HR Exam Preparation Guide: Practice MCQs

Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Resource Management (HRM) and

Human Resource Planning (HRP)

This section covers the foundational concepts of HRM, its evolution, key functions, and the
strategic process of Human Resource Planning (HRP).

Basics of HRM

1.​ Who defined Human Resource Management as "the process of acquiring,

training, appraising, and compensating employees, and attending to their
labour relations, health, safety and fairness concerns"?​
A) Bratton and Gold B) Gary Dessler C) Edwin B. Flippo D) Edgar Schein Answer:
B) Gary Dessler​
Explanation: The presentation directly attributes this definition to Gary Dessler.
2.​ Bratton and Gold's (2007) definition of HRM emphasizes that leveraging
people's capabilities is critical to achieve what?​
A) Employee satisfaction B) Competitive advantages C) Cost reduction D)
Administrative efficiency Answer: B) Competitive advantages​
Explanation: Bratton and Gold's definition highlights the strategic nature of HRM in
using human capabilities to gain a competitive edge.
3.​ In the evolution of HRM, which was the earliest role, predominant between
1890-1913?​
A) Labor Manager B) Personnel Manager C) Welfare Officer D) Strategic HR Partner
Answer: C) Welfare Officer​
Explanation: The diagram on the evolution of SHRM shows the "Welfare Officer" as
the first stage from 1890-1913.
4.​ The "Personnel Management" era (1945-1979) was primarily characterized by
what kind of focus?​
A) Proactive and strategic B) Business partnering C) Administrative focus and
compliance D) Value-added activities Answer: C) Administrative focus and
compliance​
Explanation: The "Personnel Management" stage is described as having an
administrative focus, dealing with compliance, and having a traditional mindset.
5.​ Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Strategic HRM (2000-Till
now)?​
A) Business partnering B) Proactive C) Less reactive more proactive D)
Multi-disciplinary Answer: C) Less reactive more proactive​
Explanation: While Strategic HRM is proactive, the phrase "Less reactive more
proactive" is explicitly listed under the "Human Resources Management" phase
(1980-1990).
6.​ The transition from Personnel Management to Human Resources Management
(1980-1990) saw the function become:​
 A) A specialized, limited function B) A support function with an enlarged scope of
activities C) A purely compliance-focused role D) A multi-faceted, business
partnering role Answer: B) A support function with an enlarged scope of
activities​
Explanation: The chart indicates that Human Resources Management was an
administrative and support function with an enlarged scope of activities compared to
Personnel Management.
7.​ Which of the following is defined as "the detailed steps to perform a Process
activity or task"?​
A) Policy B) Process C) Procedure D) Program Answer: C) Procedure​
Explanation: A procedure outlines the specific, detailed steps for a task, often in the
form of a work instruction.
8.​ A company's set of "laws, guidelines, strategic goals and rules" for operation
is known as its:​
A) Procedure B) Process C) Policy D) Practice Answer: C) Policy​
Explanation: A policy contains the overarching rules and guidelines under which an
enterprise operates.
9.​ According to the "7 HR Management Basics" diagram, which of the following is
a core component?​
A) Industrial Relations B) Recruitment & selection C) Well-being D) Administrative
responsibilities Answer: B) Recruitment & selection​
Explanation: The "7 HR Management Basics" wheel explicitly includes Recruitment
& selection, Performance management, Learning & development, Succession
planning, Compensation & benefits, HR Information Systems, and HR data &
analytics.
10.​The "Key HR Functions" diagram shows a broader range of activities than the "7
Basics" diagram. Which of these is included in the "Key HR Functions" diagram but
not the "7 Basics"?​
A) Performance management B) Learning & development C) Industrial relations D)
Compensation & benefits Answer: C) Industrial relations​
Explanation: Industrial relations is a key function listed on the more detailed
diagram but is not one of the seven basics shown on the other chart.

Human Resource Planning (HRP)

11.​What is another term for Human Resource Planning (HRP)?​

A) Performance Management B) Workforce forecasting C) Talent Acquisition D)
Organizational Development Answer: B) Workforce forecasting​
Explanation: The slide explicitly lists "Manpower planning," "Workforce forecasting,"
and "Workforce Management" as synonymous with HRP.
12.​Workforce forecasting is the process of estimating an organization's future
staffing needs to ensure it has the right people with the right ______ at the
right time.​
A) Attitude B) Salary C) Skills D) Location Answer: C) Skills​
Explanation: The definition of workforce forecasting is ensuring the right people
with the right skills are available at the right time.
13.​Which of the following is a primary reason for conducting HRP?​
A) To reduce employee salaries B) To fulfill the organization's need for a quality
 workforce C) To increase administrative tasks D) To complicate departmental
adjustments Answer: B) To fulfill the organization's need for a quality workforce​
Explanation: One of the main purposes of HRP is to ensure the smooth and
efficient working of the organization by fulfilling its need for a quality workforce.
14.​Strategic workforce forecasting typically has what kind of outlook?​
A) A 12-month outlook B) A 1 to 5-year outlook C) A week-to-week outlook D) A
6-month outlook Answer: B) A 1 to 5-year outlook​
Explanation: Strategic forecasting is long-term, generally looking ahead 1 to 5
years.
15.​Operational workforce forecasting is primarily concerned with:​
A) Long-term strategic goals B) Competitor landscape changes C) Short-term
workforce needs D) Talent pool evolution Answer: C) Short-term workforce needs​
Explanation: Operational forecasting deals with short-term needs, typically within a
12-month outlook, and addresses things like seasonal demands or unplanned
disruptions.
16.​Which of the following is considered an EXTERNAL factor impacting
manpower forecasting?​
A) Attrition Rate B) Budget C) Industry trends D) Internal Talent mobility Answer: C)
Industry trends​
Explanation: Industry trends are an external market factor, while the other options
are internal to the organization.
17.​A company's vision, mission, and strategic business plans are considered
which type of factor in manpower forecasting?​
A) External B) Governmental C) Internal D) Demographic Answer: C) Internal​
Explanation: The organization's own strategic plans and vision are key internal
drivers of future workforce needs.
18.​What is the FIRST step in the 6-step HR planning process?​
A) Forecasting Labor Demand B) Gap Analysis C) Assessing Labor Supply D)
Analyzing Organizational Objectives Answer: D) Analyzing Organizational
Objectives​
Explanation: The HRP process begins with understanding the organization's
objectives to align the workforce plan with business strategy.
19.​What is the FINAL step in the 6-step HR planning process?​
A) Action Planning and Implementation B) Monitoring and Evaluation C) Gap
Analysis D) Forecasting Labor Demand Answer: B) Monitoring and Evaluation​
Explanation: The last step is to monitor the plan's implementation and evaluate its
effectiveness, allowing for adjustments.
20.​The step in the HR planning process where you compare the forecast of labor
demand to the assessment of labor supply is called:​
A) Gap Analysis B) Action Planning C) Demand Forecasting D) Supply Assessment
Answer: A) Gap Analysis​
Explanation: Gap analysis is the fourth step, where the difference between the
needed workforce (demand) and the available workforce (supply) is identified.

Forecasting Techniques

21.​The Delphi technique and Managerial Judgment are examples of which type of
demand forecasting method?​
 A) Quantitative B) Qualitative C) Ratio-based D) Trend-based Answer: B)
Qualitative​
Explanation: These methods rely on expert opinions and judgments rather than
purely numerical data, making them qualitative.
22.​Which quantitative forecasting method examines historical employment data to
identify patterns and assumes these past trends will continue?​
A) Trend Analysis B) Regression Analysis C) Ratio Analysis D) Delphi Technique
Answer: A) Trend Analysis​
Explanation: Trend analysis involves looking at past data over time to predict future
needs, assuming the pattern will persist.
23.​Regression analysis forecasts employee size based on its relationship with
another variable, most commonly:​
A) Attrition rate B) Sales volume C) Number of managers D) Employee satisfaction
scores Answer: B) Sales volume​
Explanation: Regression analysis in this context typically plots the relationship
between sales volume and the required workforce size.
24.​A company determines it needs one customer service representative for every 1,000
customers. This is an example of which forecasting technique?​
A) Trend Analysis B) Ratio Analysis C) Delphi Technique D) Managerial Judgment
Answer: B) Ratio Analysis​
Explanation: Ratio analysis uses a fixed relationship (ratio) between a business
factor (customers) and staffing needs.
25.​Which forecasting method involves a panel of 5 to 10 experts who engage in
systematic, iterative feedback rounds to arrive at a consensus?​
A) Managerial Judgment B) Regression Analysis C) Delphi Technique D) Markov
Analysis Answer: C) Delphi Technique​
Explanation: The Delphi technique is specifically defined as an iterative forecasting
method using a panel of experts to reach a qualitative consensus.
26.​Which of the following is a method for forecasting the INTERNAL supply of
labor?​
A) Regression Analysis B) Labor market forecast C) Markov Analysis D) Delphi
Technique Answer: C) Markov Analysis​
Explanation: Markov analysis is a quantitative technique used to predict the internal
movement of employees (promotions, transfers, exits) and thus forecast internal
labor supply.
27.​A _______ identifies possible replacements for key positions that may become
vacant.​
A) Skill inventory B) Replacement chart C) Trend analysis D) Attrition chart Answer:
B) Replacement chart​
Explanation: A replacement chart is a visual tool that maps out potential internal
candidates for key roles.
28.​A detailed database of employee skills, qualifications, and career interests is
known as a:​
A) Replacement chart B) Markov analysis C) Skill inventory D) Organizational chart
Answer: C) Skill inventory​
Explanation: A skill inventory is a comprehensive record of the capabilities of the
current workforce, used for forecasting internal supply.
Gap Analysis and Solutions

