02-03-2025

1950CMD303021250039 MD

PHYSICS

1) The tension in a piano wire is 10N. The tension in a piano wire to produce a node of double
frequency is :

(1) 20N
(2) 40N
(3) 10V
(4) 120V

2) For given C.O.P. (closed organ pipe) if 9th O.T.(over tone) has frequency 1900Hz then
fundamental frequency of same length O.O.P is?

(1) 100 Hz
(2) 200 Hz
(3) 300 Hz
(4) 400 Hz

3) A steel rod 100 cm long is clamped at its mid-point. The fundamental frequency of longitudinal
vibrations of the rod is given to be 2.53 kHz. What is the speed of sound in steel?

(1) 5.06 km/s

(2) 6.06 km/s
(3) 7.06 km/s
(4) 8.06 km/s

4)

A wave pulse is travelling along a taut string fixed to a heavy wall. After reflection from the wall the
string might show the wave pulse as:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None

5) A man standing on a cliff claps his hand and hears its echo after one second. If the sound in
reflected from another mountain then the distance between the man & reflection points is Vsound =
340 m/sec.

(1) 680 m
(2) 340 m
(3) 170 m
(4) 85 m

6) An echo is heard on a day when temperature is about 22°C. The echo will be heard sooner when
the temperature is 40°C becauase

(1) At higher temperature sound travels faster

(2) At higher temperature sound reflects
(3) At higher temperature sound travels slower
(4) None of the above

7) The figure represents five different standing sound waves set up inside of a set of organ pipes 1 m

long What is the length of the longest wavelength

shown?

(1) 0.5 m
(2) 1 m
(3) 2 m
(4) 4 m

8) A man fires a bullet standing between two cliffs. First echo is heard after 3 seconds and second
echo is heard after 5 seconds. If the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, then the distance between the cliffs
is
(1) 1650 m
(2) 1320 m
(3) 990 m
(4) 660 m

9) A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed between two atoms having a distance
1.21Å between them. The wavelength of the standing wave is

(1) 1.21 Å
(2) 2.42 Å
(3) 6.05 Å
(4) 3.63 Å

10) In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is–

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 2 cm

11) In a long cylindrical tube, the water level is adjusted and the air column above it is made to
vibrate in unison with a vibrating tuning fork kept at the open end. If the wavelength of sound
produced by tuning fork is λ, then the maximum sound is heard when the air column lengths are
equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) An organ pipe closed at one end vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe, open at both
ends vibrating in its third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of lengths of
closed and open organ pipe

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) If the fundamental frequency of a pipe closed at one end is 512Hz. The fundamental frequency of
a pipe of the same dimensions but open at both ends will be:

(1) 1024 Hz
(2) 512 Hz
(3) 256 Hz
(4) 128 Hz

14) Two plane progressive waves shows destructive interference at point P. Which of the following
statement is true at point P :-

(1) Crest of one wave is superimposed on crest of another wave

(2) Trough of one wave is superimposed on crest of another wave
(3) Intensity of resultant wave is equal to the intensity difference of two waves
(4) Resultant amplitude is equal to the amplitude sum of two waves

15) What is the path difference for destructive interference?

(1) nλ
(2) n(λ + 1)

(3)

(4)

16) Two coherent sources of intensities I 1 and I 2 produce an interference pattern the maximum
intensity in the interference pattern will be –

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

17) If equation of propagating wave in air given by S = S0 sin(πt–π/2x) then minimum value of l, so

that detector (D) will detect maximum sound :

(1) 4 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 8 m
(4) none

18) The intensity of the sound gets reduced by 10% on passing through a slab. The reduction in
intensity on passing through two consecutive slab, would be :
(1) 20%
(2) 50%
(3) 19%
(4) 5%

19) Intensity of sound is 10–4 watt/m2. The loudness level of the sound is (in decibel)

(1) 40
(2) 120
(3) 100
(4) 80

20) In interference of two waves if then is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Beats are produced by two waves y1 = a sin (1000 πt) and y2 = a sin (998 πt) at a location x = 0
in the space. The number of beats heard per second is

