Multiple Choice Question [MCQ] 5.

Common tests to diagnose cervical cancer

1. Membrane protein acts as a a) Mammography

b) VIA tests
a) A structural element c) Serum electrolyte
b) Transport molecule d) Pap smear tests
c) Normal metabolic fuel e) Serum bilirubin
d) An enzyme
e) A passive of oxygen [Answers: b, d]

Answers: a, b, d] 6. Hormones secreted from anterior pituitary

Glands

2. Junctional tissues of heart are a) Follicle stimulating hormone

b) Oxytocin hormone
a) SA node c) Growth hormone
b) Coronary sinus d) Antidiuretic hormone
c) AV node e) Thyroxin hormoe
d) Pulmonary trunk
e) Purkinje fiber [Answers: a, c]

[Answers: a, c, e]
7. Antigen of ABO blood group are

3. The parts of the biliary tree a) Present since birth

b) Found in plasma
a) Gall bladder c) Polysaccharide in nature
b) Pancreatic duct d) Found in the RBC membrane
c) Cystic duct e) Protein in nature
d) Hepatic lobule
e) Common bile duct [Answers: a, c, d]

[Answers: a, c, e]
8. Which of the following diseases were
eradicated?
4.The causes of polyurea are
a) Excessive fluid intake a) Chicken pox
b) Diabetes mellitus b) Small pox
c) Nephrotic syndrome c) Measles
d) Diabetes insipidus d) Poliomyelitis
e) Acute glomerulonephritis e) Rubella

[Answers: a, b, d] [Answers: b]
9. Which of the following are fat-soluble c) Lowa model
vitamins? d) Settler model
e) Thomas Kilmann model
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C [Answers: a, c, d]
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin B 14. Modifiable risk factors of hypertension
e) Vitamin E are

[Answers: a, c, e] a) Post menopausal status

b) Obesity
10. Qualities of a gerontological nurse are c) History of diabetes mellitus
d) Excessive sodium intake
a) Therapeutic relationship e) Sedentary life style
b) Less clinical competence
c) Good communication [Answers: b, d, e]
d) Knowledge about elder problems
e) Unable to work with team 15. Mode of transmission of HIV

[Answers: a, c, d] a) Contaminated blood

b) Sexual intercourse
11. Secondary prevention includes c) Needle sharing
d) Shaking hand
a) Early diagnosis e) Sharing utensil
b) Health promotion
c) Screening survey [Answers: a, b, c]
d) Disability limitation
e) Specific immunization
16. Immediate nursing intervention for
[Answers: a, c, d] severe burn

12. Cerebrospinal fluid a) Establishing breathing

b) Provide diuretic
a) Protects the brain & spinal cord c) Initiate fluid therapу
b) Maintains pressure around the brain & d) Provide anti-pyretic
spinal cord e) Monitor vital sign
c) Helps in conduction of nerve impulse
d) Acts as a shock absorber of brain [Answers: a, c, e]
e) Helps in growth & development

[Answers: a, b, d] 17. Goals of EBN

13. Common models of EBP are a) Read widely & critically

b) Attend professional conferencе
a) CURN model c) Learn to un-expect evidence
b).Erickson model d) Not participate in research utilization
e) Become involved in a journal club 22. Ethics should be followed by the
researcher
[Answers: a, b, e]
a) Researcher must maintain scientific
18. Characteristics of mentally healthy objectivity
person b) Researcher should use unfair means to
extract
a) Well adjust to self & others information
b) Unable to take decision c) Information provided by the respondents
c) Feel confident about self must
d) Unable to think properly be kept confidential
e) Unable to adjust with other d) Research should causing personal harm
e) Responded should be kept free to
[Answers: a, c] withdraw
from the study
19. Following are the salivary glands
[Answers: a, c, e]
a) Adrenal gland
b) Parotid gland 23. Common school health problems of the
c) Sublingual gland children
d) Thymus gland Are
e) Sub mandibular gland
a) Skin infections
[Answers: b, c, e] b) Communicable diseases
c) Hypertension
20. Characteristics of a research problem d) Diabetes mellitus
e) Upper respiratory infections
a) It should have a clear objective
b) It should be easily investigable [Answers: a, b, e]
c) It should be vaguе
d) It should have ethical implications 24. Complications of immobilization are
e) It should be specific
a) Muscle contracture
[Answers: a, b, d, e] b) Regular bowel movement
c) Deep vein thrombosis
d) Non dependent oedema
21. Hazards of improper excreta disposal e) Decrease metabolism

a) Contamination of food [Answers: a, c, d, e]

b) Dental caries
c) Air pollution 25. Action should be taken to prevent
d) Water pollution accident of an
e) Accident older person