29.​When labor demand is greater than labor supply, the organization is facing a:​
A) Labour Equilibrium B) Labour Surplus C) Labour Shortage D) Labour Stagnation
Answer: C) Labour Shortage​
Explanation: A labor shortage occurs when the organization needs more
employees than it has available.
30.​Which of the following is a possible solution for a Labour SURPLUS?​
A) Scheduling overtime hours B) Hiring temporary workers C) A hiring freeze D)
External recruitment Answer: C) A hiring freeze​
Explanation: When there is a labor surplus (more employees than needed), a hiring
freeze is a common strategy to reduce the workforce through natural attrition without
new hires.
31.​Early retirement buyout programs and job sharing are strategies used to
address a:​
A) Labour Shortage B) Labour Surplus C) Labour Equilibrium D) Skill Gap Answer:
B) Labour Surplus​
Explanation: These are methods to reduce the number of employees or total
working hours when an organization has more staff than required.
32.​Hiring temporary workers and subcontracting work are potential solutions for
what condition?​
A) Labour Shortage B) Labour Surplus C) Labour Equilibrium D) High Attrition
Answer: A) Labour Shortage​
Explanation: When demand for labor exceeds supply, companies often use
temporary workers or outsource work to fill the gap.
33.​Which of the following is NOT listed as a major challenge in HRP?​
A) Data quality and availability B) Alignment with business goals C) Excessive
employee training D) Market Dynamics Answer: C) Excessive employee training​
Explanation: The presentation lists data quality, accurate forecasting, alignment
with goals, and market dynamics as key challenges. Employee training is a result of
HRP, not a challenge to the process itself.

Scenario-Based Questions

34.​Based on the "Edu Smart Coaching" case study, what is the total demand for
new employees to staff the 10 new centers?​
A) 50 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120 Answer: C) 100​
Explanation: The demand is calculated as (5 faculty + 3 counselors + 2 admin) x 10
new centers = 10 employees/center x 10 centers = 100 employees.
35.​In the "Edu Smart Coaching" case, the annual attrition for the existing 100 faculty
members is 10%. How many faculty members are lost to attrition annually?​
A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 Answer: B) 10​
Explanation: The calculation is 100 faculty members * 10% attrition rate = 10 faculty
members.
36.​According to the Gap Analysis in the "Edu Smart Coaching" solution, how
many new counselors need to be hired externally?​
A) 3 B) 27 C) 30 D) 33 Answer: B) 27​
 Explanation: The demand for counselors is 30. The net internal supply is 3. The
gap to be filled via hiring is 30 - 3 = 27.
37.​A company's sales have increased by 20% each year for the past 5 years, and
for every 5% increase in sales, they have hired 2 new salespeople. To forecast
the need for salespeople next year, the HR manager projects another 20% sales
increase and plans to hire 8 more salespeople. This is an example of: A) Delphi
Technique B) Trend and Ratio Analysis C) Markov Analysis D) Managerial Judgment
Answer: B) Trend and Ratio Analysis​
Explanation: The manager is using the past trend of sales growth (Trend Analysis)
and the established relationship between sales and staff (Ratio Analysis) to forecast
future needs.
38.​A manager is shown a chart with names of potential candidates for a VP position,
their ages, a performance rating (e.g., "E" for Excellent), and a promotion potential
rating (e.g., "R" for Ready Now). What supply forecasting tool is the manager using?​
A) A skill inventory B) A replacement chart C) A Markov analysis matrix D) A
regression plot Answer: B) A replacement chart​
Explanation: This describes the exact components and purpose of a replacement
chart as shown in the presentation.
39.​An organization has more employees than it needs to achieve its business
objectives. This situation is known as a ________.​
A) Labour shortage B) Labour surplus C) Labour equilibrium D) Skill deficit Answer:
B) Labour surplus​
Explanation: A labor surplus occurs when the supply of labor is greater than the
demand.
40.​The ABS corp caselet states the company wants to grow revenues by 30% without
changing its business focus or geographical area. Which job categories would you
likely focus your staffing plans on to achieve this growth?​
A) Administrative and support staff B) Sales, underwriting, and client relationship
roles C) Human resources and training staff D) IT and infrastructure support Answer:
B) Sales, underwriting, and client relationship roles Explanation: To grow
revenue in an insurance company, the primary focus would be on functions that
directly drive business acquisition and client management, such as sales and
underwriting.
41.​The final stage of the HRP process, "Monitoring and Evaluation," involves:​
A) Setting organizational objectives B) Assessing the effectiveness of the HRP and
making adjustments C) Deciding whether to hire internally or externally D)
Calculating the exact number of employees to hire Answer: B) Assessing the
effectiveness of the HRP and making adjustments​
Explanation: This step ensures the plan is working as intended and allows for
corrective action.
42.​According to the chart on the evolution of SHRM, the "Globalization" era
corresponds with the rise of:​
A) Personnel Management B) Human Resources Management C) Strategic HRM D)
Labor Management Answer: C) Strategic HRM​
Explanation: The timeline shows that the period from 2000 onwards, marked by
globalization, is the era of Strategic HRM.
43.​A "series of activities or tasks that obtain a desired business outcome" and is
"usually cross-functional" is the definition of a:​
 A) Policy B) Procedure C) Process D) Program Answer: C) Process​
Explanation: A process is a collection of related, structured activities or tasks by
people or equipment in which a specific sequence produces a service or product for
a particular customer or customers.
44.​Which of the following would be an example of an action taken during a labor
shortage?​
A) Layoffs B) Reduced workweek programs C) Internal promotions or transfers D) A
hiring freeze Answer: C) Internal promotions or transfers​
Explanation: During a shortage, promoting or transferring existing qualified
employees is a way to fill vacant positions.
45.​What is a major benefit of strategic HR planning?​
A) It increases the administrative burden on the HR department. B) It ensures the
right talent is available at the right time. C) It decreases organizational flexibility. D) It
focuses only on short-term hiring needs. Answer: B) It ensures the right talent is
available at the right time.​
Explanation: A key benefit is aligning the talent strategy with business needs to
ensure the organization has the necessary skills when needed.
46.​What does a Markov Analysis matrix show?​
A) The relationship between sales and workforce size. B) The percentage of
employees who move from one job to another over time. C) The skills and
qualifications of individual employees. D) The potential candidates for a specific
leadership position. Answer: B) The percentage of employees who move from
one job to another over time.​
Explanation: It's a statistical technique that tracks the movement of employees
among different job classifications, including exits, to forecast internal supply.
47.​Forecasting demand based on "Managerial Judgment" relies on:​
A) A statistical formula B) The opinions and expertise of managers and department
heads C) Historical staffing trends D) A panel of external experts Answer: B) The
opinions and expertise of managers and department heads​
Explanation: This qualitative method uses the knowledge of internal leaders who
are aware of the organization's manpower needs.
48.​In the 6-step HRP process, "Action Planning and Implementation" (Step 5)
involves:​
A) Analyzing the organization's strategic goals. B) Identifying a surplus or shortage
of labor. C) Developing and executing plans to close the labor gap. D) Checking if the
plan was successful. Answer: C) Developing and executing plans to close the
labor gap.​
Explanation: This is the implementation phase where the strategies decided upon
during gap analysis (e.g., recruitment, training, downsizing) are put into action.
49.​In the "Edu Smart Coaching" case study, the total internal supply of trained
employees available for relocation BEFORE accounting for attrition is:​
A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 100 Answer: B) 20​
Explanation: The case explicitly states there are an "additional 20 trained
employees (10 teachers, 6 counselors and 4 admin staff) available for relocation".
50.​Which of the following is NOT an INTERNAL factor affecting HR supply
forecasting?​
A) Rates of promotion and transfer B) Labor market forecast C) Productivity changes
D) Organizational structure Answer: B) Labor market forecast​
 Explanation: Labor market forecasts are an external factor, while the others are
internal dynamics of the organization that affect its own supply of human resources.

Chapter 2: Training & Development (T&D)

This section covers the process of enhancing employee skills and preparing them for future
roles, from needs analysis to program evaluation.

Fundamentals of T&D

51.​Which term describes a systematic process of enhancing skills and knowledge

for an employee's current job performance?​
A) Development B) Training C) Orientation D) Onboarding Answer: B) Training​
Explanation: Training is defined as being short-term and focused on improving
performance in the current role.
52.​What is the primary focus of Development in the context of HRM?​
A) Improving performance on immediate tasks B) A broader, long-term process for
future roles and responsibilities C) Fulfilling compliance and legal requirements D)
Onboarding new employees into the company culture Answer: B) A broader,
long-term process for future roles and responsibilities​
Explanation: Development is long-term and aims to prepare employees for future
challenges and career progression.
53.​Which of the following is a primary objective of T&D?​
A) To increase employee turnover B) To address skill gaps caused by evolving
technology C) To reduce employee engagement D) To create budget limitations for
the company Answer: B) To address skill gaps caused by evolving technology​
Explanation: A key objective of T&D is to close skill gaps, ensuring the workforce
remains current and capable.
54.​Providing development opportunities for an analyst to learn leadership skills to
become a team lead is an example of which T&D objective?​
A) Improve Employee Performance B) Address Skill Gaps C) Support Career
Progression D) Maintain a Competitive Edge Answer: C) Support Career
Progression​
Explanation: This activity directly helps an employee acquire skills needed for a
promotion, thus supporting their career progression.
55.​How does effective T&D contribute to a company's competitive advantage?​
A) By ensuring all employees are paid the same B) By helping the analytics team
find unique insights that competitors miss C) By reducing the number of employees
in the company D) By focusing only on administrative training Answer: B) By
helping the analytics team find unique insights that competitors miss​
Explanation: A highly skilled team, nurtured through T&D, can provide unique data
insights, leading to innovative strategies and a competitive advantage.

