01-06-2025

5401CMD303031250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) sin (A+B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B

(2) cos (A+B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B
(3) sin (A–B) = sin A cos B – cos A sin B
(4) cos (A–B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B

2) Bottom end of a ladder leaning against a wall is 3 m away from the foot of the wall as shown in

figure, length of the ladder is :-

(1) 8m
(2) 5m
(3) 4m
(4) 6m

3)

Angle made by straight line AB with positive x-axis is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 135°
(3) 60°
(4) 120°

4) Match the columns :-

(i) sin 210° (a)

–

(ii) cos 120° (b) –

 (iii) tan 300° (c)
–

(iv) cot 150° (d)

–
(1) (i)-c, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-b
(2) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(3) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-d

5) If y = 3x2 – 2x + 1, find the value of x for which

(1) x = 3

(2)

(3)

(4) x = 2

6) If v = 3t2 + 7 then find at t = 1 sec

(1) 10
(2) 13
(3) 6
(4) 3

7) Find the first derivative of y = x sin x

(1) – x cos + sin x

(2) – x cos x + x2 sin x
(3) x sin x + cos x
(4) x cos x + sin x

8) If y = 2x2 – 12x then minimum value of y is:-

(1) –18
(2) 3
(3) –3
(4) 18

9) =

(1) –5 sin (5x – 3) + c

(2) 5 sin (5x – 3) + c
(3)
– sin (5x – 3) + c

(4)
sin (5x – 3) + c

10)

If m indicate slope of a straight line then for the given lines A and B the value of is equal to :

(1)

(2) 3

(3)

(4)

11)

(1) loge (4t) + c

(2) loge (4t + 3) + c

(3)
loge (4t + 3) + c

(4)
–

12) Magnitude of slope of the shown graph.

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases
13)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) If y = A sin (kx) then find double differential of 'y'

(1) –Ak2 sin (kx)

(2) – Ak cos (kx)
(3) + Ak2 cos (kx)
(4) Ak sin (kx)

15) For the given (y – x) graph Find the value of .

(1) 170
(2) 150
(3) 200
(4) 120

16) What is the value of 20 minute in radian ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) =

(1)
(2)
+C

(3)
+C

(4)
+C

18) y is a function of x, then for y to be maximum or minimum, and

Statement-I: if y is minimum

Statement-II: If is maximum

(1) Statement I is true and Statement-II is false

(2) Statement I is false and Statement-II is true
(3) Both are false
(4) Both are true

19) The incorrect relation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) cos4θ = cos22θ – sin22θ

20) =?

(1) ex(cosx + sinx)

(2) ex(cosx – sinx)
(3) ex(sinx – cosx)
(4) None of these

21) If find value of =

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) Match the column :

Column I Column II

A. P.

B. Q.

C. R.

D. S. –e–x + C

(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

(2) A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
(3) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S

23) Given figures show regular hexagon, the charges are placed at the vertices. In which of the

following cases the electric field at the centre is zero.

(1) IV
(2) III
(3) I
(4) II

24) Two objects are rubbed against each other, the nature of electric force, when they are placed at
some distance is :

(1) Attractive
(2) Repulsive
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Either (1) or (2)

25) Three point charges 4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length l at points
O, and along x-axis respectively. The net force on charge q is zero. The value of Q is :-
(1)

(2) –q
(3) –2q
(4) –4q

26) Two charges are 10 mC and 20 mC placed at a distance 1m apart . Find the ratio of magnitudes
of electric force acting on each other is :

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 5 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 10 : 20

27) A point charge q is situated at a distance d from one end of a thin non - conducting rod of length
L having a charge Q(uniformly distributed along its length) as shown in fig. Then the magnitude of

electric force between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

Two point charges +3µC and +8µC repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of -5µC is a
added to each of them, then the force between them will become

(1) -10 N
(2) + 10 N
(3) + 20 N
(4) - 20 N

29) A charged particle of mass 2 mili gram remains freely in air in an electric field of strength 4 N/C
directed upward. Calculate the charge and determine its nature (g = 10 m/s2).

(1) 5 × 10–6 C
(2) 6 × 10–6 C
(3) 4 × 10–6 C
(4) 3 × 10–6 C
30) Two charges are placed as shown in figure. Where should be a third charge be placed so that it

remains in rest condition :

(1) 30 cm from 9 e
(2) 40 cm from 16 e
(3) 40 cm from 9 e
(4) (1) or (2)

31) Three charges each of magnitude 'q' are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle, the
electrostatic force on the charge 'q' placed at the center is (each side of triangle is ℓ) :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Consider the following suspended charged ball system. If α > β then at eqilibrium which of the

following may be true :-

(1) q1 > q2 & m1 = m2

(2) q1 = q2 & m1 = m2
(3) q1 > q2 & m1 < m2
(4) q1 = q2 & m1 > m2

33) Two metal spheres of same mass are suspended from a common point by a light insulating
string. The length of each string is same. The spheres are given electric charges +q on one end and
+4q on the other. Which of the following diagrams best show the resulting positions of spheres ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Net electric field at centre of uniform pentagon as shown. If Q is a +ve charge.

(1)
upward

(2)
downward
(3) Zero
(4) None

35) Two charges 4q and q are placed at 30 cm apart from each other. Electric field intensity will be
zero.

(1) In between two charges at a distance of 10cm from q

(2) In between two charges at a distance of 20cm from q.
(3) Outside the line joining both charges at a distance of 10cm from q.
(4) Outside the line joining both charges, at 10 cm apart from 4q.

36) Two charges +5µC and +10µC are placed 20 cm apart. The net electric field at the mid-point
between the two charges is.