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

22) Intensity level of a sound of intensity I is 30 dB. The ratio I/I0, is (I0, is the threshold of hearing)

(1) 1000
(2) 3000
(3) 300
(4) 30

23) In a gaseous medium on increasing temperature 800 K, speed of sound becomes times of
initial then initial temperature of medium is °C is :-

(1) 27°C
(2) 300°C
(3) 527°C
(4) 427°C
24) Newton's formula for the velocity of sound in gases is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If
the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:

(1) 537 Hz
(2) 523 Hz
(3) 524 Hz
(4) 536 Hz

26) A plane progressive wave is represented by the equation y = 0.25 cos (2πt – 2πx). The equation
of a wave is with double the amplitude and half frequency but travelling in the opposite direction
will be.

(1) y = 0.5 cos (πt - πx)

(2) y = 0.5 cos (2πt + 2πx)
(3) y = 0.25 cos (πt + 2πx)
(4) y = 0.5 cos (πt + πx)

27) When sound wave is transmitted from air to water, which of the following will remain unchanged
?

(1) Wave number

(2) Wavelength.
(3) Wave velocity
(4) Frequency

28) In the standing wave shown, particles at the positions A and B have a phase difference of

(1) 0

(2)
(3)

(4) π

29) Two identical sources of sound are placed at separation 2λ. A detector D moves along a circle as
shown. Find number of maxima and minima recorded by detector in one round along the circle.

(given OS1 = OS2) :-

(1) 8, 12
(2) 8, 8
(3) 12, 12
(4) 4, 4

30) A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1m,

wavelength 2π m and frequency of Hz is represented by :

(1) y = sin (2πx + 2πt)

(2) y = sin (x – 2t)
(3) y = sin (2πx – 2πt)
(4) y = sin (10πx – 20πt)

31) A transverse wave is passing through a light string shown in the figure. The equation of wave
is y = Asin (ωt – kx). The area of cross-section of string is A and density is . The hanging mass is

(1) Aω

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The figure shows an instantaneous profile of a rope carrying a progressive wave moving from
left to right, then
(a) the phase at A is greater than the phase at B
(b) the phase at B is greater than the phase at A
(c) A is moving upwards
(d) B is moving upwards

(1) a & c
(2) a & d
(3) b & c
(4) b & d

33) A heavy uniform rope hangs vertically from the ceiling, with its lower end free. A disturbance on
the rope travelling upward from the lower end has a velocity v at a distance x from the lower end :-

v∝
(1)

(2) v ∝ x
v∝
(3)

(4)
v∝

34) A sound consists of four frequencies – 300 Hz, 600 Hz, 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz. A sound 'filter' is
made by passing this sound through a bifurcated pipe as shown. The sound waves have to travel a
distance of 50 cm more in the right branch-pipe than in the straight pipe. The speed of sound in air
is 300 m/s. Then, which of the following frequencies will be almost completely muffled or "silenced"

at the outlet :

(1) 300 Hz
(2) 600 Hz
(3) 1200 Hz
(4) 2400 Hz

35) The energy in the superposition of waves :

(1) Is lost
(2) Increase
(3) remain same, only redistribution occurs
(4) None of the above

36) A soap bubble is given a negative charge; then its radius :-

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) remains unchanged
(4) nothing can be predicted as information is insufficient

37) If a body has positive charge on it, then it means it has :

(1) Gained some protons

(2) Lost some protons
(3) Gained some electrons
(4) Lost some electrons

38)

When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is

(1) – 1.6 C
(2) + 1.6 C
(3) 10+19 C
(4) 10–19 C

39) Three point charges lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. All three charges have
the same magnitude, but charge A and B are positive and charge C is negative. The net electric force

that charges B and C exert on A.

