27-04-2025

1950CMD303021250043 MD

PHYSICS

1) In a Neon discharge tube 2.9 × 1018 Ne+ ions move to the right each second, while 1.2 × 1018
electrons move to the left per sec, electron charge is 1.6 × 10–19 C. The current in the discharge
tube :–

(1) 1 A towards right

(2) 0.66 A towards right
(3) 0.66 A towards left
(4) zero

2) The current in a metallic conductor is plotted against voltage at two different temperatures T1 and
T2. Which is correct :-

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 < T2
(3) T1 = T2
(4) None

3)

Find equivalent resistance between A and B :-

(1) 4Ω
(2) 8Ω
(3) 6Ω
(4) 2Ω

4) The equivalent resistance between the terminal points A and B in the network shown in figure is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

The resistance of a wire is 5 ohm at 50°C and 6 ohm at 100°C. The resistance of the wire at 0°C will
be :–

(1) 2 ohm
(2) 1 ohm
(3) 4 ohm
(4) 3 ohm

6) If the current i2 = 1A. then current in the arm CD of the circuit will be:

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) 4A

7) The resistance of a wire is 10Ω. Its length is increased by 10% by stretching. The new resistance
will now be :-

(1) 12Ω
(2) 1.2Ω
(3) 13Ω
(4) 11Ω

8) In the figure given below, the current passing through 4Ω resistor is :-

(1) 0.40 ampere
(2) 0.48 ampere
(3) 0.72 ampere
(4) 0.80 ampere

9) A conductor with rectangular cross section has dimensions (a × 2a × 4a) as shown in figure.

Resistance across AB is x, across CD is y and across EF is z. Then :-

(1) x = y = z
(2) x > y > z
(3) y > z > x
(4) x > z > y

10) Three copper wires are there with lengths and cross-sectional areas as and

. Resistance will be :-

Minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area

(1)

(2) Minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area A

(3) Minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area 2A
(4) Same for all the three cases.

11) In a conductor 4 coulombs of charge flows for 2 seconds. The value of electric current will be

(1) 4 volts
(2) 4 amperes
(3) 2 amperes
(4) 2 volts

12) Resistances of 6 ohm each are connected in the manner shown in adjoining figure. With the
current 0.5 ampere as shown in figure, the potential difference VP – VQ is :
(1) 3.6 V
(2) 6.0 V
(3) 3.0 V
(4) 7.2 V

13) The resistance between the terminal points A and B of the given infinitely long circuit will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) In the Wheatstone bridge shown below, in order to balance the bridge, we must have :-

(1) R1 = 3Ω ; R2 = 3Ω
(2) R1 = 6Ω ; R2 = 15Ω
(3) R1 = 1.5Ω ; R2 = any finite value
(4) R1 = 3Ω ; R2 = any finite value

15) If n, e, τ and m represent electron density, charge, relaxation time and mass of an electron
respectively, then resistance of a wire of length ℓ and cross-sectional are A is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) In the circuit element given here. If the potential at point B, VB = 0, then the potentials of A and

D are given as :-

(1) VA = –1.5 V , VD = +2 V
(2) VA = +1.5 V , VD = +2 V
(3) VA = +1.5 V , VD = +0.5 V
(4) VA = +1.5 V , VD = –0.5 V

17) In the given figure the potential difference between points a and d (Va–Vd) will be :-

(1) 4.7 V
(2) – 4.7 V
(3) 5V
(4) – 5V

18)

Five resistance are connected as shown in figure. The effective resistance between the points A and
B is:-

(1) 10/3Ω
(2) 20/3Ω
(3) 15Ω
(4) 6Ω

19) In the network shown, points A, B and C are potentials of 70V, zero and 10V respectively.
(1) Point D is at a potential of 30 V
(2) The currents in the sections AD, DB, DC are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1
(3) The currents in the sections AD, DB, DC are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3
(4) The network draws a total power 300 W

20) From the graph between current i & voltage V shown, identify the portion corresponding to

negative resistance.

(1) DE
(2) CD
(3) BC
(4) AB

21) Two wires of resistance R1 and R2 have temperature co-efficient of resistance α1 and α2
respectively. These are joined in series. The effective temperature co-efficient of resistance is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A wire has a non - uniform cross - sectional area as shown in figure. A steady current i flows
through it. Which one of the following statement is correct :

(1) The drift speed of electron is constant A to B

(2) The drift speed increases on moving from A to B
(3) The drift speed decreases on moving from A to B
(4) The drift speed varies randomly

23) In the presence of an applied electric field in a metallic conductor.

