1ST SUMMATIVE TEST (Second Grading)
GRADE 7 – SCIENCE
Name:___________________________________Grade:____Section_______________
TEST I.MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. Each of the questions or incomplete statements
below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select the best answer and encircle the letter
corresponding to your chosen answer.
1. Which part of the microscope makes possible the changing of the objectives?
a. revolving nosepiece
b. stage
c. diaphragm
d. body tube
2. Which part of the microscope moves the body tube and objectives up and down?
a. Fine adjustment knob
b. eye piece
c. coarse adjustment knob
d. diaphragm
3. Which two parts of the light microscope magnify the image of an object?
a. objectives and diaphragm
b. eyepiece and objectives
c. objectives and mirror
d. eyepiece and mirror
4. Which part will you adjust if the onion cell under the HPO is not clear?
a. Fine adjustment knob
b. Coarse adjustment
c. revolving nosepiece
d. diaphragm
5. Which of the following can be observed using the light microscope?
a. acacia bark
b. five peso coin
c. piece of stone
d. tip of gumamela leaf
6. A plant cell is viewed using a 10x eyepiece and a 43x HPO. How much will the cell be magnified?
a. 10x or 10 times
b. 43x or 43 times
c. 143x or 143 times
d. 430x or 430 times
7. Which part of the compound microscope helps in gathering and focusing light rays on the specimen to
be viewed?
a. Eyepiece lens
b. Objective lens
c. Condenser lens
d. Magnifying lens
8. What is the minimum distance for the eye to focus any object?
A. 11 cm
b. 25 cm
c. 32 cm
d. 4 2 cm.
9. Resolving power of a microscope is a function of____________
a. Wavelength of light used
b. Numerical aperture of lens system
c Refractive index
d Wavelength of light used and numerical aperture of lens system
10. The greatest resolution in light microscopy can be obtained with ___________
a Longest wavelength of visible light used
b An objective with minimum numerical aperture
c Shortest wavelength of visible light used
d Shortest wavelength of visible light used and an objective with the maximum numerical
aperture
11. Oil immersion objective lens has an NA value of____________
a 0.65
b 0.85
c 1.33
d 1.00
12. In fluorescence microscopy, which of the following performs the function of removing all light except the
blue light?
a Exciter filter
b Barrier filter
c Dichroic mirror
d Mercury arc lamp
13. Total Magnification is obtained by__________
a Magnifying power of the objective lens
b Magnifying power of eyepiece
c Magnifying power of condenser lens
d Magnifying power of both the objective lens and eyepiece
14. In light microscopy, which of the following is used as fixatives prior to staining technique?
a Osmic acid
b Glutaraldehyde
c Heat
d Osmic acid, glutaraldehyde, heat
15. In Phase contrast microscopy, the rate at which light enters through objects is__________
a Constant
b Inversely proportional to their refractive indices
c Directly proportional to their refractive indices
d Exponentially related to their refractive indices
16. Which part of the light microscope controls the intensity of light entering the viewing area?
a Coarse adjustment screw
b Fine adjustment screw
c Diaphragm
d Condenser lens
17. Which of the following is used in electron microscope?
a electron beams
b magnetic fields
c light waves
d electron beams and magnetic fields
18. Electron Microscope can give a magnification up to ___________
a 400,000X
b 100,000X
c 15000X
d 100X
19. Which of the following are true for electron microscopy?
a specimen should be thin and dry
b image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen
c electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber
d specimen should be thin and dry, image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen and
electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber
20. Degree of scattering in transmission electron microscope is a function of __________
a wavelength of electron beam used
b number of atoms that lie in the electron path
c number and mass of atoms that lie in the electron path
d mass of atoms that lie in the electron path
21. Negative Staining is used for examining _____________
a virus particles
b protein molecules
c bacterial flagella
d virus particles, protein molecules and bacterial flagella
22. Which among the following helps us in getting a three-dimensional picture of the specimen?
a Transmission Electron Microscope
b Scanning Electron Microscope
c Compound Microscope
d Simple Microscope
23. The secondary electrons radiated back in scanning microscope is collected by?
a specimen
b anode
c vacuum chamber
d cathode
24. On what factors do the intensity of secondary electrons depends upon?
a shape of the irradiated object
b chemical composition of the irradiated object
c number of electrons ejected
d size and chemical composition of the irradiated object, number of electrons ejected and on
the number of electrons reabsorbed by surrounding
25. Where do we obtain the magnified image of the specimen in SEM?
a cathode ray tube
b phosphorescent screen
c anode
d scanning generator
26. Parts you must hold on to when carrying the microscope.
a coarse adjustment knob
b stage
c arm and base
d body tube
27. Used to focus the image.
a Coarse Adjustment Knob
b Diaphragm
c Fine Adjustment Knob
d Ocular Lens
28. Used to bring the specimen into view, but never used on high magnification.
a Coarse Adjustment Knob
b Fine Adjustment Knob
c Ocular Lens
d Diaphragm
29. Where you place the slide.
a Stage Clips
b Ocular Lens
c Stage
d Light Source
30. The part that turns and holds the objective lenses.
a Arm
b Coarse Adjustment Knob
c Body Tube
d Nose Piece
2nd SUMMATIVE TEST (Second Grading)
GRADE 7 – SCIENCE
Name:___________________________________Grade:____Section_______________
TEST I.MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. Each of the questions or incomplete statements
below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select the best answer and encircle the letter
corresponding to your chosen answer.
