MCQs on NITI Aayog

1. Which of the following statements regarding NITI Aayog is correct?

a) It is a constitutional body established through an Act of Parliament.
b) It replaced the Planning Commission in 2015 through a Union Cabinet resolution.
c) It is a statutory body under the NITI Aayog Act, 2016.
d) It primarily focuses on financial allocations to states.
Answer: b) It replaced the Planning Commission in 2015 through a Union Cabinet
resolution.

2. Which of the following is NOT a function of NITI Aayog?

a) Promoting cooperative and competitive federalism
b) Allocating financial resources to states
c) Monitoring Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
d) Providing policy advice to the government
Answer: b) Allocating financial resources to states.

3. The Chairperson of NITI Aayog is:

a) The President of India
b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The Finance Minister of India
d) The Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog
Answer: b) The Prime Minister of India.

4. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog includes which of the following members?

1. Prime Minister

2. Chief Ministers of States and UTs with legislatures

3. Lt. Governors of Union Territories

4. Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
d) 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer: c) 1, 2, 3, and 4.

5. The Chief Executive O icer (CEO) of NITI Aayog is:

a) Appointed by the President of India
b) Elected by the Governing Council of NITI Aayog
c) Appointed by the Prime Minister of India
d) Nominated by the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog
Answer: c) Appointed by the Prime Minister of India.

6. Which of the following is an initiative of NITI Aayog to improve governance and

innovation?
a) Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)
b) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
 c) MGNREGA
d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
Answer: a) Atal Innovation Mission (AIM).

7. The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP), launched by NITI Aayog, aims to:
a) Reduce the fiscal deficit of underdeveloped states.
b) Transform the most underdeveloped districts through rapid development.
c) Promote digital literacy in rural areas.
d) Increase agricultural productivity in backward regions.
Answer: b) Transform the most underdeveloped districts through rapid development.

8. Which of the following indices are published by NITI Aayog?

1. SDG India Index

2. State Energy and Climate Index

3. Fiscal Health Index

4. Ease of Doing Business Index

Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: b) 1, 2, and 3 only.

9. Which of the following are the key objectives of NITI Aayog?

1. Encouraging cooperative and competitive federalism

2. Providing financial grants to states

3. Acting as a policy think tank for the government

4. Overseeing the implementation of the SDGs

Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: c) 1, 3, and 4 only.

10. Which of the following best describes the role of NITI Aayog?
a) A regulatory body overseeing economic planning.
b) A financial institution providing funds to states.
c) An advisory think-tank for policy formulation and governance improvements.
d) A constitutional body responsible for implementing government schemes.
Answer: c) An advisory think-tank for policy formulation and governance improvements.

MCQs on Cooperatives
1. The United Nations General Assembly declared 2025 as the International Year of
Cooperatives (IYC) in:
a) May 2023
b) June 2024
c) December 2024
d) January 2025
Answer: b) June 2024

2. What is the theme of the International Year of Cooperatives 2025?

a) Cooperatives for Economic Growth
b) Strengthening Cooperatives Globally
c) Cooperatives Build a Better World
d) Inclusive Growth through Cooperatives
Answer: c) Cooperatives Build a Better World

3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of IYC 2025?

a) Raise awareness about cooperatives' role in sustainable development
b) Promote cooperative-based taxation policies
c) Advocate for legal and policy reforms for cooperatives
d) Inspire youth leadership in the cooperative sector
Answer: b) Promote cooperative-based taxation policies

4. Which international organization promotes the cooperative movement globally?

a) International Labour Organization (ILO)
b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
c) International Co-operative Alliance (ICA)
d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Answer: c) International Co-operative Alliance (ICA)

5. The International Co-operative Alliance (ICA) was founded in which year?

a) 1875
b) 1895
c) 1915
d) 1945
Answer: b) 1895

6. Which of the following best defines a cooperative?

a) A group of individuals working for profit maximization
b) A voluntary group uniting for shared economic goals through mutual aid
c) A government-owned enterprise providing essential services
d) A corporate entity providing financial assistance to businesses
Answer: b) A voluntary group uniting for shared economic goals through mutual aid

7. The Cooperative Credit Societies Act was introduced in India in:

a) 1882
b) 1904
c) 1925
d) 1949
Answer: b) 1904
 8. What percentage of the world’s cooperatives are located in India?
a) 12%
b) 20%
c) 27%
d) 33%
Answer: c) 27%

9. According to the document, which sector has the largest number of cooperatives in
India?
a) Banking
b) Dairy
c) Housing
d) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
Answer: d) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)

10. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 granted constitutional status to
cooperatives. It introduced which of the following provisions?