[Answers: a, c, d] a) Avoid poor fitting shoes and socks

b) Railing bed should be used
c) Poor lighting in the room d) Locating chest compression position
d) Using properly fitted stick or cane for e) Arrange equipment not properly
walk
e) More foot and toe lift during stepping [Answers: a, b, c, d]

[Answers: a, b, d] 30. Clinical features of delirium are

26. Common causes of infant mortality a) Disorientation to time & placeuenobm

b) Incoherent speech
a) Pneumonia c) Burning Micturition
b) Diarrhea d) Sound sleep
c) Heart disease e) Aimless physical activity
d) Septicemia
e) Kidney disease [Answers: a, b, e]

[Answers: a, b, d] 31. Which drugs make the people drug

dependence
27. Clinical features of osteomyelitis
a) Barbiturates
a) Pain b) Opium
b) Swelling c) Paracetamol
c) Acetabular dysplasia d) Antibiotic
d) Club foot e) Cocaine
e) Redness
[Answers: a, b, e]
[Answers: a, b]
32. Influencing factors of growth &
28. Adverse effects of proton pump development
inhibitors
a) Genetics
a) GI effect gaiqsol b) Nutrition
b) Kidney disease c) Literaсy
c) Iron malabsorption d) Environment
d) Hair loss e) Religion
e) Breathlessness
[Answers: a, b, d]
[Answers: a, b, c]
33. Sites chosen for I/M injections in infants
29. Steps of performance CPR of a child
a) Deltoid muscle
a) Proper positioning to open the child's b) Ventro-gluteal
airway c) Vastus laterally
b) Uncover the mouth and pinching the nose d) Gluteus medius
for e) Rectus femoris
breathing
c) Finding proper location of neck pulse [Answers: c, e]
 [Answers: a, c, e]
34. Level of cognitive domain in Blooms
taxonomy 38. Teenage pregnancy may occur due to
Includes
a) Malnutrition
a) Knowledge b) Family conflict
b) Criticism c) Early menarche
c) Application d) Sexual abuse
d) Characterization e) Increase literacy
e) Synthesis
[Answers: b, d]
[Answers: a, c, e]
39. Following are the side effect of
35. Internal strategies of family coping are phototherapy

a) The use of humor a) Dehydration

b) Maintaining cohesive sharing b) Over hydration
c) Seeking social support c) Watery diarrhea
d) Interpreting events in a positive way d) Retinal damage
e) Maintaining active linkage with the e) Constipation
community
organization [Answers: a, c, d]

[Answers: a, b, d] 40. Common orthopedic problems are

36. Which of the following steps should be a) Carditis

taken b) Fracture
immediately after birth to manage the baby c) Cystitis
d) Arthritis
a) APGAR scoring e) Spondylosis
b) Dry & stimulate the baby
c) Start oral feeding [Answers: b, d, e]
d) Cut & tie the umbilical cord
e) Height & weight measurement 41. Non communicable diseases are

[Answers: a, b, d] a) Cystitis
b) Carditis
c) Pneumonia
37. Main causes of conflict d) Diabetes mellitus
e) Diarrhea
a) Poor communication
b) Clear about job responsibility [Answers: b, d]
c) Unfair distribution of resource
d) Good work habits 42. Increase pulse rate during
e) Resistance to change
a) Sleeping
b) Exercise
c) High fever 47. Components of APGAR scoring
d) Reading
e) Bleeding a) Appearance
b) Temperature
[Answers: b, c, e] c) Pulse rate
d) Respiration
43. Diseases which are not caused by virus e) Blood pressure

a) Enteric fever [Answers: a, c, d]

b) Poliomyelitis
c) Rheumatic fever 48. True labor pain characterized by-
d) Tubercular meningitis
e) Conjunctivitis a) Painful uterine contraction at regular
intervals
[Answers: a, c, d] b) Pain localized to the abdomen and groin
c) Frequency of contractions increase
44. Components of nursing process are gradually
d) Pain relieved by analgesic
a) Observation e) Associated with 'show'
b) Diagnosis
c) Examination [Answers: a, b, c, e]
d) Evaluation
e) Assessment 49. Nutritional related health problems are

[Answers: b, d, e] a) CVD
b) Obesity
45. Nutritional status assessed by c) Pneumonia
d) Night blindness
a) Body mass index e) PEM
b) Laboratory examination
c) Pelvic measurement [Answers: b, d, e]
d) Abdominal examination
e) Signs of nutritional deficiency 50. Rules of tying & cutting umbilical cord

