Evolution

BIOLOGY MCQs - QUESTION BANK

NCERT EXEMPLAR

1. One of the possible early sources of energy was/were

(1) CO2 (2) chlorophyll
(3) green plants (4) UV rays and lightning

2. Abiogenesis theory of origin supports

(1) spontaneous generation
(2) origin of life from blue-green algae
(3) origin of life is due to pre-existing organisms
(4) organic evolution is due to chemical reactions

3. Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated
spontaneously from non-living matter?
(1) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
(2) Microbes can appear on bread kept at a moist place
(3) Microbes appear on unsterilised organic matter
(4) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel

4. Read the given statements and select the correct ones.

(i) Swan-necked flask experiment was done by Louis Pasteur.
(ii) The early belief of the spontaneous origin of life was disproved by Louis Pasteur.
(iii) Louis Pasteur is famous for germ theory of dieseases.
(iv) The idea that life originates from pre-existing life is referred to as biogenesis theory.
(v) Father Suarez was one of the greatest supporter of theory of special creation.
(vi) Cosmozoic theory of the origin of life was proposed by Richter.
(vii) The founder of 'theory of catastrophism' is Georges Cuvier.
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi) (2) (ii), (v) and (vii)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii)

5. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given below:
Column I Column II
A. Francesco Redi (i) Theory of chemical evolution of life
B. L. Pasteur (ii) Disproval of spontaneous generation
C. Richter (iii) Swan necked flask experiment
D. Oparin (iv) Mutation
(v) Panspermia
(1) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) (2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(i)
(3) A-(v), B-(iv, C-(ii), D-(i) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
 2 Kalrashukla Classes : Std. XII - Biology

6. Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing nonliving organic molecules?
(1) S.L. Miller (2) Oparin and Haldane
(3) Charles Darwin (4) Alfred Wallace

7. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, earth's atmosphere before origin of life was
(1) oxidising (2) oxidising along with H2
(3) reducing with free O2 in small amount (4) reducing with oxygen absent in O2 form

8. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
(1) Methane (2) Oxygen (3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour

Refer to the given figure and answer the question 9 and 10.

9. In the experiment in given diagram which of the following groups of gases were used to simulate primitive
atmosphere?
(1) N2, H2, CH4, C2H6 (2) NH3, H2O, CH4, H2
(3) N2O, H2O, NO2, SOs (4) CH4, H2, NO2, SO2

10. The diagram given here is the representation of

(1) Miller's experiment (2) Redi's experiment
(3) Louis Pasteur's experiment (4) Spallanzani's experiment

11. From the point of view of early chemical evolution that preceded the origin of life on earth, the most important
simple organic molecules formed were
(1) sugars and amino acids (2) glycerol and fatty acids
(3) purines and pyrimidines (4) all of these

12. The correct sequence for the manufacture of the compounds on the primitive earth is
(1) NH3, CH4, protein and carbohydrate
(2) Protein, carbohydrate, water and nucleic acid
(3) NH3, CH4, carbohydrate and nucleic acid
(4) NH3, carbohydrate, protein and nucleic acid
MCQs - Evolution 3

13. Early atmosphere contained methane and other hydrocarbons. They have been now replaced by
(1) nitrogen (2) oxygen (3) carbon dioxide (4) hydrogen

14. The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was of a reducing nature. It was transformed into an oxidising
atmosphere of present day due to the emergence of
(1) cyanobacteria (2) angiosperms
(3) photosynthetic protists (4) eukaryotic algae

15. The first life originated

(1) on land (2) in air (3) in water (4) all of these

16. On the primitive earth, polymers such as proteins and nucleic acids in aqueous suspension formed the
spherical aggregates. These are called
(1) primitosomes (2) liposomes (3) primitogens (4) coacervates

17. Coacervates are

(1) colloid droplets (2) nucleoprotein containign entities
(3) microspheres (4) both (1) and (2)

18. Consider following statements regarding microspheres.

(i) They were spherical in shape and 1-2µm in diameter
(ii) They had concentric double-layered boundaries
(iii) They could grow in size but were not able to reproduce
(iv) They used ATP as source of energy
Which of the above statements is /are incorrect?
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) only (3) (iii) only (4) none of these

19. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and
microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?
(1) They were partially isolated from the surroundings
(2) They could maintain an internal environment
(3) They were able to reproduce sexually
(4) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings

20. The sequence of origin of life may be

(1) Inorganic materials  Organic materials  Colloidal aggregate  Eobiont Cell
(2) Organic materials  Inorganic materials  Colloidal aggregate  Eobiont  Cell
(3) Inorganic materials  Organic materials  Eobiont  Cell  Colloidal aggregate
(4) Organic materials  Inorganic materials  Eobiont  Cell  Colloidal aggregate

21. The following are some major events in the early history of life :
P. First heterotrophic prokaryotes
Q. First genes
R. First eukaryotes
S. First autotrophic prokaryotes
T. First animals
Which option below places these events in the correct order?
(1) P  Q  S  R  T (2) Q  S  P  T  R
(3) Q  P  S  R  T (4) Q  S  P  R  T
 4 Kalrashukla Classes : Std. XII - Biology

22. First life form on earth was a

(1) cynaobacterium (2) chemoherotroph (3) autotroph (4) photoautotroph.

23. The ship used by Charles Darwin during his sea voyages was
(1) HMS Beagle (2) HSM Beagle (3) HMS Eagle (4) HSM Eagle

24. Fitness according to Darwin refers to

(1) number of species in a community (2) useful variation in population
(3) strength of an individual (4) reproductive fitness of an organism

25. Alfred Wallace worked in

(1) Galapagos Island (2) Australian Island Continent
(3) Malay Archipelago (4) none of these

26. The theory of natural selection was given by

(1) Lamarck (2) Alfred Wallace (3) Charles Darwin (4) Oparin and Haldane

What are the evidences of Evolution ?

27. Refer to the given figure and select the correct option regarding X, Y and Z.

X Y Z
(1) Brachiosaurus Archaeopteryx Triceratops
(2) Archaeopteryx Tryrannosaurus Pteranodon
(3) Archaeopteryx Stegosaurus Tryrannosaurus
(4) Archaeopteryx Brachiosaurus Triceratops

28. The preserved fossil remains of Archaeopteryx show that

(1) it was a flying reptile from the Permian period
(2) reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic period
(3) it was a flying reptile in the Triassic period
(4) reptiles gave rise to birds during Permian period

29. Which of the following isotopes is used for finding the fossil age maximum about 35,0000 years ?
(1) 238U (2) 14 C (3) 3H (4) 206 Pb

30. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish
like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this
above cited statement be approximated ?
(1) Lamarck's principle (2) Mendelian principle
(3) Biogenetic law (4) Hardy Weinberg law
MCQs - Evolution 5

31. What can you infer about the structures shown in figure ?

(1) They are homologous structures (2) They are vestigial structures
(3) They are analogous structures (4) They have nothing to do with each other

32. Which one of the following correctly describes the homologous structures ?
(1) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
(2) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function
(3) Organs that have no function now, but had important function in ancestors
(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult

33. The given figure shows an example of

(1) homologous organs (2) convergent evolution

(3) divergent evolution (4) both (1) and (3)

34. Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Wings of birds and insects are homologous organs
(2) Human hands and bird’s wings are analogous organs
(3) Human hands and bat’s wings are analogous organs
(4) Flipper of penguin and dolphin are analogous organs

35. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution ?
Convergent evolution Divergent evolution
(1) Eyes of octopus and mammals Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates
(2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Wings of butterfly and birds
(3) Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates Wings of butterfly and birds
(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils Eyes of octopus and mammals
of Cucurbita
 6 Kalrashukla Classes : Std. XII - Biology

36. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos islands, as
observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
(1) intraspecific competition (2) interspecific competition
(3) origin of species by natural selection (4) origin of species by mutation.