(1) is in the +x–direction

(2) is in the –x–direction
(3) is in the +y–direction
(4) is in the –y–direction

40) Six point charges are placed at corner of regular hexagon of side a then what will be net force on

charge placed at centre :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

41) Electric field at the centre 'O' of a semicircle of radius 'a' having linear charge density λ is given
as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

Infinite charges are lying at x = 1, 2, 4, 8…meter on X-axis and the value of each charge is Q. The
value of intensity of electric field at point x = 0 due to these charges will be

(1) N/C
(2) Zero
(3) N/C
(4) N/C

43) Two charge particles are shown in the diagram. Where should a third charge particle q0 be
placed so q0 will be in equilibrium :-

(1) x = 10 a
(2) x = 8 a
(3) x = 11 a
(4) x = 12 a

44) Half ring of radius a is uniformly charged with linear charge density
+λ. Find out electric field intensity at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Electric field due to a uniform charged ring at the centre is

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)
Maximum Hofmann’s product is obtained when base is :-

(1)
(2)

(3) NaNH2
(4) alc.KOH

2) The major product of following reaction will be

products

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)
A and B is respectively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) Most reactive for decarboxylation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) product (B) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

6) Major product is :-

(1) Neopentane
(2) Isobutane
(3) Isopentane
(4) Butane

7) (A) (major)
[Kolbe electrolysis method] product (A) of the reaction is :-
(1) CH3–CH3
(2) CH2=CH2
(3) CH3–CH=CH2
(4) None of these

8) Which of the following is most reactive towards decarboxylation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Consider the reaction

product
The alkene formed in major amount :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
(4) Both (1) and (3)

10) P, [Major] P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) both are correct

(4) None
11) Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) CH3MgBr + D2O → (A)

Product (A) of the reaction :-

(1) CH4
(2) CH3D
(3) CH2D2
(4) CHD3

13) Find the major product in the reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) (A) 97%

Product (A) of above reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A
Find the product of following reaction ?

(1) CH3–CH2COOH
(2) CH3CH2–CH2–OH
(3) CH3–CH2–CH3

(4)

17) Which is not suitable to obtain by Wurtz reaction as a single product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)
'X' is :-

(1) HNO3
(2) O2
(3) O3
(4) KMnO4

19) The reagent needed for converting :-

(1) H2/Lindlar catalyst

(2) Catalytic Hydrogenation
(3) LiAlH4
(4) Na/Liquid NH3

20) A+B
The products A and B are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21) Which of the following alkene produced two mole of acetone on reaction with

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)

Least reactive towards EAR :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Product
The product of above reation will be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) M, M is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) (CH3)2CH–Br Product is :-

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(4) (CH3)2CH–CH(CH3)2

26) Which one of the following compounds will give white precipitate with Tollen's reagent?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)
27) Which of the following compounds on hydrolysis gives acetylene?

(1) CaC2
(2) Mg2C3
(3) Al4C3
(4) Cu2Cl2

28)
A and B are :-

(1) Identical
(2) Position isomers
(3) Homolog
(4) Functional isomers

29) Which of the following compound can not be prepared by wurtz reaction as a major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which is incorrectly written reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) In which of the following reaction acetylene will be formed as major product:
(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4)

32) Which of the following alkanes has highest boiling point ?

(1) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3
(2) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3

(3)

(4)

33) Major product :

Major product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) The intermediate during the addition of HCl to propene:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) In the following reaction, the major product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In the given reaction

The product will be

(1) Cis-2-butene
(2) Trans-2-butene
(3) 2-butyne
(4) Buta-1, 3-diene

37) The ionic radii of Li+, Be2+ and B3+ follow the order :
(1) Be2+ > B3+ > Li+
(2) Li+ > B3+ > Be2+
(3) B3+ > Be2+ > Li+
(4) Li+ > Be2+ > B3+

38) Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is

(1) B < Be < O < N

(2) N < O < Be < B
(3) Be < B < N < O
(4) Be < B < O < N

39) Following step is

(1) chain initiation

(2) chain propagation
(3) chain termination
(4) chain disproportionation

40) Factor(s) on which electron affinity depend(s) is/are

(1) size of the atom

(2) effective nuclear charge
(3) penetration power of the subshell
(4) All of the above

41) Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain enthalpy is

(1) F > Cl > Br > I

(2) F < Cl < Br < I
(3) F < Cl > Br > I
(4) F > Cl > Br < I

42) The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is

(1) F
(2) N
(3) Na
(4) O

43) 100 mL of liquid A and 25 mL of liquid B are mixed to form a solution of volume 125 mL. Then
the solution is :-

(1) Ideal
(2) Non-ideal with positive deviation
(3) Non-ideal with negative deviation
(4) Cannot be predicted

44) Equimolal solutions of A and B show depression in freezing point in the ratio of 2 : 1. If A
remains in normal state in solution, B will be in ......... state in solution :

(1) Normal
(2) Associated
(3) Hydrolysed
(4) Dissociated

45) Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression ?

(1) KCl
(2) C6H12O6
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) K2SO4

BIOLOGY

1)

How many examples represent zygomorphic symmetry ?

Mustard, Datura, Chilli, Pea, Gulmohar, Bean, Cassia, Canna

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

2) Ovary is superior in

(1) Rose
(2) Mustard
(3) Peach
(4) Guava

3) Drupe fruits are found in

(1) Mango & Orange

(2) Mango & Apple
(3) Mango & Coconut
(4) Apple & Pear

4) When gynoecium is present in the topmost position of thalamus, the ovary is known as :-
(1) Inferior
(2) Half inferior
(3) Half superior
(4) Superior

5) Venation is :-

(1) Arrangement of leaves

(2) Arrangement of vein & veinlets in leaf
(3) Arrangement of flower
(4) Arrangement of sepals and petals

6) Ovary is one chambered but it may be two chambered due to formation of the false septa and
ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral part. In this case, placentation is :-

(1) Parietal
(2) Marginal
(3) Axile
(4) Basal

7) Cotyledon of maize grain is called :

(1) Coleorhiza
(2) Radicle
(3) Plumule
(4) Scutellum

8) Select the incorrect pair out of the following :

(1) Monoadephous - Hibisus

(2) Diadelphous - Cucurbita
(3) Polyadelphous - Citrus
(4) Epiphyllous - Lily

9) In racemose type of inflorescence the main axis continue to grow the flower are borne laterally
in an ____

(1) Basipetal succession

(2) Acropetal succession
(3) Centripetal succession
(4) Centrifugal order

10) Which type of placentation is it called when the single ovule appears directly attached to base in
a unilocular ovary?

(1) Superficial
(2) Free Central
(3) Basal
(4) Parietal

11) Identify regions of root

A = Region of maturation,
B = Region of elongation,
(1)
C = Region of meristematic activity,
D = Root cap
A = Region of elongation,
B = Region of meristematic activity,
(2)
C = Root cap,
D = Protective covering
A = Region of meristem,
B = Region of maturation,
(3)
C = Region of elongation,
D = Root cap
A = Region of growing cell,
B = Region of mature cell,
(4)
C = Region of dividing cell,
D = Protective covering

12) Caruncle of albuminous dicot seed is derived from :-

(1) cotyledon
(2) embryo
(3) integument
(4) peduncle

13) In which of the following endosperm persist in the mature seed ?

(1) Pea
(2) Bean
(3) Ground nut
(4) Castor

14) The diagram are related to Castor seeds. Identify A, B, C and D respectively.
(1) Endosperm, Seed coat, Cotyledon and Hypocotyl
(2) Seed coat, Endosperm, Hypocotyl and Cotyledon
(3) Seed coat, Cotyledon, Endosperm and Hypocotyl
(4) Seed coat, Endosperm, Cotyledon, and Hypocotyl

15) Ovary wall get change into fruit wall after fertilization what is it called ?

(1) Perisperm
(2) Caruncle
(3) Pericarp
(4) Aril

16)

Which one doesn't exhibit seed dormancy :-

(1) Rhizophora
(2) Pisum
(3) Lily
(4) Cassia

17)

Germination of seed within fruit is :-

(1) Ovipary
(2) Vivipary
(3) Hypogeal
(4) Epigeal

18) In a type of Apomixis known as Adventive embryony, embryos develop directly from the :-

(1) Nucellus or integuments

(2) Synergids or Antipodals in embryo sac
(3) Megaspore
(4) Egg cell

19) Scutellum is ?