1. Which structure is present in both eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells?
a. nuclear membrane c. cell membrane
b. mitochondrion d. chloroplast
2. Current evidence indicates that ribosomes are most closely associated with
a. contraction of the cytoplasm c. synthesis of protein
b. production of DNA d. regulation of mitosis
3. A student could tell the difference between onion skin cells and human cheek cells because the
onion skin cells have a
a. cell membrane c. cytoplasm
b. cell wall d. nucleus
4. In a plant cell, the synthesis of glucose and other sugar compounds from inorganic raw materials
takes place in the
a. cell membrane
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
d. Chloropla
5. As a direct result of cellular respiration in humans,
a. liquid wastes are eliminated from the body
b. food is digested and absorbed into the blood
c. energy is released from digested food within the cells
d. nutrients are transported within the cellss
6. Which choice has terms in the correct order from simplest to most complex?
a. cells tissues organs organ systems
b. tissues organisms cells organ systems
c. cells tissues organ systems organs
d. organs organisms organ systems cells
7. When Elodea cells are placed in a saltwater solution, the cells undergo __________, which means the
__________________ of the cell.
a. hydrolysis / bursting
b. plasmolysis / shrinking
c. plasmolysis / bursting
d. hydrolysis / shrinking
8. In both plant and animal cells, the cell membrane
A. produces enzymes c. is composed of sugars
B.controls reproduction d. regulates diffusion
9. Which statement is true regarding the interdependence of photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
a. the products of one reaction are the products of the other
b. the products of one reaction are the reactants of the other
c. the reactants of one reaction are the reactants of the other
d. none of these
10. To enter or leave a cell, substances must pass through
a. microtubule.
b. the Golgi apparatus.
c. a ribosome.
d. the nucleus.
e. the plasma membrane.
11. Bacterial cell are prokaryotic; in comparison to a typical eukaryotic cell they would_____.
a. be smaller.
b. have a smaller nucleus.
c. lack a plasma membrane.
d. have fewer internal membranous
compartments.
e. have a greater variety of organelles.
12. The maximum size of a cell is limited by
a. its need for enough surface area for
exchange with its environment.
b. the number of organelles that can be
packed inside.
c. the materials needed to build it.
d. the amount of flexibility it needs to
be able to move.
e. the amount of food it needs to survive.
13. Which of the following is a function of golgi apparatus?
a. to aid endocytosis
b. to make proteins from amino acids
c. to synthesise ATP
d. to make secretory products
14. Which of the following cell structures does not have an envelope?
a. lysosome
b. nucleus
c. mitochondrion
d. chloroplast
15. What are centrioles involved in?
a. lysosome formation
b. intracellular digestion
c. ribosome formation
d. cell division
16. Which one of the following is responsible for the destruction of damaged organelles?
a. golgi apparatus
b. cystoskeleton
c. smooth ER
d. lysosome
17. Which of these organelle always contains DNA?
a. ribosome c. mitochondrion
b. golgi body d. lysosome
18. Which of the following is absent from prokaryotic cells?
a. plasmids c. rough ER
b. cell wall d. ribosomes
19. Identify the term that describe rod- shaped bacteria:
a. coccus c. spirilli
b. bacillus d. longus
20. Which level of organization includes all of the others in the list?
a. Cell
b. Tissue
c. Organ
d. Organism
e. Population
21. Which level of organization is common to all life forms?
a. Cell
b. Tissue
c. Organ
d. Organelle
e. Colony
22. When cells in an organism associate with each other, they form____.
a. Atoms
b. Molecules
c. Macromolecules
d. Tissues
e. populations
23. Which is the smallest of all levels of organizations?
a. Atom
b. Cell
c. Organ
d. Organism
e. Populations
24. A flower on a plant represents which level of organization?
a. Atom
b. Cell
c. Organ
d. Organism
e. Population
25. All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
a. DNA.
b. a cell wall.
c. a plasma membrane.
d. ribosomes.
e. an endoplasmic reticulum.