(1) 4.5 × 106 N/C directed towards + 5µC

(2) 4.5 × 106 N/C directed towards + 10µC
(3) 13.5 × 106 N/C directed towards + 5µC
(4) 13.5 × 106 N/C directed towards + 10µC

37) The electric field strength due to a ring of radius R at a distance x from its centre on the axis of

ring carrying charge Q is given by At what distance from the centre will the
electric field be maximum -

(1) x = R
(2) x = R/2
x = R/
(3)

(4) x = R

38) A semi circular arc of radius a is charged uniformly and the charge per unit length is . The
electric field at the centre is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

39) A thin glass rod is bent into a semicircle of radius r. A charge +q is uniformly distributed along
the upper half and a charge –q is uniformly distributed along the lower half, as shown in the figure.
The magnitude and direction of the electric field produced at P, the centre of the circle will be :

(1) 0

(2)
perpendicular to the line OP and directed downward

(3)
perpendicular to the line OP and directed downward

(4)
along the axis OP

40) In the given diagrams the direction of electric field at point O is given in list-II (O is
circumcenter of the given regular polygon). Charge Q is positive. Match the direction of electric field
for the given arrangement:-
Code :-
P Q R S
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 3 1 2 4
(3) 3 2 1 4
(4) 1 4 3 2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Find the variation of electric field on the line joining the two charges -

[Take +x axis as +ve direction of ]

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of
radii R/2, R and 2R respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric fields at point P at
a distance R from the centre of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are E1 E2 and E3 respectively, then

(1) E1 > E2 > E3

(2) E3 > E1 > E2
(3) E2 > E1 > E3
(4) E3 > E2 > E1

43) A proton and an electron are placed in uniform electric field which of the following is correct :

(1) The electric forces acting on them will be equal

(2) The magnitudes of the force will be equal
(3) Their acceleration will be equal
(4) The magnitudes of their accelerations will be equal

44)
Charge 16 Q is placed at point A and another charge 25Q is placed at point B calculate at origin.
(1)

(2)

(3) 2kQ
(4)

45) For the given figure the direction of electric field at A will be :

(1) towards AL
(2) towards AY
(3) towards AX
(4) towards AZ

CHEMISTRY

1) The reaction, 2C + O2 → 2CO2 is carried out by taking 24 g carbon and 96 g O2. Which one is
limiting reagent:

(1) C
(2) O2
(3) CO2
(4) None of these

2) Match the mass of elements given in Colum-I with the number of moles given in Column-II and
mark the appropriate choice. Choose the correct codes form he options given below :

Column-I Column-II

(A) 28 g of He (p) 2 moles

(B) 46 g of Na (q) 7 moles

(C) 60 g of Ca (r) 1 mole

 (D) 27 g of Al (s) 1.5 moles
(1) (A)-(s), (B)-(r), (C)-(q), (D)-(p)
(2) (A)-(p), (B)-(r), (C)-(q), (D)-(s)
(3) (A)-(r), (B)-(q), (C)-(p), (D)-(s)
(4) (A)-(q), (B)-(p), (C)-(s), (D)-(r)

3) The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is :

(1) 1.2 x 1023

(2) 6 x 1022
(3) 6 x 1023
(4) 12 x 1023

4) A hydrocarbon is composed of 75% carbon. The empirical formula of the compound is :

(1) CH2
(2) CH3
(3) C2H5
(4) CH4

5) How many moles of CO2 will occupy 1.12 L at NTP?

(1)
mol

(2)
mol
(3) 20 mol
(4) 10 mol

6) 6.02 × 1022 molecules NaOH are removed from 20g NaOH. How many moles of NaOH are
remaining?

(1) 0.1 mol

(2) 0.2 mol
(3) 0.3 mol
(4) 0.4 mol

7) A gaseous mixture contains CO2 (g) and N2O (g) in a 2 : 5 ratio by mass. The ratio of the number
of molecules of CO2 (g) and N2O (g) is

(1) 5 : 2
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 5 : 4
8) A compound contains 10–2 % of phosphorous. If atomic mass of phosphorus is 31, the molecular
mass of the compound having one phosphorus atom per molecule is :–

(1) 31
(2) 3.1 × 103
(3) 3.1 × 105
(4) 3.1 × 104

9) Statement–1 : During a chemical reaction, total moles remains constant.

Statement–2 : During a chemical reaction, total mass remains constant.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

10) The molecular formula of a compound is X4O9. If the compound contains 40% X by mass, then
what is the atomic mass of X?

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 26
(4) 13

11) Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following ?

(1) 64 g SO2
(2) 44 g CO2
(3) 48 g O3
(4) 8 g H2

12) Number of atoms present in 224 dm3 of oxygen gas is :

(1) 6.0 × 1023

(2) 1.2 × 1023
(3) 6.0 × 1024
(4) 1.2 × 1025

13) Correct relationship between molecular weight and vapour density is (H2 gas is it taken as
standard)

(1) Molecular weight = Vapour density

(2)
Molecular weight = Vapour density
(3)
Molecular weight = Vapour density

(4)
Molecular weight = Vapour density

14) 5 L of an alkane requires 25 L of oxygen for its complete combustion. If all volumes are
measured at constant temperature and pressure, the alkane is :

(1) Isobutane
(2) Ethane
(3) Butane
(4) Propane

15) How many moles of Ca3(PO4)2 will contain 0.04 mol of oxygen atoms?

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.05
(3) 0.005
(4) 1

16) Which of the following statements are correct regarding a mixture containing 64.0 gm H2 and
64.0 g O2 is ignited so that water is formed as follows :-
I. H2 is the limiting Reagent
II. O2 is the limiting Reagent
III. Reaction mixture contains 72.0 gm H2O and 56.0 gm unreacted H2.
IV. The reaction mixture contains 56.0 gm H2O and 72 gm unreacted H2.

