 4. Can't say
2. decreases.
3. remains constant. 29. In an adiabatic process wherein pressure is increased
Cp
4. depends on the sense of rotation. by % if
3
2

3 Cv
=
2
, then the volume decreases by about:
1. 4
%
24. A uniform sphere of mass 200 gm rolls without 9

slipping on a plane surface so that its centre moves at a 2. % 2

speed of 2.00 cm/sec. Its kinetic energy is: 3. 4 %

1. 5.6 × 10 J−5
4. % 9

4
2. 5.6 × 10 J−4

3. 5.6 × 10 J−3
30. Six moles of O gas is heated from 20oC to 35oC at
2
4. 5.6 × 10 J−2

constant volume. If specific heat capacity at constant

25. A disc and a hoop (ring) of the same mass and size roll pressure is 8 cal/mol-K. What is the change in the internal
down an inclined plane simultaneously. The object which energy of the gas?[Take R = 2 cal/mol-K]
reaches the bottom of the incline first is: 1. 180 cal
1. hoop 2. 300 cal
2. disc 3. 360 cal
3. both the hoop and the disc 4. 540 cal
4. none of these
31. Internal energy of n1 moles of hydrogen at
26. The surface tension of the soap solution is 0.03 N/m. temperature T is equal to the internal energy of n2 mole of
The work done in blowing to form a soap bubble of helium at temperature 2T. Then the ratio n1/n2 is:
surface area 40 cm2 is: 1. 3/5
1. 1.2 × 10 J−4
2. 2/3
2. 2.4 × 10 J−4
3. 6/5
3. 12 × 10 J −4 4. 3/7
4. 24 × 10 −4
J

27. Two substances of relative densities ρ and ρ are

1 2

mixed in equal volume and relative density of mixture is

4. When they are mixed in equal masses, the relative
density of mixture is 3. The values of ρ and ρ are:
1 2

1. ρ = 6 and ρ = 2
1 2

2. ρ = 3 and ρ = 5
1 2

3. ρ = 12 and ρ = 4
1 2

4. none of these

Page: 3
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
32. A particle of mass m oscillates in simple harmonic 38. Two point charges +3μC and +8μC repel each other
motion between points X1 and X2, the equilibrium with a force of 40 N. If a charge of −5μC is added to
position being O. Its kinetic energy will be as shown in the each of them then the force between them will become:
following graph: 1. +10 N
2. +20 N
3. -20 N
4. -10 N

39. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet:

1. 2. 1. do not exist
2. are from N-pole to S-pole of the magnet
3. are from S-pole to N-pole of the magnet
4. depend upon the area of cross-section of the bar magnet

40. Energy stored in the choke coil in the form of:

3. 4. 1. heat
2. electric energy
33. If a particle takes 0.5 sec to reach position of 3. magnetic energy
minimum velocity from previous such position, then: 4. chemical energy
1. T = 6 sec, v = 1/6 Hz
2. T = 2 sec, v = 1 Hz 41. In a purely resistive AC circuit, which of the following
3. T = 3 sec, v = 3 Hz sketches represents the variation of the current amplitude
4. T = 1 sec, v = 1 Hz I with the frequency ω?
0
34. A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a 1. 2.
hollow sphere containing mercury suspended by means of
a wire. If a little mercury is drained off, the period of the
pendulum will:
1. remain unchanged
2. increase
3. decrease
4. become erratic

35. Two concentric coils of 10 turns each are situated in

the same plane. Their radii are 20 and 40 cm and they
carry respectively 0.2 and 0.3 ampere current in opposite
direction. The magnetic field in Wb/m2 at the centre is:
1. μ 35

4
0

μ0
2. 80

3. 7

80
μ0

4. 5
μ0 3. 4.
4

Physics - Section B
36. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state
to the fifth state, then:
1. both K.E. and P.E. increase 42. A plane EM wave of frequency 30 MHz travels in free
2. both K.E. and P.E. decrease space along the X-direction. The electric field component
3. the P.E. increases and K.E. decreases of the wave at a particular point of space and time is E = 6
4. the P.E. decreases and K.E. increases V/m along Y-direction. Its magnetic field component B at
this point would be:
37. In the interference pattern, the energy is: 1. 2 × 10 T along Z-direction
−8

1. created at the position of maxima. 2. 6 × 10 T along X-direction

−6

2. destroyed at the position of minima. 3. 6 × 10 T along Y-direction

−8

3. conserved but redistributed. 4. 6 × 10 T along Z-direction

−8

4. all of the above.