Training Needs Analysis (TNA)

56.​What is the primary purpose of a Training Needs Analysis (TNA)?​

A) To design the final evaluation of a training program B) To select the external
 trainers for a workshop C) To identify the gap between current and desired
performance levels D) To calculate the Return on Investment (ROI) of training
Answer: C) To identify the gap between current and desired performance levels​
Explanation: TNA is a systematic process specifically used to identify performance
gaps to determine training needs.
57.​Examining the organization's overarching data strategy and business goals to
identify broad training priorities is conducted at which level of TNA?​
A) Person Analysis B) Task/Operational Analysis C) Organizational Analysis D)
Strategic Analysis Answer: C) Organizational Analysis​
Explanation: Organizational analysis focuses on the entire organization's goals and
strategy to set training priorities.
58.​An HR manager analyzes the specific SQL queries and A/B testing methods required
for a marketing campaign analyst role. This is an example of:​
A) Person Analysis B) Task/Operational Analysis C) Organizational Analysis D)
Individual Analysis Answer: B) Task/Operational Analysis​
Explanation: This level of analysis focuses on the specific tasks and skills required
to perform a particular job role effectively.
59.​A manager reviews a junior analyst's project work and finds they are struggling to
build a specific type of data model. This assessment is part of which TNA level?​
A) Person Analysis B) Task/Operational Analysis C) Organizational Analysis D) Role
Analysis Answer: A) Person Analysis​
Explanation: Person analysis assesses an individual employee's current skills
against their job requirements to identify specific training needs.
60.​Which of the following is a common method or tool used for conducting a
TNA?​
A) Calculating the training budget B) Analyzing performance metrics like the
accuracy of predictive models C) Hiring a new training manager D) Creating a
training schedule Answer: B) Analyzing performance metrics like the accuracy
of predictive models​
Explanation: Performance metrics, skill audits, code reviews, and manager
interviews are all listed as methods for gathering data during a TNA.

Training Program Design

61.​In the SMART framework for setting training objectives, what does the 'M'
stand for?​
A) Meaningful B) Managerial C) Motivational D) Measurable Answer: D)
Measurable​
Explanation: 'M' stands for Measurable, ensuring that the outcome of the training
can be quantified.
62.​Which of the following training objectives is the most "Specific" according to
the SMART criteria?​
A) "Employees will get better at their jobs." B) "Trainees will be able to build a
predictive model using the scikit-learn library in Python." C) "Improve the team's
technical skills." D) "Increase team motivation within the next quarter." Answer: B)
"Trainees will be able to build a predictive model using the scikit-learn library
in Python."​
 Explanation: This objective clearly states what the trainee will be able to do, using
which specific tool, making it highly specific.
63.​The ADDIE model is a framework for instructional design. What does the 'I' stand
for?​
A) Information B) Instruction C) Implementation D) Insight Answer: C)
Implementation​
Explanation: The five stages of the ADDIE model are Analysis, Design,
Development, Implementation, and Evaluation.
64.​Creating presentations, hands-on labs, and a facilitator guide happens during
which phase of the ADDIE model?​
A) Analysis B) Design C) Development D) Evaluation Answer: C) Development​
Explanation: The Development phase is where the actual training materials and
resources are created based on the design plan.

Training Methods and Delivery

65.​A senior data scientist guiding a junior analyst on building a complex model is
an example of which on-the-job training (OJT) method?​
A) Job Rotation B) Apprenticeship C) Mentoring D) Coaching Answer: D) Coaching​
Explanation: Coaching involves an experienced person providing guidance and
instruction on specific job tasks.
66.​An analyst spending time with the finance team and then moving to the
marketing team to learn about their data needs is an example of:​
A) Job Rotation B) Coaching C) Simulation D) Case Study Answer: A) Job
Rotation​
Explanation: Job rotation involves moving an employee through different jobs or
departments to widen their experience.
67.​Using platforms like Coursera or Datacamp for self-paced learning on topics
like machine learning is an example of which training method?​
A) On-the-Job Training B) Simulation C) E-learning/Online Courses D) Role-playing
Answer: C) E-learning/Online Courses​
Explanation: This is a form of off-the-job training where learning is delivered
electronically.
68.​A financial services company uses a trading simulation with past market data to train
new analysts in a consequence-free environment. This method is called:​
A) Case Study B) Role-playing C) Simulation D) E-learning Answer: C) Simulation​
Explanation: A simulation creates a realistic imitation of a job environment for
training purposes, which is highly effective for building practical skills.
69.​According to the presentation, creating an environment where analysts feel
safe to share code for peer review and ask for help is an example of:​
A) Physical Space B) Psychological Safety C) Internal Training D) Engagement
Technique Answer: B) Psychological Safety​
Explanation: Psychological safety in a learning environment is crucial for
encouraging participation, collaboration, and effective learning.

Evaluation of Training
 70.​In Kirkpatrick's Four-Level Model of training evaluation, which level measures
participant satisfaction with the training?​
A) Level 1: Reaction B) Level 2: Learning C) Level 3: Behavior D) Level 4: Results
Answer: A) Level 1: Reaction​
Explanation: Level 1 focuses on the immediate reaction of participants and whether
they found the training favorable and relevant.
71.​A post-training coding challenge is used to assess if participants acquired the
intended skills. This is an example of which level of Kirkpatrick's model?​
A) Level 1: Reaction B) Level 2: Learning C) Level 3: Behavior D) Level 4: Results
Answer: B) Level 2: Learning​
Explanation: Level 2 evaluation measures the degree to which participants
acquired the intended knowledge, skills, and attitudes.
72.​A manager observes that an analyst has started using the new data visualization
techniques from a recent workshop in their monthly reports. This evaluation falls
under:​
A) Level 1: Reaction B) Level 2: Learning C) Level 3: Behavior D) Level 4: Results
Answer: C) Level 3: Behavior​
Explanation: Level 3 measures whether the learning has been transferred to the job
and if behaviors have changed.
73.​A company measures a 5% reduction in customer churn after a training program on
predictive modeling. This is an evaluation at which Kirkpatrick level?​
A) Level 1: Reaction B) Level 2: Learning C) Level 3: Behavior D) Level 4: Results
Answer: D) Level 4: Results​
Explanation: Level 4 measures the tangible impact of the training on business
outcomes and the company's bottom line.
74.​A training program cost $10,000 and resulted in process improvements that
saved the company $50,000. What is the Return on Investment (ROI)? A) 100%
B) 200% C) 400% D) 500% Answer: C) 400%​
Explanation: The formula is (Benefits - Cost) / Cost * 100. So, ($50,000 - $10,000) /
$10,000 * 100 = $40,000 / $10,000 * 100 = 4 * 100 = 400%.