(1) I and IV
(2) II and IV
(3) II and III
(4) I and III

17) An element belongs to 6th period & 15th group its electronic configuration is :-

2 13
(1) 54[xe] 6s 4f
2 14 13
(2) 54[xe] 6s 4f 5d
2 14 10 3
(3) 54[xe] 6s 4f 5d 6p
14 1
(4) 54[xe] 4f 6s
18)
In above graph correct position of transition metal elements.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

19) If each orbital can hold max. 2 electron, than total no. of elements in 8th period would be :

(1) 75
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 25

20) Covalent radius of Cl is 99 pm. Select best about Cl2 molecule

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)

Incorrect order of atomic radius :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22)

The incorect order of atomic radii is :-

(1) Cu > Zn
(2) Cl > F
(3) P > S
(4) Sc > Ti

23) The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given isoelectronic species is–

(1) S–2, Cl–, Ca+2, K+

(2) Ca+2, K+, Cl–, S–2
(3) K+, S–2, Ca+2, Cl–
(4) Cl–, Ca+2, K+, S–2

24) In Lother Mayer's curve peak positions were occupied by :-

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Highly reactive metals
(3) Elements having high atomic volume
(4) All

25) [Ar] 3d6 4s2 configuration belongs to which group :-

(1) 2nd
(2) 6th
(3) 8th
(4) 10th

26) In modern periodic table, the element with atomic number Z = 118 will be:

(1) Uuo; Unniloctium; alkaline earth metal

(2) Uuo; Unniloctium; transition metal
(3) Uuo; Ununoctium; noble gas
(4) Uuo; Unniloctium; alkali metal

27)

Which of the element belongs to different block :-

(1) [Ar] 3d10 4s2

(2) [Xe] 4f145d106s2
(3) [Kr] 4d10 5s2
(4) 1s22s22p63s23p6

28) Which of the following set of atomic numbers represent representative elements ?

(1) 5, 13, 30, 53

(2) 5, 17, 31, 54
(3) 11, 33, 58, 84
(4) 9, 31, 53, 83

29) If total 100 elements are present in periodic table then how many of them contain e– in 4d
subshell.

(1) 60
(2) 62
(3) 64
(4) 80

30) Which two elements are in same period as well as same group of modern periodic table ?

(1) Z=23, Z=31

(2) Z=65, Z=66
(3) Z=52, Z=87
(4) Z=58, Z=46

31) Total σ & π bonds present in Benzene ?

(1) 12, 3
(2) 6, 3
(3) 3, 3
(4) 12, 12

32) Find the no. of σ and π bonds present in anthracene. :-

(1) 22σ, 7π
(2) 16σ, 7π
(3) 26σ, 7π
(4) 24σ, 7π

33) Hybridisation of carbons in the given compound are respectively

CH2=CH—C≡CH

(1) sp, sp2, sp3, sp

(2) sp2, sp2, sp, sp
(3) sp, sp, sp, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3, sp, sp2

34) How many and bonds are present in the following molecule respectively ?

(1) 10, 2
(2) 12, 2
(3) 8, 3
(4) 10, 2

35)

The hybridization of carbon atom in C–C single bond of H–C≡C–CH=CH2 is :-

(1) sp3–sp3
(2) sp2–sp2
(3) sp3–sp
(4) sp–sp2

36) Find out total number σ and π bonds respectively in following compound.

(1) 14, 2
(2) 15,3
(3) 9, 3
(4) 12, 2

37) The no. of σ and π bonds are present in given compound.

(1) 8 σ and 4 π
(2) 10 σ and 5 π
(3) 8 σ and 3 π
(4) 9 σ and 4 π

38) No. of 2° carbon are present in given compound:-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 2

39) Find out the number of 1°, 2°, 3° carbon in given compound ?

(1) 2, 6, 2
(2) 3, 5, 1
(3) 3, 6, 1
(4) 3, 5, 2

40) Find the number of 1°, 2°, 3° Hydrogen in given compound ?

(1) 3, 14, 1
(2) 3, 14, 2
(3) 3, 12, 3
(4) 3, 12, 2

41) The number of 1°, 2°, 3° H-atom respectively in the given compound ?

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 8, 3, 1
(3) 6, 4, 2
(4) 8, 2, 2

42) Which of the following is a heterocylic compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following compound is having only one type of hydrogen atom :-
(1) Benzene
(2) Nephthalene
(3) Biphenyl
(4) All

44) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II

(A) Homocyclic (P)

(B) Hetero cyclic having one Hetero atom (Q)

(C) Hetero cyclic having three Hetero atom (R)

(S)

(T)

(1) A → Q, T ; B → P, R ; C → S
(2) A → R, T ; B → Q ; C → R, S
(3) A → Q, T ; B → P ; C → R, S
(4) A → T ; B → P, Q, R ; C → S

45) Statement-I : have only 2°H.

Statement-II : Structure have only 2°C.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.

BIOLOGY
1) Trilamellar model proposed by :-

(1) J.D. Robertson

(2) Danielli and Davson
(3) Gorter and Grindell
(4) Singer and Nicolson

2) Thickness of plasma membrane is :-

(1) 75 nm
(2) 7.5 nm
(3) 150 nm
(4) 1.0 nm

3) S.J. singer and G.L. Nicolson's model of plasma membrane differs from sandwitch's model in the:-

(1) Arrangment of lipid layers

(2) Number of lipid layers
(3) Arrangment of protein
(4) Absence of lipid in fluid mosaic model

4) The plasma mebrane called as living boundary because :-

(1) It is a delicate structure

(2) It is semipermeable and selective permeable
(3) It shows enzymatic activity
(4) It is made up of lipid bilayer

5) The hydrophobic tails of lipids attached to each other by :-

(1) Ionic bond

(2) Vanderwall force
(3) Hydrogen bond
(4) All the above

6) Who study different type of animal cells and reported that cells had a thin outer layer as the
plasma membrane :-

(1) M. Schleiden
(2) T. Schwann
(3) Leeuwenhock
(4) Rudolf virchow

7) As the polar molecules cannot pass through the non polar I , they requires II of the
membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane.
Choose the correct word for I and II :-
 I II
(1) Cholesterol Carbohydrate
(2) Protein Lipid
(3) Carbohydrate Protein
(4) Lipid bilayer Protei
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Why tail of lipids in the membrane are towards inner part?