Page: 4
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
43. Given that T stands for time period and l stands for 46. At what height h above the earth, the value of g
the length of simple pendulum. If g is the acceleration due becomes g/2? (R = Radius of the earth)
to gravity, then which of the following statements about 1. 3R
the relation T = l/g is correct?
2
2. √2R
1. It is correct both dimensionally as well as numerically. 3. (√2−1) R
2. It is neither dimensionally correct nor numerically.
3. It is dimensionally correct but not numerically. 4. 1
R
√2
4. It is numerically correct but not dimensionally.
47. One end of a uniform bar of weight W1 is suspended
44. Depict the shown v-x graph in the a-x graph:
from the roof and a weight W2 is suspended from the
other end. The area of cross-section is A. What is the
stress at the midpoint of the rod?
(W1 +W2 )
1. A
(W1 −W2 )
2.
A
(W1 /2)+W2
3. A
(W2 /2)+W1

2. 4.
1. A

48. The equation of state corresponding to 8 g of O2 is:

1. P V = 8RT
2. P V = RT

3. P V = RT
4. P V = RT

49. Two rods of equal length and area of the cross-section

3. 4. are kept parallel and lagged between temperatures 20oC
and 80oC. The ratio of the effective thermal conductivity
to that of the first rod is:
[the ratio (K1/K2) = 3:4]
1. 7:4
2. 7:6
3. 4:7
4. 7:8

50. In the equation

2πx
y=4 cos( ) sin(100πt)
50

where x and y are in cm, t in sec, the node appears at x

equal to (in cm):
45. The friction of the air causes vertical retardation equal 1. 12.5
to 10% of the acceleration due to gravity. The maximum 2. 50
height will be decreased by: (Take g = 10 ms-2) 3. 20
1. 8% 4. 100/2π
2. 9%
3. 10%
4. 11%

Page: 5
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
55. The total number of monohalogenated organic
Chemistry - Section A products (excluded stereoisomer) in the following reaction
51. The IUPAC name of the following compound is is-
1.H2 /N i

A (simplest optically active alkene) −−−−−→ Products

2.Cl2 /hv

1. 5
2. 4
1. 2-(Ethoxycarbonyl)benzoylchloride 3. 6
2. Ethyl 2-(chlorocarbonyl)benzoate 4. 8
3. Ethyl 2-(chloromethanoyl)benzoate
4. Methyl 2-(Chlorocarbonyl)benzene carboxylate. 56. An organic compound (A) (molecular formula
C6H12O2) was hydrolyzed with dil. H2SO4 to give a
52. In context with beryllium, which one of the following carboxylic acid (B) and alcohol (C). 'C' gives white
statements is incorrect? turbidity immediately when treated with anhydrous
1. it is rendered passive by nitric acid ZnCl2 and conc. HCl. The organic compound (A) is-
2. it forms Be C 2

3. its salts rarely hydrolyze

4. its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric

53. The quantum number of four electrons are given 1.

below :
I. n = 4 , l = 2 , m = − 2, m = −
l s
1

II. n = 3 , l = 2 , ml = 1, ms = +
1

III. n = 4 , l = 1 , ml = 0, ms = +
1
2.
2

IV. n = 3 , l = 1 , m = 1, m = −l s
1

The correct order of their increasing energies will be -

1. I < III < II < IV
2. IV < II < III < I 3.
3. I < II < III < IV
4. IV < III < II < I

54. Simplified absorption spectra of three complexes ((i), 4.

(ii) and (iii)) of Mn+ ion are provided below; their λmax
values are marked as A, B and C respectively. The correct
match between the complexes and their λmax values is: 57. The molecule in which hybrid MOs involve only one
d-orbital of the central atom is :
1. XeF 4
2−
2. [N i(CN ) ] 4

3. BrF 5

4. [CrF ] 6
3−

58. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following

compounds in nucleophilic addition reaction is :
Propanal, Benzaldehyde, Propanone, Butanone
1. Butanone < Propanone < Benzaldehyde < Propanal
(i) [M(NCS)6](-6+n) 2. Propanal < Propanone < Butanone < Benzaldehyde
(ii) [MF6](-6+n) 3. Benaldehyde < Propanal < Propanone < Butanone
4. Benzaldehyde < Butanone < Propanone < Propanal
(iii) [M(NH3)6]n+
1. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
2. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
3. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
4. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)

Page: 6
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
59. Lattice energy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl are 62. In the following reaction the reason why meta-nitro
788 kJ mol–1 and 4 kJ mol–1 , respectively. The hydration product also formed is:
enthalpy of NaCl is:
1. –780 kJ mol–1
2. –784 kJ mol–1
3. 780 kJ mol–1
4. 784 kJ mol–1

60. For a dimerization reaction, 2A(g) → A2(g) a t 298 K

, ∆UΘ = -20 kJ mol-1 ∆SΘ = - 30 J K-1mol-1 , then the 1. Low temperature
2. –NH2 group is highly meta-directive
∆GΘ will be- .
1. -10. 4 kJ 3. Formation of anilinium ion
2. 18.9 kJ 4. –NO2 substitution always takes place at meta-position
3. -13.5 kJ
4. 17. 4 kJ 63. Total number of lone pair of electrons in I −

3
ion is-
1. 3
61. The correct structure of α-anomer of maltose, among 2. 6
the following is- 3. 9
4. 12

64. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of

NaOH followed by acidification produces compound X as
the major product. X on treatment with (CH3CO)2O in the
1.
presence of catalytic amount of H2SO4 produces :

2. 1.

3. 2.

4. 3.

4.

Page: 7
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
65. The major product formed in the following reaction is 68. A solution of phenol in chloroform when treated with
: aqueous NaOH gives compound P as a major product. The
mass percentage of carbon in P is-
(to the nearest integer)
(Atomic mass : C =12; H=1; O=16)

1. 65
2. 69
3. 73
4. 76
1.