Challenges and Future Trends

75.​A significant challenge where employees learn new skills but do not apply
them back on the job is known as:​
A) Low ROI B) Lack of Management Support C) Low Transfer of Learning D) Budget
Limitations Answer: C) Low Transfer of Learning​
Explanation: This challenge, where skills aren't applied post-training, is referred to
as a low transfer of learning.
76.​Which emerging trend in T&D involves providing short, bite-sized lessons on
specific functions or topics?​
A) Personalized Learning Paths B) AR/VR C) Microlearning D) Learning Experience
Platforms (LXPs) Answer: C) Microlearning​
Explanation: Microlearning breaks down content into small, focused, and easily
digestible segments.
77.​What is a Learning Experience Platform (LXP)?​
A) A physical room for training B) A next-generation platform offering personalized
content feeds and social learning features C) A method for evaluating training
 effectiveness D) A type of on-the-job training Answer: B) A next-generation
platform offering personalized content feeds and social learning features​
Explanation: LXPs are advanced platforms that use AI to create personalized and
social learning experiences, going beyond simple course delivery.
78.​A manager provides an analyst with a 2-minute video tutorial on their phone
explaining a specific coding function right when they need it. This is an example of:​
A) Virtual Reality (VR) Training B) Mobile Learning (M-learning) C) Classroom
Training D) Mentoring Answer: B) Mobile Learning (M-learning)​
Explanation: M-learning leverages mobile devices to provide access to learning
materials anytime and anywhere.
79.​A company's TNA reveals that while the organization is shifting towards AI, the
current data science team lacks expertise in machine learning. This finding is a
result of which level of analysis? A) Organizational and Person Analysis B) Task
and Role Analysis C) Individual and Team Analysis D) Environmental and Strategic
Analysis Answer: A) Organizational and Person Analysis​
Explanation: The need for AI skills is identified at the Organizational level (strategic
shift) , while the specific lack of expertise is found at the Person level (assessing the
team's current skills).
80.​The primary difference between coaching and mentoring is: A) Coaching is
long-term, while mentoring is short-term B) Coaching is task-oriented, while
mentoring is career-oriented C) Coaching is always done by an external expert, while
mentoring is internal D) Coaching focuses on technical skills, while mentoring
focuses on soft skills Answer: B) Coaching is task-oriented, while mentoring is
career-oriented​
Explanation: Coaching is typically focused on improving performance in a specific
task or role (e.g., building a model) , while mentoring is a broader, long-term
relationship focused on overall career guidance.
81.​An organization wants to train its marketing team on a new customer lifetime value
(CLV) model to support a new retention strategy. This T&D program would be directly
aligned with:​
A) Employee personal goals B) General industry trends C) Key strategic business
initiatives D) Individual performance reviews Answer: C) Key strategic business
initiatives​
Explanation: This is a clear example of designing a T&D program to support a
specific, high-level business goal.
82.​In the ADDIE model, the "Analysis" phase corresponds most closely with
which other HR process?​
A) Performance appraisal B) Compensation design C) Training Needs Analysis
(TNA) D) Employee onboarding Answer: C) Training Needs Analysis (TNA)​
Explanation: The Analysis phase of ADDIE is where the training needs are
identified , which is the purpose of a TNA.
83.​Which of the following would be the best method to train a risk analytics team
on how to respond to a sudden market downturn?​
A) A self-paced e-learning module on market history B) A simulation using a
real-time stream of financial data C) A lecture from a senior manager D) Job rotation
into the accounting department Answer: B) A simulation using a real-time stream
of financial data​
 Explanation: A simulation provides the most effective, hands-on, and realistic
training for a complex, real-time decision-making scenario.
84.​A training program's objective is: "Within three weeks, analysts will be able to use
Tableau to create a sales dashboard with 95% accuracy." Which part of the SMART
framework does "95% accuracy" represent?​
A) Specific B) Measurable C) Achievable D) Time-bound Answer: B) Measurable​
Explanation: "95% accuracy" provides a clear, quantifiable metric to measure the
success of the training.
85.​Using polls and live coding sessions during a virtual workshop are examples
of:​
A) Evaluation methods B) Engagement techniques C) TNA tools D) On-the-job
training Answer: B) Engagement techniques​
Explanation: These are interactive tools used by trainers to keep learners engaged
and actively participating in the session.
86.​A key challenge in T&D is "Lack of Management Support." How might this manifest?​
A) A manager assigns too many employees to a training program. B) A manager
does not provide the time or resources for the team to use newly learned skills. C) A
manager sets training objectives that are too easy to achieve. D) A manager gives
overly positive feedback on the training program. Answer: B) A manager does not
provide the time or resources for the team to use newly learned skills.​
Explanation: If a manager doesn't value the training, they won't support its
application in the workplace, leading to a low transfer of learning.
87.​The primary goal of internal trainers (Subject Matter Experts) is to deliver
training that is:​
A) Highly theoretical and academic B) Relevant to the company's specific data,
tools, and challenges C) Focused on general, non-technical skills D) Cheaper than
any external option Answer: B) Relevant to the company's specific data, tools,
and challenges​
Explanation: Internal SMEs are valuable because they can provide highly
contextualized and immediately applicable training.
88.​A "blended approach" to training design might involve:​
A) Using only on-the-job training methods B) Combining self-paced online modules
with an in-person workshop and a final project C) Having both internal and external
trainers for the same session D) Evaluating the training at all four of Kirkpatrick's
levels Answer: B) Combining self-paced online modules with an in-person
workshop and a final project​
Explanation: A blended approach mixes different delivery methods (e.g., online,
in-person, project-based) to cater to different learning styles and content types.
89.​What is the most powerful measure of training effectiveness according to
Kirkpatrick's model?​
A) Positive feedback on the end-of-course survey B) High scores on the
post-training quiz C) Observable changes in employee behavior on the job D) A
direct, measurable link between the training and the company's bottom line Answer:
D) A direct, measurable link between the training and the company's bottom
line​
Explanation: Level 4 (Results) is the most significant because it demonstrates the
tangible business value and financial impact of the training investment.
 90.​Using Augmented/Virtual Reality (AR/VR) in T&D for data analysts would be
most useful for:​
A) Teaching basic Python syntax B) Visualizing complex, multi-dimensional data in a
3D space C) Practicing presentation skills D) Learning company policies Answer: B)
Visualizing complex, multi-dimensional data in a 3D space​
Explanation: AR/VR offers unique opportunities for analysts to interact with and
understand complex data in an immersive way.

Chapter 3: Job Analysis and Job Design

This section explores the systematic process of gathering information about jobs (Job
Analysis) and structuring them to enhance motivation and productivity (Job Design).

Job Analysis Fundamentals

91.​What is Job Analysis?​

A) The process of hiring new employees B) A system for appraising employee
performance C) A process by which information about jobs is systematically gathered
and organized D) The method for determining employee compensation Answer: C)
A process by which information about jobs is systematically gathered and
organized​
Explanation: Job analysis is the foundational process of studying a job to determine
its duties, tasks, and requirements.
92.​The procedure for determining the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job,
and the human attributes required, is known as:​
A) Job Evaluation B) Job Design C) Job Analysis D) Job Rotation Answer: C) Job
Analysis​
Explanation: This is the detailed definition of job analysis provided in the
presentation.
93.​The qualities workers need to do the job, such as knowledge, skills, and
abilities, are known as:​
A) Work activities B) Work context C) Worker attributes D) Work outcomes Answer:
C) Worker attributes​
Explanation: Job analysis data is categorized into work activities, work context, and
worker attributes (the human requirements).
94.​A list of the duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships, and working
conditions of a job is called a:​
A) Job Specification B) Job Description C) Job Analysis D) Job Evaluation Answer:
B) Job Description​
Explanation: The Job Description (JD) focuses on the "what" of the job—its tasks
and responsibilities.
95.​A list of the "human requirements," such as the requisite knowledge, skills,
and abilities needed to perform a job, is called a:​
A) Job Specification B) Job Description C) Job Summary D) Job Title Answer: A)
Job Specification​
 Explanation: The Job Specification (JS) focuses on the "who" of the job—the
qualifications and attributes of the person needed.
96.​Which of the following would most likely be found in a Job Description?​
A) Required educational qualifications B) Necessary years of experience C) A list of
job duties D) Required skills and training Answer: C) A list of job duties​
Explanation: Job duties are a core component of the Job Description, while the
other options belong in the Job Specification.
97.​Which of the following would be found in a Job Specification?​
A) Job Title B) Reporting to C) Working Conditions D) Qualifications Answer: D)
Qualifications​
Explanation: Qualifications, experience, skills, and training are all part of the Job
Specification.
98.​Job analysis information is used for many HR activities. Which of the following is
NOT listed as a direct use?​
A) Recruitment & selection B) Training & development C) Company-wide budget
allocation D) Performance appraisal Answer: C) Company-wide budget allocation​
Explanation: The diagram shows that job analysis informs most HR functions like
recruitment, T&D, compensation, and performance appraisal, but not the overall
company budget.

Job Design

99.​The process of organizing and structuring tasks, duties, and responsibilities to

achieve specific objectives while optimizing employee performance and
satisfaction is known as:​
A) Job Analysis B) Job Design C) Job Evaluation D) Job Simplification Answer: B)
Job Design​
Explanation: Job design is the process of deciding on the content and structure of a
job role.
100.​ According to Hackman & Oldham's Job Characteristics Theory, which of
the following is a "Core Job Dimension"?​
A) High internal work motivation B) Experienced meaningfulness of the work C) Skill
variety D) High satisfaction with work Answer: C) Skill variety​
Explanation: The five core job dimensions are Skill Variety, Task Identity, Task
Significance, Autonomy, and Feedback.
101.​ In the Job Characteristics Theory, Skill Variety, Task Identity, and Task
Significance collectively contribute to which "Critical Psychological State"?​
A) Experienced responsibility for outcomes of the work B) Experienced
meaningfulness of the work C) Knowledge of the actual results D) High internal work
motivation Answer: B) Experienced meaningfulness of the work​
Explanation: The model shows that these three dimensions lead to the feeling that
the work is meaningful.
102.​ The core job dimension of "Autonomy" directly leads to which
psychological state?​
A) Experienced meaningfulness of the work B) Experienced responsibility for
outcomes of the work C) Knowledge of the actual results D) Low absenteeism and
turnover Answer: B) Experienced responsibility for outcomes of the work​
 Explanation: Autonomy, or the freedom to do one's work, fosters a sense of
responsibility for the results.
103.​ The Motivating Potential Score (MPS) formula gives the most weight to
which two factors?​
A) Skill Variety and Task Identity B) Task Significance and Feedback C) Autonomy
and Feedback D) Skill Variety and Task Significance Answer: C) Autonomy and
Feedback Explanation: The MPS formula is ([Skill Variety + Task Identity + Task
Significance]/3) * Autonomy * Feedback. Since Autonomy and Feedback are
multipliers, a score of zero in either results in an MPS of zero, giving them the most
weight.
104.​ Which job design strategy involves moving employees from one job to
another to increase variety and reduce boredom?​
A) Job Simplification B) Job Enlargement C) Job Enrichment D) Job Rotation
Answer: D) Job Rotation Explanation: Job rotation involves periodically shifting
employees between jobs of similar skill levels.
105.​ Adding more tasks at the same level of responsibility and skill to a job is
known as:​
A) Job Simplification B) Job Enlargement C) Job Enrichment D) Job Rotation
Answer: B) Job Enlargement Explanation: Job enlargement is the horizontal
expansion of a job, increasing the number and variety of tasks.
106.​ Which job design strategy focuses on the vertical expansion of a job by
adding depth, meaning, autonomy, and responsibility?​
A) Job Simplification B) Job Enlargement C) Job Enrichment D) Job Rotation
Answer: C) Job Enrichment​
Explanation: Job enrichment adds motivating factors like greater responsibility and
control, representing a vertical expansion of the role.
107.​ Breaking down a job into its simplest components and assigning them to
different workers is:​
A) Job Simplification B) Job Enlargement C) Job Enrichment D) Job Rotation
Answer: A) Job Simplification Explanation: This strategy focuses on making jobs
as simple and repetitive as possible to increase efficiency.