(1) 3N, found in Maize seed

(2) 2N, found in Grain seed
(3) 2N, found in Pea seed
(4) N, found in Castor seed

20) Occurance of more than one embryo is called:-

(1) Fertilization
(2) Embryony
(3) Polyembryony
(4) Parthenogenesis

21) Select the incorrect pair :-

(1) Perisperm – Black pepper

(2) Aril – Litchi
(3) Strophiole – Castor seed
(4) 2000 year old seed - Arctic Tundra

22) Parasitic species that contain thousands of tiny seeds are -

(1) Striga
(2) Ficus
(3) Orchid
(4) All of these

23) Select the odd one :-

(1) Scutellum
(2) Coleoptile
(3) Epiblast
(4) Endothecium

24) Apomictic seeds of lemons are produced from :-

(1) Egg
(2) Antipodal
(3) MMC
(4) Nucellus

25) If number of chromosome in a cell of aleurone layer is 60 then find the number of chromosomes
in perisperm cell and secondary nucleus –

(1) 60,40
(2) 30,60
(3) 60,60
(4) 40,40
26) Polyembryony was discovered by :-

(1) A.V. Leeuwenhoek

(2) Nawaschin
(3) G.B. Amici
(4) Pristley

27) Formation of sporophyte directly from gametophyte is :-

(1) Apogamy
(2) Apospory
(3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Adventive embryony

28) The stored seeds are used as food and also for the propagation of plant. This storage of seed is
possible due to :-

(1) Dormancy
(2) Dehydration
(3) Sterility
(4) Both 1 and 2

29) Which one of the following belong to the same category :-

(1) Castor, pea, coconut

(2) Castor, groundnut, wheat
(3) Castor, coconut, maize
(4) Castor, beans, rice

30)

Choose incorrect w.r.t. fleshy fruit

(1) Guava
(2) Mango
(3) Orange
(4) Mustard

31) Diagram given below shows a typical dicot embryo. Identify structure 1 to 4 respectively:-
(1) 1-Plumule; 2-Cotyledons; 3-Epicotyl; 4-Hypocotyl
(2) 1-Plumule; 2-Cotyledons; 3-Hypocotyl; 4-Root cap
(3) 1-Plumule; 2-Cotyledons; 3-Epicotyl; 4-Suspensor
(4) 1-Plumule; 2-Cotyledons; 3-Hypocotyl; 4-Suspensor

32) A : Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.

B : In apomixis, seeds are formed without involving sexual reproduction.

(1) If both statements A and B are true and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
(2) If both statements A and B are true but statement B is not the correct explanation of statement.
(3) If statement A is true but statement B is false.
(4) If both statements A and B are false statements.

33) Tigellum represents :-

(1) Testa
(2) Tegmen
(3) Both of the above
(4) Main axis of the embryo

34)

In which of the following plants, the nucellar cells start dividing and develop into the embryos ?

(1) Citrus and mango

(2) Parthenium and grasses
(3) Pea and gram
(4) Wheat and rice

35) Which of the following is not matched correctly ?

(1) Integument of ovule – Seed coat

(2) Nucellus – Perisperm
(3) Ovule – Seed
(4) Secondary nucleus – Zygote

36) Following figure represents :-

(1) Endospermic seed of bean

(2) Endospermic seed of castor
(3) Non-endospermic seed of bean
(4) Non-endospermic seed of castor

37) The portion of embryonal axis below the level of cotyledons is called–

(1) Hypocotyl
(2) Epicotyl
(3) Tigellum
(4) Scutellum

38) Scientists are trying to transfer apomictic genes into hybrid varieties of several of our food and
vegetable crops so that:

(1) They get resistance against common pathogens

(2) The yield of these plants can be increased many folds
(3) Hybrid seeds need not be produced every year
(4) Their germplasm is easily stored in labs for further research

39) Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure called as
the:

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Scutellum
(4) Perisperm

40) The endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in all of the following except:

(1) Pea
(2) Groundnut
(3) Beans
(4) Castor

41) Coleoptile and Coleorhiza are the protective sheath covering ...... and ....... respectively ?

