Okay, I will extract all the questions and options from Question Papers 1 through 10, without

providing any answers.

Here is **Question Paper - 1**:

1. Position report is required to be given when

a) Crossing an FIR
b) Over a compulsory reporting point
c) if so required by ATC
d) all are correct

2. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

a) Aeradio
b) AIP
c) Notams
d) AIRACS

3. An aircraft is following a track of 179° (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels
available to the pilot are:
a) 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
b) 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
c) 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
d) 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275

4. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:

a) Do not land for the time being
b) Landings Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the
Maneuvering area

5. Above flight level 290 the minimum vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks
in RVSM area is
a) 1000 feet up to F410
b) 2000 feet up to F410
c) 4000 feet up to F460
d) 5000 feet up to F460

6. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a
heavy or a medium aircraft is:
a) 2 minutes
b) 3 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) Non of the above

7. All flights above flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather Conditions
a) F 280
b) F 150
c) F 140
d) F 100

8. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

a) AIP
b) AIC
c) NOTAM
d) AIRAC

9. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is

a) 460
 b) 450
c) 440
d) 400

10. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and/or met report is called
a) Met report
b) Position report
c) Air report
d) All of the above

11. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference.On SSR you should set
a) Mode A code 7500
b) Mode A code 7600
c) Mode A code 7700
d) Mode C code 7500

12. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?

a) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
d) ETA Destination

13. A fresh flight plan is to be filed if a scheduled controlled flight is delayed by more than
a) One hour
b) 30 minutes
c) 15 mins
d) 5 mins

14. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy
aircraft is
a) 2 minutes
b) 3 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) not required

15. The air report contains following items:

a) Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b) Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing & humidity
d) All are correct

16. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when

a) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
d) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet

17. Routes guides are required to be carried by:

a. All aircraft
b. Pvt. Aircraft
c. Scheduled aircraft
d. Aerial aircraft

18. AIP India is published by

a) DGCA
b) AAI
c) Civil Aviation Ministry
d) ICAO
19. Sunrise time of an Airport in calculated for an altitude of the Sun
a) 6° below the horizon
b) 0° at the horizon
c) 8° below the horizon
d) 12° below the horizon

20. An Aircraft shall report "long final" when it is at from the approach end of the rwy
a) 8NMs
b) 4NMs
c) 1NMs
d) 2 NMs

21. 'ATIS' is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a) ATS information
c) Navigation Information
b) ATS and Met information
d) Traffic Information

22. An aircraft is on a track of 030° (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370.
Other aircraft at F370 on a track of 100°(M) can cross the same point not earlier than:
a) 0422 hrs
b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster
c) 0427 hrs
d) 0402 hrs

23. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal
traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the
descending aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
a) 0215 hrs
b) 0220 hrs
c) 0225 hrs
d) 0250 hrs

24. A prohibited area is an area over which:

a) Flight within 2 miles is prohibited.
b) Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.
c) Low flying is prohibited.
d) Only instrument flying practice can be done.

25. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a) there are obstructions on the airport
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather
minimums
c) the Air Traffic Control is not in operation
d) runway is blocked

26. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on
landing is a
a) light, quartering headwind
b) light, quartering tailwind
c) Strong headwind
d) strong tailwind

27. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during
daylight hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o'clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d) a series of eye movements focused at horizon
28. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded
information concerning
a) Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to
an obstruction
b) Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c) Non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas
d) To warn pilots about conflicting traffic

29. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
a) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
b) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
c) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
d) QFE

30. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even
during broad day light, when aircraft are flown.:
a) At or above F150.
b) Within controlled airspace.
c) At or above F 200.
d) In designated areas or designated routes.

31. What time is filled in item 13 of flight plan?

a) Expected Time of Departure
c) Expected Approach Time
b) Estimated off block time
d) Estimated Elapsed Time

32. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000' in a controlled airspace
a) 5 kms
b) 8 kms
c) 10 kms
d) 3 kms

33. What speed is filled in item 15 of flight plan:

a) IAS
b) TAS
c) RAS
d) GS

34. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by
a) 5 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 10 mins
d) 2 mins

35. Runaway direction is measured from:

a) True North
b) Compass North
c) Magnetic North
d) North Pole

36. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across
throat indicates
a) Stop
b) Cut Engines
c) Continue Straight
d) Turn Off
37. A pilot not having an instrument rating cannot fly:
a) At any time.
b) During hours of night.
c) Without permission of aerodrome officer.
d) Without permission from the DGCA.

38. If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a) 15 NMs
b) 15 Mins
c) 20 NMs
d) 5 Mins

39. What shape and colour is a landing direction indicator?

a) A white capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
b) An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c) A white or orange capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
d) An orange wedge shape in 3 dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge

40. How should a close part of a runway be marked?

a) With yellow and black marker boards
b) With red and white marker boards
c) With a white cross on the surface
d) With white chevrons on the surface

41. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in
Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
a) 8000 meters
b) 5000 meters
c) 1500 meters
d) There is no minimum

42. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aero plane must stay away from cloud
in Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
a) 1500 meters
b) 1800 meters
c) No minimum stated provided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
d) No minimum stated provided the aircraft is in sight of the surface.

43. What is correctly defined as "A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an
aircraft and its occupants?
a) The emergency phase
b) The uncertainty phase
c) The alert phase
d) The distress phase

44. An aircraft should be refueled:

a) Inside a hanger.
b) Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
c) In the open.
d) Wherever adequate facility exists.

45. Position report shall be made after every where no standard reporting points exist.
a) 15 Mins
b) 20 Mins
c) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins
d) 60 Mins

46. DME separation between A/C on same track, same level and in same direction is
a) 10 NM
 b) 20 NM
c) 15 NM
d) 5 NM

47. An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for "straight in "approach. Because of
low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in
the vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
a) of the pilot.
b) of the tower controller as the controller is aware of the obstruction.
c) of ATC as the pilot has been given Special VFR clearance.
d) Shared equally by the pilot and the controller.

48. The maneuvering area of an airport is that area

a) Normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
b) Which includes the apron, taxiways and runways?
c) Used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
d) Used for taxiing, taking off and landing.

49. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000' msl and below 10,000 'MSL.
a) Provided flight visibility is 1500 m.
b) Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.
c) Provided flight visibility is 5000 m.
d) Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.

50. What is the definition of MEA?

a) The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b) Lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle requirements assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar
coverage.
c) An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance
d) An altitude, which ensures minimum 1000' clearance from all obstacles

---
Here is **Question Paper - 2**:
1. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery:
a) With in a radius of 1 NM.
b) With in a radius of 10 NM
c) With in a radius of 20 NM
d) with in a radius of 10 kms

2. Following failure of two way radio communications the pilot should select one of the
following on the transponder:
a) Mode A 7700
b) Mode A 7500
c) Mode C 2000
d) Mode A 7600

3. When two aircraft are approaching head on, the rules of the air require that
a) Both aircraft alter heading to starboard
b) Both aircraft alter heading to port
c) The larger aircraft alters heading to starboard
d) The smaller aircraft alters heading to port

4. An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for:

a) 6 months
b) 13 months
c) 12 months
d) 2 years

5. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on a relative bearing of 100
degrees from him. You should see his:
a) Red navigation light
b) White navigation light
c) Green & white navigation lights
d) Green navigation light

6. A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft
requires a wake vortex separation of:
a) 2 minutes
b) 8 minutes
c) 3nm
d) 3 minutes

7. EAT is the time that an aircraft:

a) Is expected to join the field
b) Is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach
c) Is expected to land
d) Is expected to leave the last en-route holding point before destination

8. Above 30000 ft the vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks will be:
a) 2000ft
b) 1000ft
c) 1000ft or 2000ft depending on whether or not the aircraft are in RVSM airspace
d) 4000ft

9. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters:

a) Severe turbulence or icing
b) Moderete turbulence, hail or Cb clouds during supersonic or transonic flight
c) Other conditions that the Captain considers may affect the safety of other aircraft
d) All of the above
10. Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units is:
a) 3nm
b) 5nm
c) 10nm
d) 8nm

11. The possible symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are:

a) Anxiety, rapid breathing & dizziness
b) Lethargy, nausea, headache & complexion
c) Blueness of lips, impaired judgment and co-ordination
d) Excitability, tingling fingertips & loss of inhibition

12. If a pilot goes scuba diving to a depth of 30 feet for more than 10 mts, he / she should not
fly within:
a) 12 hours
b) 36 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 48 hours

13. A continuous red beam directed at an aircraft from the ATC tower means:
a) Airfield unserviceable, land elsewhere
b) Airfield closed, do not land
c) Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling
d) Clear the landing area

14. Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing.
The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft.
a) at the higher altitude.
b) at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of
or to to overtake the other aircraft.
c) That is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or
overtake the other aircraft.

15. What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirement s for VFR flight, at
6500 feet MSL, in Class D airspace?
a) 1.5 Km visibility; clear of clouds
b) 10000 feet MSL, if above 10000 feet AGL.
c) 5 Km visibility; and 1000 feet below.

16. Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided in airspace classified as

a) Class E
b) Class F
c) Class G
d) Class A

17. When landing behind a large jet aircraft,at which point on the runway should you plan to
land ?
a) If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runaway and prior to the jet's
touchdown point.
b) At least 1000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
c) Beyond the jet's touchdown point.

18. At an altitude of 6500 feet MSL the current altimeter setting is 996 hPa. The pressure
altitude would be approx.
a) 7500 feet.
b) 6000 feet.
c) 7000 feet.
d) 8000 feet
19. Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air
a) dissipates immediately
b) dissipates rapidly
c) May persist for two minutes or more
d) persists indefinitely.

20. Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is

a) Heavy, landing configuration and slow speed
b) Heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.
c) Light, clean configuration and high speed.
d) Heavy, take-off configuration and slow speed.

21. While flying on a magnetic track of 140 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the
following levels:
a) 80
b) 95
c) 85
d) 70

22. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to:
a) Seating capacity of the aircraft.
b) Number of passengers on board the aircraft.
c) All-up weight of the aircraft.
d) No charges; if free passengers are carried.

23. The marshalling signal - "arms extended overhead, palms facing inwards, arms swung
from The extended position inwards "means:
a) Stop
b) Chokes inserted
c) Brakes applied
d) Cut Engines

24. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted:

a. Provided the owner has no objection.
b. Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.
c. Without restriction if no passengers are carried.
d. Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits.

25. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only

a) If the sale deed is not yet completed
b) For purpose of test flight only, prior to purchase.
c) If it is used for Govt. Work.
d) If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.

26. The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks:
a) 6 hrs before commencement if flight.
b. 12 hrs before commencement of flight.
c. 24 hrs before commencement of flight.
d. 36 hrs before commencement of flight.

27. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from:
a. Aerodrome officer
b. DGCA
c. Central Govt.
d. Indian Air Force

28. At the correct height on the approach to runway with PAPIs pilot should see:
a) Two red lights and two white
b) Four red lights
 c) Four white lights
d) Three white lights and one red

29. The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class For G airspace below F 100 is:
a) 250KTS IAS
b) 250Kts TAS
c) 280Kts IAS
d) 150Kts IAS

30. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within mts:

a) 35
b. 30
c. 100
d. 15

31. A pilot flying low due to thunder showers for safety reasons can be sued by:
a) State Govt.
b) Municipal Corporation.
c) Owner of the property over which it is flying.
d) Cannot be sued.

32. A person can bring to India human remains of a person who has died of plague:
a) If enclosed in a wooden box. If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
b) If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority.
c) Cannot bring them.

33. Class 'D' airspace in India

a) Includes controlled airspace in form of terminal control areas and ATS routes where IFR
traffic is provided Air Traffic Services
b) Includes controlled airspace inform of control zone, control areas, terminal control areas
where IFR flights receive Air Traffic control service and VFR flights receive traffic information
and traffic avoidance advice on request
c) Extends from a specified height above control zone and aerodrome traffic zone where
separation between IFR flights is assured

34. Two aircraft of the different category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing.
The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
a) At the higher altitude
b) At the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of
or to overtake the other aircraft
c) That is more maneuverable, that the aircraft may with caution move in front of or
overtake the other aircraft

35. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft

a) May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.
b) May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation
of the aircraft.
c) Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA.

36. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the
longest period of time?
a) Direct headwind
b) Direct tailwind
c) Light quartering tailwind

37. The altimeter indicates the aircraft altitude in relation to

a) sea level
b) the standard datum plane
 c) the pressure level set in the barometric window

38. The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is
set to
a) The field elevation
b) 29.92"
c) the current altimeter setting
d) the QFE setting

39. During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight,
hazardous wing tip vortices will
a) Dissipate completely
b) dissipate rapidly
c) dissipate slowly
d) remain at cruising altitude

40. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large
aeroplane that had just taken off ?
a) Could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for sometime
b) Would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices
c) Would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices
d) Would not affect the lateral movement of the vortices

41. LDA for runway 27 at an aerodrome is 1599mts. Pair of touchdown zone markings for this
runway will be:
a) 3
b) 6
c) 4
d) 5

42. An aerial work aircraft on a VFR plan to Jaipur departs at 1032 hrs UTC. Sunset time at
Jaipur is 1318 UTC. The flying time available to him to reach jaipur is:
a) 2 hrs & 46 minutes.
b) 2 hrs & 26 min
c) 2 hrs & 16 min
d) 3 hrs & 06

43. Number of threshold stripes on a runway of 25 m width shall be:

a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12

44. Colour of intermediate holding position markings shall be:

a) White
b) Red
c) Green
d) Yellow

45. The "Certificate of Airworthiness" of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an

aircraft:
a) Is involved in an accident/incident.
b) Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.
c) Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.
d) Is involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.

46. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is:

a) One pilot.
b) Two pilots
 c) As specified in the certificate of the Airworthiness
d) The flight instructor along with private pilot.

47. A pvt. Aircraft from Chennai to Colombo is required to carry on board.

a) Journey log book.
b Route Guide
c. Operation Manual
d. All of the above

48. Aircraft meets with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be removed:
a) For smooth flow of air traffic.
c) After taking photographs.
b) For removing a dead body or injured person.
d) Both (a) and (b) are correct

49. A person dies of cholera, his body can be brought to India if:
a) Packed in a wooden box.
b) Cannot be brought.
c) Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell
enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust
impregnated with carbolic powder.
d) Permitted by the DGCA.

50. FDTL for 2 crew international flight is hrs and landing.

a) 10 hrs and 3 landings
b) Three hrs and 9 landings
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings
d) 8 hrs and 3 landings.

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Here is **Question Paper - 3**:
1. In class A airspace
a) All flights are permitted.
b) Only VFR flights are permitted.
c) Only IFR flights are permitted.
d) SPL VFR flights are permitted.

2. In class D air space

a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
b) IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of VFR
flights
c) VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights
d) all are correct

3. Route guides are required to be carried in

a) all aircraft
c) Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services
b) all private aircraft
d) all aircraft engaged in aerial work

4. ADC clearance is required to be obtained

a) on a cross country flight
c) When returning to base on the same day
b) for all aircraft operating within ADIZ
d) it is not required when returning to base on the same day

5. Pilots log book is to be preserved for

a) 5 years from the date of starting the log book
c) 3 yrs from the date of last entry
b) 5 years from the date of last entry
d) 10 yrs from the date of last entry

6. A double white cross displayed on a signal square indicate

a) area not fit for the use of aircraft
c) take permission before landing
b) gliding in progress
d) prohibited area

7. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for

a) 2 years
c) 1 year if age is less than 40 years
b) 1 year
d) 2 years if the age is less than 40 years

8. Letter 'W' in ATS Route designator indicates:

a) Domestic routes
b) International routes
c) Regional routes
d) None of the above

9. Position report is required to be given when

b) crossing an FIR
c) if so required by ATC
b) over a compulsory reporting point
d) all are correct

10. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

b) Aeradio
 b) AIP
c) Notams
d) AIRACS

11. The highest point on the landing area is called:

a) Aerodrome elevation
b) Runway elevation
c) ARP
d) Threshold elevation

12. Anti-collision light is a light :

a) Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower
b) A red light on the port wing of the aircraft
c) A red light visible 30deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is visible in all
directions
d) The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights

13. Operational Manual is:

a) Prepared by the manufacturer and authorized by operator
b) Prepared by the DGCA and authorized by operator
c) Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer
d) Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA

14. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam Airport. The altimeter
reads 12000 ft. The commander will report his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of:
a) 12000' Altitude
b) F 120
c) 12000' a.g.l.
d) 12000' amsl

15. An aircraft is following a track of 179° (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels
available to the pilot is:
e) 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
f) 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
g) 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
h) 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275

16. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:
e) Do not land for the time being
b) Landings Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the
Maneuvering area

17. The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the DGCA
for an airport for Non Precession approach is:
a) 1500'
b) 1500 meters
c) 5 Nm
d) 3.7 km

18. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is:
a. 200
b. 900
c. 1200
d. 1000 hrs

19. Aerodrome operation minima is given by

a) DGCA
 b) Operator
c) Operator & is approved by DGCA
d) India Met Department

20. If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for
a) 1 yr
b) 6 months
c) 2 yrs
d) 5 yrs

21. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PIC's action is:
c) To land immediately.
d) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
e) To inform DGCA.
f) To inform doctor on board.