(1) The tail is non polar hydrocarbon and should present within an aqueous environment.
(2) The tail is polar hydrocarbon and so is protected from aqueous environment
The nonpolar or hydrophobic hydrocarbon tails of lipid, being on inner side ensures their
(3)
protection from aqueous environment.
(4) The tail is hydrophilic so it tends to be located in the aqueous inner side of membrane

9) Match the column-I with column-II correctly :-

Column-I Column-II
Various types of cell and organism Size

I. Typical bacteria A. 10-20 µm

II. Viruses B. 1-2 µm

III. PPLO C. 0.1 µm

IV. A typical eukaryotic cells D. 0.02-0.2 µm

(1) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(3) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(4) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

10) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Any thing less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
(2) Anton Von Leeuwenhock first saw and described a living cell
(3) Robert Brown discovered cell
(4) Cell is the basic unit of structure and function of all organisms

11) Cell membrane is selective permeable. This means that it :-

(1) Allows all materials to pass through

(2) Allows only water to pass through
(3) Allow only certain materials to pass through
(4) Allow only ions to pass through
12) Fluid nature of membrane is able to explain :-

(1) Cell growth, cell division

(2) Formation of intercellular junctions
(3) Secretion of various substances across membrane
(4) All

13) Integral cell membrane proteins :-

(1) Are partially embedded in lipid layers

(2) Are completely embedded in lipid layers
(3) Show lateral but not vertical movements within in bilayer of lipid
(4) All

14) Cell membrane is composed of :-

(1) Proteins + Liquid only

(2) Carbohydrate + Protein only
(3) Carbohydrate + Lipids + Proteins
(4) Carbohydrate + lipids only

15) Which of the following is common to facilitated diffusion and active transport ?

(1) Both process require energy

(2) Both occur along the concentration gradient
(3) Both occur against the concentration gradient
(4) Both require carrier protein

16) The quasifluid nature (A) enables (B) movement of proteins within the overall bilayer
of plasma membrane.

(1) A → protein, B → lateral

(2) A → Lipid, B → lateral
(3) A → Lipid, B → Flip-flop
(4) A → Protein, B → Flip-flop

17) which of the following was a germen botanist, examined a large number of plants and observed
that all plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of plant cell.

(1) Schleiden
(2) Schleiden & Schwann
(3) Schwann
(4) Virchow

18) Who was the first one to see live cell?

(1) Robert Hook
(2) Leeuwenhock
(3) Robert Brown
(4) None of these

19) Which of the following is a longest cell ?

(1) Human RBC

(2) Egg of an ostrich
(3) Nerve cells
(4) All of these

20) Cell theory which was given by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells
are formed. Who modified the hypothesis of cell theory to give it a final shape ?

(1) R. Hooke
(2) R. Virchow
(3) Mendel
(4) C.P. Swanson

21) Delimiting structure of cell is :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Desmosome

22) Result of compartmentalization in cytoplasm of Eukaryotic cell is :-

(1) Cell organelles

(2) DNA
(3) Cell wall
(4) Cell membrane

23) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column I Column II Column III

(i) Rudolf virchow Cell lineage theory omnis cellula-e-cellula

Cell wall is a unique

(ii) Matthias schleiden German botanist
character of plants

(iii) Robert Brown Discovery of cell Micrographia

(1) i only
(2) i and iii
(3) i and ii
(4) i, ii, and iii

24) G.N. RAMACHANDRAN received a Ph.D. from Cambridge University in 1949, while at
Cambridge, he met —— and was deeply influenced by his publications on models of the a-helix and
b-sheet structures that directed his attention to solving the structure of collagen. -

(1) Von Behring

(2) Huxley
(3) Linus Pauling
(4) Louis Pasteur

25) Nucleus as a "cell organelle" was first described by.....as early as........

(1) Robert Hooke, 1665

(2) Robert Brown, 1831
(3) Flemming, 1931
(4) Strasburger, 1831

26) Read the following statement (A-D). How many statement are correct
(A) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells.
(B) All cells arise from pre existing cells
(C) According to Schleiden, all plants are composed of different kinds of cells. Which form the
tissues of the plants.
(D) According to Schwann animal cells had a thin outer layer which is known as cell wall

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

27) Given below is the digramatic sketch of cell membrane. Identity the parts labelled A,B,C,D,E and

select the right option about them :- Components :-

(i) Integral protein
(ii) Cytoplasm
(iii) Cell wall
(iv) External protein
(v) Sugar
(vi) Protein
(vii) Lipid bilayer
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Depending on the ease of extraction, membrane proteins can be classified into integral and
peripheral.
(B) Cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged in monolayer.
(C) The lipids are arranged within the membrane with the non polar head towards outer side & the
hydrophilic tail towards the inner side.
(D) Endocytosis is the process by which cells take solid or liquid substance from the inside of the
cell.
How many of the above statements are wrong?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

29) The following diagram shows of the structures in a plant cell (A-G) identify the structures.