11. Added "cooperative societies" under Article 19(1)(c)

12. Inserted Article 43B under Directive Principles of State Policy

13. Created Part IXB (Articles 243ZH to 243ZT) for cooperative governance

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2, and 3

11. Which of the following statements about cooperative banks is incorrect?

a) They are financial entities set up on a cooperative basis.
b) They are registered under the States Cooperative Societies Act.
c) They are regulated exclusively by the Ministry of Finance.
d) They come under the RBI's regulation under the Banking Regulations Act, 1949.
Answer: c) They are regulated exclusively by the Ministry of Finance.

12. Which Indian state has the highest number of cooperatives?

a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra
c) Karnataka
d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: b) Maharashtra

13. The Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002 governs:

a) All types of cooperatives in India
b) Cooperatives operating within a single state
c) Cooperatives having operations in more than one state
d) Only agricultural cooperatives
Answer: c) Cooperatives having operations in more than one state
 14. What is the biggest challenge faced by cooperatives in India?
a) Lack of legal framework
b) Weak governance and politicization
c) Absence of cooperative banks
d) Low participation of youth
Answer: b) Weak governance and politicization

15. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) was established in

which year?
a) 1956
b) 1963
c) 1975
d) 1982
Answer: b) 1963

16. Which of the following initiatives aims at empowering the Primary Agricultural Credit
Societies (PACS)?
a) Digital India Initiative
b) Model Bye-Laws for PACS
c) Rurban Mission
d) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
Answer: b) Model Bye-Laws for PACS

17. The NUCFDC (Umbrella Organization for Urban Cooperative Banks) is set to act as:
a) A regulatory body for urban cooperative banks
b) A financial assistance provider for rural cooperative banks
c) A self-regulatory organization for urban cooperative banks
d) A cooperative merger agency
Answer: c) A self-regulatory organization for urban cooperative banks

18. Which of the following government initiatives aim to strengthen the cooperative
movement in India?

19. SAHKAR-SE-SAMRIDDHI vision

20. ‘World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan’

21. Margdarshika Plan

22. Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for ‘White Revolution 2.0’

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

19. Which of the following reforms have been suggested to strengthen cooperatives in
India?

20. Bringing cooperatives under the RTI Act

 21. Strengthening internal audit systems

22. Implementing digital governance and banking tools

23. Merging weak societies with stronger ones

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

20. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the governance of cooperatives
in India?
a) Cooperatives fall under Entry 32 of the State List in the Constitution.
b) Multi-State cooperatives fall under Entry 44 of the Union List.
c) Cooperative societies were given constitutional status through the 97th Amendment
Act.
d) The governance of cooperatives is completely under the central government.
Answer: d) The governance of cooperatives is completely under the central government.

MCQs on Lokpal and Lokayukta

1. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 was enacted to:

a) Establish Lokpal at the union level and Lokayukta at the state level
b) Replace the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
c) Provide constitutional status to anti-corruption bodies
d) Establish a single national anti-corruption body for both central and state
governments
Answer: a) Establish Lokpal at the union level and Lokayukta at the state level

2. Which of the following was added by the 2016 amendment to the Lokpal and
Lokayukta Act, 2013?
a) Gave the Lokpal power to investigate judges
b) Enabled the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha to be a
member of the selection committee
c) Removed the requirement for Lokayuktas in states
d) Allowed the Lokpal to remove Members of Parliament from o ice
Answer: b) Enabled the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha
to be a member of the selection committee

3. Who among the following is NOT a member of the Lokpal selection committee?
a) Prime Minister (Chairperson)
b) Chief Justice of India or a nominated Supreme Court Judge
c) Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
d) An eminent jurist nominated by the President
Answer: c) Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
 4. Which of the following statements regarding the composition of Lokpal is correct?
a) Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and up to 10 members
b) At least 50% of its members must be from SC/ST/OBC, minorities, or women
c) Lokpal members are directly elected by the Parliament
d) The term of Lokpal members is 10 years or until 75 years of age
Answer: b) At least 50% of its members must be from SC/ST/OBC, minorities, or
women