[Answers: a, b, e] a) 1st the four fingers away from umbilicus

b) 2nd tie one finger from 1st tie
46. Causes of bleeding in early pregnancy c) Tie two finger from the umbilicus
d) Cut the cord in between 1st & 2nd tie
a) Ectopic pregnanсувло 12295 e) Cut the cord in between 2nd and 3rd tie
b) Placenta previa
c) Implantation bleeding [Answers: a, b, d]
d) Molar pregnancy
e) Placenta abruption

[Answers: a, b, d]
 Best Answer Questions [51-100] 55. The common site of ectopic pregnancy

51. Which nursing care model is the best a) Ovary

when there b) Endometrium
are many patients but few nurses? c) Peritoneal cavity
d) Fallopian tube
a) Functional nursing
b) Team nursing [Answer: d) Fallopian tube]
c) Primary nursing
d) Total patient care 56. Which diet would be most appropriate
for a
[Answer: a) Functional nursing] patient with ulcerative colitis?

52. Maslow's hierarchy of physiological a) Low fat diet

need, the b) Low residue diet
human need of greatest priority is c) High calorie diet
d) High fiber diet
a) Love & affection
b) Elimination f [Answer: b) Low residue diet]
c) Nutrition
d) Oxygen 57. Identify accessory organ of the digestive
system
[Answer: d) Oxygen] from the following:

53. Conflict management style according to a) Esophagus

Thomas b) Stomach
Kilmann c) Liver
d) Intestine
a) Accommodating
b) Avoiding [Answer: c) Liver]
c) Compromising
d) Collaboration 58. Which one is the female internal
reproductive
[Answer: d) Collaboration] organ?

54. The largest excretory organ of the body a) Clitoris

is b) Ovary
c) Labia minora
a) Skin d) Vestibule
b) Kidney
c) GI tract [Ans. b) Ovary]
d) Liver
59. A characteristic of good research is
[Answer: a) Skin]
a) A clear statement
b) Pre-existing data
c) Build on existing data
d) Accurate observation 64. Which one is an acute complication of
Prematurity
[Answer: a) A clear statement]
a) Hyperbilirubinemia
60. The common cause of iron deficiency b) Hypothermia
anemia in c) Retinopathy of prematurity
children is d) Intraventricular hemorrhage

a) Worm infestation [Answer: b) Hypothermia]

b) Late starting weaning food
c) Bottle feeding 65. Which of the following skills is the most
d) Exclusive breastfeeding important to be an effective nurse manager
at all
[Answer: a) Worm infestation levels of management?

61. Early sign of dehydration is- a) Technical skill

b) Conceptual skill
a) Coma & seizures c) Human skill
b) Sunken eye d) Supervisor skill
c) Hypotension
d) Thirst [Answer: c) Human skill]

[Answer: d) Thirst] 66. Which one of the following is non-

probability
62. Freely movable joint in upper sampling?
extremities
a) Quota sampling
a) Wrist joint b) Cluster sampling
b) Elbow joint c) Systematic sampling
c) Shoulder joint d) Stratified sampling
d) Radio-ulnar joint
[Answer: a) Quota sampling]
[Answer: c) Shoulder joint]
67. A 20 weeks primigravid 'woman came
63. A woman forgot to take the oral for the 1st
contraceptive antenatal visit, which of the following
pill at her first regular time, which of the should the
following would be the correct advice? nurse midwife do first?

a) Consult a doctor a) Check vital signs

b) Use another method b) Blood grouping and cross-matching
c) Take it immediately c) Perform vaginal examination
d) Stop taking oral pill d) Measurement of height and weight

[Answer: c) Take it immediately] [Answer: a) Check vital signs]

 d) Clearance of airway
68. Which hormone is secreted from the
pancreas? [Answer: d) Clearance of airway]

a) Insulin 73. Goal of therapeutic communication-

b) Testosterone
c) Antidíuretic hormone a) Establishing interpersonal relationship
d) Follicle-stimulating hormone b) Minimize issues of concern
c) Disagree the ideas
[Answer: a) Insulin] d) False reassurance

69. BCG vaccine is given to prevent [Answer: a) Establishing interpersonal

relationship]
a) Tetanus
b) Influenza 74. The nursing theorist who developed
c) Tuberculosis transcultural nursing theory?
d) Measles
a) Florence Nightingale
[Answer: c) Tuberculosis] b) Madeleine Leininger
c) Albert Moore
70. Best method of destroying bacterial d) Sr. Callista Ray
spore is
[Answer: b) Madeleine Leininger]
a) Boiling
b) Autoclaving 75. What are the most likely causes of
c) Hot air oven urinary tract
d) Flaming infection?