The correct option is :-

A → Plasma membrane; B → Nucleolus; C → Middle lamellla; D → Plasmodesmata; E →

(1)
Peroxisome; F → Mitochondria;G → Ribosomes
A → Plasma membrane; B → Nucleolus;
(2) C → Golgi apparatus; D → Plasmodesmata; E → Middle lamellla; F → Mitochondria; G →
Ribosomes
A → Plasmodesmata; B → Nucleolus; C → Golgi apparatus; D → Plasma membrane; E → Middle
(3)
lamellla; F → Mitochondria; G → Ribosomes
 A → Plasmodesmata; B → Nucleolus; C → Golgi apparatus; D → Middle lamellla; E → Plasma
(4)
membrane; F →Mitochondria; G → Ribosomes

30) Correlate the given features of animal cells

(I to VII) with their respective parts :- (I) The structure replicates during
mitosis and genrates the spindle.
(II) Major site for systhesis of lipid.
(III) Power house of the cell.
(IV) Store house of digestive enzyme.
(V) Increases the surface area for the absorption of materials.
(VI) Site of Glycolysis
(VII) Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
The correct option is :-

I II III IV V VI VII

(1) B E H G E D C

(2) H B G E J C D

(3) H B E G J D C

(4) H B G E D J C
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Substance 'A' is a polar molecule with higher concentration inside the cell than outside. How
might this substance enter the cell ?

(1) By active transport

(2) By osmosis
(3) By simple diffusion
(4) By facilitated diffusion

32) Omnis cellula e cellula given by

(1) Rudolf virchow

(2) Singer
(3) Nicolson
(4) George palade
33) Which one of the following does not differ in cyanobacteria and human cell ?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Plasmamembrane
(3) Ribosome
(4) Chromosomal organisation

34) The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:

(1) Nucleus
(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Mitochondrian
(4) Cytoplasm

35) Regarding differences between animal & plant cells, which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Animal cells contain centrioles & cell wall, plant cells do not
(2) Animal cells contain centrioles & plant cells contain plastids, cell wall and large central vacuole
(3) Animal cells do not contain centrioles plant cells contain
(4) Animal cells contain plastids, while plants cells do not contain

36) According to the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane, the proteins are located :-

(1) In a continous layer over the outer surface of the membrane only
(2) In a continuous layer over the inner surface only
In discontinuous arrangement both on the surface (as peripheral proteins) and in the interior of
(3)
the membrane (as integral proteins)
(4) In the middle of the membrane, between the lipid bilayer

37) A – Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

B –Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all unicellular organisms
C –All cells arise from pre-existing cells
D – The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in all type of cells.

(1) Statement A, C and D are wrong.

(2) Statement A, B and D are wrong
(3) Statement A, B, C and D are correct
(4) Statement A, B, C and D are wrong

38) Which of the following is not constituent of cell membrane

(1) Phosphoprotein
(2) Protein and lipids
(3) Phospholipids
(4) Hemicellulose
39) Identify the labelled organelles A, B and C with their correct function :

(1) C is SER, helps in synthesis of steroid hormones

(2) B is RER, helps in synthesis of protein
(3) A is mitochondria sites for anaerobic respiration
(4) C is Golgi body helps in formation of steroid

40) Keeping in view the "fluid mosaic model" for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid
monolayer to the other (described as flipflop movement) ?

(1) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not

(2) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
(3) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(4) While lipids can rarely flip–flop,proteins can not

41) Cell theory was formulated by

(1) Robert Hooke

(2) Robert Brown
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Schleiden and Schwann

42) Fill in the blanks correctly in following paragraph with the help of given options :-
Many molecules can move briefly across plasma membrane without any requirement of energy and
this is called the __________. Neutral solutes may move across the membrane by the process of
_______ along the concentration gradient.

(1) Passive transport ; facilitated diffusion

(2) Active transport ; simple diffusion
(3) Passive transport ; simple diffusion
(4) Active transport ; facilitated diffusion

43) Carbohydrates which are present in the bio membrane in the form of :-

(1) Cellulose
(2) Glycolipid
(3) Glycoprotein
(4) Both (2) and (3)
44) Protein which are present in cell membrane are differentiated on the basis.

(1) Ease of extraction

(2) Nature of protein
(3) Movement under electric field
(4) By the help protein digesting enzyme

45) Which of the following is not true about cell membrane

(1) Cell membrane is selectively permeable

(2) Cell membrane is quasifllued in nature
(3) Cell membrane have bilayer of lipid
(4) The main lipid component of cell membrane is cholesterol.

46) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

47) Cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli are present in :-

(1) PCT of Nephron

(2) Bowman's capsule
(3) Thin part of Henle's loop
(4) Alveoli of lungs

48) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

A Areolar tissue 1 Fat cells

B Adipose tissue 2 Osteocytes

C Ligaments 3 Loose connective tissue

D Bone 4 Dense regular connective tissue

(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(2) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(4) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3

49) Which one of the following is not a character of compound epithelium?

(1) It is multilayered
(2) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(3) They cover the dry surface of the skin like epidermis
(4) Found in inner lining of blood vessels and lymph vessels

50) Which of the following cells is phagocytic in nature?

(1) Mast cell

(2) Podocyte
(3) Macrophage
(4) Fibroblast

51) The diagram given below represent :-

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

52) The diagrams given below represent :-

(1) A-Ligament B-Tendon

(2) A-Tendon B-Ligament

(3) A-Bone B-Cartilage

(4) A-Cartilage B-Bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53)

Find out the correct match for following options:-

(1)
Found in DCT

(2)
Found in Small Intestine

(3)
Bowman's capsule

(4)
Found in blood vessel

54) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Areolar connective tissue serves as a support framework for epithelium.

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue is found in skin.
(3) Matrix of cartilage is solid, non pliable and resists compression.
(4) Compound epithelium has limited role in secretion & absorption.