5. Which category of o icials is NOT under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal?

a) Prime Minister
b) Supreme Court judges
c) Ministers and Members of Parliament
d) Group A, B, C, and D o icers of the central government
Answer: b) Supreme Court judges

6. Under the Lokpal Act, the Prime Minister is exempt from investigation in matters related
to:

1. International relations

2. National security

3. Atomic energy

4. Public order

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

7. Which of the following powers does the Lokpal possess?

a) Power to dismiss government employees directly
b) Power to authorize search and seizure of documents relevant to an investigation
c) Power to order impeachment of MPs
d) Power to overrule Supreme Court judgments
Answer: b) Power to authorize search and seizure of documents relevant to an
investigation

8. The Lokpal Act grants the body powers equivalent to:

a) A High Court
b) A District Court
c) A Civil Court for preliminary inquiries
d) The Parliament
Answer: c) A Civil Court for preliminary inquiries

9. Which of the following is true about Lokayukta?

a) The Lokayukta is established by each state through its own law
b) It is mandatory for all states to have a Lokayukta
c) The structure and appointment process for Lokayukta is uniform across India
 d) Lokayukta can investigate only corruption cases related to private companies
Answer: a) The Lokayukta is established by each state through its own law

10. Which of the following is NOT an issue with the Lokpal/Lokayukta?

a) No concrete immunity for whistleblowers
b) Lack of constitutional status
c) Lokpal can investigate judiciary o icials
d) Lack of financial autonomy
Answer: c) Lokpal can investigate judiciary o icials

11. Which of the following is a recommendation of the 2nd Administrative Reforms

Commission (ARC) regarding the Lokpal?
a) Exclude the Prime Minister from Lokpal’s jurisdiction
b) Include Supreme Court judges under Lokpal’s jurisdiction
c) Grant constitutional status to the Lokpal
d) Allow Lokpal to appoint Election Commissioners
Answer: a) Exclude the Prime Minister from Lokpal’s jurisdiction

12. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the appointment of

Lokayuktas?
a) The Lokpal appoints Lokayuktas in all states
b) The President of India appoints Lokayuktas
c) The process of appointment varies across states
d) Lokayuktas are elected by state legislatures
Answer: c) The process of appointment varies across states

13. What is the maximum period after which a corruption complaint cannot be
registered under the Lokpal Act?
a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years
Answer: c) 7 years

14. The 11th All India Lokayukta Conference (2012) recommended which of the
following?
a) Making Lokayukta the nodal agency for receiving all corruption complaints
b) Granting Lokayukta the power to impeach state governors
c) Establishing Lokpal as a constitutional body
d) Merging Lokpal and CVC into a single anti-corruption agency
Answer: a) Making Lokayukta the nodal agency for receiving all corruption complaints

15. Which of the following measures can help strengthen the Lokpal and Lokayukta
system?

1. Providing constitutional backing

2. Ensuring financial and administrative autonomy

3. Bringing NGOs funded by the government under Lokayukta’s jurisdiction

4. Strengthening internal audit and transparency mechanisms

Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

16. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Lokpal Act?

a) Provision for filing complaints against corruption
b) Lokpal’s power to recommend action against public servants
c) Lokpal’s jurisdiction includes NGOs funded by the government
d) Lokpal can dismiss corrupt MPs and Ministers
Answer: d) Lokpal can dismiss corrupt MPs and Ministers

17. Which of the following states was the first to establish a Lokayukta?
a) Maharashtra
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: b) Karnataka

18. Which of the following international bodies is equivalent to Lokpal?

a) Ombudsman system in Sweden
b) Supreme Audit Institution in the USA
c) The European Court of Justice
d) The United Nations Ethics O ice
Answer: a) Ombudsman system in Sweden

MCQs on Election Commission of India (ECI)

1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) was established on:

a) 15th August 1947
b) 26th January 1950
c) 25th January 1950
d) 2nd October 1952
Answer: c) 25th January 1950

2. Which article of the Constitution provides for the Election Commission of India?
a) Article 320
b) Article 324
c) Article 330
d) Article 356
Answer: b) Article 324

3. Which of the following elections is NOT administered by the Election Commission

of India?
a) Lok Sabha elections
b) Rajya Sabha elections
 c) Gram Panchayat elections
d) Presidential elections
Answer: c) Gram Panchayat elections