69. The rate of a reaction decreased by 3.555 times when

the temperature was changed from 40°C to 30°C. The
2. activation energy (in kJ mol ) of the reaction is-
−1

Take; R=8.314 J mol K In 3.555=1.268

−1 −1

1. 100 kJ/mol
3. 2. 120 kJ/mol
3. 95 kJ/mol
4. 108 kJ/mol

4. 70. Among the following, the order presents the correct

sequence of the increasing basic nature of the given oxides
66. The lanthanoid that does NOT show +4 oxidation state is -
is 1. Al O < MgO < Na O < K O
2 3 2 2

1. Dy 2. MgO < K O < Al O < Na O 2 2 3 2

2. Eu 3. Na O < K O < MgO < Al O

2 2 2 3

3. Ce 4. K O < Na O < Al O < MgO

2 2 2 3

4. Tb
71. If 10−4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm3 flask
67. Match the following : at 300 K. The total number of moles of water are in the
Test/Method Reagent vapour phase (equilibrium is established)is-
(i) Lucas Test (a) C H SO Cl / aq. KOH
6 5 2
(Given: Vapour pressure of H2O at 300 K is 3170 pa; R =
(ii) Dumas method (b) HNO / AgNO 3 0.0821 atm L K−1 mol−1 )
3

(iii) Kjeldahl's method (c) CuO / CO 1. 1.26 x 10−3 mol

2

(iv) Hinsberg Test (d) Conc. HCl and ZnCl 2. 5.56 x 10−3 mol
2

(e) H SO 2 4
3. 1.53 x10−2 mol
4. 4346 x 10-2 mol
1. (i)-(d). (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a)
2. (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a) 72. Among the following, the mixture will produce a
3. (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(e) buffer solution when mixed in equal volumes is-
4. (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) 1. 0.1 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm-3 HCl
2. 0.05 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm-3 HCl
3. 0.1 mol dm-3 NH4OH and 0.05 mol dm-3 HCl
4. 0.1 mol dm-3 CH3COONa and 0.1 mol dm-3 NaOH

Page: 8
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
73. For the reaction: 79. SN1 reaction is feasible in-
FeO(s) + CO(g) ⇌ Fe(s) + CO2 (g) , Kp = 0. 265

at 1050K. If the initial partial pressures are: pCO= 1.4 atm 1.

and p = 0.80 atm, the partial pressure of CO2 at
CO2
2.
equilibrium at 1050 K would be -
(1) 4.61 atm
(2) 1.74 atm 3.
(3) 0.46 atm
(4) 0.17 atm
4.

74. Proper management of disposal of household and

industrial wastes can be done by
1. Recycling the waste material to give useful products 80. The term infinite dilution refers when :
again 1. α ⟶1, for weak electrolytes
2. Burning and incineration of combustible waste 2. An electrolyte is 100% dissociated
3. Sewage treatment 3. All interionic effects disappears
4. All of the above 4. All of the above

75. The freezing point of a solution containing 8.1 g HBr 81. For the reaction:
in 100 g water assuming the acid to be 90% ionised is- ( Fe3O4 (s) + Al (s) → Fe (s) + Al2O3 (s)
k for water = 1. 86 K mol
f
) −1

1. 0.85°C The correct statement(s) in the equation is(are):

2. -3.53°C
3. 0°C a. Stoichiometric coefficient of Fe is 9.
4. -0.35°C b. Aluminium is oxidized
c. Ferrous ferric oxide (Fe3O4) is oxidized
76. In the reaction d. Aluminium is reduced.
Oxidation NaOH Sodalime

C6 H5 CH3 −−−−−→ A−−

−→ B−−−−→ C

Identify 𝐶 is 1. a, c
1. C6H5OH 2. a, b
2. C6H6 3. b, c
4. c, d
3. C6H5COONa
4. C6H5ONa 82. Consider the following reaction:
PCl5 + H2O → A + 2HCl
77. The standard emf of a cell, involving one electron
change is found to be 0.591 V at 25°C. The equilibrium The product A is -
constant of the reaction is (F=96,500 C mol-1):
1. 1.0×101 1. H3PO2
2. 1.0×105 2. H3PO4
3. 1.0×1010 3. POCl3
4. 1.0×1030 4. None of the above

78. PCl3 and PCl5 both exist ; NCl3 exists but NCl5 does 83. BeSO4 and MgSO4 readily soluble in water while
not exist. It is due to : CaSO4, SrSO4 and BaSO4 are insoluble because-
1. Lower electronegativity of P and N
2. Lower tendecy of N to form covalent bond 1. Down the group hydration energy decreases
3. Availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N 2. Down the group lattice energy increases
4. Statement is itself incorrect 3. Down the group both hydration and lattice energy
increases
4. None of the above

Page: 9
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
84. The compound prepared by prolonged electrolysis of 88. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400
water is- and 600 mmHg, respectively at 298 K. On mixing the two
liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the
1. CO2 volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B
2. Methanol is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final
3. Formaldehyde solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in the
4. Heavy water vapour phase, respectively are -
1. 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
85. The correct options to distinguish nitrate salts of 2. 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
Mn
2+
and Cu taken separately is
2+ 3. 500 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
a. M n shows the characteristic green color in the flame 4. 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
2+

test
b. Only Cu shows the formation of a precipitate by 89. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
2+

passing H S in acidic medium exhibited by", is:

2

c. Only M n shows the formation of precipitate by 1. Starch solution

2+

passing H S in faintly basic medium 2. Urea solution

d. Cu /Cu has higher reduction potential than 3. NaCl solution
2
2+

4. Glucose solution
/M n (measured under similar conditions)
2+
Mn

90. The degenerate orbitals of [Cr(H2 O) ]

3+
are :
1. Both a, and b are correct. 6

2. Both b, and c are correct. 1. d z

2 and dxz

3. Both c, and a are correct. 2. d yz

and dz 2

4. Both b and d are correct. 3. d xz and dyz

4. d x −y
2 2 and dxy

Chemistry - Section B 91. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following
86. The number of chiral centres in the following compounds toward electrophilic aromatic substitution
compound is- reactions(EASR) is :

1. III < II < I

2. III < I < II
3. II < I < III
4. I < III < II
1. 4
92. The molar solubility of Cd(OH) is 1.84 × 10–5 M in
2. 5 2
3. 6 water. The expected solubility of Cd(OH)2 in a buffer
4. 7 solution of pH = 12 is :
1. 2. 49 × 10 M
−10

2. 1. 84 × 10 M −9

87. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as:

3. 6. 23 × 10 M
−11

1. Antiseptic
4. 1.49×10 M −9

2. Antipyretic
3. Antibiotic
93. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 90
4. Analgesic
minutes, 60% of the same reaction would be completed in
approximately (in minutes)-.
(Take : log 2 = 0.30 ; log 2.5 = 0.40)
1. 50 min
2. 60 min
3. 70 min
4. 65 min

Page: 10
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
94. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the 98. Consider the following reactions at 1100oC
following will not be a viable molecule? (I )2C + O ⟶ 2CO, ΔG = −460 kJ mol
∘
−1

2
1. He 2+

2 −1
∘
2. He 2
+ (I I )2Zn + O ⟶ 2ZnO, ΔG = −360 kJ mol
2

3. H − Based on these, select correct alternate :

2
1. Zinc can be oxidised by CO
4. H 2−

2 2. Zinc oxide can be reduced by carbon

3. Both 1 and 2
95. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II : 4. None is the correct
Item-I Item-II
(a) Natural rubber (I) 1,3-butadiene + styrene 99. A compound M X has cubic close packing (ccp)
P q

(b) Neoprene (II) 1,3-butadiene + acrylonitrile arrangement of X. Its unit cell structure is shown below.
(c) Buna-N (III) Chloroprene The empirical formula of the compound is
(d) Buna-S (IV) Isoprene

1. (a)-(III), (b)-(IV), (c)-(I), (d)-(II)

2. (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)
3. (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(I), (d)-(II)
4. (a)-(III), (b)-(IV), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)

96. The correct match between Item-1 (starting material)

and item-II (reagent) for the preparation of benzaldehyde 1. M X
is : 2. M X 2

Item - I Item - II 3. M X
2

(I) Benzene (P) HCl and SnCl , H O

2 3
+
4. M X
5 14

(II) Benzonitrile (Q) H , Pd − BaSO ,

2 4

(III) Benzoyl Chloride (R) CO, HCl and AlCl 3

1. (I)-(Q), (II)-(R) and (III)-(P)

2. (I)-(R), (II)-(Q) and (III)-(P)
3. (I)-(R), (II)-(P) and (III)-(Q)
4. (I)-(P), (II)-(Q) and (III)-(R)

97. Assertion : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main

components in the atmosphere but these do not react to
form oxides of nitrogen.
Reason : The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen
requires a high temperature.
1. Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is
the correct explanation for the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is
not the correct explanation for the assertion
3. The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct
4. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
100. In an experiment, m grams of a compound X
(gas/liquid/solid) taken in a container is loaded in a Zoology - Section A
balance as shown in figure given below. 101. What is true for an ideal contraceptive?
I. It should be user-friendly
II. It should be easily available
III. It should be ineffective and reversible with least side
effects
IV. It should be effective and reversible with least side
effects.
V. It should interfere with the sexual act of the user
1. All of the above
2. I, II, III
3. I, II, IV
4. I, II, IV, V

102. To induce uterine contractions for parturition which

of the following hormones can be injected to the female?
1. hCG
2. Estrogen
3. Progesterone
4. Oxytocin