Job Analysis Methods/Frameworks

108.​ Which standardized job analysis tool uses a questionnaire to compare and
classify jobs based on worker behavior in areas like "Information input" and
"Mental processes"?​
A) Functional Job Analysis (FJA) B) Competency Modeling C) Position Analysis
Questionnaire (PAQ) D) Task Inventory Approach Answer: C) Position Analysis
Questionnaire (PAQ)​
Explanation: The PAQ is a structured questionnaire that focuses on quantifiable
worker behaviors across six major sections.
109.​ Which job analysis technique focuses on what workers do in relation to
"Things," "Data," and "People"?​
A) Functional Job Analysis (FJA) B) Competency Modeling C) Position Analysis
Questionnaire (PAQ) D) Task Inventory Approach Answer: A) Functional Job
Analysis (FJA)​
 Explanation: FJA is specifically designed to analyze jobs based on the worker's
interaction level with data, people, and things.
110.​ A company defines a set of core behaviors like "Strategic Thinking" and
"Innovation" required for successful performance across many roles. This approach
is called:​
A) Functional Job Analysis (FJA) B) Competency Modeling C) Position Analysis
Questionnaire (PAQ) D) Task Inventory Approach Answer: B) Competency
Modeling​
Explanation: Competency modeling focuses on the underlying behaviors and traits
needed for success, rather than just the tasks performed.
111.​ An HR analyst breaks down the role of a Front Desk Executive into a detailed list
of all tasks, rating each one on frequency, importance, and difficulty. This is an
example of:​
A) Functional Job Analysis (FJA) B) Competency Modeling C) Position Analysis
Questionnaire (PAQ) D) Task Inventory Approach Answer: D) Task Inventory
Approach​
Explanation: This method involves creating an exhaustive list of tasks and rating
them on various scales to understand the job's composition.
112.​ In the competency model for a Digital Marketing Manager, the ability to
"align digital marketing goals with company strategy" is defined as which type
of competency?​
A) Functional Competency B) Leadership Competency C) Behavioral Competency
D) Core Competency Answer: D) Core Competency​
Explanation: The example table classifies "Strategic Thinking" and
"Communication" as Core Competencies applicable across the organization.
113.​ "Deep understanding of digital tools like Google Ads, Meta Ads, SEO" for a
Digital Marketing Manager is classified as what kind of competency?​
A) Functional Competency B) Leadership Competency C) Behavioral Competency
D) Core Competency Answer: A) Functional Competency​
Explanation: This is a technical, job-specific skill, which makes it a functional
competency.
114.​ A manager redesigns a customer service role. Originally, the employee only
answered phones. Now, they are also authorized to issue refunds up to $50,
trained to handle escalated complaints, and asked to provide weekly feedback
on customer issues. This is an example of: A) Job Rotation B) Job Enlargement
C) Job Enrichment D) Job Simplification Answer: C) Job Enrichment​
Explanation: The redesign increases autonomy, responsibility, and feedback, which
are key elements of job enrichment (vertical loading).
115.​ The same customer service employee is now asked to also handle
incoming support emails and live chats, in addition to phone calls. The tasks
are at the same skill and responsibility level. This is an example of: A) Job
Rotation B) Job Enlargement C) Job Enrichment D) Job Simplification Answer: B)
Job Enlargement​
Explanation: This is a horizontal expansion of the job, adding more tasks at the
same level without increasing responsibility or autonomy.
116.​ In Hackman & Oldham's theory, "Feedback" contributes to which
psychological state?​
A) Experienced meaningfulness of the work B) Experienced responsibility for
 outcomes C) Knowledge of the actual results of the work activities D) High internal
work motivation Answer: C) Knowledge of the actual results of the work
activities​
Explanation: Feedback provides the employee with direct information about their
performance, leading to knowledge of the results.
117.​ Which job analysis method is particularly valuable for government jobs and
large-scale workforce planning?​
A) Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) B) Functional Job Analysis (FJA) C)
Competency Modeling D) Task Inventory Approach Answer: B) Functional Job
Analysis (FJA)​
Explanation: The presentation notes that FJA is especially valuable in these
contexts.
118.​ The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is used to collect what type of
data on job activities?​
A) Qualitative B) Anecdotal C) Quantifiable D) Hypothetical Answer: C)
Quantifiable​
Explanation: The PAQ is a structured tool designed to collect quantifiable data that
allows for statistical comparison between jobs.
119.​ According to the job redesign graphic, if it's technically possible to
automate 10 tasks and the adoption rate by 2030 is 70%, how many tasks will
actually be automated?​
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 Answer: C) 7​
Explanation: The graphic indicates that 70% of the technical potential will be
realized, so 70% of 10 tasks is 7 tasks.
120.​ A Job Enrichment Matrix is a tool used to:​
A) Simplify a job to its core components. B) Map out how an existing job role can be
enhanced. C) Compare the salaries of different jobs. D) Rotate employees between
different roles. Answer: B) Map out how an existing job role can be enhanced.​
Explanation: It's a structured tool for planning the vertical expansion and
enhancement of a job role.
121.​ High quality work performance and low absenteeism are listed as what in
the Job Characteristics Model?​
A) Core Job Dimensions B) Critical Psychological States C) Personal and Work
Outcomes D) Individual Needs Answer: C) Personal and Work Outcomes​
Explanation: These are the desired results that stem from employees experiencing
the critical psychological states.
122.​ The "Individual's Need for Growth" in the Job Characteristics Model acts as
a: A) Core Dimension B) Psychological State C) Work Outcome D) Moderator
Answer: D) Moderator Explanation: This factor influences the strength of the
relationships between the core dimensions, psychological states, and outcomes.
Individuals with a high need for growth will respond more positively to enriched jobs.
123.​ The "Who, What, Where, When, Why, How" of a job ultimately defines its:​
A) Salary Grade B) Ultimate Job Structure C) Performance Review D) Training Plan
Answer: B) Ultimate Job Structure​
Explanation: The diagram shows how these questions, along with the
characteristics of the workforce, combine to create the final job structure.
124.​ In the Task Inventory for a Front Desk Executive, "Greet and check-in patients"
received the highest possible ratings for both frequency (5) and importance (5). This
 suggests the task is:​
A) A minor, occasional duty. B) A core and critical responsibility of the job. C) A
difficult task that is rarely performed. D) A task that should be automated. Answer:
B) A core and critical responsibility of the job. Explanation: The high ratings in
both frequency and importance indicate that this is a central and essential part of the
role.
125.​ Which competency type for the Digital Marketing Manager includes "Agility
& Adaptability"?​
A) Core Competency B) Functional Competency C) Leadership Competency D)
Behavioral Competency Answer: D) Behavioral Competency​
Explanation: The table categorizes "Agility & Adaptability" as a Behavioral
Competency.

Chapter 4: Career Planning & Development

This section focuses on the individual and organizational processes involved in managing an
employee's work life and progression.

Career Fundamentals

126.​ Which term refers to an individual's overall work history, including the
sequence of jobs held within a chosen field?​
A) Job B) Position C) Career D) Occupation Answer: C) Career​
Explanation: A career is defined as the sequence of jobs an individual holds
throughout their life.
127.​ Holland's Theory of Career Choice, also known as the RIASEC model,
suggests that career satisfaction depends on the match between a person's
personality and their:​
A) Salary expectations B) Job environment C) Manager's leadership style D)
Commute time Answer: B) Job environment​
Explanation: The theory posits that a good fit between personality type and work
environment leads to higher satisfaction and success.
128.​ In the RIASEC model, what does the 'A' stand for?​
A) Analytical B) Ambitious C) Artistic D) Administrative Answer: C) Artistic​
Explanation: The 'A' in RIASEC stands for Artistic, describing individuals who are
creative, expressive, and unstructured.
129.​ A person who is practical, hands-on, and physically active would best fit
which Holland personality type?​
A) Realistic (R) B) Investigative (I) C) Social (S) D) Enterprising (E) Answer: A)
Realistic (R)​
Explanation: The Realistic type is characterized by a preference for hands-on,
practical work.
130.​ According to Holland's theory, a career as a teacher or counselor would be
a good fit for which personality type?​
A) Conventional (C) B) Enterprising (E) C) Artistic (A) D) Social (S) Answer: D)
Social (S)​
 Explanation: The Social type is described as supportive, communicative, and
helpful, which aligns with careers like teaching and counseling.
131.​ Who is ultimately responsible for an individual's professional and career
development?​
A) Human Resources B) The direct supervisor or manager C) The individual
employee D) The company's CEO Answer: C) The individual employee​
Explanation: The presentation emphasizes that individuals are responsible for their
own career development.
132.​ Helping employees plan their careers in terms of their capacities within the
context of organizational needs is called:​
A) Career Development B) Career Planning C) Succession Planning D)
Performance Management Answer: B) Career Planning​
Explanation: Career planning is the process of establishing individual career
objectives within the organizational context.
133.​ The lifelong journey of self-assessment, goal setting, skill building, and
adaptation is known as:​
A) Career Development B) Career Planning C) Job Rotation D) Onboarding
Answer: A) Career Development​
Explanation: Career development is the broader, lifelong process of managing
one's career.