[Answer: b) Autoclaving] a) Staphylococcus aureus

b) Escherichia coli-enterococсі
71. Most effective non-verbal c) Neisseria gonorheae
communication is d) Streptococcus beta-hemolytic

a) Verbal expression [Answer: b) Escherichia coli-enterococci]

b) Facial expression
c) Listening closely 76. Which of the following tests is done for
d) Written message the
evaluation of a patient with hypохiа?
[Ans. b) Facial expression]
a) Red blood cell count
72.As a nurse midwife, which action do you b) Sputum culture
first to manage an eclampsia patient? c) Total hemoglobin
e) Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
a) I/V fluid
b) Catheterization [Answer: d) Arterial blood gas (ABG)
c) Magnesium sulfate analysis]
77. The most common cause of primary 81. Most common indication of D & С82.
postpartum
hemorrhage (PPH) is a) Inevitable abortion
b) Medical termination of pregnancy
a) Coagulopathy c) Hydatidiform mole
b) Retained placenta d) Incomplete abortion
c) Vaginal laceration
d) Atonic uterus [Answer: d) Incomplete abortion]

[Answer: d) Atonic uterus] 82.The code of ethics guide the nurse to

78. Following is the meaning of hypothesis a) Maintain standards of practice

b) Restrict the visitors
a) Conclusion c) Reduce the mortality rate
b) Observation d) Maintain a healthy environment in the
c) Proposition hospital
d) Prediction
[Ans. a) Maintain standards of practice]
[Answer: c) Proposition]
83. A nurse caring for a patient with an
79. Kubler-Rose's five successive stages of infectious
death disease who requires isolation should refer
and dying to
guidelines published by the
a) Anger, bargaining, denial, depression,
acceptance a) National League for Nursing
b) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, b) Centers for Disease Control
acceptance c) American Medical Association
c) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, d) American Nurses Association
acceptance
d) Bargaining, denial, anger, depression, [Answer: b) Centers for Disease Control]
acceptance
84. Features of schizophrenia:
[Answer: c]
a) Memory impairment
80. Which of the following conditions can b) Auditory hallucination in clear
cause consciousness
right-sided heart failure? c) Feels panic in buses and market
d) Damage
a) Ventricular septal defect
b) Atrial septal defect [Answer: b]
c) Pericarditis constrictive
d) Acute myocardial infarction 85. Choose the function of urinary bladder:

[Answer: c) Pericarditis constrictive] a) Discharge urine from the body

b) Discharge urine from the body [Answer: c) Ampulla]
c) Transport urine from the body
d) Store urine and expel through urethra 90. Most of the literature review done

[Answer: d) Store urine and expel through a) During research work

urethra] b) After completion of data collection
c) Before undertaking research work
86. Which drug indicated if the patient's d) During report writing
pulse rate
is more than 100/min: [Answer: c) Before undertaking research
work]
a) Dopamine
b) Digoxin 91. The physician has ordered Mannitol IV
c) Phenytoin for a
d) Dobutamine client with a head injury. What should the
nurse
[Answer: b) Digoxin] closely monitor because the client is
receiving
87. Which action occurs primarily during mannitol?
the
evaluation phase of the nursing practice? a) Deep tendon reflexes
b) Urine output
a) Data collection c) Level of orientation
b) Decision making d) Pulse rate
c) Priority setting
d) Re-assessment [Answer: b) Urine output]

[Answer: d) Re-assessment] 92. Risk factors of congenital anomalies

88. Immediate management in case of a) Burn

hypoglycemic b) Infection
State c) Maternal malnutrition
a) Give glucose intravenously d) Maternal hypertension
b) Arrange blood for transfusion
c) Start glucose by oral [Answer: c) Maternal malnutrition]
d) Give antibiotic
93. Which nursing action has the highest
[Answer: a) Give glucose intravenously] priority
for a client in the second stage of labor?
89. Which part is taken for fertilization
a) Prepare the mother for breastfeeding on
a) Isthmus the
b) Fimbria labor table
c) Ampulla b) Help the mother push effectively
d) Infundibulum c) Check the fetal position
d) Administer medication for pain
 [Answer: a) Congenital heart disease]
[Answer: b) Help the mother push
effectively] 98. Most common site for taking pulse