22. The wreckage of crashed aircraft on R/W/ can be removed to:

a) extricate dead animals & persons
c) Permit movement of other aircraft
b) extricate animals & persons, dead or alive
d) All of the above are correct

23. An aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome, it can take off again:
a) with the permission of DGCA
b) without the permission of controller of Aerodrome
c) with the permission of nearest aerodrome control tower
d) Matter is to be reported to DGCA as an incident

24. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a
heavy or a medium aircraft is:
b) 2 minutes
b) 3 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) Non of the above

25. All flights above flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather Conditions:
a) F 280
b) F 150
c) F 140
d) F 100

26. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of:

a. Aerodrome
b) Local District Magistrate.
c) Operator.
d) DGCA

27. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

b) AIP
b) AIC
c) NOTAM
d) AIRAC

28. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is

b) 460
b) 450
c) 440
d) 400
29. The duty time of the trainee pilot:
a) is calculated as per the FDTL
b) is not affected by the FDTL
c) is the time calculated from take off to landing
d) is from "chokes off" time to "chokes on" time

30. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for
endorsement on his licence
a) With in 5 nm of an aerodrome
c) Any where
b) With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome
d) Cannot fly

31. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days

a) 100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot
c) 120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot
b) 100 hrs PIC & 30 hrs as Co pilot
d) 120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs as Co pilot

32. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses
with in a distance of:
a) 15 meters
b) 30 meters
c) 43 meters
d) 45 meters

33. At an aerodrome the aerobatics are to be carried out above 6000 feet
a) Beyond 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
b) Within 2 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
c) Beyond 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d) Beyond perimeter of aerodrome

34. The FDR has record of operation of preceding

a) 25 hours
b) 20 hours
c) 15 hours
d) 10 hours

35. The CVR has the capability of recording information

a) One hour or more
c) Atleast 15 mins
b) At least 30 minutes
d) There is no minimum limit

36. The CVR is fitted in an aircraft to

a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft
c) Both are correct
b) Help in accident investigation
d) Non of the above

37. The FDR is fitted in an aircraft to

a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft
c) Both are correct
b) Help in accident investigation
d) None of the above

38. The most effective way to use eyes at night is

a) Focus only at dim lights at a distance
 c) Scan slowly to center off vision
b) Flutter eyes rapidly
d) Focus only on bright lights

39. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and/or met report is called
c) Air report
d) All of the above
b) Met report
b) Position report

40. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference.On SSR you should to set
b) Mode A code 7500
c) Mode A code 7700
b) Mode A code 7600
d) Mode C code 7500

41. ADC is not required

a) Local flying area uptp 2000°
b) Within 5 nm of an aerodrome upto 1000'
c) Aerodrome Traffic zone upto 1000°
d) Below 5000' AMSL anywhere

42. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?

b) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
d) ETA Destination

43. A fresh flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than
b) One hour
b) 30 minutes
c) 15 mins
d) 5 mins

44. The designators for world wide ATS routes are in which colour
a) White
b) Red & Green
c) Red, Green, Blue & Amber
d) Red, Green, Blue, Amber & White

45. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy
aircraft is:
a) 2 minutes
(b) 3 minutes
(c) 5 minutes
(d) not required

46. The air report contains following items:

e) Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
f) Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
g) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing
h) All are correct

47. An aircraft can fly over a danger area

a) If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active
c) Out side the stipulated time
b) With the permission of ATC
d) Cannot fly at all
48. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when
e) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
f) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
g) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
h) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet

49. A series of red and green projectiles fired at an interval of 10 sec means
a) aircraft is flying over danger area
b) aircraft is flying over prohibited area
c) Aircraft is flying over restricted area
d) All of the above are correct

50. Mathura Refinery is a:

17. Danger Area
b) Restricted area
c) Prohibited area.
d) Terminal area.

---
Here is **Question Paper - 4**:
1. AIP India is published by:
a) DGCA
b) AAI
c) Civil Aviation Ministry
d) ICAO

2. AIP consists of:

a) 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD)
b) 4 parts (GEN, ENR, AD MET)
c) 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, COMM, ATC)
d) 2 parts (GEN, AD)

3. Regular amendments to the AIP will be:

a) Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year
b) Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July and Oct month of each year
c) Once every year in the month of April of each year
d) On as required basis

4. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
(a) Rising or falling
(b) turning
(c) motion reversal

5. A flight, which exceeds Mach number-1, cannot fly over:

g) Populated areas
b) Indian Air Space
c) Europe
d) High seas

6. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in
possession of valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:
a) Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the health of the
passenger
b) No action required
c) Inform Airlines office after landing
d) Inform health authorities of the place of departure

7. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated
instrument condition can cause:
(a) Pilot disorientation
(b) False horizon
(c) Elevator illusion

8. Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in India?
a) Class D Airspace is applicable to TMA, control zones and control areas
b) Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control
areas.
c) Class F in applicable to airspace outside CTAS/TMAS/CTRS/ATZS
d) Class G Airspace is applicable to airspaces other than D,E and F

9. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
(a) Tumbling backwards
(b) a nose up attitude
(c) a descent with the wing level

10. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a) Spinning in the opposite direction
 (b) Being in a nose up attitude
(c) Diving into the ground

11. An Aircraft shall report "long final" when it is at from the approach end of the rwy
b) 8NMs
b) 4NMs
c) 1NMs
d) 2 NMs

12. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be
reported as:
a) An accident
b) An incident
c) Not reportable
d) An Airport

13. A pilot should never cross a:

a) Stop bar which is switched off
c) A taxi holding position marking
b) Stop bar which is lighted
d) An intermediate holding position marking

14. FDTL for training flights does not restrict:

a) Flight Time
b) Flight Duty Time
c) Number of landings
d) all of the above

15. For a flight at night in VMC, the approach will appear to be

a) Same as day
b) Steeper
c) Speed will be more
d) Shallower.

16. Decision Altitude is applicable for:

a) Non Precision Approaches
c) Precision Approaches
b) PAPI Approaches
d) All of the above

17. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of

a) DGCA
c)Director General of Prisons
b) Controller of Aerodrome
d) Police Commissioner

18. Flight time/flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to:

a) Pilots only
c) P-i-C and Co-pilot
b) Pilots and cabin crews only
d) all flight crew personnel

19. Large accumulation of carbon mono-oxide in the blood results in:

a) Dizziness
b) Fear
c) Hot and Cold Sensations
d) Disorientation

20. Deviations from International Standards and recommended practices are published in:
 a) AIRAC
b) AICS
c) AIP
d) ICAO Annexures

21. To find current watch hours of a station you should look into:
a) AIRAC
b) AICs
c) AIP
d) Notams

22. 'ATIS' is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a) ATS information
c) Navigation Information
b) ATS and Met information
d) Traffic Information

23. Flight Manual is to be carried by

a) All aircraft
b) Scheduled aircraft only
c) If C of A states so
d) All aircraft other than aerial work aircraft

24. An aircraft is on a track of 030° (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370.
Other aircraft at F370 on a track of 100°(M) can cross the same point not earlier than:
a) 0422 hrs
b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster
c) 0427 hrs
d) 0402 hrs

25. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal
traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the
descending aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
a) 0215 hrs
b) 0220 hrs
c) 0225 hrs
d) 0250 hrs

26. OCA is used for determination of:

a) MDA
b) DA
c) Both MDA and DA
d) None of the above

27. The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a) 009° and 27° true
b) 090° and 270° true
c) 090° and 270° magnetic
d) 090° and 270° compass

28. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
a) may continue taxiing
b) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
c) should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
d) continue taxiing if runway is vacant

29. The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway is oriented approximately
a) 008° and 26° true
b) 080° and 260° true
 c) 080° and 260° magnetic
d) 080° and 260° compass

30. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

a) Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway
b) Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
c) Denotes intersecting runways
d) Denotes intersecting taxiways

31. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

e) there are obstructions on the airport
f) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather
minimums
g) the Air Traffic Control is not in operation
h) runway is blocked

32. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

a) operating at high airspeeds
b) heavily loaded
c) Developing lift
d) taxiing fast

33. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

a) sink below the aircraft generating turbulence
b) rise into the traffic pattern
c) rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway
d) rise towards the engines of the aircraft

34. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
a) Inward, upward, and around each tip
b) Inward, upward and counterclockwise
c) Outward, upward, and around each tip
d) Outward, upward and away from each tip

35. When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly
alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a) rise from crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path
b) rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
c) Sink into the flight path of aircraft generating the turbulence
d) Stay on runway in strong cross wind conditions

36. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
a) light, dirty and fast
b) heavy, dirty and fast
c) Heavy, clean and slow
d) light, clean and slow

37. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on
landing is a
b) light, quartering headwind
c) strong headwind
b) light, quartering tailwind
d) strong tailwind

38. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
maneuvering the aircraft
a) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft
b) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
c) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft
 d) above and downwind from the heavy aircraft

39. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a) Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's
touchdown point
b) Below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's
Touchdown point
c) Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's
touchdown point

40. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex
avoidance?
a) Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown
b) Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path
c) Stay well below its final approach flight path
d) Make a normal approach and land

41. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at
the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
b) The other aircraft is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is approaching to the right
d) The other aircraft is crossing head-on

42. During a night flight, you observe steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at
the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is flying away from you
b) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
c) The other aircraft is crossing to the right
d) The other aircraft is approaching head-on

43. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
b) The other aircraft is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is approaching head-on
d) The other aircraft is crossing to the right

44. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during
daylight hours is to use
e) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o'clock positions
f) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
g) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
h) a series of eye movements focused at horizon

45. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during
nighttime hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o'clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d) focusing at lighted objects for 30 sec.

46. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
a) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
d) The nose of other aircraft is pointed towards your aircraft

47. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

 a) check altitude, airspeed, and heading
b) Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
b) announce their intentions to the nearest ATC
c) tighten seat belt

48. Most midair collision accidents occur during

a) hazy days
b) clear days
c) cloudy nights
d) dark nights

49. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
a) Night vision may be so impaired that pilot cannot see other aircraft.
b) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilots reactions are
affected.
c) The pilots may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

50. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a) Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
moderate instrument experience.
(b) Occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument
flight.
(c) Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.

---
Here is **Question Paper - 5**:
1. Oxygen is to be carried for all crew members and passengers above a absolute pressure of:
a) 800 hPa
b) 700 hPa
c) 620 hPa
d) 1000 hPa

2. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded

information concerning
a) Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to
an obstruction
b) Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c) Non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas
d) To warn pilots about conflicting traffic

3. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and
continue circling, the light will be
a) flashing red
b) steady red
c) alternating red and green
d) steady white

4. Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
a) Flashing green
b) Steady green
c) Flashing white
d) Steady Red

5. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in
flight is a signal to
a) hold position
c) Not land; the airport is unsafe
b) exercise extreme caution
d) Return to Apron

6. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a
controlled airport?
a) Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower
b) Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings
c) Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport
d) Rock wings

7. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

a) 118.0 and 118.8 MHz
b) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz
c) 123.0 and 119.0 MHz
d) 118.1 and 123.0 MHz

8. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
e) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
f) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
g) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
h) QFE

9. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot, adjust
the altimeter?
a) The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level
b) The elevation of the departure area
 c) Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
d) QNE

10. 620 hPa absolute pressures is equal to:

a) 10,000'
b) 13,000'
c) 15,000'
d) 25,000'

11. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under IFR at night for a propeller driven
aircraft?
a) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions
b) Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at
normal cruising speed
c) Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing thence to alternate and to fly after that
for 45 minutes
d) On as required basis

12. Taking simple medicine like 'aspirin' prior to a flight

a) Is safe
b) May slightly effect co-ordination
c) May reduce blood circulation
d) May seriously impair judgment

13. What is lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

a) 1,000 feet AGL
b) 1,500 feet AGL
c) 2,000 feet AGL
d) 6,000 feet AGL

14. The incubation period of relapsing fever is .days:

a. 6
b.7
c. 8
d. 10

15. Incubation period of yellow fever is days:

a. 6
b.7
c. 8
d. 9

16. Which statement best defines hypoxia?

a) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
b) An abnormal increase in the volume of air
c) A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles
d) Illusions during daytime

17. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as
a) hyperventilation
b) aero sinusitis
c) aerotitis
d) hypoxia

18. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

a) Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear
b) The excessive consumption of alcohol
c) An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen
d) Lack of sleep
19. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of
Hyperventilation by
a) Closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane
b) slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud
c) increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation
d) flying without looking at instruments

20. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

a) they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear
b) body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
c) eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments
d) adequate rest is not taken prior to flight

21. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition,
the best way to overcome the effect is to
a) rely upon the aircraft instrument indications
b) concentrate on yaw, pitch and roll sensations
c) consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal
breathing rate
d) ignore instruments and go by visual indications

22. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the
brain by various sensory organs is defined as
a) spatial disorientation
b) hyperventilation
c) hypoxia
d) stress

23. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced
by
a) shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel
b) having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs
c) leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft
d) breathing into a bag

24. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-
and -level flight?
a) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
b) Concentration on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
c) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left
d) Scan through the corner of the eyes

25. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
a) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity
b) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily
c) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
d) Objects appear to be closer than their actual distance

26. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
a) Do not stress eyes after sunset until ready for flight
b) Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
c) Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
d) Avoid any light atleast 30 min before the flight

27. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
a) Look only at far away, dim lights
b) Scan slowly to permit off center viewing
c) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds
 d) Scan fast to avoid direct viewing

28. The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
a) Look to the side of the object and scan slowly
b) Scan the visual field very rapidly
c) Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly
d) Look for anti collision lights

29. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

a) tightness across the forehead
c) an increased sense of well-being
b) loss of memory
d) lack of oxygen in blood stream

30. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

a) altitude increases
b) altitude decreases
c) air pressure increases
d) above 10,000 ft

31. What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying
under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
a) Continual flight into instrument conditions
b) Getting behind the aircraft
c) Duck-under syndrome
d) Continual flight into good weather conditions

32. What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
a) Structural failure
b) Mechanical malfunction
c) Human error
d) Special disorientation

33. Hypoxia is a result of which of the following conditions

a) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain
b) Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream
c) Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles
d) Lack of hemoglobin in blood

34. What causes hypoxia?

a) Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b) An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at high altitude
c) A decrease in the oxygen partial pressure
d) Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the atmosphere

35. A loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases
a) The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased
b) The percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased
c) Oxygen partial pressure is decreased
d) The percentage of CO2 in the air is increased

36. What is the symptom of carbon mono oxide poisoning?

a) Rapid shallow breathing
c) Dizziness
b) Pain & cramping of the hands & feet
d) Laziness

37. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on the function of body

a) Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude increases
 b) Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increases judgment & decision making
ability
c) Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee
d) Alcohol has no effect if taken more than 6 hrs before flight

38. What is the common symptom of hyperventilation?

a) Tingling of the hands & feet
c) Decreased breathing rate
b) Increased vision keenness
d) Euphoria

39. What would most likely occur in hyperventilation?

a) A stressful situation causing anxiety
b) The excessive consumption of alcohol
b) An extremely slow rate of breathing & insufficient oxygen
c) Dizziness

40. Scanning procedure for effective collision avoidance should constitute

a) Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat
b) 1 minute inside scanning then one minute outside scanning then repeat
c) Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is
unnecessary
d) Continuously looking outside

41. Small amounts of alcohol in the system:

a) May affect decision making abilities
c) Will not have effect at sea level
b) Will not affect judgment
d) Can be cured by meditation

42. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision
avoidance
a) One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed
b) One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed
c) One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement & is increasing in
size rapidly
d) Non of the above

43. When using earth's horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other
aircraft most concern would be for aircraft
a) Above the horizon & increasing in size
c) On the horizon & increasing in size
b) On the horizon with little relative movement
d) On the horizon & decreasing in size

44. When making an approach on narrower than usual runway without VASI assistance, the
pilot should be aware that the approach
a) Altitude may be higher than it appears
b) Approach altitude may be lower than it appears
c) May result in leveling off too high & landing hard
d) May result in an overshooting approach

45. When making a landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow pilot
should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to be
a) High
b) Low
c) Shallow
d) Normal
46. Haze can give illusion that the aircraft is
a) Closer to the runway than it actually is
b) Farther from the runway than actually is
c) The same distance from the runway as there is no restriction to visibility
d) High on approach

47. A sudden penetration of fog can give an illusion of

a) Pitching up
b) Pitching down
c) Leveling off
d) Descending

48. Rain on the wind screen can cause what illusion

a) No illusion
b) Lower than usual
c) Higher than usual
d) Normal approach

49. No authorized person must be present within mts of a/c while refueling is on
a. 15
b. 30
c. 50
d. 10

50. The maximum duty time limit per day extension is

a) 4 hrs
b) 2 hrs
c) 6 hrs
d) 8 hrs

---
Here is **Question Paper - 6**:
1. How can an instrument Pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
a) Rely on kinesthetic sense
b) Use a very rapid
c) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.

2. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000' in a controlled airspace
b) 5 kms
b) 8 kms
c) 10 kms
d) 3 kms

3. The lateral separation reqd. if an A/C is holding at a level

a) 10 NMs
b) 10 mins
c) 5 mins
d) 20 Nms

4. Threshold lights are

a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Alternate Red & Green

5. The 2nd section of an air report contains

a) ETA
b) Met Info
c) ATS Info
d) Position Info

6. Crossing of an ATS route should be at angle of:

a) 60°
b) 90°
c) 45°
d) 30°

7. Information about facilities on an aerodrome is found in

a) AICs
b) NOTAMS
c) AIRAC
d) AIP

8. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than NM and no Nav aid is present
with in Nm of route
a) 300 NM, 600 NM
b) 600 NM, 60 NM
c) 600 NM, 30 NM.
d) 300 NM, 60 NM

9. Control Zone is from

a) Surface of earth to a specified upper limit
b) 5000' to unlimited
c) Atleast 700'
d) None of the above

10. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will acknowledge signals from the ATC during day by
a) Switching on/off Nav lights
b) Rocking Wings
 c) Flickering Anti-collision lights
d) Flying low

11. Anti-collision lights are required on aircraft above

a) 1500 kg
b) 15000 kg
c) 5700 kgs
d) all ac rudder

12. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by
b) 5 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 10 mins
d) 2 mins

13. Night flying hours can be logged between mins after sunset to before sunrise:
a) 20 mins
b) 45 mins
c) 1 hrs
d) 15 mins

14. Runaway direction is measured from

b) True North
b) Compass North
c) Magnetic North
d) North Pole

15. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across
throat Indicates:
a) Stop
b) Cut Engines
c) Continue Straight
d) Turn Off

16. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC is %:
a) 50
b) 80
c) 60
d) 100

17. A Pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation?

a) Kinesthetic senses are ignored.
b) Eye are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instrument.
c) Body signal are used to interpret flight attitude.