55) Which of the following secretions are related with exocrine glands ?
(a) Mucus (b) Ear wax
(c) Saliva (d) Oil
(e) Insulin (f) Milk

(1) (a), (b), (e) and f

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (f)
(4) (a), (b), (d) and (e)

56) Read the statement(s) carefully and fill the blanks with correct option -
Tendons, which attach ___A___ are example of ___B___.

A - bones to muscles,
(1)
B - specialised connective tissue
A - bones to muscles
(2)
B - dense regular connective tissue
A - one bone to another
(3)
B - dense regular connective tissue
A - one bone to another
(4)
B - dense irregular connective tissue

57) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

A Goblet cells i Multicellular glandular epithelium

 B Salivary glands ii Unicellular glandular epithelium

C Buccal cavity iii Compound epithelium

D PCT iv Cuboidal epithelium

Select the most appropriate option.

A B C D

(1) ii i iii iv

(2) iii ii iv i

(3) iv iii i ii

(4) i iv ii iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Assertion : Hardest connective tissue of the body is bone

Reason : Hardness of the bone is due to the calcification of its matrix.

(1) Assertion is true but the reason is false

(2) Assertion is fales but reason is true
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

59) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
labelled A,B,C and D, and select the right option

(1) A-Macro phage, B-Collagen fibres, C-Fibroblast, D-Mast cell

(2) A-Mast cell, B-Collagen fibres, C-Fibroblast, D-Macro phage
(3) A-Macro phage, B-Fibroblast, C-Collagen fibres, D-Mast cell
(4) A-Mast cell, B-Macro phage, C-Fibroblast, D-Collagen fibres

60)

White fibrous connective tissue covering of kidney is called -

(1) Periosteum
(2) Perimysium
(3) Endomysium
(4) Renal capsule

61) Assertion :- All cells in epithelium are held together with little intercellular material.
Reason :- All animal tissue specialised junctions provide both structural and functional links
between its individual cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Statement-I: Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs.
Statement-II: Function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in specific direction.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect

(2) Both Statements I and II are correct
(3) Statement II is correct, Statement I is incorrect
(4) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

63) The cells in which chromatin is arranged like spokes in nucleus is :-

(1) Fibroblast cell

(2) Plasma cell
(3) Adipose cell
(4) Mesenchymal cell

64) The areolar connective tissue contains -

(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Macrophages
(3) Mast cell
(4) All of the above

65) Tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in

(1) Neural tissue

(2) Muscle tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

66) Which of the following included in spelized C.T. ?

(a) Cartilage (c) Bone
(b) Blood (d) Areolar C.T.

(1) a, b
(2) b, c, d only
(3) only d
(4) a, b, c

67) Major protein of connective tissue is ?

(1) Melanin
(2) Keratin
(3) Collagen
(4) Myosin

68) Stretchable & Water proof Epithelium :-

(1) Simple cuboidal

(2) Simple squamous
(3) Simple Columnar
(4) Transitional

69) Nutrients which are not utilized store in body as a form of :-

(1) Areolar C. T.
(2) Mucoid C. T.
(3) Fibrous C. T.
(4) Adipose C. T.

70) The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of :-

(1) cuboidal cells

(2) Flattened cells
(3) columnar cells
(4) All of these

71) The function of the gap junction is to

Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(1)
of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
(2) Separate two cells from each other.
(3) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
(4) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

72) Assertion : Blood circulation is absent in epithelium.

Reason : Power of regeneration is absent in epithelium.

(1) If both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both assertion & reason are false

73) Sclerites in cockroach are joined together by :–

(1) Arthodial membrane

(2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Ganglia
(4) Phallomeres

74) Why head of cockroach can move easily in all directions ?

(1) In cockroach head and thorax fuse to form cephalothorax

(2) Due to anatomy of mouth parts
(3) Head is attached with thorax through flexible neck
(4) Thorax of cockroach is made up of three segments.

75) Identify the organism, the body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen having bitting and
chewing mouth parts.

(1) Pigeon
(2) Fish
(3) Earthworm
(4) Cockroach

76) A ring of A blind tubules called B is present at the junction of foregut and mid gut Which secrete
digestive juice. At junction of midgut and hind gut is present another ring of C filamentous D :-

A B C D

Malpighian Hepatic
1 6-8 100-150
tubules caecae

Malpighian Hepatic
2 100-150 6-8
tubules caecae

Malpighian
3 100-150 Hepatic caecae 6-8
tubules

Malpighian
4 6-8 Hepatic caecae 100-150
tubules
1
(1)

(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) In Cockroach the sclerites of exoskeleton joint by

(1) Sternum
(2) Tergum
(3) Articular or Arthrodial membrane
(4) Peritrophic membrane

78) In the following diagram, identify and label the structures A, B, C and D :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Labium Maxilla Mandible Labrum

(2) Labrum Mandible Maxilla Labium

(3) Mandible Mandible Labrum Labium

(4) Maxilla Labrum Mandible Labium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) The Forewings of Cockroach are also known as :

(1) Elytra
(2) Metathoracic wings
(3) Tegmina
(4) Both (1) and (3)

80)

Structures which help in distinguishing a male cockroach from a female cockroach are-

(1) Anal styles

(2) Anal cerci
(3) Collaterial glands
(4) Ocelli

81) Nocturnal, omniovorus, resident of human homes, serious pest, vector of several diseases, live in
damp place, chitinous exoskeleton, piercing and sucking mouth parts.
How many of above characters are applicable to Periplaneta americana :-

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 2

82) The dorsal plate of skeleton found on the abdomen of cockroach is called :

(1) Pleuron
(2) Sternum
(3) Tergum
(4) Vertex

83) Wings of cockroach are mainly helpful in :