26. Which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells?
a. mitochondria
b. Golgi vesicles
c. microtubules
d. centrosomes
e. peroxisomes
27. Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?
a. rough ER
b. lysosomes
c. plasmodesmata
d. Golgi vesicles
e. free cytoplasmic ribosomes
28. Which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell?
a. lysosome
b. vacuole
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi apparatus
e. peroxisome
29. Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
a. lysosome
b. vacuole
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi apparatus
e. peroxisome
30. Which plant cell organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes?
a. glyoxysome
b. vacuole
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi apparatus
e. peroxisome
3rd SUMMATIVE TEST (Second Grading)
GRADE 7 – SCIENCE
Name:___________________________________Grade:____Section_______________
TEST I.MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. Each of the questions or incomplete statements
below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select the best answer and encircle the letter
corresponding to your chosen answer.
1. For the examination of microbial cells we require the use of?
a. High-power microscope c. High-power microscope at a magnification of about 1,000 diameters
b. Low-power microscope d. Low-power microscope at a magnification of about 1,000 diameters
2. Which microorganism(s) among the following perform photosynthesis by utilizing light?
a. Cyanobacteria c. Viruses
b. Fungi d. Cyanobacteria, Fungi and Viruses
3. Which among the following are produced by microorganisms?
a. Fermented dairy products c. alcoholic beverages
b. Breads d. Fermented dairy products, breads and alcoholic beverages
4. The effectiveness of heat in killing microorganisms is much greater in _____________
a. Acid c. neutral
b. Alkali d. acid and alkali
5. A high concentration of which of the following compounds in the material generally increases the thermal
resistance of microorganisms?
a. Proteins c. lipids
b. Carbohydrates d. salts
6. Which of the following show the maximum resistance to physical and chemical agents?
a. Viruses c. bacterial spores
b. Mold spores d. e. coli
7. Among the following which one is the most effective method of killing microorganisms?
a. High temperature c. High temperature,high moisture
b. Low temperature d. Low temperature,high moisture
8. Which of the following apparatus is used to provide steam under regulated pressure?
a. Autoclave c. incubator
b. Laminar air flow d. hot oven
9. Which of the following methods is used for killing microorganisms of only certain types and not all
microorganisms?
a. Pasteurization c. boiling water
b. Incineration d. fractional sterilization
10. A chemical agent that kills the microorganisms and is commonly applied to substances used on inanimate
objects are _______________
a. Antiseptics c. disinfectants
b. Sanitizer d. antibiotics
11. An agent that prevents the growth of bacteria are known as __________________
a. Bactericide c. antimicrobial
b. Bacteriostatic d. antibiotic
12. Which of the following is the characteristics of a sanitizer?
a. destroys all microbial forms
b. prevents the growth or action of microorganisms
c. reduces the microbial population to safe levels
d. kills all the bacteria and the bacterial spores
13. Alcohol concentrations above 60% are effective against _________________
a. Bacteria c. germs
b. Fungi d. viruses
14. Which of the following reproduces only inside a host cell?
a. Bacteria c. amoeba
b. Virus d. fungus
15. A disease in human beings caused by virus is______.
a. Typhoid c. dysentry
b. Influenza d.cholera
16. Gametes fusion occurs in__________
a. Sexual reproduction c. bisexual reproduction
b. Asexual reproduction d. unisexual reproduction
17. Male gametes have all characteristics but
a. Smaller in size c. larger in numbers
b. Lesser motile d. move to female gametes
18. Fertilization is not involved in
a. Sexual reproduction c. bisexual reproduction
b. Asexual reproduction d. trisexual reproduction
19. Asexual reprpduction is also known as
a. Anti sexual reproduction
b. Unisexual reproduction
c. Vegetative reproduction
d. Non vegetative reproduction
20. Bacteria reproduce asexually by a process called
a. Meiosis c. binary fission
b. replication d. splitting in two
21. In binary fission how does the DNA of the daughter cells compare to the DNA of the parent cell?
a. It is only half of the amount of DNA found in the parent
b. It is identical
c. It is MIX of a parents DNA
D.It has some similarities and some differences
22. How many parents are required for asexual reproduction?
a. Six c. two
b. One d. four
23. In order to survive and reproduce organism need to have what type of traits?
a. Traits like the parents
b. Traits that make the most attractive
c. Traits that make them the smartest
d. Traits favorable for survival
24. How can asexually reproducing organism gain some genetic diversity?
a. Mutations c. mitosis
b. Meiosis d. crossing over
25. What process creates gametes for sexual reproduction?
a. Meiosis c. crossing over
b. Mitosis d. independent assortment
ANSWER KEY:
TEST I
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. B
4th SUMMATIVE TEST (Second Grading)
GRADE 7 – SCIENCE
Name:___________________________________Grade:____Section_______________
TEST I.MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each item carefully. Each of the questions or incomplete statements
below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select the best answer and encircle the letter
corresponding to your chosen answer.