37. Consider the following three statements and select the correct option stating which one is true (T) and which
one is false (F).
(i) Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that the first form of life could have come from
pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g., RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation of life was
preceded by chemical evolution
(ii) Based on observations made during a sea voyage around the world, Charles Darwin concluded that
existing living forms share similarities to varying degrees only among themselves
(iii) Evolution by natural selection must have started when cellular forms of life with different metabolic
capability originated on Earth
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) F T T
(2) T F T
(3) T T F
(4) F F T

38. Read the following statements carefully and select the correct ones.
(i) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who worked in Malay Archipelago had also come to similar conclusions as
Darwin around the same time.
(ii) August Weismann by careful experimentation demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing life.
(iii) The organs which have the same fundamental structure but are different in functions are called homologous
organs
(iv) Rate of appearance' of new. form is inversely proportional to life span of organism
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)

39. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest ‘, Darwin meant that

(1) the strongest of all species survives (2) the most intelligent of the species survives
(3) the cleverest of the species survives (4) the species most adaptable to changes survives

40. Which of the following are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution ?
(1) Genetic drift and mutation (2) Adaptive radiation and homology
(3) Mutation and natural selection (4) Branching descent and natural selection

41. Given below are the three statements each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up
the blanks in any two statements.
(A) For a long time it was also believed that life came out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud,
etc. This was the theory of i
(B) During post-industrialisation period, the tree trunks became dark due to industrial smoke and soots.
Under this condition the i did not survive due to predators, while ii survived.
(C) Lamrack said that evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by i of organs.
(1) (A) - (i) panspermia, (C)- (i) natural selection
(2) (B) - (i) white-winged moth, (ii) dark-winged moth (C) - (i) use and disuse
(3) (A) - (i) spontaneous generation,
(B) - (i) dark winged moth, (ii) white-winged moth
(4) (A) - (i) eternity of life, (C) - (i) use and disuse.
MCQs - Evolution 7

42. According to Lamarckism, long necked giraffes evolved because

(1) nature selected only long necked ones
(2) humans preferred only long necked ones
(3) short necks suddenly changed into long necks
(4) of stretching of necks over many generations by short necked ones

43. Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired
characters?
(1) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals
(2) Melanisation in peppered moth
(3) Absence of limbs in snakes
(4) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds

44. Human population grows in geometric ratio while food materials increase in arithmetic proportion." It is a
statement from
(1) Darwin (2) Bateson (3) Amartya Sen (4) Malthus

45. Given below are four statements (A - D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills
up the blanks in two statements.
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of (i) evolution
(B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and (i) when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in
formation of (ii)
(C) Vermiform appendix is a (i) organ and an (ii) evidence of evolution
(D) According to Darwin, evolution took place due to (i) and (ii) of the fittest
(1) (A) -(i) convergent; (D) -(i) small variations, (ii) survival
(2) (A) -(i) convergent; (B) -(i) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides
(3) (B) -(i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids; (C) -(i) homologous, (ii) anatomical
(4) (C) -(i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical; (D) -(i) mutations, (ii) multiplication

46. Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution ?
(1) Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection
(2) Variations, constancy of population size, over production, natural selection
(3) Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection
(4) Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size

47. Which of the following statements about natural selection are correct ?
(i) Tends to increase the characters that enhance survival and reproduction
(ii) Individuals with better adaptive ability leave more progeny
(iii) Was considered as mechanism of evolution by Darwin
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) only (3) (iii) only (4) (i) and (iii) only

48. Which of the following are necessary for evolution by natural selection to take place ?
(i) Offspring resemble their parents more than other individuals in the population.
(ii) Differences among individuals exist and lead to different numbers of successful offspring being produced.
(iii) Individuals adjust their development depending on the enviorment
(iv) Every individual possess enormous fertility.
(1) i and ii (2) ii and iv (3) i,iii and iv (4) iii only
 8 Kalrashukla Classes : Std. XII - Biology

49. Darwinism explains all the following except

(1) off spring with better traits that over come competition are best suited for the environment
(2) variations may or may not be inherited from parents to offspring through genes
(3) within each species, there are variations
(4) organisms tend to produce more number of offspring than can survive

50. Which of the following differences between Lamarckism and Darwinism is incorrect ?
Lamarckism Darwinism
(1) It does not consider struggle for existence Struggle for existence is very important in this theory.
(2) Only useful variations are transferred to All the acquired characters are inherited to the next
the next generation generation
(3) Neglects survival of the fittest. Based on survival of the fittest
(4) None of these

51. Each of us is part of the ongoing evolution of the species. Which of the following occurrences would have
the greatest impact on the future biological evolution of the human population?
(1) A mutation occurs in one of your sperm or egg cells
(2) You do exercise every day so that you stay physically fit and healthy
(3) You move to Kerala, the state of highest medical facilities and literacy
(4) You encourage your children to develop their intellectual abilities

52. Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him ?
(1) Vries - Theory of natural selection
(2) Mendel - Theory of pangenesis
(3) Weismann - Theory of continuity of germplasm
(4) Pasteur -Theory of inheritance of acquired characters

53. Single lstep large mutation leading to speciation is also called

(1) founder effect (2) saltation (3) branching descent (4) natural selection

54. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
A. Saltation (i) Darwin
B. Formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution (ii) Louis Pasteur
C. Reproductive fitness (iii) de Vries
D. Life comes from pre-existing life (iv) Oparin and Haldane
(1) A - (iii), B- (iv), C - (i), D - (ii) (2) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
(3) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (iv) (4) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)

55. The diagram given here shows the skulls of two different mammals.
MCQs - Evolution 9

Which of the following accurately describes the differences between these skulls?
(1) Skull A has more teeth than skull B
(2) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B
(3) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape
(4) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human

56. Refer to the given figure.

The given figures represents that

(1) the skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull
(2) the baby chimpanzee did not have teeth whereas humans do
(3) sutures are present on the skull of adult human whereas in chimpanzee it is a single bone.
(4) both (1) and (3)

57. Which of the following is correct order of the evolutionary history of man ?
(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon man
(2) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Heidelberg man, Cromagnon man
(3) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon man
(4) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man,

58. What kind of evidences suggested that man is more closely related with chimpanzee than with other
hominoid apes?
(1) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only
(2) Comparison of chromosomes morphology only
(3) Evidence from fossil remains and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
(4) Evidence from banding pattern of chromosome 3 and 6

59. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
A. Edward Lewis (i) Australopithecus
B. L.S.B. Leakey (ii) Homo neanderthalensis
C. C. Fuhlrott (iii) Homo habilis
D. Raymond Dart (iv) Ramapithecus
(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
10 Kalrashukla Classes : Std. XII - Biology

60. If the Neanderthals are not the direct ancestors of humans, is it still possible for humans and Neanderthals to
be related?
(1) Yes, because we share a common ancestor
(2) Yes, but only if humans and Neanderthals could have interbred
(3) No, because the human evolutionary tree is strictly linear and without branches
(4) No, because this means that Neanderthals evolved from an entirely different branch of organisms
than humans did

61. Which of the following eras, in geological time scale, corresponds to the period when life had not originated
upon the earth?
(1) Azoic (2) Palaeozoic (3) Mesozoic (4) Archaeozoic

62. Homo sapiens arose during which epoch ?

(1) pleistocene (2) Pliocene (3) Oligocene (4) Holocene

63. Study the human evolution is called

(1) archaeology (2) anthropology (3) pedigree analysis (4) chronobiology

64. Correct sequence of stages in evolution of Modern man/Homo sapiens sapiens, is

(1) Australopithecus, Neanderthal Man, Cro-magnon man, Homo erectus, Modern Man
(2) Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Neanderthal Man, Cro-magnon Man, Modern Man
(3) Neanderthal Man, Australopithecus ,Cro-magnon man, Homo erectus, Modern Man
(4) Homo erectus, Australopithecus, Neanderthal Man, Cro-magnon Man, Modern Man

65. Which is the most recent in human evolution ?

(1) Mesolithic (2) Upper palaeolithic (3) Neolithic (4) Middle Palaeolithic

66. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by

(1) cranial capacity. (2) binocular vision (3) chromosomes (4) dental formula

67. Homo habilis refers to

(1) wandering species (2) ancient man (3) modern man (4) tool maker

68. Cranial capacity is minimum in

(1) Chimpanzee (2) Goprilla (3) Rhesus monkey (4) Orangutan

69. Which are not found in India ?

(1) New world monkeys (2) Old world monkeys
(3) Apes (4) Both (2) and (3)

70. The modern man differs from the apes in

(1) protruding eyes (2) spare body hair (3) wearing of clothes (4) arms shorter than legs

71. Which of the following is the connecting link between apes and man ?
(1) Dryopithecus (2) Homo erectus
(3) Australopithecus (4) Homo neanderthalensis

72. The hominid fossil ‘Lucy’ belongs to

(1) Australopithecus boisel (2) Australopithecus robustus
(3) Australopithecus afarensis (4) Australopithecus africanus
MCQs - Evolution 11