18. The Min. Separation above F 290 is:

a) 2000'
b) 3000'
c) 4000'
d) 5000'

19. If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a) 15 NMs
b) 15 Mins
c) 20 NMs
d) 5 Mins

20. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in hrs

a. 12
 b. 24
c. 48
d. 60

21. The alert phase starts when an A/C cleared to land; fails to land within time of landing:
a) 3 mins
b) 2 mins
c) 5 mins
d) 10 mins

22. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Reduce head and eye movement to the extent possible.
(b) Rely on the kinesthetic senses.
(c) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

23. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than year's last entry.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 2

24. In which class of airspace does ATC provide separation for IFR traffic from all other IFR
traffic, but relies on VFR traffic to provide its own separation from all other traffic?
a) Class B
b) Class C
c) Class D
d) Class E

25. What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

a) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths
b) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal
c) Consciously force yourself to taken deep breathe and breathe at a faster rate than normal

26. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in Border:

a.15 km
b. 5 NM
c. 10 NM
d. 15 NM

27. What shape and colour is a landing direction indicator?

a) A white capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
b) An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c) A white or orange capital T; land along the stem towards the crospiece
d) An orange wedge shape in 3 dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge

28. How would you regonise an aiming point marking on a runway?

a) 2 thick yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centreline
b) 2 thick white lines close to and parallel to runway centreline
c) 2 pairs of yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centreline
d) 2 pairs of white lines close to and parallel to runway centreline

29. On a normal aerodrome, what colour should apron safety lines be painted?
a) White
b) Yellow
c) Any colour which contrasts with surface
d) Any colour which contrasts with the aircraft stand markings

30. What colour are (i) taxiway edge lights and (ii) runway edge lights?
a) i) yellow ii) white
 b) i)green ii) white
c) i) blue ii) white
d) i) green ii) yellow

31. What lights will a pilot see from the PAPI system if he is slightly low on the instrument
approach glide slope? Inboard means closer to the runway.
a) 3 white lights inboard of 1 red light
b) 3 red lights inboard of 1 white light
c) 1 white light inboard of 1 red light
d) 1red lights inboard of 3 white lights

32. How can a pilot determine from a distance that an aerodrome sign contains mandatory
instructions?
a) The writing will be red on a white background
b) The writing will be white on a red background
c) The sign will be outlined in yellow and black stripes
d) The sign will be yellow on a black background, or vice versa

33. How should a close part of a runway be marked?

a) With yellow and black marker boards
b) With red and white marker boards
c) With a white cross on the surface
d) With white chevrons on the surface

34. The pilot of an aircraft which has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk
of collision. Apart from monitoring the other aircraft' actions, what else must he do?
a) Maintain heading, speed, and altitude
c) Maintain altitude and speed only
b) Maintain heading and altitude only
d) Maintain heading and speed only

35. Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be considered an aviation
accident?
a) An engine disintegrates but causes no further damage
b) A wingtip is broken off in a collision
c) One passenger is stabbed by another
d) A passenger suffers second degree burns from a loose gallery kettle

36. Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be considered a serious
incident?
a) An engine disintegrates and prevents flap retraction
b) A passenger is taken ill with an infectious disease
c) The pilot takes avoiding action to prevent a near collision
d) A crew member falls in turbulence and breaks his leg

37. Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be considered an aviation
accident?
a) An extinguished engine fire damages the engine oil system
b) One pilot is incapacitated by food poisoning for 36 hours
c) An undercarriage leg requires replacement after a heavy landing
d) An aborted take-off bursts 6 tyres

38. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, number of cabin attendants
required is
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 7
39. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in
Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
b) 8000 meters
b) 5000 meters
c) 1500 meters
d) There is no minimum

40. If pilot sees the symbol 'X' during SAR operations, how can he tell the survivor that he
understands the message?
a) Fly low past the symbol and turn away sharply
b) Rock wings
c) Fly in circles around trhe symbol
d) Fly low past the symbol and climb steeply

41. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aeroplane must stay away from cloud in
Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
d) 1500 meters
b) 1800 meters
c) No minimum stated provided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
d) No minimum stated provided the aircraft is in sight of the surface.

42. What is correctly defined as "A situation wherein apprension exits as to the safety of an
aircraft and its occupants?
b) The uncertainty phase
a) The emergency phase
c) The alert phase
d) The distress phase

43. What mode A transponder setting means an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?
a) 7000
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700

44. If navigation lights fail the action of the pilot is

a) To continue to destination
c) Switch on obstruction lights
b) land at nearest aerodrome
d) land at alternate

45. UTC means

a) Universal Time Check
b) Coordinated Universal Time
c) United Time Check
d) None of the above

46. Incubation period for typhus is days:

a. 7
b. 5
c.10
d. 14

47. An A/C descending through the transition layer will report its height in
a) Flight Levels
b) AMSL
c) Altitude
d) AGL

48. Publicity material can be dropped from an A/C if it has the permission of
 a) DM/ Commissioner of Police
b) DGCA
c) Aerodrome officer
d) ICAO

49. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery is:

a) With in a radius of 1 NM
c) With in a radius of 20 km
b) With in a radius of 10 km
d) With in a radius of 10 Nms

50. Anti collision lights are lights

a) Steady Red
b) Rotating Red
c) Flashing Red
d) Red & White

---
Here is **Question Paper - 7**:
1. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters
b) Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters
c) Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.
d) Gliders shall give way to balloons.

2. When a clearance for an "immediate take-off' is accepted, the pilot shall

a) back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off.
b) Taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance.
c) Taxi onto the runway and takeoff in one continuous movement.
d) Complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway and taking off.

3. The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and/or imminent danger requiring
immediate assistance is
a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
c) SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY.
d) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.

4. Estimated elapsed time A to B 1hr 15minutes. Estimated stopover time at B 30 minutes.

Estimated elapsed time B to C 1 hr 20 minutes Using the above information, what time should
be entered in the "Elapsed Time "BOX OF VFR flight plan ?
a) 3hrs 50minutes.
b) 3hrs 20minutes.
c) 3hrs 05minutes.
d) 2 hrs 35 minutes

5. Minimum cross-country hours required for an Instrument Rating are:

a) 20 hrs
b) 40 hrs
c) 50 hrs
d) 60 hrs

6. The route navigation charges are on the basis of:

a) AUW
b) Length of aircraft
c) No. of Nav Aids used
d) No. of passengers

7. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptacle, which exceeds lts

a. .1000
b. 900
c.1500
d. 500

8. The demolition of buildings and trees act came into effect in the year:
a. 1934
b. 1937
c. 1994
d. 1954

9. In class A airspace
b) all flights are permitted.
b) only VFR flights are permitted.
c) Only IFR flights are permitted.
d) SPL VFR flights are permitted
10. Letter 'W' in ATS Route designator indicates:
b) Domestic routes
b) International routes
c) Regional routes
d) None of the above

11. The air traffic service which prevents the collision between aircraft is called
a) Alerting service
c) Air traffic control service
b) Flight information service
d) Air Traffic Advisory Service

12. Prohibited area around Malabar hill is mile.

a) 1 NM
b) 1 Mile
c) 5 NMs
d) 1 Km

13. Incubation period of yellow fever is days:

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 10

14. Separation between Medium A/C taking off behind heavy A/C (or) Light A/C taking off
behind Medium A/C is min:
a) 02mins
b) 5mins
c) 3mins
d) 1 min

15. Longitudinal separation between two A/C on same track is min

a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 5

16. A/C incident should be notified with in hrs.

a) 24 hrs
b) 12 hrs
c) 48 hrs
d) 36 hrs

17. Indian Airspace comes under class of airspace.

a)A&B
b) D& E
c) A,B,C& D
d) D,E,F& G

18. No unauthorized person must be present within mtrs of A/C, while refueling is on.
a) 15 mts
b) 30 mts
c) 50 mts
d) 10 mts

19. An aircraft must fly Nm away from International Border.

a) 10 NMs
b) 15 NMs
 c) 20 NMs
d) 25 NMs

20. VOR Track separation is

a) 15° at 30 NMs
b) 15° at 20 NMs
c) 15° at 15 NMs
d) 15° at 10 NMS

21. The duty time of the trainee pilot:

e) is calculated as per the FDTL
f) is not affected by the FDTL
g) is the time calculated from take off to landing
d) is from "chokes off" time to "chokes on" time

22. FL 145 can be used:

a) by eastbound aircraft on IFR plan
b) by westbound aircraft on VFR plan
c) By eastbound aircraft on VFR plan
d) non of the above

23. In VMC the vertical distance from cloud base is

a) 1000'
b) 2000'
c) 500'
d) 1.5 kms

24. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days

b) 100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot
c) 120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot
b) 100 hrs PIC & 30 hrs as Co pilot
d) 120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs as Co pilot

25. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by minutes.

a) 10 mins
b) 15 mins
c) 30 mins
d) 60 mins

26. In India separation between IFR and IFR is provided in class of Airspace.
a) B
b) A & B
c) D& E
d) D, E,F & G

27. TMA means

a) Terminal Maintenance Area
c) Terminal Control Area
b) The main Apron
d) None of the above

28. Displaced threshold lights will be in colour.

a) Red
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Yellow

29. Minimum obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain for an IFR light is

a) 1000' in 5kms
 b) 2000' in 8 kms
c) 2000' in 5kms
d) 1500'

30. Letter stands for non-scheduled flight in flight plan.

a) S
b) N
c) Z Z
d) NS

31. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than Nm and no Nav-aid is present
with in Nm of route.
a) 600 Nm/ 30 Nm
b) 300 Nm/30 Nms
c) 600 Nm/60 Nm
d) 300 Nm/60 Nm

32. The % of co-pilot flying is counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC.
a) 50%
b) 80%
c) 60%
d) 100%

33. 12 stripes of threshold markings indicate a rw width of

a) 30 m
b) 45 m
c) 60 m
d) 24 m

34. 4 pairs of touch down zone markings indicate landing distance available
a) 900m
b) 1200 to 1500 m
c) 1500 mto2399 m
d) 2400 m or more

35. The visibility minima for take off, if the aerodrome is not equipped with radio nav aid is km.
a) 8 kms
b) 10 kms
c) 5 kms
d) 3.7 kms

36. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in

a) 12 hrs
b) 24 hrs
c) 48 hrs
d) 60 hrs

37. A signal made by radio- telegraphy (or) by any other signaling method consisting, of the
group 'XXX' in Morse code indicates:
a) Distress
b) Urgency
c) Radio failure
d) Priority

38. Taxiway Centre line lights shall be of the following colour

a) white
b) red
c)blue
d) green
39. An Air-miss incident report made by radio (or) telephone must be confirmed with in days.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 7
d) 10

40. A person holding shall fly 'Aerial work Aircraft'

a) PPL
b) CPL/ATLP
c) IR
d) Multi Engine Rating

41. 'Flight by night 'means a flight performed between the periods of

a) 20 mins after sunset to 20 mins before sunrise
b) 15 mins before sunrise to 15 mins after sunset
c) 45 mins before sunrise to 45 mins after sunset
d) 60 mins before sunrise

42. 'RPL' shall be used for flights only.

a) VFR Flts
b) Domestic flights
c) IFR Flts
d) International Flight

43. 'Rockets (or) shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals from an
aircraft indicate
: a) Urgency
b) Priority
c) Distress
d) Over flying danger area

44. Which response is most correct with respect to wake turbulence?

a) Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind.
b) Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion.
c) Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight.
d) Response (a), (b), (c) is correct.

45. Wake turbulence is produced by

a) Heavy aeroplanes only, regardless of their speed.
b) turbo-jet powered aircraft only.
c) Fast moving aeroplanes only, regardless of their weight.
d) All fixed and rotary wing aircraft.

46. At an aerodrome the aerobatics can be carried out above 2000' feet
e) Within 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
f) Beyond 2 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
g) Within 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d) Beyond perimeter of aerodrome

47. Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by
a) Red flags.
b) Horizontal red squares with yellow diagonals.
c) A white or yellow X.
d) White dumb-bells.

48. Runway direction designator is:

a) QDM
b) QDR
 c) QTE
d) QNH

49. Runway threshold lights are

a) Unidirectional red lights
c) Unidirectional green lights
b) Omni directional yellow lights
d) Omni directional blue lights

50. Anti collision light is read. for A/C whose AUW exceeds
a) 1500 Kg
b) 5700 Kg
c) 10,000 Kg
d) 57,000 Kg

---
Here is **Question Paper - 8**:
1. If a passenger falls sick on board an A/C and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PIC's action is
a) To land immediately
b) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome atleast two hrs before landing
c) To inform doctor on board
d) off load passenger

2. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of

a) Aerodrome officer
b) Local District Magistrate
c) Operator
d) DGCA

3. If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 270° with its red light than PIC's action is
d) Give way
c) a) Turn right
b) Turn left
c) Maintain heading and Speed

4. An aircraft is crossing at right angle from left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is
a) Yellow
b) Red
c) Green
d) White

5. If an aircraft in circuit has R/T failure then the visual indication by pilot to acknowledge ATC
signals is:
a) Rock ailerons
b) Circle over aerodrome
c) Rock wings
d) land

6. Runaway direction is measured from

a) True North
b) Compass North
c) Magnetic North
d) North Pole

7. Survivors on land requiring assistance indicate it to A/C in air by

a) W
b) X
c) Y
d) V

8. Move extended arms down wards in a patting gesture, moving wands up and down from
waist to knees:
(a) Stop
(b) Land at helipad
(c) Slow down
(d) Cut engines

9. Emergency VHF frequency is

a) 118.6 MHz
b) 122.7 Mhz
c) 121.5 MHz
d) 127.0 MHz
10. Either arm or hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm down ward indicates
a) Slow down
b) Cut engine
c) Start engine
d) Stop

11. Minimum transition altitude in India for an aerodrome is

a) 4000' AMSL
b) 4000' AGL
c) 3000 above ground level
d) 3000' AMSL

12. An aircraft can fly over a danger area

b) If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active
c) Out side the stipulated time
b) With the permission of ATC
d) Cannot fly at all

13. DME separation between A/C on same track, same level and in some direction is
a) 10 NM
b) 20 NM
c) 15 NM
d) 5 NM

14. While crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at angles to the route.
a) 70°
b) 110°
c) 90°
d) 45°

15. Lateral separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is
a) 10 mins
b) 15 mins
c) 20 mins
d) 5 mins

16. Separation between climbing A/C, which is on crossing track of another A/C is
a) 10 mins
b) 15 mins
c) 5 mins
d) 3mins

17. ATC will inform RCC when A/C does not land within minutes of ETA.
a) 30 mins
b) 10 mins
c) 5 mins
d) 20 mins

18. If apprehension exists as to the safety of A/C and its occupants then it is called as
a) Distress phase
b) Uncertainty phase
c) Alert phase
d) None of the above

19. Within controlled airspace below 3000' feet, visibility reqd. for VFR is
a) 3000 mts
b) 5000 mts
c) 3700 mts
d) 1500 mts
20. Route Navigation charges are based on
a) Length of ac
b) Number of passengers
c) All up weight of ac
d) nav-aids Enroute

21. Operator should instal CVR capable of retaining information during atleast last of its
operation:
a) 30 mins
b) 1 hr
c) after 01 Jan 2003 2 hrs
d) 3 hrs

22. On X-country flight where reporting points are not available then reporting shall be made
after every min in.
a) 15 mins
b) 30 mins
c) 45 mins
d) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins

23. You are descending from F-200 to 12000 over Delhi. 13000' will be reported as
a) Altitude
b) F 130
c) AMSL
d) AGL

24. Information about aerodromes is contained in document.

a) Annex 2
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 14
d) Doc 4444

25. Jeppesen charts widely use projection

e) Mercator
b) Lamberts
c) Oblique Mercator
d) Polar Stereographic

26. Second section of 'Air Report' contains

a) ATC information
b) Position reports
c) met information
d) route information

27. 360° (M) is a:

a) East bound track in Semicircular system.
b) West bound track in Semicircular system
c) North bound track in Semicircular system
d) South bound track in Semicircular system

28. Approach Control Service is provided with in:

a) CTA
b) CTR
c) CTZ
d) TMA

29. For an operator who has not filed minima, visibility minima for take off, if the aerodrome is
equipped with VOR is Km:
 a) 5 kms
b) 3.7 kms
c) 1.5 kms
d) 3 kms

30. Mathura Refinery is a area.

a) Danger Area
b) Restricted Area
c) Prohibited Area
d) Terminal Area

31. FDTL for training flights does not restrict:

a) Flight Time
b) Flight Duty Time
c) Number of landings
d) All of the above

32. The wing tip vortices generated by a heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft
encountering them to
a) Go out of control
b) Continue descent even when maximum power is applied.
c) Sustain structural damages
d) Experience any of the above situations.

33. Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins

a) Before rotation
b) With rotation.
c) After becoming airborne.
d) With full power application.

34. Flight time/flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to:

b) P-i-c, Co-pilot, Flt Engg & Navigators only
b) Pilots and cabin crews only
c) P-i-C and Co-pilot only
d) all crew personnel

35. The maneuvering area of an airport is that area

a) Normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
b) Which includes the apron, taxiways and runways?
c) Used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
d) Used for taxiing, taking off and landing.

36. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
c) Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.
b) Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.
d) Helicopters shall give way to gliders.

37. Two aircraft are on approach to land, the following aircraft shall:
a) Climb.
b) Descend.
c) Alter heading to the right.
d) Alter heading to the left.

38. Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC
is the
a) Phrase "With the numbers "
c) Phrase "With the information ".
 b) Phrase "ATIS received "
d) ATIS phonetic identifier.

39. What is lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

a) 1,000 feet AGL
b) 1,500 feet AGL
c) 2,000 feet AGL
d) 6,000 feet AGL

40. The maximum duty time limit per day extension is

a) 4 hrs
b) 2 hrs
c) 6 hrs
d) 8 hrs

41. Control Zone is from

a) Surface of earth to a specified upper limit
b) 5000' to unlimited
c) At least 700'
d) None of the above

42. Two a/c flying in the vicinity of aerodrome under radar control will be separated by :
(a) 15 nm
(b) 10 nm
(c) 5 nm
(d) 3 nm

43. Anti-collision lights are required on aircraft above

a) 1500 kg
b) 15000 kg
c) 5700 kgs
d) all ac rudder

44. An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above F 290 on a track of 290 deg M shall be flown
at
a) F295, F315, F335, F355
c) F310, F350, F390, F430
b) F320, F360, F400, F440
d) F300, F340, F380, F420

45. An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within
a) A Control Zone.
c) A Terminal Control Area.
b) An Aerodrome Traffic Zone.
d) An airway.

46. A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively: "In flight ","on the
ground " "a) airport unsafe, do not land; ","taxi clear of landing area in use " "b) give way to
other aircraft and ","Stop. " "continue circling; ", "c) do not land for time being; ","return to
starting point on airport. " "d) you are in prohibited area, alter ","stop " "course; ",

47. A steady green light directed at an aircraft means respectively "In flight ","on the ground "
"a) cleared to land; ","cleared to taxi " "b) return for landing; ","cleared to taxi " "c) return for
landing; ","cleared for take off. " "d) cleared to land; ","cleared for take off. "

48. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000' msl and below 10,000 'MSL.
a) Provided flight visibility is 1500 m.
c) Provided flight visibility is 5000 m.
b) Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.
 d) Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.

49. A prohibited area means an area over which:

a) Flight within 2 miles is prohibited.
c) Low flying is prohibited.
b) Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.
d) Only instrument flying practice can be done.

50. An aircraft should be refueled:

a) Inside a hanger.
b) Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
c) In the open.
d) Wherever adequate facility exists.

---
Here is **Question Paper - 9**:

1. Night flying hours can be logged between mins after sunset to mins before sunrise:
a) 20 mins
b) 45 mins
c) 1 hrs
d) 15 mins

2. What is defined as " A unit established to provide flight information and alerting service"?
a) Air Traffic Service Unit
c) Area Control Service
d) Flight Information Centre
b) Aeronautical Service

3. In which class of airspace does ATC provide separation for IFR traffic from all other IFR
traffic, but relies on VFR traffic to provide its own separation from all other traffic?
a) Class B
b) Class C
c) Class D
d) Class E

4. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft

a) May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.
b) May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation
of the aircraft.
c) Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA
d) Must take off after clearance from nearly aerodrome officer

5. An overtake aircraft whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of
the way of the other aircraft by:
a) Decreasing its speed.
b) Increasing its speed.
c) By altering the heading to the right.
d) By altering the heading to the left.

6. To which of the following must the pilot of a helicopter give way if it is on a converging
course with him and there is a risk of collision?
a) A balloon only
b) A glider or a balloon
c) A glider, a balloon or an airship
d) A glider, a balloon, an airship or an aero plane towing a glider.

7. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is:

a) One pilot.
b) Two pilots,
c) As specified in it's certificate of the Airworthiness.
d) The flight instructor along with private pilot.

8. Within a control zone, the air traffic control is provided by

a) Area control
b) Aerodrome Control
c) Approach Control
d) Flight Information control

9. The pilot of an aircraft that has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk of
collision. Apart from monitoring the other aircraft' actions, what else must he do?
b) Maintain heading, speed, and altitude
c) Maintain altitude and speed only
b) Maintain heading and altitude only
 d) Maintain heading and speed only

10. Anit-collision light is required for a/c whose AUW exceeds:

a)1500 kg.
b) 5700 kg
c) 10000 kg.
d)14,000 kg

11. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is:
a) 200 hrs.
b) 900 hrs
c) 1200 hrs
d) 1000 hrs.

12. If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 270 with its red light then PIC's action is:
a) Turn right
b) Turn left
c) Maintain heading and speed
d) Give way.

13. If navigation lights fail at night the action of the pilot is

a) To continue to destination
c) Switch on obstruction lights
b) land at nearest aerodrome
d) land at alternate

14. While crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at angles to the route:
1)70°
b)110°
c)90°
d)45°

15. If apprehension exists as to the safety of a/c and its occupants then it called as:
a)Distress phase
b)Uncertainty phase
c)Alert phase
d)None of the above.

16. An aircraft should not taxy behind a jet aircraft, less than:
a) 100°
b) 200°
c) 150°
d) 300°

17. A flight, which exceeds Mach number-1, cannot fly over:

a) Populated areas
b)Indian Air Space
c) Europe
d)High seas

18. Incubation period of Chicken Pox is:

a)14 days
b)7 days.
c)8 days
d)9 days.

19. Indian airspace comes under class of airspace:

a) A & B
b) D & E
 c) A,B,C, & D
d) D, E, F, & G

20. Semi-circular rules starts from flight level:

a) 140
b) 10
c) 150
d) 290

21. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than NM and no Nav aid is present
with in Nm of route
a)300 NM, 600 NM
b)600 NM, 60 NM
c)600 NM, 30 NM.
d)300 NM, 60 NM

22. Taxiway Centre line light shall be of the following colour

a) White
b) Red
c) Blue
d) Green

23. Minimum vertical separation in mountainous area for aircraft flying IFR flights is
a) 1000° with in 5 km radius of the aircraft
c) 2000' within 8 Km of the estimate position of the a/c
b) 1500' AGL
d) none of these

24. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in of International Border:
a) 15 km
b) 5 NM
c) 10 NM
d) 15 NM

25. An A/C descending through the transition layer will report its height in
a) Flight Levels
b) AMSL
c) Altitude
d) AGL

26. A passenger transport aircraft with 250 seats departs on a flight with a passenger load of
136. The number of flight attendants required is:
a) 5
b) 3
c) 6
d) 10

27. When approaching an airfield within a TMA the altimeter setting to be used, having passed
through the transition altitude is:
a) Airfield QNH
b) Airfield QFE
c) Regional QNH
d) Regional QFE

28. The maximum permitted flight time for flight crew is:
a) 69 hours in the 27days prior to the flight
b) 100 hours in the 27days before the current flight
c) 1000 hours in the year up to the end of the month prior to the present flight
d) 1200 hours in the year upto end of the month prior to present flight
29. A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means :
a) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
b) Return to the airfield and land
c) Give way to another aircraft and remain in the circuit
d) Notwithstanding any other instructions do not land at the moment

30. Airfield elevation is the altitude of the:

a) Highest point on the airfield
c) Highest point on the runway
b) Highest point on the landing area
d) Lowest point on the maneuvering area

31. If PIC of an a/c flying sees the red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270°
then the action of pilot:
a) Turn Right
b) No action
c) Turn left
d) Give way

32. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure
airfield are satisfactory :
a) Cloud base and visibility
c) Cloud base and RVR
b) Cloud ceiling and RVR
d) MDH and RVR

33. With regard to flight time limitations, "flight time "means:

a) The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of
taking off until it comes to rest after the flight
b) The time between take-off and landing
c) The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one
and a half hours
d) The time from crew report to 30 minutes after landing

34. A black letter "C" on a yellow background indicates:

a) The location of ATC on an airfield
c) The location of the control tower
b) The location where visiting pilots should report
d) Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots

35. The retinal size of an aircraft approaching on a collision course :

a) Remain the same as the aircraft approaches
b) Decreases at a uniform rate as the aircraft approaches
c) Increases at a very slow rate until shortly before impact
d) Increases at a uniform rate as the aircraft approaches

36. After a general anaesthetic one should not fly for:

a) 72 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 48 hours

37. Class 'G' airspace in India

a) Is a controlled airspace where Air traffic advisory service is provided to both IFR & VFR
flights.
b) Is an uncontrolled airspace where only flight information service is provided to both IFR &
VFR flights
c) Is airspace of defined dimension where IFR flights are provided Air Traffic Advisory
service and VFR flight receive flight information service.
d) Includes controlled and uncontrolled airspaces

38. Air plane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?
a) Airplane A; pilot should after course to the right to pass.
b) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
c) Airplane B; the pilot expect to be passed on the left.
d) None of the above

39. What is the minimum visibility requirement in India under special VFR operation in Class D
airspace below 10000 feet
a) Day-2 Km
b) Day-3 Km
c) Day- 1.5 Km when so prescribed by appropriate ATS authority.
d) Day-1 km

40. Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
a) The engines are at maximum thrust output at slow air speed
b) The rear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
c) Of the high angle of attack and high gross weight
d) Lift is greater than the drag

41. What is the definition of MEA?

a) The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b) Lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle requirements assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage, two way radio communications, and provides adequate radar
coverage.
c) An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance
d) An altitude which ensures minimum 1000' clearance from all obstacles

42. Avoiding wake turbulence is

a) The sole responsibility of the ATC.
b) The sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of wake
turbulence.
c) A responsibility shared by both the pilot and ATC.
d) The sole responsibility of the pilot.

43. Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately

a) before rotation
b) following take-off
c) above its flight path.
d) following full power application.

44. What colour navigation light would a pilot see on an aircraft which he is overtaking at night?
a) Red
b) Yellow
c) Green
d) White

45. Anti collision lights are lights

a) Steady Red
b) Rotating Red
c) Flashing Red
d) Red & White

46. What does a flashing white light from ATC indicate to the pilot of a taxiing aircraft?
a) Clear the landing area immediately
b) Taxi to the holding point for the runway in use
 c) Hold your position and await a flashing green light
d) Return to the starting point on the aerodrome

47. If a marshaller holds his hand down and waves is right arm continually upwards and
backwards, what does he want the pilot to do?
a) Turn right while moving forward
b) Turn left while moving forward
c) Start the left engine
d) Start the right engine

48. Indian Airspace comes under class of airspace.

a)A&B
b) D& E
c) A,B,C& D
d) D,E,F& G

49. In India separation between IFR and IFR is provided in class of Airspace.
a) 'D'
b) A & B
c) D& F
d) D, E,F & G

50. Anti collision light is reqd. for A/C whose AUW exceeds
a)1500 Kg
b) 5700 Kg
c) 10,000 Kg
d) 57,000 Kg

---

Okay, here are all the questions and options from Question Papers 10 through 15, with no
answers and no citation marks.
**Question Paper - 10**
1. Approach Control Service is provided with in
a) CTA
b) CTR
c) CTZ
d) TMA

2. An overtake aircraft whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of
the way of the other aircraft by:
a) Decreasing its speed.
b) Increasing its speed.
c) By altering the heading to the right.
d) By altering the heading to the left.

3. Within a control zone, the air traffic control is provided by

a) Area control.
b) Aerodrome Control.
c) Approach Control.
d) Flight Information control.

4. The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered

a) 09
b) 90
c) 27
d) 270

5. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies ?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
b) Aeroplanes shall give way to power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.
c) Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
d). Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to Gliders.

6. When converging at approximately the same altitude:

a) Balloons shall give way to hang gliders.
b) Aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons.
c) Balloons shall give way to gliders.
d) Balloons shall give way to airships.

7. ATIS is normally provided:

a) To replace the SMC.
b) To relieve frequency congestion.
c) For the rapid updating of weather forecasts.
d) Only when VFR conditions exist at airports.

8. If you see an aircraft light on a relative bearing given below, action by you will be Red 060
deg
a) No risk of collision
b) Turn Port
c) Turn Starboard
d) Maintain heading & Speed

9. Green 290 deg

a) No risk of collision
b) Turn Port
c) Turn Starboard
d) Maintain heading & Speed
10. White 340 deg
a) No risk of collision
b) Turn Port
c) Turn Starboard
d) Maintain heading & Speed

11. Red and Green 000 deg

a) No risk of collision
b) Turn Port
c) Turn Starboard
d) Maintain heading & Speed

12. Green & Red 030 deg

a) No risk of collision
b) Turn Port
c) Turn Starboard
d) Maintain heading & Speed

13. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one years is:
a) 200 hrs.
b) 900 hrs
c) 1200 hrs.
d) 1000 hrs.

14. A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from

a) 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
b) 7,00 feet above the surface of the earth.
c) the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
d) a specified height above the surface of the earth.

15. When on VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of clouds by at
least
a) 5,00 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.
b) 5,00 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.
c) 1,000 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.
d) 1,000 feet vertically and 3 km horizontally.

16. A steady red light directed at an aircraft means

a) give way to other aircraft & continue circling; stop
b) give to other aircraft & continue circling; taxi clear of landing area in use.
c) airport unsafe do not land; taxi clear of landing area in use.
d) airport unsafe do not land; stop

17. A VFR flt takes off from Jaipur at 1040 hrs for Ahmedabad. Sunset time at Ahmedabad
is1232hrs. What is the maximum flying time available to the p-i-c to land at Ahmedabad?
a) 1 hr and 52 mins
b) 1 hr and 22 mins
c) 2 hrs 02 mins
d) 2 hrs and 22 mins

18. Indian ATS Routes come under class of airspace:

a) A & B
b) E
c) A, B, C, & D
d) D, E, F, & G

19. An aircraft not fitted with navigation lights cannot be flown:

a) At any time.
b) During hours of night.
 c) Without permission of aerodrome officer.
d) Without permission from the DGCA.

20. Series of Red flashes from control tower when aircraft is in flight means:
a) Aerodrome is closed
b) Aerodrome is unsafe, do not land
c) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
d) Disregard previous instruments; do not land for the time being.

21. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to:
a) Seating capacity of the aircraft.
c) All-up weight of the aircraft.
b) Number of passengers on board the aircraft.
d) No charges are levels; if free passengers are carried.

22. The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks:
a) 6 hrs before commencement if flight
b) 12 hrs before commencement of flight.
c) 24 hrs before commencement of flight.
d) 36 hrs before commencement of flight.

23. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within:

a) 35 mtrs
b) 30 m.
c) 100 mtrs
d) 43 m

24. A person can bring unto India human remains of a person who may have died of plague:
a) If enclosed in a wooden box.
b) If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
c) If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell if zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority.
d) Cannot bring them.

25. Flight plan must be filed;

a) For all flights
b) For schedule flights only
c) For training flights only
d) IFR flights proposed to be conducted in controlled airspace only:

26. The letter 'C' displayed vertically in black against a yellow background indicates the
location of the:
a) Control Tower
c) Aircraft services briefing office.
b) Airline movement control.
d) Air traffic services reporting office.

27. The maximum permitted flight time for flight crew is:
a) 69 hours in the 27days prior to the flight
b) 100 hours in the 27days before the current flight
c) 1000 hours in the year up to the end of the month prior to the present flight
d) 1200 hours in the year up to end of the month prior to present flight

28. All the flights at night must be conducted in accordance with IFR.
a) When the aircraft is flown at or above F 150.
b) If weather condition do not permit VMC operation.
c) If aircraft is flown within a controlled airspace.
d) Irrespective of weather condition and flight level.
29. Horizontal separation of aircraft at same cruising level and in same track by time is:
a) 30 min.
b) 20 min.
c) 10 min.
d) 15 min.

30. Letter 'W' in air routes designates:

a) Domestic Routes
c) Route in western routes
b) International Routes
d) Area navigation routes.

31. Runway direction designator is: a) QDM.

b) QDR.
c) QTE.

32. Colour specification of rotating aerodrome beacon

a) Alternate white and red
c) Alternate white and green.
b) Blue
d) Green.

33. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PIC's action is:
a) TO land immediately.
b) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c) To inform DGCA.
d) To inform doctor on board.

34. An Aircraft is crossing at right angle left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is:
a) Yellow
b) Red
c) Green
d) White.

35. Minimum transition altitude in India for an aerodrome is:

a) 4000' AMSL.
b) 4000' AGL.
c) 3000' above ground level.
d) 3000' AMSL.

36. Lateral separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is:
a) 10 mins.
b) 15 mins
c) 20 mins
d) 5 mins.

37. In class 'D' airspace visibility required for VFR flight below 10000' ft.
a) 8000 mts.
b) 5000 mts
c) 3700 mts
d) 1500 mts.

38. On a X-country flight where reporting points are not available position report shall be made
every min in IMC.
a) 60 mins.
b) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins
c) 15 mins.
d) 45 mins
39. Second section of "Air Report" contains:
a) ATC information.
b) Position Report.
c) Met information.
d) Operational Information

40. Special Air Report is made by:

a) Aerodrome officer
b) Meteorology officer at Airport
c) An Aircraft
d) India Met Department

41. Runway end lights appear as:

a) Unidirectional green
b) Omni directional red
c) Unidirectional red
d) Unidirectional amber

42. The incubation period of relapsing fever is

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 10

43. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by:
a) 5 mins
b) 10 mins
c) 3 mins
d) 2 mins

44. Separation between medium a/c taking off behind heavy a/c of (or) light a/c taking off
behind medium a/c is:
a) 02 mins
b) 5 mins
c) 3 mins
d) 1 mins

45. No unauthorized person must be within mtr of a/c while refueling is going on
a) 15 mts
b) 30 mts
c) 50 m ts
d) 10 mts

46. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by:

a) 10 mins
b) 15 mins
c) 30 mins
d) 60 mins

47. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted to wards the renewal of CPL as PIC is:
a) 50%
b) 80%
c) 60%
d) 100%

48. With regard to flight time limitations, "flight time "means:

a) The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of
taking off until it comes to rest after the flight
 b) The time between take-off and landing
c) The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one
and a half hours
d) The time from crew report to 30 minutes after landing

49. In India night starts from

a) 20 mts after sunset
b) 30 mts after sunset
c) 20 mts before sunset
d) 30 mts before sunset

50. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, in number of cabin attendants
required is:
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 7
**Question Paper - 11**
1. Class 'G' airspace in India
a) Is a controlled airspace where Air traffic advisory service is provided to both IFR & VFR
flights.
a) Is an uncontrolled airspace where only flight information service is provided to both IFR &
VFR flights.
c) Is an airspace of defined dimension where IFR flights are provided Air Traffic Advisory
service and VFR flight receive flight information service.
d) Includes controlled and uncontrolled airspaces

2. Air plane A is overtaking airplane B. which airplane has the right-of-way?

a) Airplane A; pilot should alter course to the right to pass.
b) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
c) Airplane B; the pilot expect to be passed on the left.
d) None of the above

3. "Controlled Airspace "means airspace of defined dimensions within which

a) Control Zone regulations are in force
b) Security regulations are in force.
c) Special VFR flight only is permitted
d) An ATC service is provided.

4. A series of green flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively

a) Cleared to land; Cleared to taxi
b) Return for landing; Cleared for take off.
c) Return for landing; Cleared to taxi
d) Cleared to land; Cleared for take-off

5. A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the maneuvering area of an airport means
a) Stop
b) Return to starting point on the airport.
c) Cleared to taxi.
d) Taxi clears of landing area in use.

6. Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to

a) Return to the apron
b) Vacate the runways immediately.
c) be aware that an emergency is in progress; continue with caution
d) be aware that an emergency is in progress; hold your position

7. The starboard navigation light of an aircraft is visible over an arc of:

a) 70 Degrees
b) 140 degrees
c) 110 degrees
d) 220 degrees

8. Under what circumstances should an aircraft giving way alter its course to the left?
a) At all times
c) Only when overtaking on the ground
b) Only when overtaking in the air
d) Never

9. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
b) Aero planes shall give way to power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.
c) Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
d) Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to Gliders
10. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted:
a) Provided the owner has no objection.
b) Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.
c) Without restricted if no passengers are carried.
d) Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits

11. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only:

a) If the sale deed is not yet completed.
b) For purpose of test flight only, prior to purchase.
c) If it is used for Govt. Work.
d) If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.

12. A Control Area normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from

a) 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
b) 7,00 feet above the surface of the earth.
c) The surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
d) A specified height above the surface of the earth, which should not be less than 200 mts

13. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from:
a) Aerodrome office
b) DGCA
c) Central Govt.
d) Defence Ministry

14. Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided in airspace classified as

a) Class E
b) Class F
c) Class G
d) Class A

15. When two power driven aircraft are in crossing course, the responsibility of avoiding
collision, rests with:
a) Heavier a/c
b) Lighter a/c
c) The a/c which has the other a/c to its right.
d) The a/c which has the other a/c to its left.

16. The a/c approaching to land at an aerodrome changes its altimeter subscale setting to QNH
setting while crossing:
a) Transition altitude
b) Transition level
c) Sector safety altitude
d) Route safety altitude

17. An a/c flying low due to thunder storm for safety reasons can be sued by:
a) State Govt.
b) Municipal Corporation
c) Owner of the property over which it is flying
d) Cannot be sued.

18. During the distress phase an a/c

a) Switches on and off its landing lights
c) Speaks PAN on R/T.
b) Speaks MAY DAY on R/T
d) Selects SSR mode a code 7000.

19. When flying outside a regular route, an aircraft should report its position to the appropriate
ATS unit.
 a) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins
c) On crossing every NDB or VOR Station.
b) Every one hour.
d) As and when convenient

20. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat I runways is:
a) 0.3mts
b) 0.6mts
c) 0.45mts
d) 0.9mts

21. Aircraft intending to fly in formation:

a) Cannot fly
c) Can fly with permission for DGCA
b) Can fly during daytime
d) Can fly with prior arrangement

22. A horizontal white dumbbell displayed in signal area means:

a) Pilot to exercise caution due bad state of the maneuvering area.
b) Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runway and taxiways only.
c) Aircraft are required to land/take off on runway only but may use grass area for taxing.
d) Aerodrome closed.

23. An alternate aerodrome means:

a) An aerodrome specified in the flight plan to which a flight may proceed when it becomes
in advisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
b) Any aerodrome other than the aerodrome of intended landing which may be used by an
aircraft.
c) An aerodrome where an aircraft may be forced to land due to unavoidable circumstances.
d) An aerodrome situated at the same location other than the aerodrome of intended
landing.

24. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even
during broad day light, when aircraft are flown:
a) At or above F150
c) At or above F 200.
b) Within controlled airspace.
d) In designated areas or designated routes.

25. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even
during broad day light, when aircraft are flown:
a) In class 'D' airspace
c) In class A airspace
b) Within controlled airspace.
d) In designated areas or designated routes.

26. The "Certificate of Airworthiness" of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an

aircraft:
a) Is involved in an accident/incident.
b) Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.
c) Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.
d) In involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules..

27. While flying over high terrain or in mountainous regions, as IFR flight shall be flown at a
level which is at least.
a) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
b) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
 c) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
d) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms of the estimated position of the
aircraft.

28. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
(a) rising or falling
(b) turning
(c) motion reversal

29. A person died of cholera, his body can be brought to India if:
a) Packed in a wooden box.
b) Cannot be brought.
c) Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell
enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust
impregnated with carbolic powder.
d) Permitted by the DGCA.

30. Flight Duty Time can be extended by hrs in a day:

a) 3 hrs
b) 4 hrs
c) 5 hrs
d) 6 hrs

31. A light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft requires a spacing of:
a) 2 min.
b) 3 min.
c) 5 min
d) 4 min

32. FDTL for 2 crew international flight is hrs and landing.

a) 10 hrs and 3 landings.
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings.
b) Three hrs and 9 landings.
d) 8 hrs and 3 landings.

33. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of:

a) Aerodrome
b) Local District Magistrate.
c) Operator
d) DGCA.

34. Emergency µHF frequency is:

a) 121.5 MHz
b) 256.0 MHz
c) 243.0 MHz
d) 127.0 MHz

35. DME separation between a/c on same track, same level and in same direction is:
a) 10 NM.
b) 20 NM.
c) 15 NM.
d) 5 NM

36. Separation between climbing a/c, which is on crossing track of another a/c is:
a) 10mins
b) 15mins
c) 5mins
d) 20mins.
37. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate in IMC or simulated instrument
conditions can cause:
(a) pilot disorientation
(b) false horizon
(c) elevator illusion

38. Information about rules of the air is contained in ICAO document.

a) Annex 2
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 14
d) Doc 4444.

39. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground
lights and stars can create an illusion known as:
(a) Elevator illusions
(b) autokinesis
(c) false horizons

40. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
(a) Tumbling backwards
(b) a nose up attitude
(c) a descent with the wing level

41. An a/c climbing through the transition layer will reports its height in:
a) Flight Levels
b) AMSL
c) Altitudes
d) AGL

42. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a) spinning in the opposite direction
(b) being in a nose up attitude
(c) diving into the ground

43. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
(a) Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
(b) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are
affected.
(c) The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

44. Longitudinal separation between two a/c on same track is:

a) 10mins
b) 15mins
c) 05mins
d) 20mins

45. Separation above F410 is:

a) 1000'
b) 3000'
c) 2000'
d) 4000'

46. Rashtrapati Bhawan is a

a) Danger Area
b) Restricted Area
c) Prohibited Area
d) Non of the above
47. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in:
a) 12 hrs
b) 24 hrs
c) 48 hrs
d) 60 hrs

48. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a) are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
moderate instrument experience.
(b) occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument
flight.
(c) must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.

49. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than years after
completion:
a) 1 yr
b) 3 yr
c) 5 yr
d) 2 yr

50. Incubation period for typhus is:

a) 7 days
b) 5 days
c) 10 days
d) 14 days
**Question Paper - 12**
1. International flight flying time in one day is restricted to for flight crew:
(a) 9 hrs 3 landing
(c) 8 hrs 4 landing
(b) 6 hrs 4 landing
(d) 8 hrs 3 landing

2. Pilot to act as PIC of a public transport a/c should have flown on that route times:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

3. A flight to be operated at altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure in personnel

compartments will be less than 700 hpa should not be commenced unless sufficient stored
breathing oxygen is carried to supply:
(a) all crew
(b) all crew and Passengers
(c) all crew members and passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in
compartments occupied by them will be less than 620 hPa.
(d) all crew when pressure is bellow 700 hPa.

4. Runway threshold stripes are 8 on each side of central line of runway:

(a) 30 m
(b) 45 m
(c) 60 m
(d) 23 m

5. RVR for a runway filed by an operator is 500m. Threshold RVR is reported to be 800 m. It
is:
(a) above filed minima
(b) below filed minima
(c) with in minima if mid RVR is above 450m
(d) with in minima if both mid RVR and stop end RVR are above 500m.

6. For a VFR flight making approach at night, the approach will be

(a) faster than normal approach
(c) shallower than normal
(b) steeper than normal
(d) Non of the above

7. Draft amendments to aircraft rules 1937 will be published in:

(a) AIP
(b) AIC
(c) AIP Supplement
(d) CARS

8. An aircraft on a reciprocal track will be separated by:

(a) 15 mins at the time of crossing levels
(b) 15 mins at the time climb is initiated
(c) 10 mins at the time levels are crossed
(d) 10 mins at the time the climb is initiated

9. In IMC, on a route where reporting points are not given, the reporting will be done:
(a) Every half an hour
(b) Every hour
(c) First report after 30mins and subsequent every 60mins
(d) On as required basis
10. A pilot involved in an incident whose flying has been stopped can start flying again with the
permission of:
(a) Operator
(b) DGCA
(c) Central govt.
(d) ATC

11. HAT for Precision approaches Cat II is:

(a) Nil
(b) 50°
(c) 100°
(d) 200°

12. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Rely on kinesthetic sense
(b) Use a very rapid cross-check
(c) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.

13. The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks:
h) 6 hrs before commencement if flight.
i) 12 hrs before commencement of flight.
j) 24 hrs before commencement of flight.
k) 36 hrs before commencement of flight.

14. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from:
a. Aerodrome officer
b. DGCA
c. Central Govt.
d. Indian Air Force

15. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Use a very rapid cross-check.
(b) Properly interpret the flight instrument and act accordingly.
(c) Avoid banking in excess of 30°.

16. If PPL holder is 30 years old, his license can be renewed for a period of yrs
(a) One
(b) 10
(c) Two
(d) 4

17. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within mts:

a. 35
b. 30
c. 100
d. 15

18. An a/c flying low due to thunder showers for safety reasons can be sued by:
(a) State Govt.
(b) Municipal Corporation.
(c) Owner of the property over which it is flying.
(d) Cannot be sued.

19. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation?

(a) Kinesthetic senses are ignored.
(b) Eye are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
(c) Body signal are used to interpret flight attitude.
20. A person can bring to India human remains of a person who has died of plague:
a. If enclosed in a wooden box.
b. If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
c. If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority.
d. Cannot bring them.

21. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft

a. May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.
b. May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation of
the aircraft.
c. Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA.

22. Aircraft intending to fly in formation:

a. Cannot fly.
b. Can fly during daytime.
c. Can fly with permission for DGCA.
d. Can fly with prior arrangement.

23. The "Certificate of Airworthiness" of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an

aircraft:
a. Is involved in an accident/incident.
b. Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.
c. Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.
d. Is involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.

24. If navigation lights fail at night then:

a. Land as soon as possible without endangering the safety of the aircraft.
b. Fly to destination.
c. Return to departure aerodrome.
d. Continue flying.

25. Aircraft meets with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be removed:
a. For smooth flow of air traffic.
b. For removing a dead body or injured person.
c. After taking photographs.
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct

26. A person dies of cholera, his body can be brought to India if:
a. Packed in a wooden box.
b. Cannot be brought.
c. Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell
enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust
impregnated with carbolic powder.
d. Permitted by the DGCA.

27. In case ICAO aircraft designator is not assigned, insert in item 9 of flight plan:
a) NA
b) TYP
c) Plain Language designator
d) ZZZZ

28. Inst. Chart procedures are given in:

(a) AIC
(b) NOTAMS
(c) AIRAC
(d) AIP

29. Inst. Charts carried in aircraft are contained in:

 (a)Operation Manual
(b) Aircraft Manual
(c) Route guides
(d) Operational Circulars

30. Danger areas are given in:

(a) AIRAC
(b) AIC
(c) AIP
(d) NOTAMS

31. To know the current watch hours at an aerodrome, pilot should refer to
(a) NOTAMS
(b) AIP
(c) AIC
(d) CARS

32. Vertical separation applicable to non-RVSM aircraft operative in RVSM airspaces is

(a) 500'
(b) 1000'
(c) 2000'
(d) 4000'

33. Weather below minima implies that:

a. RVR/Visibility and weather below minima specified by the operator
b. Weather below V MC
c. RVR/VIS and weather below minima specified by / ICAO
d. Cloud ceiling is below 1500' above the aerodrome

34. Two digits in black over yellow back ground hanging from the tower indicates
(a) Time in VTC (hrs)
(b) runway in use
(c) Location of ATS reporting point
(d) current visibility in kms.

35. Decision altitude is related to:

(a) Precision app
(b) Non precision app
(c) Circling app
(d) both 'a'& 'b'

36. Circling minimas are:

(a) Higher than precision app minimas
(b) lower than precision app minimas
(c) Same as than precision app minimas
(d) may be more or less than Precision app. Minimas

37. ARP is at the:

a) Geometric centre of an aerodrome
b) Highest elevation at an aerodrome
c) Designated point at the aerodrome.
d) None of the above

38. SIDS are published in:

(a) AIRAC
(b) NOTAMS
(c) CARS
(d) AIP
39. White flashes from tower to aircraft in flight means:
a. Return to this aerodrome and proceed apron
b. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron.
c. Land after green signal from Tower.
d. None of the alone

40. OCA is determined after taking into account margin for:

(a) Terrine clearance
(b) Pilot error
(c) Operational congregations
(d) Weather considerations.

41. RVR/DH for cat II ILS ops is:

(a) 550m/60
(b) 350m/30m
(c) 550m/30m
(d) 800m/60m

42. RVR/DH minima cat III A MLS is:

(a) 200m/Nil
(b) 50m/nil
(c) nil/nil
(d) Non of the alone

43. Position reports to be given by an aircraft in VMC, if no route is being followed will be at an
interval of
(a) 30 mins
(b) 60 mins
(c) First report after 30 mins and sub regent after 60 mins
(d) on as required Basis

44. Oxygen is carried on board for crew members and passengers when atmospheric pressure
will be less than:
(a) 620 hPa
(b) 700 hPa
(c) 376 hPa
(d) 800 hPa

45. A twin engine p-i-c has decided to divert due to failure of one engine. It will be
(a) Uncertainty phase
(b) Alert phase
(c) Distress phase
(d) Non of the above

46. An IFR flts will main train a minimum altitude of

a. 2000' above highest obstacle with in 8 kms of aircraft position in mountainous areas
b. 1000' above highest obstacle elsewhere
c. 1000' above highest obstacle with in 600m of aircraft position in mountainous areas.
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct

47. Prisoners can be carried on board with the permission of:

(a) Police commissioner
(b) DGCA
(c) DM
(d) DIG prisons

48. Indian airspace is classified as:

(a) A,B,C,D
(b) B,C,D,E
 (c) C,D,E,F
(d) D,E,F,G

49. Series of red flashes to an aircraft in flight indicate:

a. Aerodrome unsafe do not land
b. Give way to other ac and keep circling
c. Flying over danger area clear immediately
d. Wait for white signal to join circuit

50. VFR flts are not permitted:

(a) Above F 100
(b) Above FL150
(c) Above F 50
(d) above 3000 from terrain or water
**Question Paper - 13**
1. Advance notification for establishment of a VOR at an airport shall be notified by means of
a) AIRAC
b) AIP
c) NOTAM
d) AIC

2. A pilot involved in an incident whose flying has been stopped can start flying again with the
permission of :
(a) Operator
(b) DGCA
(c) Central govt.
(d) ATC

3. What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

(a) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
(b) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
(c) Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.

4. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

(a) Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
(b) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are
affected.
(c) The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

5. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a) Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
moderate instrument experience.
(b) occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument
flight.
(c) Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.

6. Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an
active runway 1000m of length should normally hold.
a) Clear of the maneuvering area
c) 50 m from the edge of the runway
b) 30 m from the edge of the runway
d) 60 m from the edge of the runway

7. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Rely on kinesthetic sense.
(b) Use a very rapid cross-check.
(c) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.

8. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Use a very rapid cross-check.
(b) Properly interpret the flight instrument and act accordingly.
(c) Avoid banking in excess of 30°.

9. Two a/c flying in the vicinity of aerodrome under radar control will be separated by:
(a) 15 nm
(b) 10 nm
(c) 5 nm
(d) 3 nm

10. The amount of fuel carried on board any propeller driven aeroplane at the commencement
of a day VFR flight must be sufficient, having regard to the meteorological conditions and
foreseeable delays that are expected in flight, to fly to the destination aerodrome
a) And then fly for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
b) And then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c) Then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising
speed.
d) Then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising
speed.

11. Width of Taxy track centre line markings is:

a) 6 cms
b) 30 cms
c) 10 cms
d) 15 cms

12. CTA extends from:

a) Ground level to a specified upper limit
b) At least 700' from the surface of the earth to unlimited
c) At least 5000' from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
d) None of the above

13. Speed limitations in class 'A' airspace are:

a) 250kts above 10,000' AMSL
c) Not applicable
b) 250 kts below 10,000' AMSL
d) Recommended in high density areas

14. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation?

(a) Kinesthetic senses are ignored.
(b) Eye are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
(c) Body signal are used to interpret flight attitude.

15. RVSM is:

a) Applicable in India
c) Applicable to VFR flts only
b) Not applicable in India
d) Applicable to military aircraft only

16. A Boeing 737 aircraft fails to arrive over DPN at 1135 UTC.His ETA DPN is 1105 UTC It will
be a:
a) Distress phase
b) Alert phase
c) Uncertainity phase
d) ALERFA

17. Aircraft that has right-of-way shall:

a) Maintain heading and speed
b) Turn right
c) Turn left
d) Take no action

18. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Reduce head and eye movement to the extent possible.
(b) Rely on the kinesthetic senses.
(c) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

19. In class 'D' airspace, a VFR Flt at F120 requires inflight visibility of:
a) 5kms
b) 1.5kms
c) 3kms
 d) 8kms

20. On a magnetic track of 000°, an IFR flt can fly at:

a) F 95
b) F120
c) F 170
d) F180

21. SIDs are used for:

a) IFR departures at busy aerodromes
c) For all aerodrome traffic
b) VFR flights only
d) For all arriving aircraft

22. RVR for a runway filed by an operator is 500m. Threshold RVR is reported to be 800m. It is:
(a) above filed minima
(a) below filed minima
(b) with in minima if mid RVR is above 450m
(c) with in minima if both mid RVR and stop end RVR are above 500m.

23. Hypoxia can be controlled by:

(a) Using oxygen above 5000 AMSL during day time
(c) Using oxygen above 5000 AMSL during night time
(d) Opening windows & air vents
(b) Breathing in a bag.

24. Decompression sickness causes:

(a) Lack of CO2 in blood.
(c) N2 babbles in tissues.
(b) Lack of O2 in blood.
(d) Over breathing

25. Flight plan shall be submitted atleast mins before departure

a) 30mins
b) 60mins
c) 45mins
d) 90mins

26. Annex dealing with operation of Aircraft is

a) Annex 2
b) Annex 6
c) Annex 11
d) Annex 14

27. AIP contains information on:

a) Aerodromes
b) Notams
c) AIRACs
d) AICS

28. Angle of intersection of Rapid Exit Taxiways with runway should not be more than:
a) 30°
b) 25°
c) 45°
d) 60°

29. Length of runway centre line stripe + gap should not be less than
a) 60 m
b) 75 m
 c) 30 m
d) 50 m

30. A major early symptom of Hypoxia is

a) An increased sense of well being
c) A sense of fear
b) A marked suppression of mental alertness
d) A sense of physical weakness

31. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in
Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
a) 8000 metres
b) 5000 metres
c) 1500 metres
d) There is no minimum

32. What is the maximum speed for an aircraft to fly under VFR at 8000 feet in class G
airspace in India?
a) 180 knots
b) 250 knots
c) 350 knots
d) There is no limit

33. In Cat II ILS approach, what is DH & RVR?

(a) 100° and upto 1500'
(c) 200° and upto 350m
(b) Below 200° and 550m
(d) 100' & upto 350m

34. What is the minimum cruise altitude under IFR (over non-mountainous terrain) allowed by
ICAO?
a) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position
b) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 2000 metres of its position
c) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 8 km of its position
d) 1500 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position

35. What mode A transponder setting means an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?
a) 7000
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700

36. If a military aero plane flies alongside you and rocks its wings, what should you do?
a) Follow it
c) Select 7700 on your transponder
b) Call on 121.50 MHz
d) All the above

37. What does a steady red light from ATC indicate to the pilot of an aircraft in flight?
a) Go-around
b) Do not land, divert
c) Land at this aerodrome after receiving a green light
d) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

38. What light signal indicates to the pilot of an aircraft in the air that he may land?
a) A steady green light
c) Both (a) and (b)
b) A flashing green light
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
39. What signal should the pilot use to tell his ground handler that his brakes are on?
a) Show his open hand then close it
c) Cross his hands in front of his face
b) Show his closed hand hen open it
d) Place his crossed hands in front of his face then uncross them

40. What does a white dumbbell in the signal area mean?

a) Landing prohibited
b) Take-offs, landings and taxiing must be made on paved surface only
c) Take-offs and landings must be made on paved surfaces, taxiing may be on grass
d) Make all take-offs, landings and taxiing on runways & taxiways only.

41. What ground signal indicates the runway in use to an aircraft in the air?
a) A white T in the signal area
c) Either (a) or (b)
b) White numbers in the signal area
d) Neither (a) or (b)

42. In the signals area there is a red square with a yellow diagonal. What does this mean?
a) The traffic pattern is right hand
b) All turns after take-offs and landings must be to the right
c) Landing prohibited
d) Take special care during approach and landing

43. What is defined as "Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the
reaction of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface"?
a) An aircraft
b) A flying machine
c) An airship
d) An aeroplane

44. Which type of controlled airspace touches the ground?

a) A Terminal Control Area
b) An Airway
c) A Control Zone
d) CTA

45. What Air Traffic Service gives a pilot information about possible conflicting traffic but no
advice as to the correct action to take to avoid it?
a) Flight Advisory Service
b) Flight Information Service
c) Radar Advisory Service & Radar Information Service
d) Radar Control & Procedural Control

46. In which Class of controlled airspace does ATC provide separation to IFR traffic from all
other traffic, no separation between VFR traffic, but VFR traffic must have clearance to enter
the airspace?
a) Class B
b) Class C
c) Class D
d) Class E

47. ATC may provide an Approach Control Service. For what traffic is it primarily provided?
a) All aircraft arriving at the aerodrome only
b) All aircraft arriving or departing the aerodrome
c) Controlled traffic arriving at the aerodrome only
d) Controlled traffic arriving or departing the aerodrome only
48. What is defined as "A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so
far as is practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flights plans. "?
a) Air Traffic Control Service
c) Flight Information Service
b) Air Traffic Advisory Service
d) Air Traffic Alerting Service

49. Cessna aircraft call sign VGA gives a call that he has a lot of smoke in the cockpit and is
going to land at a nearby field. It will be a:
a) Alert phase
b) Uncertainty phase
c) Distress phase
d) Non of the above

50. The aerobatics shall be carried out not below:

a) 6000'
b) 2000'
c) 5000'
d) 1000'
**Question Paper - 14**
1. Met report contains
(a) Air temp, turbulence, spot wind
(c) Air temp, cabin pressure, winds
(b) Air temp, clouds above, turbulence

2. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000' in a controlled airspace
a) 5 kms
b) 8 kms
c) 10 kms
d) 3 kms

3. Transition altitude at an aerodrome is above Msl in India

a) 2000' AMSL
b) 3000' AMSL
c) 4000' AMSL
d) 5000' AMSL

4. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Reduce head and eye movement to the extent possible
(b) rely on the kinesthetic senses.
(c) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

5. What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

(a) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
(b) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
(c) Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.