(1) The electrons move in the direction of

(2) The electrons move in a direction opposite to

(3) The electrons may move in any direction randomly, but slowly drift in the direction of

(4) The electrons move randomly but slowly drift in a direction opposite to

24) Assertion : Positive charge always moves from a higher potential point to a lower potential
point.
Reason : Electric potential is a vector quantity.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A and R are false

25) 20 μC charge is placed inside a closed surface then flux related to surface is ϕ. If 80 μC charge is
added inside the surface then change in flux is:–

(1) 4 ϕ
(2) 5 ϕ
(3) ϕ
(4) 8 ϕ

26) If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has potential V at a point, distant 5 cm from its
centre, then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the centre will be :

(1) 3V

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

Four equal and like charges are placed at four corners of a square. The electric field intensity at the
centre of the square due to any one charge is E then the resultant electric field intensity at centre of
square will be :

(1) Zero
(2) 4E
(3) E

(4)

28) In a region of space the electric field is given by . The electric flux through a
surface of area of 100 units in x–y plane is :–

(1) 800 units

(2) 300 units
(3) 400 units
(4) 1500 units

29) Choose the correct statements :-

(a) The density of electric lines of force at a point is independent of the magnitude of electric
intensity vector E at that point
(b) The density of electric lines of force at a point is proportional to the magnitude of electric
intensity vector E at that point
(c) Actually, the electric field lines do not exist. This is just a graphical description of the electric
field
(d) Actually, the electric field lines exist

(1) b, c
(2) c, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, d

30) Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight wire of radius 1 mm. The charge
per cm length of the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of radius 50 cm and length1 m
symmetrically encloses the wire as shown in fig. The total flux passing through the cylindrical

surface is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Equipotential surface associated with an electric field which is increasing in magnitude along
the x–direction are

(1) planes parallel to yz–plane

(2) planes parallel to xy–plane
(3) planes parallel to xz–plane
(4) coaxial cylinders of increasing radii around the x–axis
32) A hollow cylinder has a charged q coulomb at centre. It ϕ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter
associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter

will be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A non-conducting sphere of radius R has a charge Q distributed uniformly over its volume. The
sphere is surrounded by a thin metal shell of radius b (b > R) with a charge –Q. The space between
the shell and the sphere is filled with air. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the
corresponding electric field ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of
radii R/2, R and 2R respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric fields at point P at
a distance R from the centre of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are E1, E2 and E2 respectively, then
(1) E1 > E2 > E3
(2) E3 > E1 > E2
(3) E2 > E1 > E3
(4) E3 > E2 > E1

35) Two point charges + 8q and – 2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a
point on the x-axis at which the net electric field due to these two point charges is zero is-

(1) 2L

(2)

(3) 8L
(4) 4L

36) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will
experience-

(1) a translational force only in the direction of the field

(2) a translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field
(3) a torque as well as a translational force
(4) a torque only

37) An electron and a proton are situated in a uniform electric field. The ratio of their acceleration is
:–

(1) unity
(2) zero

(3)

(4)

38) At the mid point on the axis of an electric dipole

(1) the electric field is zero.

(2) the electric potential is zero.
(3) neither the electric field nor the electric potential is zero.
(4) the electric field is directed perpendicular to the axis of the dipole.
39) Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right-angle isosceles triangle as
shown in figure. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if Q is equal to :–

(1)

(2)

(3) –2q
(4) +q

40) A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged with 10 μC. another uncharged sphere of
radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it for some time after two spheres are separated, then surface
density of the charge on the sphere will be in the ratio of

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 4 : 1

41) Two charges of 5Q and –2Q are situated at the points (3a, 0) and (–5a, 0) respectively. The
electric flux through a sphere of radius '4a' having center at origin is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The given graph shows variation (with distance r from centre) of :

(1) Potential of a uniformly charged sphere

(2) Potential of a uniformly charged spherical shell
(3) Electric field of uniformly charged spherical shell
(4) Electric field of uniformly charged sphere

43) A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Q, is surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow
spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the
outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of –4 Q, the new potential
difference between the same two surfaces is :

(1) V
(2) 2V
(3) –2V
(4) 4V

44) Calculate the electric field at origin due to infinite number of charges as shown in figures below.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Three configurations of electrostatic field lines have been shown in the figure. Which is not
possible configuration?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) By Kjeldahl's method, the estimation of nitrogen can be done among following compound
(A) CH3CH2NH2

(B)
(C) CH3CH2NO2

(D)

(E)
Correct set will be :–

(1) A Only
(2) A, B
(3) A, B, C
(4) All

2) Kjeldahl’s method is not applicable to which of the given compounds?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.20 g of an organic compound give 0.188 g of AgBr.
The % of bromine in the compound is (Molar mass
of Ag = 108 g mol-1, molar mass of Br = 80 g mol-1)

(1) 10 %
(2) 20 %
(3) 30 %
(4) 40 %
4) Dumas method is used for the estimation of

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Sulphur
(3) Phosphorus
(4) Halogens

5) When N and S both are present in an organic compound the sodium extract with FeCl3 gives:

(1) Green colour

(2) Blue colour
(3) Yellow colour
(4) Red colour

6) Fractions of crude oil are separated from each other by :-

(1) Fractional distillation

(2) Simple distillation
(3) Steam distillation
(4) Distillation at low pressure

7) Rf value (Retardation factor)

(i) Distance moved by substance from base line (x)
(ii) Distance moved by solvent from base line (y)

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

8) 0.303g of an organic compound was analysed for nitrogen by Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia gas
evolved was absorbed in 50ml of 0.05 MH2SO4. The excess acid required 25ml of 0.1M NaOH for
neutra-lization. The percentage of nitrogen in the given compound is

(1) 11.6
(2) 23
(3) 12.5
(4) 14.5

9) A violet colour with sodium nitroprusside in the test of sulphur in an organic compound is due to
the formation of

(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO]
(2) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(3) Na3[Fe(CN)5NS]
(4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

10) To which the terms stationary phase and mobile phase are associated ?