(1) Radicle, Plumule

(2) Plumule, Radicle
(3) Plumule, Scutellum
(4) Radicle, Epicotyl

42) Tegmen of a seed is produced by:

(1) Ovary wall

(2) Hilum of ovule
(3) Funicle
(4) Inner integument of ovule
43) If diploid female plant is crossed with tetra ploid male plant. What would be ploidy level of seed
coat: -

(1) 3n
(2) n
(3) 2n
(4) 4n

44) Tetradynamous condition is found in :

(1) Malvaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Brassicaceae

45) Consider following diagram and choose correct one:

(1) 'A' is Axile Placentation

(2) 'B' is Basal Plancentation
(3) 'C' is Parietal Plancentation
(4) 'D' is Marginal placentation

46) Spermatogenesis starts at the age of ?

(1) Puberty
(2) Embryo stage
(3) After birth
(4) Life time

47) Which of the following structure is not diploid?

(1) Sertoli cell

(2) Spermatogonia
(3) Primary spermatocyte
(4) Secondary spermatocyte

48)

The figure below shows development of follicles (A, B, C, D). Select the option giving correct
identification together with its function?
(1) B – Secondary Follicle – secrete progesterone
(2) D – Corpus albicans – Secrete estrogen
(3) A – Tertiary follicle – Secrete FSH & LH
(4) C – Corpus luteum – Secrete progesterone

49) Tail in sperm is formed with the help of :-

(1) Proximal centriole

(2) Distal centriole
(3) Golgi body
(4) Mitochondria

50) Ist meiotic division in the process of oogenesis is completed:-

(1) Before birth

(2) Before puberty
(3) After puberty
(4) After entry of sperm in secondary oocyte

51) Graafian follicle of ovary mainly secretes

(1) Estrogen
(2) Relaxin
(3) Progesterone
(4) Cortisone

52) Graafian follicle is :-

(1) Another name of tertiary follicle

(2) Mature follicle containing secondary oocyte
(3) Secondary follicle after development
(4) All of these

53) How many spermatozoa will be formed from 2 secondary spermatocyte :

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 2

54) Corpus luteum releases

(1) Androgen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Estrogen
(4) Testosterone

55)

In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur ?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm & ovum
(4) Formation of grafian follicle

56) How many primary follicles are left in each ovary at puberty ?

(1) 20,000-40,000
(2) 60,000-80,000
(3) 1,20,000-1,60,000
(4) 400-500

57) Second meiotic division takes place in which of the following cells :-

(1) Secondary oocyte

(2) Second polar body
(3) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) Both (1) & (3)

58) What is spermiogenesis?

(1) Spermiogenesis is another name for the process of puberty.

(2) Spermiogenesis is the sequence of events that leads to the production of spermatozoa.
(3) Spermiogenesis is the reabsorbing of sperm that are not ejaculated.
(4) Spermiogenesis is the conversion of spermatids to spermatozoa.

59) Membrane covering the mammalian oocyte is :-

(1) Corona radiata

(2) Zona Pellucida
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Chorion

60) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

61) When released from ovary, human egg contains:-

(1) X/Y chromosome

(2) 2 X chromosome
(3) 1 X chromosome
(4) XY chromosome

62) The cellular layer that disintegrates and regenerates again and again in humans is :-

(1) Myometnium
(2) Germinal epithelium of ovary
(3) Tunica albugenia of testis
(4) Endometrium of uterus

63) 'Antrum' is a cavity present in :-

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Tertiary follicle

64) How many sperms and ova are formed from 50 primary spermatocyte and 50 primary oocyte ?

(1) 200 sperm and 50 ovum

(2) 200 ovum and 50 sperm
(3) 50 sperm and 50 ovum
(4) 100 sperm and 200 ovum

65) The structure which is present in sperm and which stimulate division in zygote is :-

(1) Acrosome
(2) Tail
(3) Proximal centriole
(4) Mitochondria

66) Fill in the blanks in the following statements :-

The human male ejaculates about ........ million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility,
at least ........... percent sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of them
must show vigorous motility.
(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40
(2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40
(4) 200 - 300, 40, 60

67) Which of the following is incorrect about Phylum Mollusca?