6. Change in frequency or location of navigational aids on short notice is notified through:

a) Notams
b) AIRAC
c) AIP
d) AIC

7. When body temp. is low, its called:

(a) Hyperventilation
(b) Antokinensis
(c) Hypothermia
(d) Hypoxia

8. Runaway end lights appear as lights:

a) Green
b) Blue
c) White
d) Red

9. Taxytrack center line lights are

a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Alternate Red & Green

10. IFR flight shall not be commenced if the weather at destination and alternate is
a) Above minima
b) CAVOK
c) below minima
d) IMC prevails
11. ADC is exempted for A/C flying within of the aerodrome and below
a) 10 NMS, 5000°
b) 5 NMS, 1000'
c) 5 NMS, 4000°
d) 5 NMS, 3000°

12. Runway centre line lights are:

a) Blue
b) White
c) Red
d) Amber

13. Crossing of an ATS route should be at an angle of:

a) 60°
b) 90°
c) 45°
d) 30°

14. An A/C descending through the transition layer will report its height in
a) Flight Levels
b) AMSL
c) Altitude
d) AGL

15. Information about facilities on an aerodrome is found in

a) AICs
b) NOTAMS
c) AIRAC
d) AIP

16. Publicity material can be dropped from an A/C if it has the permission of
a) DM/ Commissioner of Police
b) DGCA
c) Aerodrome officer
d) ICAO

17. A flight which exceeds Mach number-1, cannot fly over

a) Populated Areas
b) Indian Air Space
c) Europe
d) High Seas

18. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptable, which exceeds

a) 1000 lts
b) 900 lts
c) 1500 lts
d) 500 lts

19. The demolition of buildings and trees act was came into effect in year
a) 1934
b) 1937
c) 1994
d) 1954

20. If a passenger falls sick then action by PIC is

a) Inform Operator
b) Inform health officer of destination
c) Inform doctor on board
d) Inform DGCA
21. The incubation period of relapsing fever is days:
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 10

22. The route navigation charges are on the basis of

a) AUW
b) Length of aircraft
c) No. of Nav Aids used
d) No. of passengers

23. Control Zone is from

a) Surface of earth to a specified upper limit
b) 5000' to unlimited
c) Atleast 700'
d) None of the above

24. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will indicate to the ATC during day by
a) Switching on/off Nav lights
c) Flickering Anti-collision lights
b) Rocking Wings
d) Flying low

25. If PIC of an a/c flying sees the red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270
then the action of pilot
a) Turn Right
b) No action
c) Turn left
d) Give way

26. Anti-collision lights are required on aircraft above

a) 1500 kg
b) 15000 kg
c) 5700 kgs
d) all ac

27. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by
c) 5 mins
b) 3 mins
c) 10 mins
d) 2 mins

28. Night flying hours can be logged between

a) 20 mins after Sunset to 20 mins before Sunrise
b) 45 mins
c) 1 hrs
d) 15 mins

29. Runway direction is measured from

a) True North
b) Compass North
c) Magnetic North
d) North Pole

30. An A/C flying a track of 180° will fly at level on a IFR plan..
a) F 260
b) F185
 c) F90
d) F170

31. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with chest and moved laterally indicates
a) Stop
b) Cut Engines
c) Continue Straight
d) Turn Off

32. Apron is an area on aerodrome where following activities take place:

(a) Loading/unloading of passengers, mail and cargo only.
(b) Parking of aircraft only.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) loading/unloading of passengers, mail and cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance.

33. NDB separation is

a) 15° at 15 NMs
b) 30° at 15 NMs
c) 45° at 15 NMs
d) 15° at 30 NMS

34. Red pyrotechnic light to A/C in flight indicates

a) Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
b) Proceed to alternate
c) Keep circling
d) Total refusal to land

35. International flying time in one day is:

(a) 8 hrs 4 landing
(b) 8 hrs 3 landing
(c) 9 hrs 3 landing
(d) 6 hrs 4 landing

36. Aerodrome beacon light colour is

a) Alternate white & green
b) Green
c) Red
d) Alternate white & red

37. Anti collision lights are lights

a) Steady Red
b) Rotating Red
c) Flashing Red
d) Red & White

38. If an A/C flying at F290 is descending over Palam and its altimeter reads 12000 ft then the
pilot will report its height as
a) Altitude
b) Flight level
c) On QFE

39. For an IFR flt on a track of 180° (M), FL to be selected is

a) F 230
b) F 240
c) F250
d) F 255

40. If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a) 15 NMs
 b) 15 Mins
c) 20 NMs
d) 5 Mins

41. Pilot to act as PIC of a public transport a/c should have flown on that route:
(d) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

42. The pilot has to inform the ATC if its TAS changes by
a) 3% & 5 kts
b) 5% & 10 kts
c) 10% & 5 kts
d) 3 kts

43. The alert phase starts when an A/C fails to land within
a) 3 mins
b) 2 mins
c) 5 mins
d) 10 mins

44. No smoking shall be permitted within mtrs of A/C (or) fuelling equipment.
a) 15mtrs
b) 10mts
c) 30 mts
d) 50 mts

45. Flight to be operated in pressurized a/c, flight is not to commence unless oxygen is carried
to supply:
(a) All crew
(b) All crew Passengers
(c) All crew when pressure below 700 hPa.
(d) All crew passengers when below 800 hPa.

46. Runway threshold stripes are 8 on each side of central line of runway:
(a) 30 m
(b) 45 m
(c) 60 m
(d) 23 m

47. RVR for a runway filed by an operator is 500m. Threshold RVR is reported to be 800m. It is:
(a) Above filed minima
(b) Below filed minima
(c) With in minima if mid RVR is above 450m
(d) With in minima if both mid RVR and stop end RVR are above 500m.

48. For a VFR flight making approach at night, the approach will appear to be.
(a) Faster than normal approach
(c) Shallower than normal
(b) Steeper than normal
(d) Non of the above

49. Draft amendments to aircraft rules 1937 will be published in:

(a) AIP
(b) AIC
(c) AIP Supplement
(d) CARS
50. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude
a) Both aircraft shall alter heading to the left.
b) The aircraft on the right shall avoid the other by descending.
c) The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.
d) The aircraft that has other on its left shall give way
**Question Paper - 15**
1. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
a) Rising or falling
b) Turning
c) Motion reversal

2. What is the principle objective of a rescue and firefighting service?

a) To prevent the spread of fire to other aircraft and facilities
b) To minimize the damage caused by fire
c) To extinguish any fire with minimum delay
d) To save lives

3. An aircraft on a reciprocal track will be separated by:

(e) 15 mins at the time of crossing levels
b) 15 mins at the time climb is initiated
(c) 10 mins after the time levels are crossed
(d) 10 mins at the time the climb is initiated

4. If a pilot sees 2.5 meter symbol "X" on the ground, What does it mean?
a) A survivor requires medical assistance
b) A survivor requires general assistance
c) Affirmative
d) Negative

5. Which symbol indicates that the survivors have left the scene of the crash?
a) Y
b) V
c) d) N

6. If pilot sees 2.5 meter symbol "V" on the ground, what does it mean?
a) A survivor requires medical assistance
b) The survivors
c) A survivor requires general assistance
d) Negative

7. If you fly into Severe Turbulence which flight condition should you intend to maintain -
a) Constant Airspeed
b) Level flt Altitude
c) Constant Altitude and Constant Speed
d) Constant Ground speed

8. Identify Runway lighting on center line lighting system:

a) Amber light from 3000' to 1000 ft then Alternative Red and which light to the end.
b) Alternative Red and White light from 3000 ft to 1000 ft and then Red light to the end.
c) Alternative Red and White light from 3000' to end of runway.
d) Red lights from 3000' till end of runway.

9. Identify Taxi way lights associated with center line lighting system:
a) Alternative Blue and White light covering from the center line of the Taxiway.
b) Blue light covering from the center line of R/way to the center line of Taxiway.
c) Alternate green & Yellow light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of
Taxiway.
d) Yellow light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of Taxiway.

10. For testing of Flt Recorder System:

a) Minimum of 1 hour recorded data must be erased to get a valid test.
b) Total of not more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
c) Total one hour of the oldest recorded data at the time of testing may be erased.
 d) Non of the above

11. En-route Altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft of
Terrain clearance with in a width of:
a) 5 Nms
b) 10kms
c) 15Nms
d) 20 Nms

12. Aerobatic can be done below Altitude 6000 ft at least at a distance of:
a) 2 NMs from the Aerodrome
b) 4 NMs from the Aerodrome
c) 5 NMs from the Aerodrome
d) 6 NMs from the Aerodrome

13. Flt Duty Time in the event of being extended shall be limited to:
a) 3 hrs
b) 4 hrs
c) 6 hrs
d) 8 hrs

14. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a) Spinning in the opposite direction
(b) Being in a nose up attitude
(c) Diving into the ground

15. A flt- plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATS unit for: -
a) All Inst Flts
b) All Inst and Visual Flts
c) After 5 kms /5 Nms/
d) All controlled flts

16. Flt Crew on Domestic Flt, the Flt time should not exceed more than and No. of landing
restrictions is
a) 8 hrs and 4 landings
b) 8 hrs and 6 landings
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings
d) 6 hrs and 4 landings

17. All A/c from one FIR to another FIR should contact ATS unit responsible for providing FIS
mts prior to entry.
a) 60
b) 20
c) 10
d) 30

18. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a) Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
moderate instrument experience.
(b) Occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument
flight.
(c) Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.

19. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turns in 1MC or simulated inst.
conditions can cause:
a) Pilot Disorientation
b) False Horizon
c) Illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis
 d) Drowsiness or haziness

20. When instructed by ATC to hold short of Runway pilot should stop:
a) With nose gear on hold line
b) So that no part of the A/c extends beyond hold line
c) So that the Flt Deck Area of A/C is even with the hold line
d) Wings are in line with hold line.

21. Take off Alternate Aerodrome shall be located from the Aerodrome of departure not more
than a distance equal to the Flt of with one engine inoperative cruise speed.
a) 1 hr for 2 Eng A/c and 2 hrs or more for 3 Eng or more than 3 Eng
b) 30 minutes for 2 Eng A/c and one hrs for more than 3 Eng A/c
c) 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c and 3 hr for 3 or more Eng A/C
d) 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c & 1 hr for 3 or more engine A/c

22. Lowest Transition Level in India is:

a) F 40
b) F 50
c) F 45
d) F 55

23. Cosmic Radiations affect a pilot flying over a height above:

a) F 430
b) F 450
c) F 470
d) F 490

24. State aircraft includes:

a) Air India Aircraft
b) Military aircraft
c) All aircrafts registered in India
d) aircraft operating in a state.

25. A pilot has flown 120 hrs as p-i-c in last 29 consecutive days. He can fly on 30th day:
a) 6 hrs as p-i-c
b) 6 hrs as co-pilot
c) 8 hrs as Supernumerary pilot
d) None of the above

26. While force landing an aircraft in a field due to engine failure, one person is killed on
ground P-i-C can be prosecuted for
a) Murder
b) culpable homicide
c) negligence
d) cannot be prosecuted

27. Instrument time includes:

a) Instrument flight time only.
b) Inst. Ground time only
c) Both a& b
d) Instrument Ground time upto 50% only and full Inst. flt. time

28. For landing minima considerations, following values out of the multiple RVR values are
taken into account.
a) RVR at the beginning of runway
b) RVR at the middle of runway
c) RVR at the end of the runway
d) Lowest value out of a), b) & c) above
29. Flight Duty time is calculated based on:
a) Chokes off to Chokes on time.
b) From the time you report for duty till 30 mts after landing.
c) From the time you report for the duty till 15 minutes after switch off.
d) One hour before take off till 30 mins after landing

30. Maximum age up to which a pilot can fly for remuneration is:
a) 55 yrs
b) 60 yrs
c) 65 yrs
d) 70 yrs

31. In IMC, on a route where reporting points are not given, the reporting will be done:
(a) Every half an hour
(b) Every hour
(c) First report after 30mins and subsequent every 60mins
(d) On as required basis

32. A pilot involved in an incident whose flying has been stopped can start flying again with the
permission of:
(a) operator
(b) DGCA
(c) Central govt.
(d) ATC

33. Separation is affected between:

a) Special VFR flts & IFR flts
b) Special VFR flts & VFR flts
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

34. In case of an accident in the vicinity of aerodrome, rescue & fire services are alerted by:
a) Control Tower
b) App. Cont.
c) Area Control
d) FIC

35. The following aircraft will be given priority to land:

a) An aircraft with VVIP on board
b) An aircraft with critical shortage of fuel
c) A scheduled aircraft
d) An aircraft experiencing in flight bad visibility

36. PAPI lights are operated

a) During sunset to sunrise time
b) 20 mts after sunset to 20 mins before sunrise
c) In bad visibility conditions only when associated runway is in use
d) Irrespective of the visibility during day & night when associated runway is being used

37. STAR is a:
(a) Designated IFR arrival route
(b) Designated VFR arrival route
(c) Designated arrival route
(d) All of the above

38. HAT for Precision approaches Cat II is:

(a) Nil
(b) 50°
(c) 100°
 (d) 200°

39. ICAO document dealing with Acts of Unlawful Interference is

a) Annex 2
b) Annex 6
c) Annex 14
d) Annex 17

40. Significant differences between national regulations and ICAO procedures are published in
a) AIRAC
b) AIP
c) NOTAMS
d) AICS

41. Apron is an area on aerodrome where following activities take place:

(a) Loading/unloading of passengers, mail and cargo only.
(b) Parking of aircraft only.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) loading/unloading of passengers, mail and cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance.

42. When body temp. is low, its called:

(a) Hyperventilation
(b) Antokinensis
(c) Hypothermia
(d) Hypoxia

43. Incubation period of yellow fever is days.

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10

44. All aircraft after take off are to turn for a circuit pattern
(a) Right
(b) into the wind
(c) left
(d) along the wind

45. Met report contains

(a) Air temp, turbulence, spot mind
(b) Air temp, clouds above, turbulence
(c) Air temp, cabin pressure, minds

46. The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
(a) 09
(c) 27
(d) 270
(b) 90

47. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat I runways is:
(a) 0.3mts
(b) 0.6mts
(c) 0.45mts
(d) 0.9mts

48. During an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be
(a) The local QNH
(b) The local QFE
(c) The Standard Pressure Setting
 (d) Any desired value

49. A VFR flt cannot be operated:

(a) At F120
(b) At transonic speed
(c) 100 NMs from the seashore in uncontrolled airspace
(d) Across international borders

50. Slaughtering of animals is not permitted with in of ARP

(a) 10 kms
(b) 10 NMs
(c) 20 kms
(d) 20 NMs

Here are the questions and options from Question Papers 16 through 20, with no answers and
no citation marks.
**Question Paper - 16**
1. In a precision approach, minimum height below which p-i-c cannot descend unless visual
reference to land is established
a) DA
b) DH
c) MDA
d) MDH

2. In a non-precision approach, min height below which p-i-c may not descend is:
a) DA
b) DH
c) MDA
d) MDH

3. OCA is calculated for

a) Precision approaches
c) Both a & b
b) Non-precision approaches
d) None of the above

4. Green Light on an aircraft is visible if seen from the front

a) At an arc of 110° to the starboard side
b) At an arc of 110° to the port side
c) At an arc of 140° to the starboard side
d) At an arc of 140° to the port side

5. ILS glide slope angle normally is set at:

a) 2.5°
b) 3.0°
c) 3.5°
d) 4.0°

6. An instrument runway served by ILS & visual aids intended for operations with a DH not
lower than 60m and RVR not less than 550m is a
a) Cat I runway
b) Cat II runway
c) Cat III runway
d) Non-precision approach runway

7. Airfield safety altitude:

a) Is highest sector safety altitude with in 25NMS
b) Is highest sector safety altitude with in 10NMS
c) Provides clearance from obstructions with in 50NMs of aerodrome
d) None of the above

8. Enroute Jeppensen charts are based on projection

a) Lamberts
b) Mercator
c) Conical
d) Polar

9. Fuel to be carried by a Turbo-jet aircraft when destination alternate is required is to fly to

destination aerodrome execute an approach and MA and thereafter:
a) To fly to alternate +45 mts at holding speed at 1500'
b) To fly to alternate +30mts at 1500' make an approach and land
c) To fly to alternate via pre determined point + 45 mins at 1500'
d) To fly to alternate + fly for 60 mts at 1500'.
10. ATPL medical fitness and license validity period is
a) one year and five years
b) six month & five years
c) one year and two years
d) six months & two years

11. Cabin crew requirement for an airplane with seating capacity of more than 50 passengers
is :
a) One cabin crew for each unit of 50 passengers
b) Two cabin crew plus one cabin crew for each unit of 50 passengers units above 99
passengers
c) Non of the above
d) both are correct

12. Vertical separation in RVSM airspace

a) is increased
b) is decreased
c) does not alter
d) increases between F 290 & 410

13. On PAPI approach, if a pilot sees 3 lights white and green, the aircraft is
a) too high
b) slightly high
c) on correct approach
d) slightly low

14. MDA is calculated for:

a) Precision approaches
c) Circling approaches
b) non-precision approach
d) both (b) & (c)

15. ETOPS stands for

a) Extra Time Operations
b) Extended Turbojet Operations
c) Extend true engine operation
d) Extended Range for Twin Engine Operations

16. An Air India aircraft is on an dry lease to I.F.A for military use. It will be known as a:
(a) Civil aircraft
(c) International flight
(b) Military aircraft
(d) Domestic flight

17. Registration of an aircraft is valid for:

(a) One year
(c) Till owner dies
(b) Till cancelled by DGCA
(d) Till it is destroyed in an accident

18. Flight manual contains:

(a) Fuel and oil to be carried on board
(c) Route Navigation guidance
(b) Certificate of air worthiness
(d) Information and instruction to save operations

19. Succession of command is given by:

(a) The operator to pilots by a circular
(b) DGCA
 (c) Central government
(d) ICAO