Career Stages and Paths

134.​ According to the career stages model, the period from ages 15 to 24, where
an individual explores various occupational alternatives, is the:​
A) Establishment Stage B) Exploration Stage C) Mid-Career Stage D) Decline Stage
Answer: B) Exploration Stage​
Explanation: The exploration stage is the initial phase of seriously considering
different career options.
135.​ The stage from roughly ages 25 to 35, where a person finds a suitable
occupation and tries to earn a permanent career, is the:​
A) Establishment Stage B) Exploration Stage C) Maintenance Stage D) Late Career
Stage Answer: A) Establishment Stage​
Explanation: The establishment stage is when an individual seeks to build a stable
career in their chosen field.
136.​ In which career stage are efforts primarily directed at maintaining the career
gains already earned, typically between ages 35 to 50?​
A) Exploration Stage B) Establishment Stage C) Mid-Career Stage D) Late Career
Stage Answer: C) Mid-Career Stage​
Explanation: This stage, also referred to as the maintenance stage, is focused on
holding onto one's accomplishments.
137.​ Mentoring new employees and handholding units to grow are characteristic
activities of which stage?​
A) Exploration Stage B) Establishment Stage C) Mid-Career Stage D) Late Career
Stage Answer: D) Late Career Stage​
Explanation: In the late career stage, individuals often take on mentorship roles and
contribute their experience to the organization.
 138.​ An HR Assistant being promoted to HR Executive, then HR Manager, and
finally HR Director is an example of which type of career path?​
A) Horizontal B) Diagonal C) Vertical D) Dual Answer: C) Vertical​
Explanation: This is a traditional upward movement within the organizational
hierarchy.
139.​ A Finance Executive moving to a Marketing Executive role to diversify skills
is an example of a _______ career path.​
A) Vertical B) Horizontal C) Enriched D) Protean Answer: B) Horizontal​
Explanation: This represents movement across different roles at the same level to
build a broader skill set.
140.​ A company offers two progression tracks for its senior engineers: one towards
Project Manager (managerial) and another towards Principal Engineer (technical).
This is a _______ career path.​
A) Vertical B) Lateral C) Dual D) Boundaryless Answer: C) Dual​
Explanation: A dual career path offers separate ladders for managerial and
technical/specialist roles.
141.​ A career path that is self-directed, value-driven, and shaped by the
individual rather than the organization is known as a _______ career.​
A) Vertical B) Protean C) Dual D) Enriched Answer: B) Protean​
Explanation: A protean career is managed by the individual, not the organization,
and is based on personal values.
142.​ A freelance graphic designer who works with clients across different
countries and industries is following what type of career path?​
A) Vertical B) Protean C) Dual D) Boundaryless Answer: D) Boundaryless​
Explanation: A boundaryless career is not confined to a single organization or path
and often involves frequent role or employer changes.
143.​ What is the main difference between a traditional career ladder and a career
lattice?​
A) A ladder is flexible, while a lattice is rigid. B) A ladder focuses on linear,
hierarchical progression, while a lattice allows for vertical, lateral, and diagonal
movement. C) A ladder is for managers, while a lattice is for technical staff. D) A
ladder is an organizational strategy, while a lattice is an individual strategy. Answer:
B) A ladder focuses on linear, hierarchical progression, while a lattice allows
for vertical, lateral, and diagonal movement.​
Explanation: The career lattice is a more flexible model that encourages diverse
experiences, unlike the strictly upward progression of a career ladder.

Career Anchors and Issues

144.​ The concept of a "career anchor," developed by Edgar Schein, refers to a

person's:​
A) First job in an organization B) Core values, motivations, and talents they are
unwilling to give up C) Highest achievable position in a company D) Network of
professional contacts Answer: B) Core values, motivations, and talents they are
unwilling to give up​
Explanation: A career anchor is the part of one's identity that guides career choices
and is non-negotiable.
145.​ Which of the following is NOT one of Schein's eight career anchors?​
A) Technical/Functional Competence B) General Managerial Competence C)
Financial Accumulation D) Autonomy/Independence Answer: C) Financial
Accumulation​
Explanation: While financial stability is a reason people choose careers, "Financial
Accumulation" is not listed as one of Schein's eight specific anchors.
146.​ An individual who is primarily driven by the opportunity to be their own
boss and regulate their own work would have which career anchor?​
A) Security/Stability B) Service/Dedication to a Cause C) Autonomy/Independence
D) Pure Challenge Answer: C) Autonomy/Independence Explanation: This
anchor is centered on the need for freedom and control over one's work.
147.​ An employee who prioritizes long-term employment with one organization
and values benefits and retirement plans is likely guided by which career
anchor?​
A) Security/Stability B) Entrepreneurial Creativity C) Pure Challenge D) Lifestyle
Answer: A) Security/Stability Explanation: This anchor reflects a need for a
predictable and secure future with an employer.
148.​ A person who constantly seeks to solve seemingly unsolvable problems
and overcome difficult obstacles has a ________ career anchor.​
A) General Managerial Competence B) Pure Challenge C) Lifestyle D)
Service/Dedication to a Cause Answer: B) Pure Challenge Explanation: The
motivation for this anchor comes from tackling and conquering tough problems.
149.​ An employee who feels they have nothing else to achieve in their current
role and sees little opportunity for further advancement is experiencing a:​
A) Career Plateau B) Low Ceiling Career C) Career Decline D) Work-Family Conflict
Answer: A) Career Plateau​
Explanation: A career plateau is a point where the likelihood of additional
hierarchical promotion is very low.
150.​ Which of the following is considered an organizational strategy for career
management?​
A) Self-assessment B) Seeking mentorship C) Succession Planning D) Personal
branding Answer: C) Succession Planning​
Explanation: Succession planning is a formal organizational process to prepare
employees for higher roles. The other options are individual strategies.
151.​ Succession planning helps an organization identify individuals to fill future
vacancies in:​
A) Entry-level positions only B) Key positions C) Temporary roles D) All vacant
positions equally Answer: B) Key positions​
Explanation: Succession planning is a strategic process focused on ensuring
leadership and continuity in critical roles.
152.​ Job rotation, where employees are exposed to different departments, is
what type of career management strategy?​
A) Individual B) Departmental C) Financial D) Organisational Answer: D)
Organisational​
Explanation: Job rotation is a program implemented by the organization to develop
its employees.
153.​ The career anchor focused on creating a new business or venture through
one's own efforts is:​
 A) General Managerial Competence B) Technical/Functional Competence C)
Entrepreneurial Creativity D) Pure Challenge Answer: C) Entrepreneurial
Creativity Explanation: This anchor drives individuals to create something new and
build it from the ground up.
154.​ When an employee prioritizes integrating their personal, family, and career
needs, they are guided by the _______ anchor.​
A) Security/Stability B) Lifestyle C) Autonomy/Independence D) Service/Dedication
to a Cause Answer: B) Lifestyle Explanation: The lifestyle anchor is about finding
a balance and synergy between all major life areas.
155.​ A scientist who turns down a high-paying management position to continue
doing research in their field is likely driven by which career anchor?​
A) General Managerial Competence B) Technical/Functional Competence C)
Entrepreneurial Creativity D) Security/Stability Answer: B) Technical/Functional
Competence Explanation: This person values their expertise and the work itself
over climbing the managerial ladder.
156.​ A sales officer getting promoted to an operations manager is an example of
what kind of career path?​
A) Vertical B) Horizontal C) Diagonal D) Lateral Answer: C) Diagonal​
Explanation: This move combines both an upward (promotion) and a functional shift
(sales to operations), which defines a diagonal path.
157.​ A software engineer at Company A moves to Company B in the exact same role.
This is a _______ career path.​
A) Vertical B) Horizontal C) Diagonal D) Lateral Answer: D) Lateral​
Explanation: A lateral move involves a shift to a similar-level job but in a different
organization or industry.
158.​ The "Decline" stage of a career is characterized by:​
A) A period of rapid learning and skill acquisition. B) Taking on the highest levels of
power and responsibility. C) Seriously exploring different occupational alternatives. D)
A period of adjustment to reduced levels of power and responsibility before
retirement. Answer: D) A period of adjustment to reduced levels of power and
responsibility before retirement.​
Explanation: This final stage involves winding down one's career and preparing for
retirement.
159.​ Which of the following is an "Individual Strategy" for career management?​
A) Career Ladders/Paths B) Training & Development Programs C) Networking D)
Internal Mobility Platforms Answer: C) Networking​
Explanation: Networking, or building professional relationships, is a strategy that
individuals undertake for their own career growth. The other options are
organizational strategies.
160.​ A "Low Ceiling Career" is a career path that:​
A) Offers many opportunities for advancement. B) Is highly specialized and has little
room for advancement. C) Is unstable due to economic changes. D) Requires
frequent job changes. Answer: B) Is highly specialized and has little room for
advancement.​
Explanation: These are jobs where an individual may be an expert but has very
limited opportunities for promotion within that path.
161.​ In the RIASEC model, an accountant or administrator would likely fall under
which personality type?​
 A) Enterprising (E) B) Investigative (I) C) Conventional (C) D) Social (S) Answer: C)
Conventional (C)​
Explanation: The Conventional type is described as organized, rule-following, and
detail-oriented, which aligns perfectly with accounting and administrative roles.
162.​ Career development is described as a "lifelong journey." What does this imply?​
A) An individual's career plan should never change. B) Career management is a
continuous process of learning and adapting. C) An individual should stay in one
company for their entire life. D) Human Resources is solely responsible for an
employee's career. Answer: B) Career management is a continuous process of
learning and adapting.​
Explanation: The term "lifelong journey" suggests that career development is not a
one-time event but an ongoing process that must adapt to evolving goals and market
dynamics.
163.​ An organizational strategy that provides defined progression routes for
employees is known as:​
A) Mentoring & Coaching B) Performance Appraisal Systems C) Career
Ladders/Paths D) Work-life Integration Support Answer: C) Career Ladders/Paths​
Explanation: Organizations create formal career ladders or paths to show
employees the potential for upward movement within the company.
164.​ An employee who values helping others and contributing to society would
be driven by the ________ career anchor.​
A) Service/Dedication to a Cause B) Lifestyle C) Autonomy/Independence D) Pure
Challenge Answer: A) Service/Dedication to a Cause Explanation: This anchor is
centered on making a difference and aligning work with personal values related to
service.
165.​ Why have career lattices become more popular than traditional career
ladders?​
A) Because they are simpler for HR to manage. B) Because organizations have
become more rigidly hierarchical. C) Because they offer more flexible,
multi-directional growth opportunities that fit modern careers. D) Because they
guarantee faster promotions for all employees. Answer: C) Because they offer
more flexible, multi-directional growth opportunities that fit modern careers.​
Explanation: The lattice model better reflects the need for diverse skills and varied
experiences in today's dynamic job market, unlike the rigid, linear ladder.