(1) Egg laying

(2) Preying
(3) Finding the mate
(4) Protection

84) Stink glands are found in :

(1) Only in males

(2) Only in female
(3) In both
(4) None

85) The inner layer of gizzard of cockroach is covered by :

(1) By cuticle
(2) By mucous membrane
(3) By endoepithelium
(4) By peritrophic membrane

86) In cockroach, wings arises from :-

(1) Prothorax and mesothorax and are two pairs

(2) Mesothorax and metathorax and are two pairs
(3) All the throracic segments and are three pairs
(4) First three abdominal segments and are three pairs

87) In male cockroach, genital pouch is formed by :-

(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna

(2) 7th sternum, and 8th and 9th terga
(3) 9th and 10th terga, and 9th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th sterna, and 9th tergum

88) In cockroach, labium, labrum and hypopharynx are commonly called :-

(1) Upper lip, lower lip and crop, respectively
(2) Upper lip, lower lip and tongue, respectively
(3) Lower lip, upper lip and tongue, respectively
(4) Lower lip, upper lip and jaw, respectively

89) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of foregut and midgut and are called:-

(1) Gastric caecae which secrete digestive juice

(2) Hepatic caecae which secrete digestive juice
(3) Intestinal caecae which help in grinding the food
(4) Both (1) and (2)

90) With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several images of an object. This
kind of vision is caled :-

(1) Nocturnal vision, with less sensitivity and less resolution

(2) Mosaic vision, with more sensitivity but less resolution
(3) Mosaic vision, with more resolution but less sensitivity
(4) Nocturnal vision, with more sensitivity and more resolution
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 1 2 3 4 1 4 1 3 2 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 1 3 1 2 1 1 3 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 3 4 1 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 2 4 3 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 4 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 3 2 2 4 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 1 3 2 2 3 4 3 3 1 1 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 4 1 4 3 1 1 4 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 4 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 3 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 3 1 2 3 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Concept:
The relevant trigonometric identities are the sum and difference formulas:
• sin(A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B
• cos(A + B) = cos A cos B - sin A sin B (Note the minus sign)
• sin(A - B) = sin A cos B - cos A sin B
• cos(A - B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B
Mathematical Calculation:
We compare each given option with the correct formulas:
• Option 1 (sin(A+B)): sin(A+B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B - This is correct.
• Option 2 (cos(A+B)): The question states cos(A+B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B. This is
incorrect. The correct formula has a minus sign between the terms.
• Option 3 (sin(A-B)): sin(A - B) = sin A cos B - cos A sin B - This is correct.
• Option 4 (cos(A-B)): cos(A - B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B - This is correct.
Final Answer:
The incorrect trigonometric identity is: cos(A+B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B. The correct
identity is cos(A+B) = cos A cos B - sin A sin B.
Question Level: Easy

2) Let length of ladder be ℓ then

⇒ ℓ= 5m

3) Let angle made by AB with positive x-axis be q then

⇒ θ = 3π/4 rad = 135°

4)

Using ASTC rule

8)

y = 2x2 – 12x

= 4x – 12 = 0 ⇒ x = +3

=4>0
so, minimum value of y = 2(3)2 – 12 × 3 = –18
10) Because slope m = tanθ

13) Question Explanation:

We need to evaluate the following definite integral:

This is the integral of the gravitational force over a radial distance r, where G is the
gravitational constnat, M and m are masses, and r is the variable of integration.
Concept : Definite Integration

Formula :
We are using the power rule of integration. The power rule for integrating a function xn is:

Calculation:
1. Set up the integral:

2. Integrate r–2:

3. Apply the limits of integration:

4. Rearrange terms:

Final Answer: (2)

15)
= 120

16)

17)

we know that

So +C
= +C

18) For y to be minimum

For y to be maximum.

19) sin2 θ = incorrect.

23)

Due to symmetry of charge distribution in III the net electric field is zero.

24)

When two objects are rubbed against each other, they undergo triboelectric charging, where :
One object gains electrons – becomes negatively charged (– q)
The other object loses electrons – becomes positively charged (+ q)
Since they acquire opposite charges, they will experience an attractive force due to
electrostatic interaction.

According Coulomb's Law, the electrostatic force between two point charges is

F=
where :
k is Coulomb's constant,
q1 and q2 are the charges on the objects,
r is the separation distance.
since q1 and q2 are of opposite signs, the force is attractive.
As per given condition, one object is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
Opposite charges always attract, meaning the nature of the force is attractive.

Correct Answer is 1

25)

Given F1 + F2 = 0

∴
or q2 = –qQ ⇒ Q = –q
26) Coulomb's law is analogus to newton's third law.

27) F = qE = q

29) For balancing qE = mg

qE = 2 × 10–6g

q = × 10–5 = 5 × 10–6 C
Nature of charge will be positive

30)
for eqm condition

3(70 – x) = 4x
7x = 210
x = 30 cm

31)

They are equally inclined with each other

32)

Concept Based:
• Electrostatic Force: The repulsive force between two charged bodies due to their charges.
• Tension in the Strings: The force exerted by the strings the balls, which has both
horizontal vertical components.
• Equilibrium of Forces: Conditions for horizontal vertical forces to balance in a static
system.
Formula :
• Horizontal equilibrium:
The electrostatic force Fe must balance the horizontal Component of tension:

Fe = T1sin(α) for ball and Fe = T2 sin(θ) for ball 2

Vertical equilibrium:
The vertical forces (gravitational forces) are balanced by the vertical components of the
tension:
m1 = T1cos (α) for ball 1 and m2g cos(ß) for ball 2
Calculation:
• Horizontal equilibrium:
Since a > b this implies sin (a) > sin (b), so the tension T1 in the string of ball 1 must be than
the tension T2 in the string of ball 2. Therefore, We have:

T1 < T2
This means that the tension in the string of ball 1 is less than the tension in the string of ball 2.
• Vertical equilibrium:
Since T1 < T2 and cos(a) < cos(ß), it follows that the mass m1 of ball 1 must be less than the
mass of m2 of ball 2.
Hence:

m 1 < m2
• Relating the charges:
The greater horizontal displacement of ball 1 implies that the electrostatic force on ball 1 is
larger. This can only happen if q1 ≥ q2 (the charge on ball 1 is greater than to the charge on
ball 2).