(1) Distillation under reduced pressure

(2) Chromatography
(3) Steam distillation
(4) Differential extraction

11) The black precipitates obtained during detection of sulphur in organic compound by lassaigne
test is due to which substance ?

(1) CH3COOH
(2) PbS
(3) (CH3COO)2Pb
(4) Na2S

12) For which of the following substance Kjeldhal's method can not be used.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

13) Statement-I :- Column chromatography involves separation of a mixture over a column of

adsorbent (stationary phase) packed in a glass tube.
Statement-II :- Thin layer chromatography involves separation of substances of a mixture over a
thin layer of an adsorbent coated on glass plate.

(1) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

14) A compound is decomposed at its boiling point. It can be purified by

(1) Vacuum distillation

(2) Differential extraction
(3) Fractional distillation
(4) Sublimation

15) The purification method where solid substance change from vapour state without passing
through the liquid state is called as

(1) Sublimation
(2) Crystallization
(3) Distillation
(4) Differential extraction

16) Which of the following is not an ionic carbide :-

(1) CaC2
(2) Al4C3
(3) SiC
(4) Be2C

17) Order of relative stability of +1 oxidation state in Boron family :-

(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl

(2) Al > Ga > In < Tl
(3) Al = Ga = In = Tl
(4) Al < Ga > In < Tl

18) Different layers in graphite are held together by :-

(1) Ionic Bonding

(2) Metallic Bonding
(3) Covalent Bonding
(4) Vanderwall force of attraction

19) Which one of the following compounds gives propyne gas on hydrolysis :

(1) Al4C3
(2) CaC2
(3) Be2C
(4) Mg2C3

20) Which of the following is electron deficient ?

(1) CH4
(2) B2H6
(3) NH3
(4) BeCl2 (Solid)

21) The number of three centre two electron bonds in a molecule of diborane is :

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

22) Boron compounds behave as Lewis acids because of their :-

(1) Acidic nature

(2) Covalent nature
(3) Ionic nature
(4) Vacant orbital

23) (BeH2)2 has :-

(1) sp2 Hybridisation

(2) Planar geometry
(3) Incomplete octet
(4) All

24) The product formed in the reaction, BCl3 + H2O → Product is -

(1) H3BO3 + HCl

(2) B2O3 + HOCl
(3) B2H6 + HCl
(4) No reaction

25) In B2H6, the maximum no. of atoms present in a plane is :-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 8

26) Consider the structure given below : Select

the correct option(s):

(1) x < y
(2) α < β
(3) Bridge bond is formed by sp3 – sp3 – sp3 overlap
(4) All of these

27) Which of the following have maximum dipole moment

(1) CH3F
(2) CH3Cl
(3) CH3Br
(4) CH3I

28) Which of the following alkyl halides gives (Nucleophilic substitution reaction) SN2 at fastest rate
:-

(1) CH3–CH2–Br
(2) CH3–Br

(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following does not show haloform reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which one of the following is most reactive in ESR reaction?

(1) Benzene
(2) Nitrobenzene
(3) Ethylebenzene
(4) Chlorobenzene

31) Which of following reaction does not involves carbocation intermediate ?

(1) Addition of HBr at alkene

(2) SN1 reaction at alkyl halide
(3) Freidal craft alkylation
(4) Halogenation of alkane

32) (A), Product (A) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Identify z in the following series

CH2=CH2 z

(1) C2H5I
(2) C2H5OH
(3) CHI3
(4) CH3CHO

34) Monochlorination of toluene in presence of sunlight followed by hydrolysis gives :-

(1) o-cresol
(2) m-cresol
(3) 2,4-dihydroxytoluene
(4) benzyl alcohol

35) The compound which under goes SN1 reaction most repidly is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Which is best Nucleophile :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Which is maximum reactive for SN1 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following acts as poisonous gas :

(1) COCl2
(2) CCl4
(3) CF4
(4) CF2Cl2

39) Which of the following reaction will be favored at low pressure :-

(1) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

(2) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

40) The equilibrium reaction that is not influenced by volume change at constant temperature.