Chapter 5: Employee Onboarding

This section covers the process of integrating a new employee into an organization, from the
initial offer to full productivity.

Onboarding vs. Induction

166.​ Which process is described as ongoing, starting when an applicant accepts

an offer and ending when they are fully trained and embedded in the company
culture?​
A) Induction B) Orientation C) Onboarding D) Pre-boarding Answer: C)
 Onboarding​
Explanation: Onboarding is the comprehensive, long-term process of integrating a
new hire.
167.​ A short-lived event that starts on an employee's first day and lasts from a
day to a week is known as:​
A) Onboarding B) Induction/Orientation C) Ramp-up Period D) Pre-boarding
Answer: B) Induction/Orientation​
Explanation: Induction or orientation is a formal, short-term event that is part of the
larger onboarding process.
168.​ The primary purpose of onboarding is to:​
A) Complete all legal paperwork B) Provide a deep dive into the company and job
through training and experiences C) Introduce the new hire to their immediate team
D) Set up the employee's workstation and IT access Answer: B) Provide a deep
dive into the company and job through training and experiences​
Explanation: Onboarding is a comprehensive process designed to give employees
deep insights into the company and their role over time.

Importance and Value

169.​ Which of the following is a key benefit of effective onboarding?​

A) Increases employee turnover B) Lengthens time-to-productivity C) Enhances
employee engagement and retention D) Weakens employer branding Answer: C)
Enhances employee engagement and retention​
Explanation: Effective onboarding is crucial for engaging employees from the start
and improving long-term retention.
170.​ The time a new employee takes to reach full productivity in their role is
known as the:​
A) Onboarding Period B) Induction Phase C) Ramp-up Period D) Investment Zone
Answer: C) Ramp-up Period​
Explanation: The ramp-up period is the specific phase where a new hire learns their
responsibilities and gets up to full speed.
171.​ In the "Cost to Value of an Employee" graph, the initial phase where the
organization is investing in a new hire (e.g., during onboarding and training) is
called the:​
A) Return Zone B) Investment Zone C) Profit Zone D) Break-even Point Answer: B)
Investment Zone​
Explanation: The Investment Zone represents the time when the company's costs
for a new employee are higher than the value they are producing.
172.​ An effective onboarding process aims to create an "Accelerated Proficiency
Curve," which means:​
A) The employee takes longer than normal to become proficient B) The employee
reaches the desired proficiency level in a shorter amount of time C) The employee
never reaches the desired proficiency level D) The employee's proficiency level
fluctuates randomly Answer: B) The employee reaches the desired proficiency
level in a shorter amount of time​
Explanation: An accelerated curve means the ramp-up period is shorter, and the
employee becomes a productive contributor faster.
Frameworks and Stages

173.​ Which of the "4 Cs of Onboarding" involves orienting a new employee on

legal and policy-related matters?​
A) Compliance B) Clarification C) Culture D) Connection Answer: A) Compliance​
Explanation: Compliance covers the basic legal and policy rules all employees
must know.
174.​ Ensuring a new employee understands their role expectations and goals
falls under which of the "4 Cs"?​
A) Compliance B) Clarification C) Culture D) Connection Answer: B) Clarification​
Explanation: Clarification is about making sure the new hire knows what is
expected of them in their new job.
175.​ Helping a new hire build relationships with their team members and
understand company norms and values relates to which two of the "4 Cs"?​
A) Compliance and Clarification B) Culture and Connection C) Clarification and
Culture D) Compliance and Connection Answer: B) Culture and Connection​
Explanation: Culture involves teaching the organizational values and norms , while
Connection is about fostering social relationships and networks.
176.​ The stage of onboarding that occurs between the offer letter acceptance
and the joining date is called:​
A) Orientation B) Role-specific training C) Pre-boarding D) Social integration
Answer: C) Pre-boarding​
Explanation: Pre-boarding is the initial stage focused on engaging the new hire
before their first day to ensure a smooth start.
177.​ At which level of induction is an employee familiarized with the
organization's history, vision, and overall goals?​
A) Departmental B) Job-related C) Organizational D) Social Answer: C)
Organizational​
Explanation: The organizational level provides a high-level, "bird's eye" view of the
entire company.
178.​ Which of the following would typically be covered during the departmental
level of induction?​
A) The company's founding story B) The departmental objectives and ways of
working C) How to use the company-wide leave policy system D) The names of the
board of directors Answer: B) The departmental objectives and ways of working​
Explanation: This level focuses on familiarizing the employee with their specific
department's context.

Roles, Metrics, and Challenges

179.​ In the onboarding process, what is the primary role of the hiring manager?​
A) Handling all the legal paperwork B) Setting expectations, coaching, and providing
feedback C) Coordinating company-wide training sessions D) Providing informal
guidance on company culture Answer: B) Setting expectations, coaching, and
providing feedback​
Explanation: The manager's role is crucial for clarifying job expectations and
providing ongoing support and feedback.
180.​ Which metric measures the success of onboarding by tracking how quickly
a new hire becomes a fully contributing member of the team?​
A) Early turnover B) Onboarding satisfaction score C) Time-to-productivity D)
Manager feedback Answer: C) Time-to-productivity​
Explanation: This metric directly links onboarding effectiveness to business
performance.
181.​ Which of the following is considered a common onboarding challenge?​
A) Too much manager involvement B) A highly customized approach for every
employee C) A one-size-fits-all approach D) Too much focus on culture and
connection Answer: C) A one-size-fits-all approach​
Explanation: A generic, non-personalized onboarding process is a common pitfall
that can lead to disengagement.
182.​ The mutual beliefs, perceptions, and informal obligations between an
employer and employee are known as the:​
A) Employment Contract B) Psychological Contract C) Onboarding Plan D)
Employee Handbook Answer: B) Psychological Contract​
Explanation: The Psychological Contract is the unwritten set of mutual expectations
that governs the employment relationship.
183.​ According to the 30-60-90 Day Plan, what is the primary focus for a new
employee in the first 30 days?​
A) To take full responsibility for major projects B) To train other new employees C) To
familiarize themselves with company culture, grasp role fundamentals, and connect
with the team D) To excel in the job role and establish a foundation for future growth
Answer: C) To familiarize themselves with company culture, grasp role
fundamentals, and connect with the team​
Explanation: The first 30 days are focused on learning, observation, and
integration.
184.​ Using AI-based onboarding chatbots and gamified learning modules are
examples of what?​
A) Common onboarding challenges B) Levels of induction C) Trends in digital
onboarding D) Metrics to measure onboarding success Answer: C) Trends in
digital onboarding​
Explanation: These are modern technological tools being used to make the
onboarding process more efficient and engaging.
185.​ What is the key objective of the 60-day mark in a 30-60-90 day plan?​
A) To have finished all training and require no further help B) To begin leading major
company initiatives C) To develop increasing proficiency and contribute significantly
to projects D) To have decided on a long-term career path within the company
Answer: C) To develop increasing proficiency and contribute significantly to
projects​
Explanation: By 60 days, the focus shifts from learning to actively contributing and
taking on more responsibility.
186.​ An HR department that only focuses on paperwork and policy review during
the first week is exhibiting which common onboarding challenge?​
A) Lack of manager involvement B) One-size-fits-all approach C) Overemphasis on
compliance D) No follow-up or feedback loops Answer: C) Overemphasis on
compliance​
 Explanation: Focusing solely on compliance (the first 'C') at the expense of
clarification, culture, and connection is a common mistake.
187.​ A "buddy" or peer support system is primarily used for what purpose in
onboarding?​
A) Formal coaching and performance feedback B) Completing official HR paperwork
C) Informal guidance and culture transfer D) Setting 90-day performance goals
Answer: C) Informal guidance and culture transfer​
Explanation: The buddy's role is to provide informal support and help the new hire
navigate the company's culture and social norms.
188.​ The "Return Zone" on the Economic Value graph signifies the point where:​
A) The organization is still primarily investing in the employee. B) The employee has
just accepted the job offer. C) The employee is generating more economic value than
their cost to the organization. D) The employee's engagement is at its lowest point.
Answer: C) The employee is generating more economic value than their cost to
the organization.​
Explanation: The Return Zone is when the organization begins to benefit from its
investment in the new hire.
189.​ Which of the following would NOT typically be included in an orientation
packet?​
A) Information about the company's founders and history B) A copy of the leave
policy C) A detailed performance review of the employee's predecessor D)
Information about workplace health and safety Answer: C) A detailed performance
review of the employee's predecessor​
Explanation: Contents of orientation include company history, policies, safety
information, and introductions, but not confidential performance data of past
employees.
190.​ The goal of achieving "full engagement" and "establishing a strong
foundation for future growth" is associated with which part of the 30-60-90 day
plan?​
A) First 30 Days B) Midpoint Review (Week 8) C) First 60 Days D) First 90 Days
Answer: D) First 90 Days​
Explanation: The 90-day goal is to have the employee fully aligned and excelling in
their role, setting them up for long-term success.

Chapter 6: Recruitment and Selection

This final section covers the processes of attracting, screening, and hiring the most suitable
candidates for job openings.