4. National Voters’ Day is celebrated every year on:

a) 15th August
b) 26th January
c) 25th January
d) 1st November
Answer: c) 25th January

5. The Election Commission of India consists of how many members?

a) One (Chief Election Commissioner)
b) Two (One Chief Election Commissioner and One Election Commissioner)
c) Three (One Chief Election Commissioner and Two Election Commissioners)
d) Five (One Chief Election Commissioner and Four Election Commissioners)
Answer: c) Three (One Chief Election Commissioner and Two Election Commissioners)

6. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?

a) Sukumar Sen
b) T.N. Seshan
c) M.S. Gill
d) Sunil Arora
Answer: a) Sukumar Sen

7. Which act regulates the appointment, service conditions, and tenure of the Chief
Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners?
a) Representation of the People Act, 1951
b) Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021
c) Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023
d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: c) Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023

8. As per the 2023 Act, which of the following is NOT a criterion for becoming the Chief
Election Commissioner (CEC) or Election Commissioner (EC)?
a) Must be a retired Supreme Court judge
b) Must hold or have held a post equivalent to Secretary to the Government of India
c) Must possess integrity and experience in managing and conducting elections
d) Must be recommended by a selection committee
Answer: a) Must be a retired Supreme Court judge

9. The term of o ice for the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election
Commissioners (ECs) is:
a) 5 years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier
b) 6 years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier
c) 6 years or until 70 years of age, whichever is earlier
d) 7 years or until 70 years of age, whichever is earlier
Answer: b) 6 years or until 65 years of age, whichever is earlier

10. Which body is responsible for selecting the Chief Election Commissioner and
Election Commissioners under the 2023 Act?
 a) The Supreme Court of India
b) The Election Commission of India itself
c) A Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok
Sabha, and a Union Minister
d) The President of India
Answer: c) A Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of
Opposition in Lok Sabha, and a Union Minister

11. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can be removed from o ice in the same
manner as:
a) The Prime Minister
b) The President of India
c) A Supreme Court Judge
d) A Governor
Answer: c) A Supreme Court Judge

12. Which of the following is a major challenge faced by the Election Commission of
India?
a) Lack of constitutional recognition
b) Inability to deregister political parties
c) Inability to conduct Presidential elections
d) Lack of power to appoint Governors
Answer: b) Inability to deregister political parties

13. Which of the following initiatives was launched in 2009 to promote voter education
and electoral participation?
a) National Electoral Roll Purification Programme (NERPAP)
b) cVIGIL App
c) Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP)
d) Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)
Answer: c) Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP)

14. The cVIGIL App, launched by the ECI in 2018, is used for:
a) Checking the eligibility of voters
b) Reporting Model Code of Conduct (MCC) violations
c) Online voter registration
d) Tracking election results
Answer: b) Reporting Model Code of Conduct (MCC) violations

15. Which of the following technologies was introduced in 2013 to ensure a verifiable
paper trail in elections?
a) Optical Scanning Voting Machines
b) Biometric Voting Machines
c) Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)
d) Blockchain Voting System
Answer: c) Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)

16. Which of the following reforms has been suggested to strengthen the ECI?

17. Making the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) legally enforceable

 18. Establishing an independent secretariat for the ECI

19. Allowing reappointment of Election Commissioners after retirement

20. Barring CEC and ECs from post-retirement government positions

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: c) 1, 2, and 4 only

17. Which of the following statements is correct regarding remote voting in India?
a) The ECI has implemented online voting for domestic migrants
b) The ECI is piloting the Multi-Constituency Remote Electronic Voting Machine (RVM)
c) The ECI allows postal ballots for all voters in India
d) The ECI has banned the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)
Answer: b) The ECI is piloting the Multi-Constituency Remote Electronic Voting Machine
(RVM)

18. The Election Commission of India is a founding member of which of the following
international election bodies?
a) United Nations Electoral Commission
b) Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB)
c) Global Democratic Electoral Network (GDEN)
d) International Parliamentary Election Authority (IPEA)
Answer: b) Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB)

19. Which of the following recommendations have been suggested to improve electoral
transparency in India?
a) Allowing a candidate to contest from multiple constituencies
b) Providing statutory backing to the Model Code of Conduct
c) Abolishing the use of VVPAT
d) Increasing the tenure of the Election Commissioners to 10 years
Answer: b) Providing statutory backing to the Model Code of Conduct