(1) H2 + I2 2HI
(2) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
(3) N2O4 2NO2
(4) 2NO + O2 2NO2

41) At t°C the forward and backward rate constant for a reversible reaction respectively are 2.28 ×
10–4 and 7.83 × 10–5. The equilibrium constant would be :-
(1) 0.291
(2) 2.91
(3) 0.43
(4) 3.43

42) The equilibrium constants for the formation of oxides of nitrogen are given as under (at 25°C):
(a) N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO; K = 5 × 10–31
(b) N2 + 2O2 ⇌ 2NO2; K = 8 × 10–31
(c) 2N2 + 5O2 ⇌ 2N2O5; K = 1 × 10–34
Choose the correct statement :-

(1) NO2 is the least stable oxide

(2) N2O5 is the most stable oxide
(3) The stability order should be : N2O5>NO2>NO
(4) The stability order should be : NO2>NO>N2O5

43) The equilibrium constant for the reaction :

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 × 10–4. The value of Kc for the reaction

NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g) is :

(1) 0.02
(2) 50
(3) 4 × 10–4
(4) 2.5 × 10–2

44) If Kc is the equilibrium constant for the formation of NH3, the dissociation constant for ammonia
under the same temperature will be :

(1) Kc
(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Active mass of 5 g CaO is :-

(1) 56
(2) 1
(3) 3.5
(4) 2

BIOLOGY

1) If a mulatto female marries with a white / albino male, what will be the genotypic ratio of their
progeny ?

(1) 1 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

2) A polygenic trait is controlled by 2 genes A and B. In a cross AaBb × AaBb, the phenotypic ratio of
the offspring was observed as:
1 : X : 6 : X :1
What is the possible value of 'X'?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 15
(4) 20

3) When a F1 hybrid RrYy is self hybridized the probability of yellow seeds in F2 generation would be
?

th
(1) 3/4 of F2 plants
th
(2) 3/4 of F1 plants
th
(3) 12/4 of F2 plants
(4) 1/16 of F2 plants

4) The Punnett square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross, when
round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds and yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y) seeds.

RY Ry rY ry

RY F J N R

Ry G K O S

rY H L P T

ry I M Q U
Find out the odd one –
(1) F
(2) K
(3) Q
(4) U

5) In the cross Aa Bb × Aa Bb.

What proportion of genotypes is homozygous for both characters :-

(1) 2/16
(2) 4/16
(3) 0/16
(4) 6/16

6) In a dihybrid cross, how many plants are impure for one character in F2 - generation out of 2000
plants :-

(1) 1000
(2) 500
(3) 250
(4) 2000

7) The figure depicts. :-

(1) Linkage
(2) Independent assortment of chromosomes
(3) Law of dominance
(4) Equational division

8) What is the sum total of genotypes and phenotypes in F2 of dihybrid cross ?

(1) 8
(2) 13
(3) 4
(4) 9

9) Statement-I : PKU leads to mental retardation

Statement-II : Phenylpyruvic acid and their derivatives are accumulated in brain in PKU.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

10) Blood group ‘B’ will have alleles

(1) ii
(2) IAIA
(3) IBIB
(4) IAIB

11) In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a plant producing red flowers was crossed with a plant producing
white flowers and in F1 generation, plants producing pink flowers were obtained. When these F1
generation plants were selfed, plants of F2 generation were obtained. Choose the correct statement/s
from the following.

(1) This experiment does not follow the principle of Dominance

(2) Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment
(3) Pink colour of the flowers in F1 generation is due to incomplete dominance
(4) Both 1 and 3

12) See this micrograph of the red blood cells and the amino acid composition of the relevant portion
of β-chain of haemoglobin. Find out A, B, C, D represents which option :-

(1) GAG, GUG, Glu, Val

(2) GAG, GUG, Val, Glu
(3) CTC, CAC, Glu, Val
(4) CAC, CTC, Glu, Val

13) A tall plant with red flowers is crossed with a dwarf plant that produces white flowers. In F1 all
plants are tall with pink flowers. The F1 plant is crossed with dwarf parent that bears white flower.
Four types of progenies were produces in ratio of 102 : 98 : 103 : 99 the progenies expressed

(1) All the characters of parents and F1

(2) All the characters except pink colour of the flower
(3) All characters except white colour of the flower
(4) All characters except red

14) Select false statement for independent assortment:-

(1) Segregation of one pair of character is independent of the other pair of character.
(2) Gene of different characters should be located on different pair of chromosome
During meiosis-I the two chromosome pairs can align at the metaphase plate independently of
(3)
each other
(4) Due to independent assortment a dihybrid produce 4 types of gametes in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

15) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of progenies can be obtained if the plants for crossing are:
(A) TTRR × ttRR (B) TtRr × ttrr
(C) Ttrr × ttrr (D) Ttrr × ttRr

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, D
(4) A, B, C

16) The ratio between carrier, disease free and diseased individual on marriage between two carier
of sickle cell anaemia will be :-

(1) 0 : 2 : 1
(2) 0 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 1 : 1

17) When a heterozygous ‘A’ blood group man marries a woman who is homozygous ‘B’ blood
group, then the % of progeny with ‘B’ blood group is

(1) 75%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

18) A mother who is blood type AB has a child who is AB also. A potential father is blood type 'O'. A
well-informed geneticist concludes that
(1) He can't be the father
(2) He might be the father
(3) He is very likely to be the father
(4) He or any other male of blood type 'O' could be the father

19) In a cross between male and female pea plants both are heterozygous for round seeds, what
percentage of the progeny will be having intermediate sized starch grains?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 0%
(4) 100%

20) Who united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with mendelian principles and called it
chromosomal theory of inheritance ?