103. Fight or flight reactions cause activation of

1. the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic
rate
2. the kidney, leading to suppression of reninangiotensin-
aldosterone pathway
3. the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of
epinephrine and norepinephrine
In the presence of a magnetic field, the pan with X is 4. the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar
either deflected (Fig. I), upwards (figure II), or deflected levels
downwards (figure III), depending on the compound X.
Identify the correct statement(s). 104. Serum differs from blood in
1. lacking globulins
a. If X is H O(l), deflection of the pan is upwards
2
2. lacking albumins
b. If X is K [F e(CN ) ](s), deflection of the pan is
4 6
3. lacking clotting factors
upwards 4. lacking antibodies
c. If X is O (g), deflection of the pan is downwards
2

d. If X is C H (l) deflection of the pan is downwards

6 6 105. Which one of the following correctly explains the
function of a specific part of a human nephron?
1. a, b, and c are correct 1. Henle's loop - most reabsorption of the major
2. Both b, and d are correct. substances from the glomerular filtrated
3. b, c, and d are correct. 2. Distal convoluted tubule - reabsorption of ions into the
4. a, b, and d are correct surrounding blood capillaries
3. Afferent arteriole - carries the blood away from the
glomerulus towards the renal vein
4. Podocytes- create minute spaces (slit pores) for the
filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule

106. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in

humans is synthesized.
1. in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
2. in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
3. in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
4. in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys

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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
107. If for some reason our goblet cells are non- 112. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to
functional, this will adversely affect us. rocks and / or host tissues are:
1. production of somatostatin 1. Fimbriae
2. secretion of sebum From the sebaceous glands 2. Mesosomes
3. maturation of sperms 3. Holdfast
4. smooth movement of food down the intestine 4. Rhizoids

108. Given diagram shows bone of the left human hind 113. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?
limb as seen from front. It has certain mistakes in labeling. 1. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
Two of the wrongly labelled bones are 2. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
3. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
4. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito

114. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and
select the right option giving their source

(a)

1. tibia and tarsals

2. femur and fibula
3. fibula and phalanges
4. tarsals and femur

109. Select the correct statement about biodiversity:

(b)
1. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very
high level of desert animal species as wellas numerous Molecule Source Use
rare animals. Erythroxylum Accelerates the transport
1. (a) Cocaine
2. Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect coca of dopamine
on biodiversity. Cannabis Depressant and slows
3. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species 2. (b) Heroin Sativa down body functions
richness and endemism. (b) Atropa
4. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the 3. Cannabinoid belladona Produces hallucinations
developed countries.
(a) Papaver
4. Sedative and pain killer
110. Which of the following is correct? Morphine somniferum
1. The chemical or metabolic conversion refers to a
reaction.
2. The chemical which is converted into a product is
called a substrate.
3. Proteins with three dimensional structures including an
active site is called enzyme.
4. All of these

111. Enzymes enhance the rate of reaction by

1. forming a reactant-product complex
2. changing the equilibrium point of the reaction
3. combining with the product as soon as it is formed
4. lowering the activation energy of the reaction

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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
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115. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation 119. In alveoli,
of the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given 1. pCO2 is high and pO2is low
options correctly identifies its certain component (s)? 2. pCO2 is low and pO2 is high
3. pCO2 is low and pO2 low
4. None of the above

120. An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around

hemoglobin causes
1. Hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules.
2. An increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind
oxygen molecules.
3. Hemoglobin to denature.
1. ori - original restriction enzyme 4. An increase in the binding of H+ by hemoglobin.
2. rop-reduced osmotic pressure
3. Hind III, EcoRI - selectable markers 121. The second heart sound during the cardiac cycle is
4. ampR, tetR- antibiotic resistance genes produced by the:
1. Simultaneous opening of the atrioventricular valves
116. At a particular locus, frequency A allele is 0.6 and 2. Simultaneous closure of the atrioventricular valves
that of a si 0.4. What would be the frequency of 3. Simultaneous opening of the semilunar valves
heterozygotes in a random mating population at 4. Simultaneous closure of the semilunar valves
equilibrium?
1. 0.24 122. Which of the following hormone regulates sleep-
2. 0.16 wake cycle ?
3. 0.48
4. 0.34 1. Melatonin
2. Thyroxine
3. Vasopressin
117. Which one of the following options gives one correct 4. MSH
example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution?
Convergent evolution Divergent evolution 123. Acrosome is
Bones of forelimbs of Wings of butterfly
1.
vertebrates and birds 1. Part of sperm head
Thorn of Bougainvillea and Eye of Octopus and 2. Caps the anterior portion of haploid nucleus
2. 3. Has enzymes for fertilization
tendrils of Cucurbita mammals
Bones of forelimbs 4. All of these
3. Eye of Octopus and mammals
of vertebrates
Thorns of Bougainvillea and Wings of butterfly
4.
tendrils of Cucurbita and birds 124. At puberty, how many primary follicles are there in
each ovary in a female?

118. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer 1. 60000-80000

(GIFT) is recommended for those females 2. 120000-160000
1. Who cannot provide a suitable environment for 3. 30000-40000
fertilisation. 4. 12000
2. Who cannot produce an ovum.
3. Who cannot retain the fetus inside the uterus.
4. Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for
the sperms 125. Which of the following represents the prokaryotic
cell
1. bacteria, blue-green algae, mycoplasma, PPLO
2. bacteria, blue-green algae, microbes, chlorella
3. bacteria, blue-green algae, slime moulds and Diatoms
4. bacteria, blue-green algae only

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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
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126. Choose the correct pair 129. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1 Physical barriers - HCl in stomach, saliva in mouth
1. An action potential in an axon does not move backward
2 Cellular barriers - PMNL, NK cells because the segment behind is in a refractory phase.
3 Physiological barriers - Mucosa of gut, urinogenital tract
2. Depolarization of hair cells of cochlea results in the
4 Cytokine barriers - Exotoxins opening of the mechanically gated Potassium- ion
channels.
127. The molecule that provides stability to cell 3. Rods are very sensitive and contribute to daylight
membrane is vision.
4. In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the stretching of
muscle and response is its contraction.