MCQs on Internet Shutdown in India

1. According to the Internet Shutdown Tracker, how many mobile internet shutdowns
were recorded in India in 2024?
a) 129
b) 96
c) 60
d) 45
Answer: c) 60

2. Which legal provision was used for imposing internet shutdowns in India before
2017?
a) Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000
 b) Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973
c) Section 7 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
d) Article 368 of the Constitution
Answer: b) Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973

3. After the amendment in 2017, which law primarily governs internet shutdowns in
India?
a) Information Technology Act, 2000
b) The Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
c) Disaster Management Act, 2005
d) The O icial Secrets Act, 1923
Answer: b) The Indian Telegraph Act, 1885

4. Under the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency & Public
Safety) Rules, 2017, who has the authority to issue an internet shutdown order?
a) The Prime Minister
b) The Home Secretary of the Union or State government
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) The Election Commission of India
Answer: b) The Home Secretary of the Union or State government

5. As per the 2017 rules, what is the maximum duration for which an internet
shutdown order can be issued at once?
a) 7 days
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 30 days
Answer: c) 15 days

6. Which constitutional provision allows the government to impose reasonable

restrictions on freedom of speech and expression, including internet shutdowns?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19(2)
c) Article 21
d) Article 32
Answer: b) Article 19(2)

7. Which of the following is NOT a justification given for imposing internet shutdowns
in India?
a) National security and counter-insurgency
b) Checking communal violence and ethnic clashes
c) Encouraging digital literacy in rural areas
d) Preventing cheating in competitive exams
Answer: c) Encouraging digital literacy in rural areas

8. Which of the following is a major economic impact of internet shutdowns in India?

a) Increased tax revenues
b) Higher foreign investment inflows
c) Loss of billions in economic productivity
 d) Growth in digital payments
Answer: c) Loss of billions in economic productivity

9. According to Access Now’s Internet Shutdowns Report, how much economic loss
did India su er due to internet shutdowns in the first half of 2023?
a) $500 million
b) $1.2 billion
c) $1.9 billion
d) $2.8 billion
Answer: c) $1.9 billion

10. Which of the following is NOT a negative impact of internet shutdowns?

a) Violation of fundamental rights
b) Hindrance to media and press freedom
c) Improvement in school education
d) Disruption of online healthcare services
Answer: c) Improvement in school education

11. The Indian economy su ered losses of approximately how much due to internet
shutdowns in 2020?
a) $1.5 billion
b) $2.8 billion
c) $3.5 billion
d) $5 billion
Answer: b) $2.8 billion

12. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation of the 2021 Parliamentary

Standing Committee report on internet shutdowns?
a) Adopting global best practices
b) Establishing a clear principle of proportionality
c) Making shutdown orders valid for an indefinite period
d) Incorporating public members and retired judges in review committees
Answer: c) Making shutdown orders valid for an indefinite period

13. Which of the following committees is responsible for reviewing internet shutdown
orders in India?
a) A three-member review committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary/Chief Secretary
b) A committee headed by the Prime Minister
c) The Election Commission of India
d) A joint parliamentary committee
Answer: a) A three-member review committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary/Chief
Secretary

14. Which of the following measures was suggested by the 2021 Parliamentary
Committee to reduce the impact of internet shutdowns?
a) Legalizing indefinite internet shutdowns
b) Selective banning of certain internet services instead of full shutdowns
c) Increasing the duration of shutdown orders
d) Allowing shutdowns only during national elections
Answer: b) Selective banning of certain internet services instead of full shutdowns
 15. Which international organization has repeatedly raised concerns about India’s
frequent internet shutdowns?
a) United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
d) BRICS Council
Answer: a) United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)

16. Which Indian state witnessed the most prolonged internet shutdown in history?
a) Assam
b) Manipur
c) Jammu & Kashmir
d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: c) Jammu & Kashmir

17. Which Indian examination saw a state-wide internet shutdown in Rajasthan in 2021
to prevent online cheating?
a) NEET
b) UPSC CSE
c) Rajasthan Eligibility Exam for Teachers (REET)
d) JEE Advanced
Answer: c) Rajasthan Eligibility Exam for Teachers (REET)