Recruitment & Selection Basics

191.​ According to Edwin B. Flippo, what is "Recruitment"?​

A) The process of choosing the most suitable person for a job B) The process of
training new employees C) A process of searching for prospective employees and
stimulating them to apply for jobs D) The process of determining the salary for a new
position Answer: C) A process of searching for prospective employees and
 stimulating them to apply for jobs​
Explanation: Recruitment is the process of building a pool of qualified applicants for
a job.
192.​ Why is "Selection" considered a negative process?​
A) Because it has a negative impact on company morale B) Because it involves
rejecting unsuitable candidates C) Because it is a costly and inefficient process D)
Because candidates often have a negative experience Answer: B) Because it
involves rejecting unsuitable candidates​
Explanation: It is termed a negative process because it is a process of elimination,
where more candidates are rejected than selected.
193.​ Which of the following is listed as a major impact of a "bad hire"?​
A) Increased team productivity B) Positive impact on client solutions C) Improved
employee morale D) Less productivity Answer: D) Less productivity​
Explanation: A bad hire can lead to less productivity, lost time, costs to re-recruit,
and negative impacts on morale.

Sourcing Channels

194.​ Promotions and transfers are examples of which type of recruitment

source?​
A) External Sources B) Internal Sources C) Social Media Sources D) Agency
Sources Answer: B) Internal Sources​
Explanation: These methods involve filling vacancies with existing employees from
within the organization.
195.​ Which of the following is an EXTERNAL source of recruitment?​
A) Employee Referrals B) Promotions C) Ex-Employees D) College / Campus
Recruiting Answer: D) College / Campus Recruiting​
Explanation: Campus recruiting involves seeking candidates from outside the
organization. While referrals and ex-employees originate internally, they bring
external people into the process. Campus recruiting is purely external.
196.​ What is a key advantage of using INTERNAL recruiting sources?​
A) It brings in "new blood" and new perspectives B) It is cheaper and faster than
training professionals C) It is a motivator for good performance among existing
employees D) There is no group of political supporters in the organization Answer:
C) It is a motivator for good performance among existing employees​
Explanation: The possibility of internal promotion can motivate employees to
perform well.
197.​ A potential disadvantage of relying solely on internal recruiting sources is:​
A) Longer adjustment or orientation time B) Inbreeding and lack of new perspectives
C) It may not select someone who will "fit" the organization D) It is more expensive
than external hiring Answer: B) Inbreeding and lack of new perspectives​
Explanation: Relying only on internal candidates can lead to a lack of new ideas
and a stale organizational culture.
198.​ According to the "Source quality not quantity" diagram, which source
produced more hires from fewer applicants?​
A) Social media B) Referrals C) Both were equally effective D) The diagram does not
show this information Answer: B) Referrals​
Explanation: Referrals generated 20 hires from 500 applicants (4% hire rate), while
 social media generated only 10 hires from 1000 applicants (1% hire rate), making
referrals a higher quality source.

The Selection Process

199.​ In the context of recruiting risks, what is a "False Positive"?​

A) Rejecting a candidate who would have performed well B) Hiring a candidate who
performs well C) Hiring a candidate who performs poorly D) Rejecting a candidate
who would have performed poorly Answer: C) Hiring a candidate who performs
poorly​
Explanation: A false positive is when you predict high performance, but the actual
performance is low (a bad hire).
200.​ When a company rejects a candidate who would have been an excellent
performer, this is known as a:​
A) Right Positive B) False Positive C) Right Negative D) False Negative Answer: D)
False Negative​
Explanation: A false negative is an error where a good candidate is incorrectly
rejected.
201.​ According to the "7 Stages of the Selection Process" diagram, what is the
first stage?​
A) Interview B) Screening & Pre-selection C) Application D) Assessment Answer:
C) Application​
Explanation: The process begins when candidates submit their applications.
202.​ The stage in the selection process that typically involves reference and
background checks occurs just before:​
A) The interview B) The initial application screening C) The assessment D) The
decision and job offer Answer: D) The decision and job offer​
Explanation: Background checks are usually one of the final steps to verify
information before a final decision is made.
203.​ A form used to collect information on an applicant's academic, social,
demographic, and work-related background is called an:​
A) Offer Letter B) Application Blank C) Selection Test D) Interview Guide Answer: B)
Application Blank​
Explanation: The application blank is a standardized form used to gather historical
data from applicants.

Interviews and Testing

204.​ Which type of interview asks candidates to describe how they have handled
specific situations in the past?​
A) Unstructured Interview B) Situational Interview C) Behavioural Interview D)
Technical Interview Answer: C) Behavioural Interview​
Explanation: Behavioural interviews are based on the premise that past behavior is
the best predictor of future performance.
205.​ The STAR approach is a method for answering which type of interview
questions?​
A) Technical B) Behavioural C) Unstructured D) Stress Answer: B) Behavioural​
 Explanation: The STAR technique helps candidates structure their answers to
behavioural questions by outlining the Situation, Task, Action, and Result.
206.​ In the STAR approach, what does the 'A' represent?​
A) Attitude B) Assessment C) Action D) Ability Answer: C) Action​
Explanation: 'A' stands for the specific Action the candidate took to address the
situation.
207.​ A test that measures a candidate's accuracy and attention to detail is
known as a _________ test.​
A) Mechanical Reasoning B) Data Checking C) Spatial Ability D) Abstract Reasoning
Answer: B) Data Checking​
Explanation: Data checking or error checking tests are designed to assess a
candidate's ability to spot inaccuracies.
208.​ Diagrammatic reasoning tests that require spotting trends and rules within
sets of data are also called:​
A) Verbal Ability tests B) Numerical Reasoning tests C) Abstract Reasoning tests D)
Work Sampling tests Answer: C) Abstract Reasoning tests​
Explanation: These tests assess logical reasoning and pattern recognition skills
without relying on language or numbers.
209.​ Personality tests and interest tests fall under the broader category of:​
A) Aptitude & Ability Tests B) Psychometric Selection Tests C) Technical Skill Tests
D) Work Sampling Tests Answer: B) Psychometric Selection Tests​
Explanation: Psychometric tests are a standard method for measuring a
candidate's mental capabilities and behavioral style.

Final Steps and Biases

210.​ Which of the following is NOT typically part of an employee background

check?​
A) Education Verification B) Employment History Check C) Social Media Activity
Analysis D) Criminal and Civil Record Check Answer: C) Social Media Activity
Analysis​
Explanation: While some employers may look at social media, the formal
background check components listed are Address, Education, Criminal/Civil Record,
Employment History, Identity, etc..
211.​ Job Title, Salary, and Start Date are all essential components of what
document?​
A) The Application Blank B) The Interview Scorecard C) The Job Offer Letter D) The
Employment Contract Answer: C) The Job Offer Letter​
Explanation: The offer letter formally presents the key terms of the employment
offer to the candidate.
212.​ A medical examination should only be conducted at what point in the
selection process?​
A) Before the first interview B) After the application is screened C) After a conditional
job offer has been made D) At any point the employer chooses Answer: C) After a
conditional job offer has been made​
Explanation: To avoid discrimination, medical tests are only permissible after a
conditional offer is extended.
213.​ An Applicant Tracking System (ATS) is a technology primarily used to:​
A) Conduct behavioural interviews B) Manage and streamline the recruitment and
application process C) Administer psychometric tests D) Perform background checks
Answer: B) Manage and streamline the recruitment and application process​
Explanation: An ATS is software that helps HR manage job postings, applications,
and candidate tracking.
214.​ An interviewer is very impressed by a candidate's prestigious university and
allows this single positive trait to overshadow other weaknesses, leading to a high
rating. This is an example of:​
A) The Horn Effect B) The Halo Effect C) The Contrast Effect D) Stereotyping
Answer: B) The Halo Effect​
Explanation: The Halo Effect is when one positive characteristic unduly influences
the assessment of all other characteristics.
215.​ An average candidate is interviewed immediately after an exceptionally poor
candidate and is rated higher than they normally would have been. This is the:​
A) Halo Effect B) Stereotyping C) Contrast Effect D) Similar-to-me error Answer: C)
The Contrast Effect​
Explanation: The Contrast Effect occurs when an evaluation is influenced by a
comparison with the previously interviewed candidate.
216.​ An interviewer, who is an avid football fan, gives a higher rating to a candidate
who also shows a keen interest in football. This is an example of which bias?​
A) Halo Effect B) Horn Effect C) Stereotyping D) Similar-to-me error Answer: D)
Similar-to-me error​
Explanation: This bias occurs when an interviewer favors candidates who have
similar interests, backgrounds, or personalities to their own.
217.​ Which type of interview poses hypothetical "what would you do if..."
scenarios to candidates?​
A) Behavioural Interview B) Situational Interview C) Structured Interview D)
Technical Interview Answer: B) Situational Interview​
Explanation: Situational interviews present future-oriented, hypothetical situations
to see how a candidate would respond.
218.​ A "work sampling" test is designed to:​
A) Assess a candidate's personality. B) Measure a candidate's verbal ability. C)
Assess a candidate's ability to learn skills and perform the actual job. D) Check a
candidate's attention to detail. Answer: C) Assess a candidate's ability to learn
skills and perform the actual job.​
Explanation: This type of test involves having the candidate perform a small portion
of the actual job they are being hired for.
219.​ An interviewer focuses on a single negative aspect of a candidate, such as a typo
on their resume, and allows it to color their entire judgment, ignoring the candidate's
strengths. This is the:​
A) Halo Effect B) Horn Effect C) Contrast Effect D) Stereotyping Answer: B) Horn
Effect​
Explanation: The Horn Effect is the opposite of the Halo Effect, where one negative
trait leads to an overall negative assessment.
220.​ Gamification and chatbots are examples of _______ used in the hiring
process.​
A) Selection Biases B) Sourcing Channels C) Technology in Hiring D) Interview
Techniques Answer: C) Technology in Hiring​
Explanation: These are modern technological tools used to engage candidates and
automate parts of the recruitment process.