(1) Sutton
(2) Boveri
(3) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(4) Carl correns

21) Which type of Mutation occurs in Sickle cell Anaemia.

(1) Transition
(2) Deletion
(3) Transversion
(4) Addation

22) How many possible genotype may be formed in ABO Blood group :-

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 8

23) Choose the incorrect statement regarding incomplete dominance :-

(1) F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents
The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower/snapdragon in good example to understand
(2)
incomplete dominance.
(3) When two pink flowered snapdragon plants are crossed, it results in only red flowered plants
When two true breeding snapdragon plants red & white are crossed, it results in red, white &
(4)
pink flowered plants in F2

24) If husband and wife have heterozygous 'A' and heterozygous 'B' blood groups respectively then
the possible genotypes and phenotypes respectively in their-children are :-
(1) 3 and 4
(2) 4 and 4
(3) 4 and 3
(4) 4 and 2

25) Select the incorrect statement :

(1) Chromosomes as well as genes occur in pair

(2) The two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous sites on homologous chromosomes
Mendel's approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomena was totally new and
(3)
unacceptable to many of the biologist
(4) Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by Sutton

26) Which of the following law is based on Dihybrid cross :

(1) Law of Dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of Purity of gametes
(4) Law of Independent assortment

27) Segregation of genes takes place during :

(1) Metaphase I
(2) Anaphase I
(3) Prophase I
(4) Embryo formation

28) Match the following

List - I List - II

(A) Complete dominance (i) Snapdragon

(B) Incomplete dominance (ii) Pea plant

(C) Co-dominance (iii) Drosophila

ABO blood
(D) Linkage (iv)
group
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

29) The percentage of gametes which contain ‘R’ gene produced by ‘RrYy’ parent will be

(1) 25
(2) 75
(3) 50
(4) 40

30) A single recessive trait which can express its effect should occur on :-

(1) Any autosome

(2) Any-chromosome
(3) X-chromosome of female
(4) X-chromosome of male

31) Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by :-

(1) Sutton and Boveri

(2) T.H. Morgan
(3) Alfred Sturtevant
(4) William Bateson

32) Who noted that behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to behaviour of genes and used
chromosomal movement to explain Mendel's laws ?

(1) Bateson
(2) Alfred sturtevant
(3) T.H. Morgan
(4) Sutton and Boveri

33) If the skin colour in human is controlled by three genes P, Q and R then, which of the following
genotypes would show the same phenotype?
(a) PpQQRr (b) PPQqrr
(c) ppQqRR (d) ppQQRr

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d) only

34) Assertion (A) : Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene.

Reason (R) : Dominance depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular
phenotype.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

35) Total 1120 seeds were obtained from the AaBb x AaBb cross. Find the number of plants
produced having both the recessive traits.
(1) 210
(2) 420
(3) 70
(4) 480

36) Given below is, the figure of Drosophila melanogaster. If was found to be
very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan,
because.

(1) A single mating produces two young flies

(2) Smaller female is easily recognisable from larger male
(3) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
(4) It reproduces parthenogenetically

37) In a dihybrid cross in F2 generation, how many progeny are phenotypically and genotypically
similar to parent-

(1) 2 and 2 respectively

(2) 10 and 2 respectively
(3) 10 and 6 respectively
(4) 1 and 2 respectively

38) I : The segregation of alleles is a random process and there is a 50% chance of a gamete
containing either allele.
II. During mitosis, the alleles of a pair separate from each other and only one allele is transmitted to
each gamete.
III. By looking at the phenotype of a dominant trait, it is not possible to know the genotype.

(1) Only I is correct

(2) II and II are correct
(3) I and II are correct
(4) I and III are correct

39) How many organisms with dominant phenotype are obtained, when LℓMmNn × LℓMmNn are
crossed ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) When a pea plant with round seed (Bb) is crossed with other plant having small sized starch
grain in seed, the total number of seeds obtained in progeny is 630. What is correct for this
progeny?

(1) 330 (large size), 330 (small size)

(2) 330 (small size), 330 (medium size)
(3) 315 (intermediate size), 315 (small size)
(4) 158 (large size), 158 (small size), 314 (intermediate size)

41) Which of the following set of organisms reproduce by fragmentation (asexual mode of
reproduction)?

(1) Amoeba, Fungi and earthworm

(2) Fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses
(3) Hydra, Fungi, Amoeba and bacteria
(4) Earthworm, bacteria and fungi

42) How many of the following are taxa?