18. Which organization maintains the Internet Shutdown Tracker in India?

a) Election Commission of India
b) Software Freedom Law Centre (SFLC)
c) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
d) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
Answer: b) Software Freedom Law Centre (SFLC)

19. Which country has consistently recorded the highest number of internet
shutdowns in the world?
a) China
b) North Korea
c) India
d) Russia
Answer: c) India

20. Which of the following is a technological alternative suggested to avoid complete

internet shutdowns?
a) Blockchain-based internet access
b) Decentralized private networks
c) Selective banning of services instead of full shutdowns
d) National Internet Firewall System
Answer: c) Selective banning of services instead of full shutdowns

MCQs on Right to Access to Justice

 1. Which of the following Supreme Court cases held that Access to Justice is a
Fundamental Right under Article 14 and Article 21?
a) Subrata Roy Sahara Vs Union of India (2014)
b) K.C. Tharakan Vs State Bank of India & Ors (2023)
c) Anita Kushwaha v. Pushap Sudan (2016)
d) Dalip Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2010)
Answer: c) Anita Kushwaha v. Pushap Sudan (2016)

2. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution relate to the Right to
Access to Justice?

1. Article 14 (Right to Equality)

2. Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)

3. Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)

4. Article 39A (Right to free legal aid)

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: c) 1, 2, 3, and 4

MCQs on DISHA Scheme

3. What is the full form of the DISHA scheme?

a) Development and Implementation of Socially Harmonized Areas
b) Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice
c) Digital Inclusion for Social and Humanitarian Assistance
d) Democratic Initiative for Social and Human Advancement
Answer: b) Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice

4. Which ministry launched the DISHA scheme?

a) Ministry of Home A airs
b) Ministry of Law and Justice
c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Answer: b) Ministry of Law and Justice

5. What is the duration of the DISHA scheme?

a) 2019-2024
b) 2021-2026
c) 2022-2027
d) 2020-2025
Answer: b) 2021-2026

MCQs on Prison Manual Amendment

 6. Which Supreme Court case led to the amendment of the Model Prison Manual,
2016, to address caste-based discrimination in prisons?
a) Sukanya Santha vs. Union of India & Others
b) Keshavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
c) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
d) ADM Jabalpur vs. Shivkant Shukla
Answer: a) Sukanya Santha vs. Union of India & Others

7. Which articles of the Constitution prohibit caste-based discrimination in prisons?

1. Article 14 (Equality before law)

2. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination)

3. Article 17 (Abolition of untouchability)

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: c) 1, 2, and 3

8. Which law ensures that manual scavenging is prohibited in prisons and

correctional institutions?
a) The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
b) The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act,
2013
c) The Prison Reforms Act, 2018
d) The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
Answer: b) The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their
Rehabilitation Act, 2013

MCQs on Doctrine of Merger

9. What is the Doctrine of Merger?

a) A lower court's order remains in force even after an appeal is decided
b) The higher court’s ruling overrides and absorbs the lower court’s decision
c) Merging of two separate legal cases into one
d) Two courts hearing the same case at the same time
Answer: b) The higher court’s ruling overrides and absorbs the lower court’s decision

10. Which case explained the Doctrine of Merger in India?

a) Kunhayammed v. State of Kerala (2000)
b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
c) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)
d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
Answer: a) Kunhayammed v. State of Kerala (2000)
MCQs on CBI and State Consent

11. Under which Act is the CBI required to obtain state consent for investigations in a
state?
a) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
b) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
c) The Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946
d) The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
Answer: c) The Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946

12. What are the two types of state consent required by the CBI for investigations?
a) Individual and Collective Consent
b) Executive and Judicial Consent
c) General and Case-specific Consent
d) Administrative and Legislative Consent
Answer: c) General and Case-specific Consent

MCQs on Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0

13. Which institution organized Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0?

a) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
b) National Commission for Women and Lok Sabha Secretariat
c) Election Commission of India
d) NITI Aayog
Answer: b) National Commission for Women and Lok Sabha Secretariat

14. What is the primary objective of Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0?

a) Strengthening rural infrastructure
b) Empowering elected women representatives from Scheduled Tribes
c) Promoting digital literacy in rural areas
d) Reforming Panchayati Raj Institutions
Answer: b) Empowering elected women representatives from Scheduled Tribes