From the analysis, we conclude the correct answer is Option 3: q1 > q2 ​ & m1 < m2

40) Apply superposition of electric field using the fact that electric field is radially outwards.

41) Electric field will be infinite near both charges. Since 2Q is the bigger charge hence
electric field will be zero near the smaller charge.

42) E1 =

E2 = ⇒ E2 =

E3 = ⇒ E3 =
E3 < E1 < E2
CHEMISTRY

70)

Group no.: - (n–1)d e– + nse–

6+2=8

72)

Explanation -

The question asks to identify the element whose electronic configuration places it in a
different block of the periodic table compared to the others.

Concept - electronic configuration

Solution -
2 2 6 2 6
The electronic configuration 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p (Argon) belongs to the p-block. The other three
configurations belong to the d-block.

Final Answer - Option (4)

73) Only s & p-block elements except noble gas, d-block, f-block.

74) 4d e– start from 39 elements.

Elements having 4d e– = 100 – 38 = 62

75) 65, 66 (Lanthanides)

period = 6, group = III B

77) Structure of Anthracene:

Total σ-bonds : 26
Total π-bonds : 7
78)

83)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Number of 2º (secondary) carbon in given structure

Key Concept:
Carbon atom attached to two carbon is called as 2º/secondary carbon.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

∴ Number of 2º carbon are :- 8

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

87) Old NCERT XIth, Part-II, Pg. # 339

89)

(P)

(Q)
All atom of cyclic same so Homocylcic

(R)
 90)
having 3°C also but there is no hydrogen so no 3°H.

BIOLOGY

95) NCERT Pg. # 132

98) NCERT Pg. # 131

99) NCERT Pg. # 128

100) NCERT Pg. # 125

101) NCERT Pg. # 132

102) NCERT Pg. # 132

103) NCERT Pg. # 131

104) NCERT Pg. # 93, 94

110) NCERT XI pg.# 126

111) NCERT-XI Pg. # 126, IIIrd para V line

112) NCERT-XI Pg. # 129

113) NCERT Pg. # 126

115)

Concept:

A. Robert Brown is credited with the discovery and detailed description of the nucleus.
Solution:

A. Robert Brown observed and described the nucleus in plant cells in 1831.

122)

NCERT Page No. 88

127)

NCERT XI Pg. # 125, 126

129) NCERT Pg. # 128

133) NCERT Pg. # 131

135)

NCERT Page # 93

136)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

137) NCERT XIth Pg # 101, last para

138)

Pg. No. 103, 104_XI NCERT

139)

NCERT Pg # 102

140)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

141) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103, Fig - 7.5 (a)

142) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 104, Fig- 7.6 (a, b)

143) NCERT Pg. # 101

144) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102, 103, 104

145) NCERT XI Page No. # 102

146) NCERT, Pg. # 103

147) OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101,102

148)

NCERT XI, Pg. 104

149) NCERT XI, Page # 101

150) NCERT Pg # 102 (E & H)

151) NCERT-XI Page No. # 102

152) NCERT-XI Page No. # 101

153) Module Pg. # 15

154) Module

155) NCERT Page 102

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 104

157) NCERT XI Pg # 103

158)

Module (page no.88)

159) NCERT Pg. # 103

160) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

161)

NCERT Page no 102.

162)

Let's analyze the assertion and reason:

Assertion: Blood circulation is absent in epithelium. This is true. Epithelial tissue is avascular,
meaning it lacks blood vessels. Nutrients and oxygen are supplied by diffusion from underlying
connective tissue.
Reason: Power of regeneration is absent in epithelium. This is false. Epithelial tissue has a
high capacity for regeneration. Skin, for example, is constantly being renewed.
Therefore, the correct answer is 3. If assertion is true but the reason is false.

163) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 111

164) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 112

165) NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 112

166) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113

167) NCERT XI Pg. # 112, IInd para

168) NCERT XII Pg. # 112, Figure 7.15(b).

169)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 112

170)

NCERT XI Page # 112

171) NCERT 11th Page # 111, 112

172)

The correct answer is Option 3 (Tergum).

The tergum is the dorsal plate of the exoskeleton in each abdominal segment of a
cockroach. It provides structural support and protection to the dorsal side of the
body.
A. Pleuron: Refers to the lateral (side) plates of each segment.
B. Sternum: Refers to the ventral (bottom) plate of each segment. Vertex: Refers to the
top of the head, not the abdomen.

173)

While cockroach wings have various functions, their primary use is in finding a mate. They use
their wings to fly short distances.
Answer - 4

174)

The correct answer is Option 3 (In both).

Stink glands, also known as repugnatorial glands, are found in both male and female
cockroaches. These glands release a foul-smelling secretion that serves as a defense
mechanism to deter predators. The glands are typically located on the abdomen.

175)

The correct answer is Option 1 (By cuticle).

The inner layer of the gizzard in a cockroach is lined with a tough cuticle. This
chitinous cuticle forms teeth-like structures, which aid in grinding the food into finer
particles before it moves to the midgut for digestion.

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177) NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 112

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179) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 113

180) Old NCERT Pg. # 114 - Edition 2022-23