1. The scientific study of interactions between organism and their environments is_________.
a. Natural history c. ecology
b. a niche d. an ecosystem
2. Non living factors in the environment are_________.
a. Abiotic c. always easily measurable
b. Homeostatic d. the same as dead things
3. A group of organism of a species that can be found in one area at a given time is a_______.
a. Community c. population
b. Ecosystem d. trophic level
4. A hawk, mouse, snake, grasshopper, and grass form a simple food chain. Which of these
organisms is a producer?
a. Mouse c. grass
b. Hawk d. grasshopper
5. The sun is necessary to life in all ecosystems on Earth. What does the sun provide that
all organisms depend upon to sustain life?
a. Warm weather c.Heat and light for living things
b. A natural time of day system d.Dry weather
6. There is a population of deer living in an area. The deer have thrived for several years.
The deer have a successful breeding season and many new deer are now living in the area.
The deer population soon decreases. What most likely caused the reduction in the number
of deer in the area?
a. There was not enough space for the deer to rest each day.
b. The animals died because of a previous disease.
c. There was not enough food for all the deer.
d. There was not enough air for that number of deer.
7. An ecosystem includes a beaver population. What would happen to the beaver
population if their wetland is destroyed to allow for the building of a shopping center?
a. The beaver would move.
b. The beaver would adapt to living in a dry ecosystem.
c. The beaver would learn to eat new foods.
d. The beaver would die out because they are adapted to an aquatic habitat.
8. Which is the correct flow of energy in an ocean food chain?
a. Sun, krill, plankton, whale c. Plankton, krill, whale, penguin
b. Sun, plankton, krill, penguin, whale d. Plankton, sun, whale, penguin
9. A biome is a type of
a. Grassland c. population
b. Wetland d. ecosystem
10. An unusually large amount of berries gives a specific species of birds plenty to eat.
Which of the following would most likely happen due to the increase in berries?
a. The birds will produce fewer young.
b. The birds will overeat and die.
c.The bird’s predators will have more birds to feed on.
d.The birds will leave the ecosystem.
11. Which of the following is a true statement about the flow of energy between plants and
animals?
a. Insects receive very little of the sun’s energy from their food.
b. Animals and insects get energy directly from the sun.
c. Plants use very little energy from the sun.
d. A tiger receives less of the sun’s energy in its food than a caterpillar does.
12. The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between
organisms and their environment is called
a. economy. c. recycling. b. modeling. d. ecology.
13. The combined portions of Earth in which all living things exist is called the
a. biome. c. ecosystem. b. community. d. biosphere.
14. All of the members of a particular species that live in one area are called a(an)
a. biome. c. community. b. population. d. ecosystem.
15. Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is
correct?
a. Communities make up species, which make up populations.
b. Populations make up species, which make up communities.
c. Species make up communities, which make up populations.
d. Species make up populations, which make up communities.
16. The simplest grouping of more than one kind of organism in the biosphere is
a. a population. c. an ecosystem. b. a community. d. a species.
17. The lowest level of environmental complexity that includes living and nonliving
factors is the
a. biome. c. ecosystem.
b. community. d. biosphere.
18. Plants are
a. producers. c. herbivores. b. consumers. d. omnivores.
19. What is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems?
a. carbohydrates c. water
b. sunlight d. carbon
20. . An organism that uses energy to produce its own food supply from inorganic
compounds is called a(an)
a. heterotroph. c. detritivore.
b. consumer. d. autotroph.
21. An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)
a. heterotroph. c. autotroph.
b. chemotroph. d. producer.
22. Organisms that obtain nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying plants
and animals are called
a. decomposers. c. autotrophs.
b. omnivores. d. producers.
23. What is an organism that feeds only on plants called?
a. carnivore c. omnivore
b. herbivore d. detritivore
24. All the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem make up a food
a. interaction. c. network.
b. chain. d. web.
25. The total amount of living tissue within a given trophic level is called the
a. organic mass. c. energy mass.
b. trophic mass. d. biomass.
26. What is an ecological model of the relationships that form a network of
complex interactions among organisms in a community from producers to
decomposers?
a. food web c. food chain
b. an ecosystem d. a population
27. What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a
food web?
a. energy path c. trophic level
b. food chain d. food pyramid
28. A bird stalks, kills, and then eats an insect. Based on its behavior, which
ecological terms describe the bird?
a. herbivore, decomposer c. carnivore, consumer
b. producer, heterotroph d. autotroph, herbivore
29. 19. A snake that eats a frog that has eaten an insect that fed on a plant is a
a. first-level producer. c. second-level producer.
b. first-level consumer. d. third-level consumer.
30. Organisms need nutrients in order to
a. utilize hydrogen and oxygen. c. recycle chemical compounds.
b. carry out essential life functions. d. carry out nitrogen fixation.