MCQs on Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi Initiative

15. What is the aim of the ‘Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi’ Initiative?

a) To enhance the capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions
b) To provide financial assistance to rural communities
c) To establish new panchayat o ices in remote areas
d) To conduct nationwide elections for village leaders
Answer: a) To enhance the capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions

16. On which day is Good Governance Day celebrated?

a) 2nd October
b) 25th December
c) 5th June
d) 26th November
Answer: b) 25th December
MCQs on Pay Commission

17. Which Pay Commission is currently being established by the Union Government?
a) 7th Pay Commission
b) 8th Pay Commission
c) 9th Pay Commission
d) 10th Pay Commission
Answer: b) 8th Pay Commission

18. When was the 7th Pay Commission implemented?

a) 2014
b) 2016
c) 2018
d) 2020
Answer: b) 2016

MCQs on Edelman Trust Barometer

19. What does the Edelman Trust Barometer measure?

a) Economic performance of G20 nations
b) People's trust in government, businesses, media, and NGOs
c) The e ectiveness of judicial systems across countries
d) The global inflation rate and economic trends
Answer: b) People's trust in government, businesses, media, and NGOs

20. In the 2024 Edelman Trust Barometer, which country ranked first in public trust in
government?
a) India
b) China
c) Indonesia
d) Germany
Answer: b) China

Election Commission of India (ECI)

1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) was established on:

a) 15th August 1947
b) 26th January 1950
c) 25th January 1950
d) 2nd October 1952
Answer: c) 25th January 1950

2. Which article of the Constitution provides for the Election Commission of India?
a) Article 320
b) Article 324
 c) Article 330
d) Article 356
Answer: b) Article 324

3. Which of the following elections is NOT administered by the Election Commission

of India?
a) Lok Sabha elections
b) Rajya Sabha elections
c) Gram Panchayat elections
d) Presidential elections
Answer: c) Gram Panchayat elections

4. National Voters’ Day is celebrated every year on:

a) 15th August
b) 26th January
c) 25th January
d) 1st November
Answer: c) 25th January

Internet Shutdown in India

1. According to the Internet Shutdown Tracker, how many mobile internet shutdowns
were recorded in India in 2024?
a) 129
b) 96
c) 60
d) 45
Answer: c) 60

2. Which legal provision was used for imposing internet shutdowns in India before
2017?
a) Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000
b) Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973
c) Section 7 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
d) Article 368 of the Constitution
Answer: b) Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973

3. After the amendment in 2017, which law primarily governs internet shutdowns in
India?
a) Information Technology Act, 2000
b) The Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
c) Disaster Management Act, 2005
d) The O icial Secrets Act, 1923
Answer: b) The Indian Telegraph Act, 1885

Right to Access to Justice

 1. Which of the following Supreme Court cases held that Access to Justice is a
Fundamental Right under Article 14 and Article 21?
a) Subrata Roy Sahara Vs Union of India (2014)
b) K.C. Tharakan Vs State Bank of India & Ors (2023)
c) Anita Kushwaha v. Pushap Sudan (2016)
d) Dalip Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2010)
Answer: c) Anita Kushwaha v. Pushap Sudan (2016)

2. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution relate to the Right to
Access to Justice?

1. Article 14 (Right to Equality)

2. Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)

3. Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)

4. Article 39A (Right to free legal aid)

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: c) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0

1. Which institution organized Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0?

a) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
b) National Commission for Women and Lok Sabha Secretariat
c) Election Commission of India
d) NITI Aayog
Answer: b) National Commission for Women and Lok Sabha Secretariat

2. What is the primary objective of Panchayat Se Parliament 2.0?

a) Strengthening rural infrastructure
b) Empowering elected women representatives from Scheduled Tribes
c) Promoting digital literacy in rural areas
d) Reforming Panchayati Raj Institutions
Answer: b) Empowering elected women representatives from Scheduled Tribes

Edelman Trust Barometer

1. What does the Edelman Trust Barometer measure?

a) Economic performance of G20 nations
b) People's trust in government, businesses, media, and NGOs
c) The e ectiveness of judicial systems across countries
d) The global inflation rate and economic trends
Answer: b) People's trust in government, businesses, media, and NGOs
2. In the 2024 Edelman Trust Barometer, which country ranked first in public trust in
government?
a) India
b) China
c) Indonesia
d) Germany
Answer: b) China