[Dogs, Cats, Mammals, Wheat, Rice, Plants,Wood, Mango, Leaves, Jointed legs]

(1) Eight
(2) six
(3) seven
(4) one

43) Assertion :- Properties of tissue are not present in the constituent cells but arise as a result of
interactions among the constituent cells.
Reason :- Properties of cellular organelle are not present in the molecular constituents of the
organelle but arise as a result of interaction among the molecular components comprising the
organelle.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44) Assertion : All living organism present, past and future are linked to one another.
Reason : All living organism share the common genetic material but to varying degrees.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
45) Assertion : In Taxonomic hierarchy each category is commonly called a taxon.
Reason : Animals, Mammals, tracheids, dogs represent taxa at different levels.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

46) Medical termination of pregnancy can be performed in all given cases except:

(1) Pregnancy can be fatal to foetus and mother as she met with an accident.
(2) Unwanted pregnancy resulting from rape.
(3) Conception due to failure of the contraceptive.
(4) Pregnancy has reached middle of third trimester.

47) Government sponsored "family planning programme" started in:-

(1) 1947
(2) 1951
(3) 1977
(4) 1955

48) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by :-

(1) Killing the sperms in uterus

(2) Forming barriers between sperms and ova.
(3) Preventing ovulation
(4) Killing the ova

49) How many of following are associated with natural method of contraception ? Periodic
abstinence, Lactational amenorrhea, Implant, LNG-20, Diaphragm, saheli, coitus interruptus

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

50) Cu ions released from copper–releasing intra uterine devices (IUDs) :-

(1) Prevent ovulation

(2) Make uteres unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis sperms
(4) Suppress sperm motility

51)

'Saheli' an oral contraceptive was developed in

(1) CDRI, Lucknow
(2) TIFR, Mumbai
(3) CFTRI, Mysore
(4) WHO, Geneva

52) In lactational amenorrhea, ovulation does not occur during the period of intense lactation
because :-

(1) Presence of large amount of IgA in milk

(2) Increase in estrogen and progestrone ratio
(3) High level of prolactin
(4) Synthesis of prostaglandin

53) Which of the following is a non-medicated IUD?

(1) Multiload 375

(2) Progestasert
(3) Lippes loop
(4) LNG-20

54) Which of the following statement about "Saheli" is incorrect ?

(1) It is 'once a week' pill

(2) It is non-steroidal preparation
(3) Prevents implantation activity
(4) It is found to by very effective as emergency contraceptive

55) Which method of contraception has highest failure rate ?

(1) Barrier method

(2) IUD
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Natural method

56) In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Formation of graafian follicle

57) Surgical method of sterlization are highly effective but the disadvantage is :

(1) Ectopic pregnancy risk

(2) Increased case of cancer
(3) Reversibility is very poor
(4) Irregular menstrual bleeding

58) Match the following and give the answer for correct match:

More than 8 blastomere

A ZIFT i
stage transfer into the uterus

Sperm is directly injected

B IUT ii
into the cytoplasm of ovum.

Zygote upto 8 blastomere

C GIFT iii
could be tranfer into the fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum collected

D ICSI iv
from ovary into the fallopian tube
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

59) Male is impotent and female is normal then which of the following technique can be used :-

(1) ICSI
(2) ZIFT
(3) GIFT
(4) A.I.

60) Infections or diseases which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called
sexually transmitted infections (STI) or venereal diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections (RTI).
Except for hepatitis-B, ——————- and HIV infections, other diseases are completely curable if
detected early and treated properly.

(1) genital warts

(2) syphilis
(3) gonorrhoea
(4) genital herpes

61) Select the incorrect statement from the following options:

(1) Abortions could happen spontaneously too.

Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is due to
(2)
abnormalities/defects in the female or male partner.
(3) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation
(4) Complete lactation could help as a natural method of contraception.

62)

Match the following and find the correct combination

 Disease Causative agent

(i) Syphilis (a) Chlamydia trachomatis

(ii) Genital warts (b) Neisseria gonorrhea

(iii) Gonorrhea (c) Treponema pallidum

(iv) Chlamydiasis (d) HPV

Choose the correct match :
(1) i-b, ii- c, iii- a, iv- d
(2) i- d, ii- b, iii- a, iv- c
(3) i- d, ii- a, iii- b, iv- c
(4) i- c, ii- d, iii- b, iv- a

63) Which of the following contraceptive has an additional benefit to users to protect from STDs like
AIDS ?

(1) Hormone releasing IUDs

(2) Condoms
(3) Implants
(4) Oral contraceptive pills

64)

Choose the correct option with regard to statement A and B.

Statement - A: Women are at the peak of conception on the 14th day of menstrual cycle normally.
Statement - B : Inability to conceive even after 2 years of protected sexual cohabitation is called
infertility.