20. Emergency check list is to be carried by:

(a) Scheduled flights
(c) All aircraft
(b) Non scheduled operators
(d) If Co/A says so

21. A pilot doing a test flight can carried by:

(a) On payment
(c) Cannot carried
(b) Without payment
(d) Can carry if operator permits

22. If a CPL holder is hospitalized for day his medical becomes invalid:
(a) 7 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days

23. Hyperventilation is caused due to:

(a) Decreased breathing rate
(c) Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the blood
(b) Increased hearty beat
(d) Emotional tension or anxiety

24. OCA is Associated with:

(a) Precision Approaches
(c) Ht. calculated to ensure terrain clearance
(b) Circling approaches
(d) All of the above

25. Flt plan is to be filed in India in respect of:

(a) All flights other than scheduled flts
(c) Only for scheduled flts
(b) All flts other than local flts
(d) International flights only

26. Sun rise at Kalikut aerodrome is at 0550h. A VFR flight can take off from there at the
earliest at:
(a) 0530 h
(b) 0610 h
(c) 0550 h
(d) 0620 h

27. Hyper ventilation is caused due to lack of in blood system

(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon Dioxide
(c) CO
(d) None of the above

28. OCA circling approach is the OCA precision approach:

(a) Lower than
(b) Higher than
(c) Equal to
(d) None of the above

29. If an aerodrome minima is not established for IFR/VFR operations the minima to be applied
will be laid down by:
(a) AAI
(b) DGCA
(c) Operator
(d) ICAO

30. Enroute flt levels are on:

(a) QNH
(b) QNE
(c) QFE
(d) QFF

31. To overcome severe turbulence pilot should maintain

(a) Constant flt attitude
(c) Constant airspeed and attitude
(b) Constant airspeed
(d) None of the above

32. At Aerodromes where no ATZ is established, the vicinity of aerodrome for VFR flts shall be:
(a) 5 NMs from ARP upto 1000' agl
(c) 10 NMs from ARP upto 3000' agl
(b) 25 NMs from ARP upto 5000' agl
(d) 5 NMs from ARP upto 3000' agl

33. Deviations from ICAO procedures are published in

(a) AIC
(b) AIRAC
(c) AIP
(d) CARS

34. To get valid result, FDR data can be erased for testing purpose upto
(a) Last one hr of the recoding
(c) One hr of recording at random
(b) Earliest one hr of the recording
(d) Any of the above

35. Track separation is also known as separation

(a) Vertical
(b) Lateral
(c) Longitudinal
(d) Composite

36. Abrupt head movements in IMC operations may cause:

(a) False horizon
(b) Disorientation
(c) Optical illusion
(d) Hyperventilation

37. Flt. Engg. Is carried on board:

(a) If P-I-C desires so
(c) If demanded by C of A
(b) If operator feels so
(d) If there is a technical sang in aircraft

38. Flt plan is prepared by

(a) Taking any arbitrary points on route
(b) Taking shortest distance to the destination
(c) Chosing routes as listed in AIP
(d) Flying routes decided by the flight dispatcher
39. For safety reasons, a person should remain away from a jet engine by at least:
(a) 100°
(b) 200°
(c) 300°
(d) 500°

40. ADC is required for

(a) Scheduled flight only
(c) All flightr in ADIZs
(b) Non-scheduled flight only
(d) Flights close to international border

41. Vertical separation in CVSM airspaces above FL 290 is:

(a) 1000'
(b) 2000'
(c) 4000'
(d) 5000'

42. Decision Altitude is related to:

(a) Precision Approaches
(c) Circling approaches
(b) Non precision approaches
(d) Both (a) & (b)

43. A worker working close to the runway is thrown off and seriously injured by a jet blast
from a departing aircraft it is an
(a) Notifiable Accident
(b) Notifiable incident
(c) Occurrence
(d) Information

44. Minimum visibility required to fly at 12000' for a VFR flt is

(a) 5 kms
(b) 8 kms
(c) 10 kms
(d) None of the above

45. ATC services are provided to IFR flts and traffic information to VFR flts as far as practical
provided in class airspace:
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E

46. Cruising level available on a magnetic track of 300° are

(a) 115, 135, 155, 175
(c) 125, 145, 165, 185
(b) 110, 130, 150, 160,
(d) 125, 165, 185, 205

47. Route designator for domestic routes is:

(a) White
(b) Amber
(c) Blue
(d) Red

48. Series of red and green projection fired at an interval of 10 sees means:
(a) Do not land for the time being
 (c) Keep away from danger area
(b) Exercise caution while landing
(d) Keep circling

49. Black bars on a white dumbbell means:

(a) Land, take off and taxi on runways only
(b) Land, take off on runways only but other maneoures need not be confined to runways &
taxiways only
(c) Exercise caution for all traffic

50. Navigation light are to be displayed by all aircraft in flight:

(a) From 30 mins after sunset till 30 mins before sunrise
(b) From sunset to sunrise
(c) At all time
(d) During dark night only.
**Question Paper - 17**

1. Inst. Chart procedures are given in:

(a) AIC
(b) NOTAMS
(c) AIRAC
(d) AIP

2. Inst. Charts carried in aircraft are contained in:

(a)Operation Manual
(b) Aircraft Manual
(c) Route guides
(d) Operational Circulars

3. Danger areas are given in:

(a) AIRAC
(b) AIC
(c) AIP
(d) NOTAMS

4. To know the current watch hours at an aerodrome, pilot should refer to

(a) NOTAMS
(b) AIP
(c) AIC
(d) CARS

5. Vertical separation applicable to non-RVSM aircraft operating in RVSM airspaces is

(a) 500'
(b) 1000'
(c) 2000'
(d) 4000'

6. Weather below minima implies that:

(a) RVR/ Visibility and weather below minima specified by the operator
(b) Weather below V MC
(c) RVR/VIS and weather below minima specified by ICAO
(d) Cloud ceiling is below 1500' above the aerodrome

7. Two digits in black over yellow black ground hanging from the tower indicates
(a) Time in UTC (hrs)
(b) runway in use
(c) Location of ATS reporting point
(d) current visibility in kms.

8. Decision altitude is related to:

(a) Precision app
(b) Non precision app
(c) Circling app
(d) both 'a'& 'b'

9. Circling minima's are:

(a) Higher than precision app minimas
(b) lower than precision app minimas
(c) Same as precision app minimas
(d) may be more or less than precision app.minimas

10. ARP is at the:

(a) Geometric centre of an aerodrome
 (c) Designated point at the aerodrome.
(b) Highest elevation at an aerodrome
(d) None of the alone

11. SIDS are published in:

(a) AIRAC
(b) NOTAMs
(c) CARs
(d) AIP

12. White flashes from tower to aircraft in flight means:

(a) Return to this aerodrome and proceed to apron
(b) Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron.
(c) Land after green signal from Tower.
(d) None of the alone

13. OCA is determined after taking into account margin for:

(a) Terrain clearance
(b) Pilot error
(c) Operational considerations
(d) Weather considerations.

14. RVR/DH for cat II ILS ops is

(a) 550m/60
(b) 350m/30m
(c) 550m/30m
(d) 800m/60m

15. RVR/DH minima cat III A MLS is:

(a) 200m/Nil
(b) 50m/nil
(c) nil/nil
(d) Non of the alone

16. Position reports to be given by an aircraft, if no route is being followed will be at an

interval of:
(a) 30 mins
(b) 60 mins
(c) First report after 30 mins and subsequent reports after 60 mins
(d) on as required basis

17. Oxygen is carried on board for all crew members and passengers when at atmospheric
pressure will be less than:
(a) 620 hPa
(b) 700 hPa
(c) 376 hPa
(d) 800 hPa

18. A twin engine p-i-c has decided to divert due to failure of one engine. It will be
(a) Uncertainty phase
(b) Alert phase
(c) Distress phase
(d) Non of the above

19. An IFR flt will maintain a minimum altitude of

(a) 2000’ above highest obstacle with in 8 kms of aircraft position in mountainous areas
(b) 1000’ above highest obstacle elsewhere
(c) 1000’ above highest obstacle with in 600m of aircraft position in mountainous areas.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
20. Prisoners can be carried on board with the permission of
(a) Police commissioner
(b) DGCA
(c) DM
(d) DIG prisons

21. In Cat II, What is DH & RVR?

(a) 100’ and upto 1500’
(b) Below 200’ and 550m
(c) 200’ and upto 350m
(d) 100’ & upto 350m

22. Series of red flashes to an aircraft in flight indicate:

a) Aerodrome unsafe do not land
b) Give way to other ac and keep circling
c) Flying over danger area clear immediately
d) Wait for white signal to join circuit

23. VFR flts are not permitted:

(a) Above F 100
(b) Above FL150
(c) Above F 50
(d) above 3000 from terrain or water

24. Personnel are required to maintain their log books for a period of --- years after the date
of last entry:
a) 2 years
b) 5 years
c) 1 year
d) 3 years

25. Movement area of an aerodrome constitutes the following

a) Area including runways / taxiways excluding apron
b) Area excluding taxiways but including runways and apron
c) Area including runways / taxiways / aprons
d) None of the above

26. PIC of an aeroplane can fly for a maximum number of hours in a period of consecutive 30
Days:
a) 125 hours
b) 100 hours
c) 80 percent of time as co-pilot
d. none of the above

27. Validity of ATPL medical and licence is

a) 6 months and 5 years
b) 5 months and 2 years
c) 6 months and 2 years
d) 1 year and 2 years

28. Cabin crew required for a passenger plane with 83 seating capacity is
a) 8
b) 2
c) 3
d) 2 + 1 for 50 passengers carried more.

29. ICAO annex dealing with Acts of unlawful interference is

a) annex 7
 b) annex 10
c). annex 17
d) annex 18

30. Personnel flying above altitude of ___ feet are required to maintain a separate log to
calculate hours of exposure to radiation:
a) 40000 ft
b) 41000 ft
c) 45000 ft
d) 49000 ft

31. Navigation lights of an aeroplane cover the following sectors

a) Red on starboard, green on port 110 deg each
b) Green on starboard, red on port 110 deg each
c) Red on starboard, green on port 140 deg each
d) Green on starboard, red on port 140 deg each

32. Twin engine operations are governed by:

a) STOP
b) ETOPS
c) RNP
d) RNAV

33. Control area is

a) Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth
b) Controlled airspace extending upwards from surface of the earth to a specified limit
c) Controlled airspace
d) Both a and c above

34. When refueling operations are in progress, unauthorized persons are prohibited within
a) 15 mtrs
b) 30 mtrs
c) 43 mtrs
d) 20 mtrs

35. Series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft in flight indicate

a) Return for landing
b) Stop
c) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
d) Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

36. Decompression sickness causes:

(a) Lack of CO2 in blood
(b) Lack of O2 in blood.
(c) N2 babbles in tissues
(d) Over breathing

37. The crew of an aircraft should not consume alcoholic drink

a) Within 12 hours of flight time
b) as in ‘a’ and during the flight
c) Within 24 hours of flight time
d) none of the above

38. An aircraft incident and accident is to be reported within

a) incident 12 hrs, accident 24 hours
b) incident 24 hrs, accident 48 hours
c) incident 24 hrs, accident 12 hours
d) incident 48 hrs, accident 24 hours
39. Width of an airway is
a) 10 nm over land and 20 nm over sea
b) 20 nm over land and 20 nm over sea
c) 20 nm over land and 40 nm over sea
d) 20 nm over land and 10 nm over sea

40. A series of red and green pyrotechnics fired towards and aircraft indicate
a) Aircraft is entering a danger area
b) aircraft is entering a restricted area
c) Aircraft is entering a prohibited area
d) all above are correct

41. As a PIC you find yourself over a prohibited area, you will
a) Signal urgency and land at the nearest aerodrome
b) Signal distress and land at nearest aerodrome
c) As ‘b’ and land at aerodrome outside the prohibited area
d) Signal urgency and proceed on your way

42. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights indicate
a) urgency
b) distress
c) pan pan
d) affirmative

43. A pressurized flight shall

a) Carry oxygen for all crew members
b) Carry oxygen for all crew members and passengers
c) Carry oxygen for all crew members and passengers, in the event of loss of pressurization,
pressure in the compartment would be less than 700 mb
d) Carry oxygen for all crew members and passengers, in the event of loss of pressurization,
pressure in the compartment would be less than 620 mb

44. General information of purely explanatory or advisory nature are promulgated through
a) CAR
b) AIP
c) AIC
d) NOTAM

45. A flight plan shall be preserved by the operator for a period of

a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) 3 years

46. Doc 4444 relates to

a) Flight level tables
b) position reports
c) emergency procedures
d) all above

47. An aircraft transiting from one FIR to next FIR shall request transfer to ATC at least
a) 60 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 10 minutes

48. While ascending through the transition level and descending through, height of the aircraft
shall be reported
a) Ascending altitude, descending flight level
 b) ascending flight level, descending altitude
c) Ascending QFE, descending QNH
d) ascending QNH, descending QNE

49. The operating minima for an aerodrome are expressed in terms of

a) RVR
b) RVR or visibility and MDA / H
c) RVR or visibility and if necessary cloud conditions
d) All above

50. Corrections to charts relating to entry/exit requirements are given in

a) AIP
b) AIC
c) Chart NOTAMS
d) CAR
**Question Paper - 18**
1. Jeppessen charts use widely
a) Polar stereographic projection
b) Lamberts conical conformal
c) Mercator
d) Oblique Mercator

2. PIC of an aeroplane shall

a) Be responsible for safe conduct of navigation
b) Be responsible for safe conduct of flight at all times
c) Be responsible for safe conduct of flight and maintain order and discipline amongst all
onboard the flight
d) All above is correct

3. The minimum safest altitude that the aircraft can descend below the transition altitude
within 25 NMs of an aerodrome area is given by
a) MORA
b) MOEA
c) MSA
d) MOCA

4. In a non precision approach, the minimum height that the pilot can descend to is given by
a) DA
b) DH
c) MDA
d) MDH

5. Pilot in command of an aircraft on precision approach cannot execute a landing unless he

has the runway visual references in contact before he can descend below
a) MSA
b) MDH
c) DA
d) MDA

6. An operator can designate as a PIC of an aeroplane only if

(a) He has made 6 take offs and landings on the aerodromes along the route within the last
3 months
(b) He has made 3 take offs and landings on the aerodromes along the route within the last
6 months
(c) He has made 6 take offs and landings on the aerodromes along the route within the last
6 months
(d) He has made 3 take offs and landings on the aerodromes along the route within the last
3 months

7. An operator can designate as a PIC of an aeroplane if

(a) He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 3 months
(b) He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 6 months
(c) He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 9 months
(d) He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 12 months

8. A turbojet aircraft is required to carry minimum amount of fuel as

(a) Fuel from departure to destination, execute a missed approach, to a destination
alternate, fuel for take off taxi holding and landing, plus 30 minutes of reserve
(b) Fuel from departure to destination, execute a missed approach, to a destination
alternate, fuel for take off taxi holding and landing, plus 45 minutes of reserve
(c) Fuel from take off to an alternate via a predetermined point, sufficient fuel for taxi, take-
off, holding and landing, plus 45 minutes of reserve, total of which should not be less than 2
hours of flying time.
9. A white dumbbell with a black bar spaced perpendicularly indicates
a) All aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on taxiways and runways only.
b) Are required to land and takeoff on runways only
c) A white dumbbell when displayed requires a/c to land and takeoff and taxi on taxiways
and runways only.

10. A/c on same level converging track has separation

a) 15min
b) 10min
c) 5min
d) 20NM

11. Aeronautical information circulars provide information that:

(a) Timely knowledge of services, procedure or hazard which is essential to personnel
concerned with flight operations
(b) Does not qualify as a NOTAM or an inclusion in AIP, but relates to flight safety, air
navigation, administrative or legislative matters.
(c) Temporary changes to the information contained in the AIP which are published by
means of special pages.

12. To acquire a valid a test for flight data recorder, at least 1hr of the data should be deleted
a) A total of 1hr should be deleted to provide a valid test
b) The oldest recorded data at the time of testing may be erased
c) The oldest accumulated data at the time of testing should be erased.
d) Minimum 1hr of data recorded can be erased

13. An operator must maintain medical records of flight crew for radiation exposure above
a) 49,000ft
b) 51,000ft
c) 46,000ft
d) 41,000ft

14. What is the time limit that a pilot should not fly when under the influence of alcohol?
a) 24hrs
b) 12hrs
c) 72hrs
d) 18hrs

15. Runway centre line lights are:

a)Green
b) Blue
c) White
d) Red

16. Annex 17 contains what information

a) a/c accident investigation
b) safeguarding acts of unlawful interference
c) Search and rescue

17. What should be the flight visibility of an a/c flying at 3000’ in class G airspace
a) 1500m
b) 5km
c) 8km
d) Clear of cloud and in sight of surface

18. Transponder code for distress is:

a) 7700
b) 7600
 c) 121.5
d) 7500

19. What type of flight is allowed in class A airspace

a) IFR only
b) IFR and VFR
c) IFR and special VFR
d) VFR only

20. An a/c with seating capacity of 150, what is the number of flight attendants required to be
carried on the flight:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

21. In IMC aircraft changes from aerodrome control tower to approach control
a) Immediately after take off.
b) before entering runway
c) on finals

22. What lights would a pilot slightly above glide slope see on a PAPI.
a) 3 green and 1 white
b) 3 red and 1 white
c) 2red and 2 white
d) 3 white and 1 red

23. Red and green flashes fired at an interval of 10 sacs indicate.

(a) Over prohibited area, restricted area or danger area.
(b) Do not land for the time being.
(c) Exercise caution while landing.

24. At runway and taxiway holding lines:

(a) White dashes lie towards nearest runway.
(b) Yellow continuous lines lie towards runway.
(c) While dashes lie towards nearest runway.