130. Match the Column I and Column II

Column-I Column-II
Depolarisation of
(a) P-waves (i)
ventricles
Repolarisation of
(b) QRS complex (ii)
ventricles
(c) T-wave (iii) Coronary ischemia
Reduction in the size of Depolarisation of
(d) (iv)
T-wave artria
(v) Repolarisation of atria

Select the correct option

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
4. (ii) (i) (v) (iii)

131. First discovered restriction endonuclease that always

cuts DNA molecule at a particular point by recognizing a
specific sequence of six base pairs is:
(1) EcoR1
(2) Adenosine deaminase
(3) Thermostable DNA polymerase
128. Which of the following is not a correct match of a (4) Hind II
nervous structure and its function?
1. Corpus striatum - Regulates planning and execution of 132. The development of P.americana is
stereotyped movements 1. Holometabolous
2. Amygdala - Controls emotional behaviour like 2. Paurometabolous
aggression and fear 3. Hemimetabolous
3. Cerebellum - Controls rapid muscular activities like 4. Ametabolous
running, typing, talking etc.
4. Medulla - Controls stretch reflexes

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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
133. Match List-I with List-II 138. Which one of the following is the correct matching of
List-I List-II the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(a) Vaults I. Entry of sperm through the Cervix is Column I Column II
(b) IUDs blocked LH and FSH attain peak level and
(c) II. Removal of Vas deferens 1. Ovulation sharp fall in the secretion of
Vasectomy III. Phagocytosis of sperms within the progesterone
(d) Uterus Proliferative Rapid regeneration of myometrium
Tubectomy IV. Removal of the fallopian tube 2.
phase and maturation of Graafian follicle
Development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. Secretory phase and increased
3. of corpus
(a) (b) (c) (d) secretion of progesterone
luteum
1. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Breakdown of myometrium and
4. Menstruation
3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) ovum not fertilized
4. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

134. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow 139. Which one of the following is False?
and pneumatic long bones? 1.Fatty acids and glycerol are soluble in water
1. Macropus 2.Phospholipids are found in the cell membrane
2. Ornithorhynchus 3.Oils have lower melting point.
3. Neophron 4.In lipids fatty acids are found esterified with glycerol
4. Hemidactylus
140. Select the correct statement from the following
135. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into: regarding cell membrane.
1. Digestive disorder 1. Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive
2. Addison's disease transport
3. Dysfunction of Immune system 2. Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane.
4. Parkinson's disease 3. Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads
towards the inner part.

Zoology - Section B 4. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by

Singer and Nicolson
136. Match the source gland with its respective hormone
and function and select the correct option. 141. Which one of the following statements about certain
given animals is correct?
Source gland Hormone Function 1. Molluscs are acoelomates
1. Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of 2. Insects are pseudocoelomoates
uterine muscles 3. Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
2. Anterior pituitary Vasopressin Induces 4. Roundworms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates.
reabsorption of water in nephron
3. Thymus Thymosin Proliferation of 142. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
T-lymphocytes regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct
4. α-cells of islets Glucagon Uptake of ones out of these.
glucose into the cell. (a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may
of Langerhans need to take immuno suppresants for a long time
(b) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for
137. Bicarbonate is not reabsorbed by the graft regection
1. PCT (c) The B- lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the
2. DCT graft
3. Henle's Loop (d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant
4. All of these depends on specific interferons
The two correct statements are
1. (c) and (d)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a) and (b)
4. (b) and (c)

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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
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143. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand. 149. Select the incorrectly matched pair from the
What is so special shown in it following:
1. Chondrocytes - Smooth muscle cells
5' GAATTC 3' 2. Neurons - Nerve cells
3' CTTAAG 5' 3. Fibroblast - Areolar tissue
1. Replication completed 4. Osteocytes - Bone cells
2. Deletion mutation
3. Start codon at the 5' end 150. Match the following columns and select the correct
4. Palindromic sequence of base pairs option :
Column - I Column - II
144. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked (a) Pneumotaxic Centre (i) Alveoli
together by (b) O Dissociation curve
2 (ii) Pons region of
1. Hydrogen bonds. brain
2. Phosphodiester bond. (c) Carbonic Anhydrase (iii) Haemoglobin
3. Covalent bond. (d) Primary site of exchange of gases (iv) R.B.C.
4. Disulphide bridges. (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
145. Vitreous humor is found in vitreous chamber (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

1. Between lens and retina

2. Between cornea and lens
3. Between sclera and lens
Botany - Section A
151. Which element is required by the plants for uptake
4. Between choroid and lens and utilization of calcium and carbohydrate translocation ?
1. Manganese
2. Boron
3. Chlorine
146. All the ribs are attached to
4. Selenium
(1) Sternum
(2) Verterbal column
152. In vehicles, catalytic converters are used
(3) Clavicle
1. to increase mileage of vehicles
(4) lium
2. to convert CO2 into carbonates
147. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 3. to increase the efficiency of lead mixed petrol
5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 4. to convert CO to CO2.
3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with
weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 kg to 5 kg die. Which type 153. How do herbivores and other animals obtain
of selection process is taking place? Phosphorous?
1. Cyclical selection 1. From soil in the dissolved form
2. Directional selection 2. From plants
3. Stabilizing selection 3. From drinking water
4. Disruptive selection 4. Synthesized in the body.