(1) Statements A and B are correct

(2) Statements A and B are incorrect.
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(4) Statement B is correct and A is incorrect

65) Amniocentesis is used for determining :-

(1) length of embryo

(2) size of embryo
(3) hereditary disease of embryo
(4) All of the above

66) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the option given.

Column I Column II

a. Coitus interruptus 1. Traditional method

b. Condoms vaults 2. Barrier method

 c. Multiload-375 3. Intrauterine device

d. vasectomy 4. Sterilisation method

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(2) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(3) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(4) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

67) What does the figure show ?

(1) Ovarian cancer

(2) Uterine cancer
(3) Tubectomy
(4) Vasectomy

68) The combination of the STDs includes :-

a. PID
b. Abortion
c. Still birth
d. Ectopic pregnancies
e. Infertility
f. Cancer of reproductive tract

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b, c, d and e
(3) b, c, d, e and f
(4) All of the above

69) Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

(1) Klinefelter syndrome

(2) Sex of the foetus
(3) Down syndrome
(4) Jaundice

70) Statement I : Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the
uterus through vagina.
Statement II : Intra Uterine Devices are presently only available as the non-medicated IUDs.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

71) Approximately how many MTPs are performed globally each year?

(1) 1 – 5 million
(2) 10 – 15 million
(3) 100 million
(4) 45 – 50 million

72) A lady is diagnosed to have both her fallopian tubes blocked. Which of the following ART can
help her to conceive a child?

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) AI
(4) IUT

73) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its
implantation into a woman and select the correct option for the two together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

(1) LNG – 20 Fallopian tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Implants Subcutanceous

(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
74) Regarding the given diagram choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) A sterilisation method

(2) Prevents conception
(3) Highly effective
(4) High reversibility

75) After deep inspiration, capacity of maximum expiration of lung is called :-

(1) Total lung capacity

(2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Inspiratory capacity

76) In lung, gaseous exchange is done by :-

(1) Simple diffusion

(2) Active transport
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Fascilitated diffusion

77) Dissociation curve shifts to the right when :-

(1) CO2 concentration decreases

(2) CO2 concentration increases
(3) O2 concentration increases
(4) H+ concentration decreases

78) A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body
tissues. This O2 :

(1) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise

(2) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(3) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin sturation at 96%
(4) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues

79) The conditions which are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin :-

+
(1) PO2↑, PCO2↑, H conc.↓, Temperature↓
+
(2) PO2↓, PCO2↓, H conc.↑, Temperature↑
+
(3) PO2↑, PCO2↓, H conc.↓, Temperature↓
 +
(4) PO2↑, PCO2↓, H conc.↓, Temperature↑

80)

By the contraction in diaphragm the volume of thoracic chamber increases in the

(1) Dorso-ventral axis

(2) Antero-posterior aixs
(3) Antero-ventral axis
(4) Dorso-posterior axis

81)

The respiratory centres, which control inspiration and forceful expiration are located in:-

(1) Diencephalon
(2) Medulla Oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Spinal Cord

82)

Which of the following cannot be measured using spirometer ?

(1) Residual volume

(2) Expiratory reserve volume
(3) Tidal volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

83)

All of diseases of lungs except

(1) Asthma
(2) Bronchitis
(3) Encephalitis
(4) Pneumonia

84)

100ml of Blood carry

(1) 1.34 ml O2
(2) 20 ml O2
(3) 5 ml O2
(4) 10 ml O2

85) Amount of air in the lungs that remains after a forceful exhalation is called
(1) Dead space
(2) Residual volume
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Ventilation rate

86) Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is transported as

(1) Carbaminohemoglobin
(2) dissolved CO2 in blood plasma
(3) Bicarbonate ion
(4) Free CO2 in blood plasma

87)

CO2 dissociates from carbaminohemoglobin when

(1) PCO2 is high and PO2 is low.

(2) PO2 is high and PCO2 is low.
(3) PCO2 and PO2 are equal.
(4) None of these

88) Every 100 ml deoxygenated blood delivers around ____ CO2 to Alveoli.

(1) 20 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 5 ml
(4) 25 ml

89)

Haemoglobin shows maximum affinity with

(1) CO
(2) CO2
(3) O2
(4) NH3

90)

Muscle helps to increase the volume of thoracic cavity ?

(1) Diaphragm and I.I.C.M.

(2) Diaphragm and E.I.C.M.
(3) I.I.C.M. and E.I.C.M.
(4) I.I.C.M. and abdominal muscle
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 3 1 3 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 4 1 4 1 1 1 2 2 2 4 4 1 1 3 1 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 4 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 2 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 1 3 4 1 4 4 3 4 3 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 3 2 4 4 2 2 3 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 1 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 3 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 4 3 4 3 1 2 1 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3)

3Ω and 1Ω are in series gives 4Ω which is in parallel to 4Ω which gives 2Ω which again in
series to 6Ω gives 8Ω i.e. RAB = 8Ω.