(1) It is the largest phylum of animalia

(2) Body is covered with calcareous shell.
(3) Body is unsegmented with distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump.
(4) The space between mantle and the hump is called mantle cavity.

68)

Head of sperm consists of

(1) Nucleus
(2) Acrosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Acrosome & nucleus

69)

Correct sequence of cell stages in spermatogenesis is

(1) Spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

(2) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa
(3) Spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatozoa

70)

In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until _____

(1) Birth
(2) Puberty
(3) Fertilization
(4) Uterine implantation

71)

Which part of the spermatid forms acrosome of sperm ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi body
(3) Nucleus
(4) Lysosome
72)

The process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis in most vertebrates are under the influence of which
hormone ?

(1) Oxytocin
(2) FSH
(3) ACTH
(4) ICSH

73) The transfer of sperms into the female genital tract is called :

(1) Insemination
(2) Gametogenesis
(3) Fertilization
(4) Gestation

74) In a mammalian sperm, spirally arranged mitochondria around the axial filament are present in
the region of

(1) Head
(2) Middle piece
(3) Principal piece of tail
(4) End piece of tail

75) What would happen if vasa deferentia of man are cut?

(1) Sperms are non-nucleate

(2) Spermatogenesis does not occur
(3) Semen is without sperms
(4) Sperms are nonmotile

76) The unique characteristic feature of sponges:

(1) Presence of water vascular system

(2) Presence of cnidoblast cells
(3) Presence of choanocyte cells
(4) Presence of diploblastic body

77) Identify the correct match for locomotory structure of animals :

(1) Insects – Paired jointed legs

(2) Annelids – Muscular foot
(3) Echinodermata – Parapodia
(4) Cnidarians – Comb plates

78) Which is not true for reptiles?

(1) They respire by lungs
(2) All have 4 – chambered heart
(3) They are chordate animals
(4) They have closed type of circulatory system

79) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges

80) Which of the following are examples of Arthropoda ?

(1) Silver fish, Star fish and Prawn

(2) Earthworm, Apple snail and Honey bee
(3) Sea hare, Tongue worm and Scorpion
(4) Cockroach, Scorpion and Prawn

81) The disease kala azar in man is caused by :-

(1) Trypanosoma
(2) Leishmania
(3) Amoeba
(4) Plasmodium

82) Identify the correct match from Column - I and Column - II :

Column - I Column - II

(a) Scoliodon (i) Saw fish

(b) Pristis (ii) Sting ray

(c) Trygon (iii) Electric ray

(d) Torpedo (iv) Dog fish

Options:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

83) The connecting link between non chordates and chordates is:

(1) Neopilina
(2) Peripatus
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Archaeopteryx

84) Animals having dorso-ventrally flattened body are :-

(1) Coelenterates
(2) Ctenophores
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

85) Scientific name of 'rohu' is :-

(1) Catla catla

(2) Anabas testudineus
(3) Naja naja
(4) Labeo rohita

86) Identify the name of given animals from the given option.

A B C D

(1) Struthio Neophron Pavo Psittacula

(2) Neophron Struthio Pavo Psittacula

(3) Neophron Struthio Psittacula Pavo

(4) Pavo Struthio Psittacula Neophron

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
87) The structure given below is present in which animal ?

(1) Scypha
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Physalia
(4) Taenia

88) Gemmule formation take place in :

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Porifera
(4) Platyhelminthes

89) Locomotion by 8 ciliary comb plates found in :

(1) Aurelia
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Taenia
(4) Nereis

90) Which is the gregarious pest of phylum Arthropoda?