148. Match the following structures with their respective 154. If one wants to write a whole reaction of Krebs’
location in organs: cycle, then how many water molecules are utilizing in net
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas calculation?
(b) Glisson’s Capsule (ii) Duodenum 1. Two
(c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small intestine 2. One
(d) Bruunner’s Glands (iv) Liver 3. Three
Select the correct option from the following: 4. Four
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
2. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
155. An increase in the concentration of the toxicant at 159. Match the items given in Column I with those in
successive trophic levels is called Column II and select the correct option given below-
1. Biopiracy
2. Biomagnification Column I Column II
3. Biomanagement
4. Biosystematics
i. It is a place having a collection of
a. Herbarium
156. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. preserved plants and animals.
He found that the average natality was 250, average
mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net
increase in population is ii. A list that enumerates methodically
1. 10 b. Key all the species found in an area with brief
2. 15 description aiding identification.
3. 5
4. zero
iii. Is a place where dried and pressed
157. Which of the following was presented as evidence in c. Museum plant specimens mounted on sheets is
favor of “the RNA world” hypothesis? kept.
1. The fact that DNA can encode genetic information
2. The fact that enzymes, made of protein, can catalyze
biological reactions iv. A booklet containing a list of
3. The discovery that some enzymes are composed of d. Catalogue characters and their alternates which are
RNA rather than protein helpful in identification of various taxa.
4. The discovery of new life forms that encode their
genetic information in RNA rather than DNA
1. a-I b-iv c-iii d-ii
158. What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained 2. a-iii b-ii c-I d-iv
with the following data? 3. a-ii b-iv c-iii d-i
Secondary consumer: 120 g 4. a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii
Primary consumer: 60 g
Primary producer: 10 g
1. Inverted pyramid of biomass
160. Select the wrong statement.
2. Pyramid of energy
1. Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.
3. Upright pyramid of numbers
2. The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.
4. Upright pyramid of biomass
3. ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of
diatoms.
4. Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.

161. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and

megasporogenesis:
1. form gametes without further divisions
2. Involve meiosis
3. occur in ovule
4. occur in anther

162. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in
some plant species. ,
2. Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the
stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same
species grows into the style.
3. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing
about pollination are called pollen/ nectar robbers.
4. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are
regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting
with those of the pistil
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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
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163. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent 169. Incomplete dominance is present in
to 1. Snapdragon flower
1. megaspore 2. Dog flower
2. megasporangium 3. Antirrhinum flower
3. megasporophyll 4. All of the above
4. megaspore mother cell
170. Wine and beer are produced
164. Commonly used vectors for human genome 1. By distillation only
sequencing are: 2. By fermentation and distillation
1. T - DNA 3. By fermentation but without distillation
2. BAC and YAC 4. Without fermentation and distillation
3. Expression Vectors
4. T/A Cloning Vectors 171. How many possible genotypes can be observed in a
human population for ABO blood group system?
165. Why photorespiration does not take place in C4 1. 3
plants? 2. 6
1. Do not contain RuBisCo. 3. 10
2. Have a mechanism that increases the 4. 4
concentration of CO2 at the enzyme site.
172. Mark a, b, c, and d
3. Cells do not allow oxygen to accumulate in them.
4. Cells are impermeable to oxygen

166. Select the correct statement about G1 phase:

1. Cell is metabolically inactive
2. DNA in the cell does not replicate
3. It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules
4. Cell stops growing

167. Xylem transports from roots to the aerial parts of the

plants

1. Water, mineral salt

2. Some organic Nitrogen
3. Inorganic solutes, Hormones 1. Metaxylem, protoxylem, cortex, trichome
4. All of these 2. Endodermis, cortex, protoxylem, root hair
3. Endodermis, cortex, metaxylem, root hair
4. Pericycle, cortex, metaxylem, trichome

168. Identify X 173. At which stage of mitotic cell division, the following
characteristics are first seen?
(a) Chromosome as two stranded structure
(b) Spindle fibre formation at poles
(c) Formation of interzonal fibres (IZF)
1. (a)-Prophase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Anaphase
2. (a) and (b)-Prophase, (c)-Anaphase
3. (a)-Prophase, (b) and (c)-Metaphase
4. (a)-Prophase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Telophase

174. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the

following stretch of DNA?
1. Stem 3' ATGCATGCATGCATG 5' TEMPLATE STRAND
2. Runner 5' TACGTACGTACGTAC 3' CODING STRAND
3. Offset 1. 3' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5'
4. Bud 2. 5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'
3. 3' UACGUACGUACGUAC 5'
4. 5' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3'
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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
175. Match the organisms in column I with habitats in 180. Choose correct pair
column II. Placentation Example
Column I Column II 1. Marginal - Dianthus, Silene
(a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs 2. Axile - Pea, Acacia
(b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic environment 3. Parietal - Lemon, Petunia
(c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of ruminants 4. Basal - Triticum, Sunflower
(d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty areas
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) 181. Assertion (A) :
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(i) sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and
4. (a)-(ii). (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) heart palpitations.
Reason (R) :
176. Match the following genes of Lac operon with their Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body
respective products: does not get sufficient oxygen.
(a) i gene (i) β -galactosidase In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(b) Z gene (ii) Permease answer from the options given below.
1. (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) A gene (iii) Repressor 2. (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Y gene (iv) transacetylase 3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Select the correct option explanation of (A)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) explanation of (A)
2. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
3. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 182. The production of gametes by the parents, formation
4. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a
diagram called:
177. Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish without 1. Punnett square
fungal association. This is because: 2. Net square
1. its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent germination. 3. Bullet square
2. its embryo is immature. 4. Punch square
3. it has obligate association with mycorrhizae.
4. it has very hard seed coat. 183. Match List - I with List-II.
List-I List-II
178. Identify the correct statement with regard to G 1

phase (Gap 1) of interphase. (a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid phase
1. The reorganisation of all cell components takes place. (b) Adhesion (ii)Mutual attraction among water
2. The cell is metabolically active, grow but does not (c) Surface molecules
replicate its DNA tension (iii)Water loss in liquid phase
3. Nuclear Division takes place (d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces
4. DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

179. Match the following concerning the activity/function Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
and the phytohormone involved :- (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Fruit ripener (i) Abscisic acid 1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) Herbicide (ii) GA 3 2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) Bolting agent (iii) 2, 4-D 3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(d) Stress hormone (iv) Ethephon 4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Select the correct option from following :-
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

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 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
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184. Match Column-I with Column-II 188. Study the pathway given below. In which of the
Column-I Column-II following options correct words for all the three blanks a,b
and c are indicated.
a i Brassicaceae

b ii Liliaceae

c iii Fabaceae

d iv Solanaceae

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

185. Identify the incorrect pair.

1. Lectins - Concanavalin A
2. Drugs - Ricin
3. Alkaloids - Codeine
4. Toxin - Abrin (a) (b) (c)

Botany - Section B 1. Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction

186. DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes
polymerization in:
2. Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration
1. Only in 3’ – 5’ direction
2. Only in 5’ – 3’ direction
3. In both directions 3. Fixation Transamination Regeneration
4. In neither directions

4. fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration

187. The motion of sister Chromatids toward opposite

poles of the cell occurs by
1. Shortening of microtubules attached to centromere 189. Graph below is a diagrammatic representation of
2. Shortening of microtubules attached to kinetochores response of organisms to biotic factors. What do a,b,c
3. Shortening of microtubules attached to Metaphase plate represent respectively?
4. Shortening of microtubules attached to other
homologous chromosomes

1. Partial regulator, conformer, regulator

2. Regulator, conformer, Partial regulator
3. Conformer, regulator, Partial, regulator
4. Regulator, Partial conformer, regulator
Page: 21
 NEET Level Test (15-May) Full Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
190. Companion cells are closely associated with 197. Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism
1. Sieve elements which has :
2. Vessel elements 1. Inert crystalline
3. Trichomes 2. Abnormally folded protein
4. Guard cells 3. Free RNA without protein coat
4. Free DNA without protein coat
191. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is
found in: 198. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents
1. Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
1. Spirogyra 2. Bacillus thuringiensis. Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
2. Volvox 3. Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
3. Fucus 4. Oscilatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
4. Chlamydomonas
199. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was
192. Most favourite and ideal material for researches in called:
genetics is 1. for immediate steps to discontinue use of CFCs that
1. Housefly were damaging the ozone layer
2. Mosquito 2. to reduce CO emissions and global warming
2

3. Frog 3. for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable

4. Fruitfly. utilization of its benefits
4. to asess threat posed to native species by invasive weed
193. Which of the following are the important floral species
rewards to the animal pollinators?
1. Nectar and pollen grains 200. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the
2. Floral fragrance and calcium crystals concentration of alcohol reaches about
3. Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates 1. 5 percent
4. Colour and large size of flower 2. < 5 percent
3. < 8 percent
194. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in 4. 13 percent
1. Spectrophotometry
2. Tissue Culture
3. PCR
4. Gel electrophoresis
Fill OMR Sheet*
195. Read the following statement and select the right *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
choice where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
a. Semi-dwarf varieties, Jaya and Ratna were developed in
IRRI, Philippines.
b. Classical plant breeding involves crossing or
hybridisation of pure lines.
c. Saccharum barberi was originally grown in South
India. CLICK HERE to get
d. Genetic variability is the root of any breeding
programme. FREE ACCESS for 3
1. Only a is correct
2. b & d are correct days of ANY NEETprep
3. a, b & c are correct
4. c & d are correct course
196. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
1. In the cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis
continues to grow
2. The ovary is half inferior in the flowers of cucumber
3. In castor, the endosperm is not present in mature seeds
4. Seeds of dicot and monocot plants vary in shape, size
and period viability

Page: 22