1.

At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to the Significant
Weather Chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350 ?
(a) -56,5°C.
(b) -54°C.
(c) -50°C.
(d) -58°C.
2. The dry adiabatic lapse rate
(a) has a constant fixed value
(b) has a variable value
(c) is greater in summer than in winter
(d) is greater during the night than during the day
3. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
(a) Advection
(b) Inversion
(c) Subsidence
(d) Adiabatic
4. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is
(a) 0.5°C per 100m
(b) 1°C per 100m
(c) 0.6°C per 100m
(d) 0.65°C per 100m
5. In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
(a) 600 - 500 hPa
(b) 500 - 400 hPa
(c) 300 - 200 hPa
(d) 400 - 300 hPa
6. An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high
pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What
reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation?
(a) A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
(b) The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
(c) There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
(d) A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
7. An aircraft is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the
following is correct concerning its true altitude ?
(a) Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question can not be answered.
(b) It remains constant
(c) It increases
(d) It decreases
8. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of
1310 FT. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
(a) 1015 hPa.
(b) 1028 hPa.
(c) 998 hPa.
(d) 1013 hPa.
9. An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6°C) obtains a reading of 1860 FT on its radio altimeter when flying over
ground 3090 FT above mean sea level. What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point?
(a) 1042
(b) 1013
(c) 1030
(d) 996
10. At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight
level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude?
(a) At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013.25
hPa
(b) In a cold low pressure region
(c) At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or
equal to 1013.25 hPa
(d) In a very cold area with a QNH of 1015 hPa
11. Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the
gradient wind is
(a) proportional only to the Coriolis force
(b) less than the geostrophic wind
(c) greater than the geostrophic wind
(d) the same as the thermal component
12. During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage, northern
hemisphere), the wind normally
(a) backs and increases
(b) veers and increases
(c) veers and decreases
(d) backs and decreases
13. During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the
(a) surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid afternoon
(b) angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the mid afternoon
(c) wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
(d) surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
14. A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the Mediterranean Sea and coastal region
during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny
afternoon?
(a) Parallel to the coastline.
(b) Variable.
(c) Sea to land.
(d) Land to sea.
15. Relative humidity
(a) is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
(b) changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.
(c) does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains
constant.
(d) is not affected by temperature changes of the air.
16. What is the pressure in surface weather charts called?
(a) QNH.
(b) QFF.
(c) QFE.
(d) QNE.
17. The troposphere is deepest:
(a) the same all over the earth.
(b) near the poles.
(c) over the poles in summer.
(d) near the equator.
18. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
(a) Absence of wind and turbulence.
(b) Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
(c) None of the above.
(d) Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.
19. You are cruising at FL 200, OAT -40° C, sea level pressure 1033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude:
(a) 18260 ft.
(b) 19340 ft.
(c) 20660 ft.
(d) 21740 ft.
20. At sea level, the pressure of the atmosphere on a standard day will cause the mercury in the column to
rise to:
(a) 19.19 inches.
(b) 29.29 inches.
(c) 29.92 inches.
(d) 92.29 inches.
21. KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1753/ FL095/TP PA30/SK 036 0VC 060/075 0VC/RM TOPS UNKN.
This pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates
(a) Several overcast layers including one above 9,500 feet.
(b) A clear layer between 3,600 feet and 6,000 feet
(c) The base of an overcast layer at 7,500 feet
22. The 12-Hour significant Weather prognostic Chart indicates that eastern Kentucky and eastern
Tennessee can expect probable ceilings

a) Less than 1,000 feet and/ or visibility less than 3 miles

b) Less than 1,000 feet and/ or visibility less than 3 miles, and moderate turbulence below 10,000
feet MSL
c) Less than 1,000 feet and/ or visibility less than 3 miles, and moderate turbulence above 10,000
feet MSL
23. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather?
a) Variations of solar energy at the Earth’s surface
b) Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface
c) Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas
24. What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?
a) Trough
b) Ridge
c) Hurricane or typhoon
25. Which weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?
a) Calm
b) High pressure area
c) COL
26. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
a) Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes
b) Descending to the surface and then outward
c) Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface
27. Where is the usual location of a thermal low?
a) Over the arctic region
b) Over the eye of a hurricane
c) Over the surface of a dry, sunny region
28. What is a feature of a stationary front?
a) The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface
b) Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather
c) Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.
29. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?
a) Temperature/ dewpoint spread decreases
b) Wind direction shifts to the left
c) Atmospheric pressure
30. Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?
a) Upper winds blowing across the front
b) Upper low located directly over the surface low
c) The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front
31. In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?
a) Warm fronts or occluded fronts
b) Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
c) Cold front occlusions
32. What type weather change is to be expected in an area where frontolysis is reported?
a) The frontal weather is becoming stronger
b) The front is dissipating
c) The front is moving at a faster speed
33. Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?
a) Squall line
b) Advective fog
c) Frontogenesis
34. What weather difference is found on each side of a “dry line”?
a) Extreme temperature difference
b) Dewpoint difference
c) Stratus versus cumulus clouds
35. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because
the friction
a) Decreases windspeed and coriolis force
b) Decreases pressure gradient force
c) Creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure
36. At what location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
a) At the poles
b) Middle latitudes (300 to 600 )
c) At the Equator
37. How does coriolis force affect wind direction in the southern hemisphere?
a) Causes clockwise rotation around a low
b) Cause wind to flow out a low toward a high
c) Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere
38. What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater
intensity?
a) 4,000 feet thick
b) 2,000 feet thick
c) A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level
39. Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?
a) Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog
b) Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog
c) Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers
40. What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?
a) Rotor cloud
b) Standing lenticular
c) Low stratus