5)

Let R = R0 at 0ºC, R = R0, 0ºC

5 = R0(1 + α × 50) …(i)
6 = R0(1 + α× 100) …(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii) ⇒ R0 = 4Ω

6) According to Kirchhoff's law iCD = i2 + i3 = 1 + 1 = 2A

(as resistance of ABC and AC are same, therefore i2 = i3 = 1A)

7) Since ⇒ If length is increased by 10%, resistance is increases by almost 20%

Hence new resistance R' = 10 + 20% of 10

8) P.d. across the circuit

9) Use,

10)

11) i = = 2 ampere

12) VP – Vq = (0.5) = (2 + 4) (0.5) = 3V

13) Let equivalent resistance between A and B be R1 then equivalent resistance between C and
D will also be R.
R' = or R2 – 2R – 2 = 0

∴ R=

19)
Let potential of point D is x. by KCL at point D.
I1 + I2 + I3 = 0

⇒ 6x – 420 + 3x + 2x – 20 = 0
⇒ 11x = 440
⇒ x = 40 volt

∴
P = i2R
P = 32 × 10 + 22 × 20 + 12 × 30
P = 200 W

25) ϕ =

=5ϕ
Change in flux

26) VA = VS = =V

⇒V=
VP =

= = =

27) All charges are of equal magnitude and they ared equally placed wrt origin.

28)

ϕ= = 300 units

29) Theoretical

30) ϕ =
qin = 100 Q

31) The direction of electric field lines are perpendicular to equipotential surface.

32)

Total flux =

∴ ⇒

34)

⇒
E2 > E1 > E3
35)
EP = E1 – E2 = 0
E1 = E2

4(x–2)2 = x2
2x – 2L = x
⇒ x = 2L

36) In Non uniform electric field t & force both are there.

39) E.P.E. = 0

or

40) Potential on both spheres are same

; so Q ∝ R

41)
5Q charge is inside the spherical region

flux through sphere =

43) As given in the first condition :

Both conducting spheres are shown.

In the second condition :

Shell is now given charge –4Q.

Hence, we also obtain that potential difference does not depend on charge of outer sphere.
∴ P.d. remains same

44)
 45) Electrostatic field lines do not from closed loops (isolated positive & negative charges do
exists).

CHEMISTRY

49)

Dumas method is used for the estimation of nitrogen.

Carius method is used to estimate S and halogens.

51) NCERT XI, Pg. # 345

52)

60) In sublimation the solid substance changes directly to the vapour state.

61) SiC is a covalent carbide.

62)

As we move down in a periodic table, the lower oxidation state becomes more stable due to
inert pair effect
In 13th group, order of relative stability of +1 oxidation state is Al < Ga < In < Tl

63) Different layers in graphite are held together by Vanderwall force of attraction.

64) Mg2C3 + H2O → Mg(OH)2 + C3H4

(Propyne)

69) BCl3 + H2O → H3BO3 + HCl

70)

Only 4 terminal H and 2B atoms of B2H6 are in a common plane.

∴ Total 6 atoms.

72) NCERT XII / Part II / Pg.# 286

 73)

Rate of SN2 reaction ∝

SN2 reactivity order:

> > >

Most reactive compound is because, there is least steric hinderance.
Ans (2)

76) ⇒ Since Halogenation of alkane is an example of free radical substitution reaction, hence
here intermediate formed is free radical and not carbocation.

78)

A. 1st step is add" of HBr across double bond of alkene.

B. In 2nd step, substitution of -Br takes place and ethyl alcohol is formed.
C. Ethyl alcohol is oxidised by I2/NaoH and Iodoform is obtained.

Answer :- (3)

87)

Reaction having high value of Keq, have more stable product.

BIOLOGY

94) NCERT (XII) Pg # 73-79

95)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 62
97) NCERT 12th Page # 66

99) NCERT XII Pg. # 75

100) NCERT XII Pg. # 61

109) NCERT (XII) Pg # 62

110) NCERT (XII) Pg # 83

111) NCERT XII Pg # 74 (E)

112) NCERT Pg. No. # 78 (E)

113) NCERT, Pg. # 60

114) NCERT Pg. # 61

115)

NCERT XII Pg # 65, 67

116)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 80

121) NCERT-XII Pg. # 83

122) NCERT-XII Pg. # 81

130) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 78

132) NCERT XI Pg. 5

133) NCERT-XI, Pg#5 Para-1.1

134) NCERT Pg # 05

135) NCERT Page No. # 5

136) NCERT, Page No: 46

137) NCERT–XII, Last para, Pg. # 57

138)

NCERT XII PAGE NO.61

139) NCERT - Pg. # 60

141)

NCERT Pg No. 58

142)

NCERT - XII Pg. No 42

143) NCERT(XII) Pg#60 Para:4.2

144) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 61

145) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 44

146)

In a female undergoing tubectomy fusion of sperm and ovum would not take place.

147) NCERT XII Pg. # 61

148)

NCERT Pg. No. 48

163)

NCERT Pg. # 45

164) NCERT (XII) Page # 62, Para 1

173)
174)

175)

176)

177)

178)

179)