25. Identifier TDZL is _________:

(a) Green and white lights 75 mtr spacing
(b) White paired, flash lights at 150 mtr longitudinal
(c) White paired variable lights with 30 mtr longitudinal spacing

26. You have diverted your flt to field alternate. In what time you have to intimate to your
original destination:
(a) 30 min
(b) 10 min
(c) 20 min
(d) 60 min

27. Position report should be given in…

(a) 30 min in IMC
(b) 15 min in IMC
(c) 45 min in VMC
(d) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins

28. Abrupt head movement in a step turn may causes…

(a) Spatial disorientation
(b) False horizon
(c) Elevator illusion
29. Centrifugal force without visual aids can be interpreted by a pilot as:
(a) Motion reversal
(b) Turning
(c) Rising and falling

30. Destination and information sings are.

(a) Black letter in yellow background
(b) Yellow letter in black background
(c) White in back

31. Cockpit lights are

(a) Red light as they help in reading contours on maps at night
(b) Bright lights
(c) Dim white light

32. Hyperventilation is:

(a) Excessive oxygen in blood stream
(b) Lack of sleep
(c) Insufficient CO2

33. Hypoxia
(a) Increases with altitude
(b) Is normally experienced below 8000 feet
(c) Is due to over breathing

34. On x-country flt you divert to another aerodrome, you have to inform ATC if delayed by:
(a) 15 min
(b) 60 min
(c) 30 min

35. If you see a white and flashing red light, ac is

(a) A/c flying away from you
(b) Right to left
(c) Left to right

36. A/c passing from left to right you will see

(a) Red light
(b) Red and white light
(c) Green light

37. Record to be maintained for months for radiation if flying above…

(a) 10,000’
(b) 49,000’
(c) 60,000’

38. One a/c is tracking 030 degree reporting over a point at 0412 hrs other on 100 degree
cannot pass this point before:
(a) 0422
(b) 0427
(c) 0417

39. FDR and CVR are used for

(a) Investigation for accidents and incidents
(b) Training
(c) Collision avoidance

40. ADC is not required if flying in

(a) 5 nm and below 3000’
 (b) 3 nm and below 1000’
(c) 5 nm and below 1000’ AGL

41. Aerobatics with in 2 nm of airport can not be done below…

(a) 2000’
(b) 6000’
(c) 3000’

42. Unlawful interference is given in annexure:

(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 17

43. Aircraft operation are given in annexure:

(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 11

44. SIDs are available in:

(a) AIRACS
(b) AIP
(c) CARS

45. Incubation period for relapsing fever is:

(a) 6 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 8 days

46. Visibility required for VFR flight below 3000’ or 1000’ terrain clearance is
(a) 5 km
(b) 1.6 km
(c) 8 km

47. Two a/c of same category converging…

(a) Both will turn to right
(b) Aircraft on right will turn right
(c) Aircraft on the left will give way

48. Sunrise time is 0550 hrs VFR flt can take off at
(a) 0520 hrs
(b) 0535 hrs
(c) 0510 hrs
(d) 0550 hrs

49. Due to fog other a/c will appear to be

(a) Nearest than normal
(b) Farther then normal
(c) Will have no difference

50. Data can be removed from FDR.

(a) Not more then one hour accumulated for testing purpose.
(b) One hour of data last recorded for testing purpose.
(c) Two hour of recorded data for testing purpose.
**Question Paper - 19**
1. In IMC a/c on aerodrome control to approach control will be transferred:
(a) Immediately after take off
(b) Immediately before entering runway.
(c) After leaving ATZ
(d) 5 NM from ARP

2. No of runway threshold stripes for a runway width of 23 meters is

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7

3. Pair of landing stripes for a runway LDA of 1500 meters is:

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

4. Filed minima 500m, RVR beginning 800m, RVR mid 300m.Aerodrome is:
(a) Below minima
(b) At par with minima
(c) Above minima
(d) Will depend on trend forecast.

5. Flight manual is a manual associated with

(a) COA
(b) ICAO Standards
(c) DGCA CARs
(d) AAI procedures

6. No of cabin crew is required according to

(a) No. of passengers excluding crew members
(b) No. of persons on board including crew members
(c) No of seats
(d) No. of services offered on board

7. Track separation is:

(a) Longitudinal
(b) vertical
(c) composite
(d) Lateral

8. Geographical separation is:

(a) Longitudinal
(b) vertical
(c) composite
(d) Lateral

9. Alert phase is:

(a) Aircraft is about to force land in a river
(b) Aircraft is intercepted
(c) Apprehension exists as to the safety of the ship and its occupants.
(d) Aircraft has not reported at the time of his ETA over the destination

10. Appropriate way to cross a route.

a) Along the traffic flow at 45 degrees
b) 90 degrees to the route
 c) Against the flow of traffic keeping a sharp lookout
d) At VFR levels

11. Acrobatic flights can not be performed below 6000’ with in:
a) 2 NM from the nearest point of the perimeter of the aerodrome.
b) 2NM from the ARP of the aerodrome.
c) Over populated areas.
d) Over restricted areas.

12. Semi-circular system sectors are.

a) From 001º to 180º and 181º to 360º
b) From 000º to 089º, 090º to 179º, 180º to 269º and 270º to 359º
c) From 090º to 260º and 270º to 089º
d) From 000º 179º and 180º to 359º

13. Aerodrome local flying area is to be considered, if ATZ is not notified:

a) With in 5 NM of ARP up to 3000 feet.
b) With in 25 NM of ARP up to 10,000 feet.
c) with in 10 NM of ARP up to 5000 feet.
d) with in 5 NM of ARP up to 1000 feet.

14. Minimum vertical distance from clouds for a VFR flt is:
a. 5000’
b. 1500’
c. 1000’
d. 300’

15. ICAO annex for ac operations is:

a) Annex 1
b) Annex 3
c) Annex 6
d) Annex 17

16. ICAO Annex for safeguarding against unlawful interference is:

a) Annex 6
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 14
d) Annex 17

17. White dumbbell with black horizontal bars indicates:

a) Aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on runways and taxiways only
b) Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need
not be confined to runways and taxiways.
c) Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.
d) Land and take off on runways only if cleared by ATC.

18. Red square with one yellow diagonal.

a) Landings are prohibited and that the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.
b) Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.
c) Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
d) Exercise precaution while landing and approaching to land due to extensive bird activity.

19. Minimum distance from jet blast:

a. 100’
b. 200 m
c.43 m
d. 200 feet

20. Sunrise time 0550 there is no night flying facilities, earliest departure can be at:
 a. 0550
b. 0620
c. 0520
d. 0650

21. Reporting time on routes not defined by reporting points is :

a) First half hour then every hour
b) First report after 30’, subsequent on as required basis
c) Every hour
d) As per the desire of p-i-c.

22. OCA
a) Is specified to facilitate safe holding heights
b) Used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
c) Meets obstructions clearance criteria for take offs
d) Is used to designate obstacle clearance along ATS routes

23. Flight plan is required

a) For all flights except local flights.
b) For local flights only
c) For IFR flts only
d) For controlled flights only

24. Deviation from standards is given in

a. AICs
b. AIRACS
c. Annex 4
d. AIP

25. Amendment to aircraft rules 1937 is given in:

a) AIP
b) AIC
c) AIRAC
d) CARs

26. Current watch hours of the station is given in

a. NOTAMs
b. AIC
c. AIP
d. CARs

27. Cat II ILS approach

a) Decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with either a visibility not less than
800m or a runway visual range not less than 550 m.
b) Decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft), but not lower than 30 m (100ft), and a runway
visual range not less than 350 m.
c) A decision height lower than 30 m (100 ft) or no decision height;
d) Used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.

28. Abrupt head movement during instrument flying causes

a) Pilot disorientation
b) Giddiness
c) Blurred vision
d) Air sickness

29. Oxygen supply is required for cabin pressure below 700 hPa:
a) All passengers and crew
b) Only crew members.
c) All crew members and 5% of passengers
 d) Not required at all

30. Succession of command is given:

a) In Operation manual
b) by Operator
c) by DGCA
d) in COA

31. Pilot’s license can be revived by:

a) DGCA
b) Operator
c) AAI
d) ICAO

32. Instrument flying time means:

a) Flying simulator
b) Flying in IMC
c) Flying a/c with sole reference to instruments

33. Outside controlled airspace above 3000’AMSL

a. Fly on 1013.2
b. QFE
c. QNH
d. QFF

34. ATPL who is 28 years old, medical is valid for

a) 2 yrs
b) 1 yr
c) 6 months
d) 3 months

35. To counter turbulence:

a. Maintain altitude
b. Maintain heading
c. Maintain bank
d. Maintain airspeed

36. Flight plan is made:

a) By choosing routes from AIP
b) By choosing the shortest route between two points
c) By dispatcher
d) By choosing most economical route from aircraft manual.

37. IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC:

a) Fly VMC and land at nearest convenient aerodrome.
b) Fly according to flight plan
c) Change to VFR plan
d) Inform ATC and take advice.

38. Person is killed on runway while landing after being hit by the wing of an aircraft. It is an:
a) Accident
b) Incident
c) Accident only if it was due to pilots fault
d) non of the above

39. Certificate of registration is valid till

a) Cancelled by DGCA.
b) A/c is destroyed in an accident.
c) Ownership is transferred
 d) owner dies

40. Emergency and cockpit check list is to be carried by

a) All a/c
b) Scheduled a/c
c) None scheduled a/c
d) Aerial work a/c only

41. Straight out departure is:

a. 10 degree
b. 15 degree
c. 30 degree
d. 45 degrees

42. Air report II section contains

a) Turbulence, air temp, clouds
b) Air temp, icing, spot wind
c) Operational information
d) Position report

43. Flight engineer is to be carried if:

a) If required by COA
b) If operator says so
c) In case engines are old
d) If P-I-C desires so

44. FDR
a) Min 1 hr of the oldest recording requires to be erased for testing
b) Max I hr can be erased
c) Last I hr can be erased
d) Maximum 1 hr of the oldest recording requires to be erased for testing

45. Can fly PIC if he has flown that route without carrying passengers at least ___ times in last
12 months:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6

46. A/c A at F390 reports at a point at 0210 wants to descend to F330, a/c B at F 360
estimates to reach the same reporting point at 0300. Before what time the first a/c should
reach F330?
a. 0235
b. 0250
c. 0225
d. 0215

47. An a/c can be inspected by

a. Aerodrome officer
b. Custom’s officer
c. DGCA authorized personnel

48. An operator must keep a record of his flight crew when flown above ______ for at least 12
months of the flight for cosmic radiation effects:
a. FL 490
b. FL 510
c. FL 150
d. FL 290
49. An aircraft continues his approach on PAPI with all lights indicating white. He will
touchdown.
a) Short of touchdown point
b) At touchdown point
c) Beyond touchdown point
d) At threshold of the runway.

50. International flying time in one day for flight Crew is:
(a) 8 hrs 4 landing
(b) 8 hrs 3 landing
(c) 9 hrs 3 landing
(d) 6 hrs 4 landing.
**Question Paper - 20**
1. VT-AXC owned by a private citizen is on a flight to Sri Lanka from Chennai on sight seeing
tour. The aircraft’s required to carry________ among other things.
a. Journey log book
b. C of A
c. Pilot’s License
d. All above are correct

2. A certificate of registration is valid from the date of registration to.

a. 1 year
b. Till the aircraft is destroyed in an accident
c. Till it is cancelled by DGCA
d. When the owner dies

3. Altitude in transition layer is maintained by setting altimeter to.

a. QFE
b. 1013.2
c. QNH
d. QFF

4. No person acting as PIC or operating crew member shall have taken alcohol narcotics or
stimulates during the preceding.
a. 24 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 4 hours

5. If aircraft has undertaken a flight on route not defined by designated significant points the
pilot is required to report aircraft position.
a. Every hour
b. Every 30 minutes
c. Every 45 minutes
d. First time just after half an hour after take off and thereafter every hour

6. Before arrival in India a health report is to be sent.

a. Before take off
b. 7 days prior to arrival
c. 2 hours before arrival
d. 5 hours before arrival

7. A white dumbbell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft indicates that you
should use only.
a. Runways
b. Runways and taxiways
c. Runways for landing & take off
d. Grass runway is unserviceable

8. A horizontal yellow diagonal on a red square panel indicates.

a. Special precautions to be take when approaching to land.
b. Landing areas is unserviceable
c. Check runway in use
d. Use only runway

9. When radio contact is lost, an IFR flight in VMC should.

a. Continue in VMC and land at nearest suitable aerodrome
b. Continue as per current flight plan
c. Divert to alternate airfield
d. Force land at nearest aerodrome
10. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight within controlled space is.
a. 1000 ft
b. 500 ft
c. 1000 m
d. 500 m

11. IFR flight within controlled airspace shall immediately report any deviations from flight plan
resulting in;
a. Variation of TAS by 5%
b. Change in ETA over reporting point by more then 3 minutes
c. Change in current flight plan in emergency
d. All above are correct

12. RVR minima filed at Delhi 550m, reported touch down RVR 800, weather conditions are;
a. Conditions for minima would have been met in case mid RVR was 450m or above.
b. Below minima
c. Above minima
d. All above are correct

13. An aircraft ‘A’ on a track of 030M reported crossing point X at 0412 at FL370. another
aircraft ‘B’ at FL 370 on a track of 100M can cross the same crossing point not earlier then;
a. 0427
b. 0420
c. 0422
d. 0412

14. A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants is;
a. Uncertainty (INCERFA)
b. Distress phase (DISTRESFA)
c. Alert phase (ALERFA)

15. The aerodrome at Calicut is not declared suitable for night operations. If the sunrise is at
0550 the earliest time by which an aircraft operation at the station can take place is;
a. 0605
b. 0535
c. 0550
d. 0520

16. The responsibility for control of departing aircraft will be transferred from aerodrome
control to approach control when IMC is prevailing;
a. Immediately before the aircraft enters the runway in use for take off.
b. In the vicinity of the aerodrome
c. Reaching a DME distance of 15 nm
d. After the aircraft enters clouds

17. The flight crew consists of pilot and copilot on an international flight. The flight time should
not exceed more than ___ number of landings restricted to _____.
a. 8 hrs & 4 landings
b. 9 hrs & 3 landings
c. 8 hrs & 3 landings
d. 6 hrs & 4 landings

18. A flight to be operated with a pressurized aeroplane will not be commenced unless a
sufficient quantity of stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply;
a. All crew members
b. All crew members and passengers
c. All crew members and passengers, when the atmospheric pressure in any compartment
occupied by them is less then 700 mb
 d. All crew members and passengers, when the atmospheric pressure in any compartment
occupied by lass then 800 mb.

19. For each flight of an aeroplane above ______ the operator shall maintain records, so that
the total cosmic radiation received by each crew member, over a period of 12 consecutive
months can be determined:
a. 41,000 ft
b. 49,000 ft
c. 40,000 ft
d. 45,000 ft

20. All aircraft transiting from one FIR to another FIR should inform ATS units responsible for
providing FIS at least:
a. 60 minutes prior to entry
b. 20 minutes prior to entry
c. 10 minutes before entry
d. after crossing the FIR boundary

21. The take off alternate aerodrome shall be located from the aerodrome of departure, not
more than a distance equivalent to a flight time of:
a. One hour for a two engine aero plane and 2 hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
b. 30 minutes for a two engine aero plane and 1 hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
c. Two hour for a 2 engine aero plane and 3 hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
d. Two hour for a two engine aero plane and 1 hour for 3 or more engines aero plane

22. Identify taxy turn off lights associated with the centre line lighting system.
a. Alternate blue and white lights curving from the centre line of the runway to the centre
line of the taxiway
b. Green lights curving from the centre line of the runway to the centre line of the taxiway.
c. Blue lights curving from the centre line of the runway to the centre line of the taxiway

23. Identify runway remaining lighting on centre line lighting systems;

a. Amber lights from 3000 ft to 1000 ft, then alternate red and white lights to the end.
b. Alternate red and white from 3000 ft to 1000 ft, then red lights to the end.
c. Alternate red and white lights from 3000 ft to the end of the runway.

24. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL):

a. Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centre line.
b. Flashing centre line lights spaced at 50 ft intervals extending through the touch down
zone.
c. Alternate white and green centre line lights extending from 75 ft from the threshold
through the touch down zone.

25. When instructed by ATC to “hold short of a runway (ILS critical area etc.)” the pilot should
stop:
a. With the nose gear on the hold line.
b. So that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line.
c. So that the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

26. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have:

a. Yellow inscriptions on a black background.
b. White inscriptions on a black background.
c. Black inscriptions on a yellow background.

27. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders will be used only for
determining:
a. Who was responsible for any accident or incident.
b. Evidence for use in civil penalty or court of enquiry.
c. Possible causes of accidents or incidents.
28. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system:
a. A minimum of one hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test.
b. A total of one hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be
erased.
c. A total of not more then one hour of recorded data may be erased.
d. All the above are wrong.

29. If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain:
a. Constant air speed (VA)
b. Level flight attitude
c. Constant altitude and constant airspeed

30. One pilot will be designated as PIC of a public transport aircraft for each flight by:
a. The operator
b. DGCA
c. Flying contract unit
d. None of the above is correct

31. Enroute altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft terrain
clearance within:
a. 5 nm
b. 10 km
c. 15 nm
d. 20 nm

32. Vicinity of the aerodrome for a VFR /IFR flight is:

a. 5 miles around up to 3000 ft AGL
b. 25 miles around
c. As in (1) and instrument holding and approach procedure paths

33. A flight plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATS unit for
a. IFR flights
b. All controlled flights
c. All flights other then local flights
d. Flights which go more then 5 km from airfield

34. Flight duty time if inevitably extended, will be limited to:

a. 3 hrs
b. 8 hrs
c. 6 hrs
d. 4 hrs

35. The privileges of a license can be exercised by a pilot involved in an incident after:
a. He is cleared by the medical authority
b. He is cleared by the DGCA
c. He is cleared by the ATS authority
d. He is cleared by the owner of the aircraft

36. For knowing the current watch hours of a station you should look onto:
a. AIC
b. CAR
c. AIP
d. NOTAM

37. In a category D airspace, ATC will provide separation between:

a. IFR flights and provides information on VFR flights and traffic avoidance on request to IFR
flights and traffic information to VFR flights
b. IFR flights and IFR flights
 c. IFR flights and IFR/VFR flights and VFR/VFR flights
d.IFR flights and IFR & VFR flights

38. Track separation ensures:

a. Vertical separation between aircraft.
b. Time separation between aircraft.
c. Lateral separation between aircraft.
d. Longitudinal separation.

39. Aerobatics flight, if flying within 2 nm of the periphery of an aerodrome, will be carried out
at a height not less then:
a. 1000 ft
b. 1000 ft above the highest obstruction within 2000ft
c. 2000 ft
d. 6000 ft

40. No pilot shall fly for more then the number of hours specified below during any period of
30 consecutive days:
a. 120 hrs
b. 125 hrs
c. 130 hrs
d. 140 hrs

41. Cockpit check lists and emergency check lists are required to be carried in all Indian
registered aircraft when they are effecting:
a. Public transport.
b. Aerial work.
c. Any flight.
d. Both public transport and aerial work aircraft.

42. R/W directions are given in:

a. grid north
b. true north
c. magnetic north
d. compass north

43. No domestic flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in _________ nautical miles
of international border.
a. 15 km.
b. 5 nm
c. 10nm
d. 15nm

44. Prisoners to be carried by permission of :

a. D.G.C.A
b. Aerodrome controller
c. Operator
d. Police commissioner

45. CO poisoning symptoms:

a. Tightening of forehead.
b. Loss of muscular power.
c. Increased sense of well being.

46. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
(a) Rising or falling
(b) Turning
(c) Motion reversal
47. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate in IMC or simulated instrument
conditions can cause:
(a) Pilot disorientation
(b) false horizon
(c) elevator illusion

48. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground
lights and stars can create an illusion known as:
(a) Elevator illusions
(b) auto kinesis
(c) false horizons

49. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
(a) Tumbling backwards
(b) A nose up attitude
(c) A descent with the wing level

50. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a) Spinning in the opposite direction
(b) Being in a nose up attitude
(c) Diving into the ground