73. The Taung Child, discovered by

(1) C. Fuhlrott (2) Mac Gregor (3) Raymond Dart (4) Donald Johnson

74. The tailless primate is

(1) Loris (2) Lemur (3) African baboon (4) Spider monkey

75. The most recent and direct prehistoric ancestor is

(1) Cro-magnon (2) Pre-neanderthal (3) Neanderthal (4) None of the above

76. The primate, which existed 15 million years ago, among these was
(1) Homo habilis (2) Australopithecus (3) Ramapithecus (4) Homo erectus
(5) Neanderthal man [Kerala CEE 2010]

77. Which one of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man ?
(1) Homo habilis (2) Australopithecus
(3) Ramapithecus punjabicus (4) Homo neanderthalensis
[WB JEE 2011]
78. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?
(1) Shortening of jaws (2) Binocular vision
(3) Increasing brain capacity (4) Upright posture
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
79. The extinct human who lived 1, 00, 000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with
short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering
gait and stooped posture was
(1) Homo habilis (2) Neanderthal human
(3) Cro-magnon human (4) Ramapithecus
[AIPMT (Pre) 2012]
80. Homo erectus evolved during
(1) Oligocene (2) Pliocene (3) Pleistocene (4) Miocene
[WB JEE 2012]
81. Genetic drift operates in
(1) Small isolated population (2) Large isolated population
(3) non-reproductive population (4) Slow reproductive population
[NEET 2 - 2016]
82. Tendrils in plants are an example of
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Radiation
(3) Divergent evolution (4) Co-evolution [DUMET 2011]

83. Which one of the following is considered to be the first biological catalyst when life originated on earth ?
(1) RNA (2) DNA (3) Protein (4) Lipid
[Chandigarh CET 2011]
84. The period of fishes is
(1) Jurrasic (2) Devonian (3) Cretaceous (4) Silurian
[Chandigarh CET 2011]
85. Analogous organs are a result of
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Artificial selection. (4) Genetic drift
[HP PMT 2011]
12 Kalrashukla Classes : Std. XII - Biology

86. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution ?
Convergent evolution Divergent evolution
(1) Eyes of octopus and mammals Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates
(2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita Wings of butterfly and birds
(3) Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates Wings of butterfly and birds
(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita Eyes of octopus and mammals
[CBSE PMT Prelims 2012]
87. In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because
(1) Birds stopped laying eggs (2) Earthworms in the area got eradicated
(3) Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds (4) Many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch
[CBSE PMT Prelims 2012]
88. Which one of the following is a wrong statement ?
(1) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas
(2) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals
(3) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
(4) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies
[CBSE PMT Prelims 2012]
89. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas
is called
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Natural selection (3) Migration (4) Divergent evolution
[CBSE PMT (Pre) 2012]
90. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?
(1) Binocular vision (2) Increasing brain capacity
(3) Upright posture (4) Shortening of jaws
[CBSE PMT (Pre) 2012]
91. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
(1) Hardy Weinberg who worked on allele frequencies in a population
(2) Charles Darwin who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage
(3) Hugo de Vries who worked on evening primrose
(4) Gregor Mendel who worked on Pisum sativum
[CBSE PMT Prelims 2012]
92. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(A) Increase in melanised moths after industrialisation in Great Britain is a proof for natural selection.
(B) When more individuals of a population acquire a mean character value, it is called disruption
(C) Changes in allelic frequency in a population will lead to Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium
(D) Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic frequency in future generations
(1) B alone is correct (2) D alone is correct
(3) A and D alone are eorrect (4) A and C alone are correct

93. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
(1) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
(2) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
(3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Australopithecus  Homo erectus
(4) Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Ramapithecus  Homo erectus
[NEET -2 - 2016]
MCQs - Evolution 13

94. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life ?
I. Formation of protobionts
II. Synthesis of organic monomers
III. Synthesis of organic polymers
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, II, IV (3) II, III, I, IV (4) II, III, IV, I
[NEET -2 - 2016]
95. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding high milk output represents
(1) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population
(2) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(3) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(4) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
[NEET - 2017]
96. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Analogy (4) Homology [NEET - 2018]

RESPONSE SHEET (MCQs)

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Response
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Response
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Response
Question 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Response
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Response
Question 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Response
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96
Response