(1) Cockroach
(2) Scorpion
(3) Prawn
(4) Locusta
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 1 2 4 4 1 3 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 3 2 3 4 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 2 1 3 1 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 1 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 4 4 1 1 4 3 4 2 1 4 1 4 2 1 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 3 4 3 1 4 4 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 1 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 1 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2) 19n =1900; n=100

OOP= 2n =200 Hz
For same length OOP have double freq. than COP.

3) If a rod clamped at middle, then it vibrates with similar fashion as open organ pipe vibrates
as shown.

Hence, fundamental frequency of vibrating rod is given by

9) λ = 1.21 Å

11) Maximum sound is heard at resonance and also situation in resonance tube experiment is
alike COP

∴ Air column lengths

13)

The fundamental modes of vibration of a pipe closed at one end and open at both ends (of
same length) are shown in figure.

The wavelength in figure (b) is half of that in figure (a). Hence the fundamental frequency in
figure (b) is double that in figure (a).
∴ fopen = 2 × 512 - 1024 Hz

17)

20)

25)

Guitar string i.e. string is fixed from both ends

Frequency ∝
If tension in B slightly decrease then frequency of B decrease.
If B is 536 Hz, as the frequency decreases, beats with A also decreases.
If B is 524 Hz, as the frequency decreases, beats with A increases.
∴ Original frequency of B will be 524 Hz.

26) y = A sin (ωt + kx) is wave travelling is negative direction.

29)
No. of maximum = 8
No. of minimum = 8
As b/w consecutive maxima there lies a minima)
30) k = =1 and

ω = 2πf = (2π) =2
So equation of wave
y = sin(kx – ωt) = sin(x – 2t)

32)
from fig. A is moving down & B is moving up and the phase at A is greater the phase at B.

33)

T= xg = µxg

v=
v∝

39)

The component of forces will be in -y direction only So, answer is (4).

40)

Force due to any charge will be cancelled by just opposite charge so

41) , where = 180°

=
 42)

By the superposition, Net electric field at origin

is an infinite geometrical progression it's sum can be obtained by using the formula

; Where a = First term, r = Common ratio.

43)
For q0 to be in equilibrium

taking square root both sides

72a – 4r = 5r
8a = r
x = 10a

44)

CHEMISTRY

46) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-330

50)

53) Make intermediate anion and –M, –I increases the stability (β-keto carboxylicacid)
54)

56) does not form in dehydration of .

58)

Hofmann's elimination product is formed when size of base is bulkier.

64)

Birch catalyst → Anti addition

76)

77) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3 has highest boiling point due to highest molecule weight
among all option.

78)
 79)

80) 3°H is more reactive towards photo-halogenation.

81)

82)

Li+, Be2+ and B3+ are isoelectronic species. As ; Size decreases.

Ionic radius order :
B3+ < Be3+ < Li+

86)

As we move from Cl to I, the electron gain enthalpy (i.e. energy released in electron gain)
become less and less negative due to a corresponding increase in the atomic size.
However, the electron gain enthalpy of F is less negative than that of Cl due to its small size.
Thus, the negative electron gain enthalpy follows the order
F < Cl > Br > I

89) or or
As per problem, iA =1
∵ iB = 1/2 {i.e. assoicated}

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 72

92) NCERT (XI) Pg # 73

93) NCERT Pg # 76

99)
NCERT XI, Pg. # 61,62

103) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 36

104)
A - Seed Coat
B - Endosperm
C - Cotyledon
D - Hypocotyl

110) NCERT-XII, Pg#39

114) NCERT XII Pg.# 30

119) NCERT XII Pg.# 35,36

121) NCERT XII, Pg. No # 35, Fig. 2.14 (a)

138)

Ncert

142) NCERT-XII, Page No- 49

151)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 33

157) NCERT XI Page # 44

166) NCERT (XI) Pg# 40

167)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

168) NCERT (XI) Pg# 58 Para: 4.2.11.5

169) NCERT XI Pg. # 41

170) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53

172)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 57

173)

NCERT (XI) Page 54

174)

NCERT XI Page # 42

177) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 41

178) NCERT Pg. # 59

179) [RATIONALISED NCERT BOOK 2024-2025]

NCERT Pg. # 42

180) NCERT Pg. # 42