94. The exchange of oxygen and carbon a) Femoral artery

dioxide in b) Radial artery
external respiration takes place c) Brachial artery
d) Carotid artery
a) Alveoli and pulmonary capillaries
b) Capillaries and the body cell [Answer: b) Radial artery]
c) Lungs
d) Bronchioles 99. The best preservation method of milk is

[Answer: a) Alveoli and pulmonary a) Drying

capillaries] b) Pasteurization
c) Not boiling
95. When a client returns from undergoing a d) By chemical
cardiac catheterization, it is most essential
for [Answer: b) Pasteurization]
the nurse to
100. Which of the following is the most
a) Check peripheral pulses common risk
b) Maintain NPO factor for suicidal tendency?
c) Apply heat to the insertion site
d) Start range of motion exercises a) Female sex
immediately b) Severe depression
c) Mania
[Answer: a) Check peripheral pulses] d) Hysteria

[Answer: b) Severe depression]

96. HIV/AIDS is a

a) Waterborne disease
b) Sexually transmitted disease
c) Vector borne disease
d) Airborne disease

[Answer: b) Sexually transmitted disease]

97. Cyanotic heart disease is

a) Congenital heart disease

b) Hereditary
c) Bloodborne disease
d) Infection
 Multiple Choice Question [MCQ] e) Manic depressive illness

1. Debriefing means [Answers: a, d]

a) Timely
b) Judgment 6. Types of male contraception are as
c) Constructive follows:
d) Based on direct observation a) Depo-provera
e) Professional b) Diaphragm
c) Coitus interruptus
[Answers: c, d] d) Basal body temperature methods
e) Condom or sheath

2. What are the indications of D & C? [Answers: c, e]

a) Hydatidiform mole
b) Tumor 7. Tocolytic drugs are used to.
c) Incomplete abortion a) Prevent PROM
d) Cervical tear b) Prevent preterm labor
e) Primary sterility c) Control hemorrhage
d) Reduce uterine contraction
[Answers: a, c] e) Induction of labor

3. What is midwifery experience? [Answers: b, d]

a) Pregnancy, labor, birth
b) Education program 8. Following are the normal pelvic
c) The first weeks after birth measurement
d) Empower the women a) Pelvic brim consists of 11cm/12cm/13cm
e) It is a normal life event b) Pelvic cavity consists of
13cm/15cm/12cm
[Answers: a, d] c) Pelvic cavity consists of
12cm/12cm/12cm
4. Who is the midwife? d) Pelvic outlet consists of
a) Successfully completed a midwifery 13cm/12cm/11cm
education e) Pelvic brim consists of 11cm/12cm/14cm
b) Have partnership ability
c) Legally licensed [Answers: c]
d) Respected and treated with dignity
e) Based on the ICM 9. The fetus is normally situated in the
uterus as
[Answers: a, c, e] follows:
a) The lie is longitudinal
5. Organic psychosis consists of b) The attitude is one of extension
a) Delirium c) The presentation is cephalic
b) Schizophrenia d) The denominator is the occiput
c) Mental retardation e) The position is right or left
d) Dementia occipitoposterior
[Answers: a, c] a) Pink color skin manak
b) Completed 37 weeks of gestation
10. Risk factors for post-traumatic stress c) Primitive reflex is absents
disorder of d) Birth weight is 2.5 to 4 kg
birth issues are: e) 34 weeks to 36 weeks of gestation
a) Emergency caesarean section
b) Poor pain relief [Answers: a, b, d]
c) Instrumental delivery
d) Feeling loss of control 15. Latent phase of labor includes
e) Induction a) Strong uterine contractions
b) Irregular contractions
[Answers: a, b, d, e] c) Mother wants to eat & drink
d) Cervical dilation up to 4 cm
11. Steps of active management of the third e) 100% effacement
stage of
Labor [Answers: b, d]
a) Give Inj. Oxytocin
b) Intravenous infusion 16. Following pillars of safe motherhood are
c) Control cord traction (CCT) a) Family planning
d) Blood transfusion b) Induction of labor
e) Fundal massage c) Antenatal care
d) Amenorrhea
[Answers: a, c, e] c) STD/HIV/AIDS control

12. How does IUCD work to prevent [Answers: a, c, e]

pregnancy?
a) Act as a sterile foreign body in the uterine 17. Types of abortion Includes
cavity a) Complete
b) It is a permanent method of family b) Impaired abortion
planning c) Septic abortion
c) The copper prevents fertilization d) Regulatory abortion
d) Inhibiting implantation e) Habitual abortion
e) It is a soft but firm plastic ring
[Answers: a, c, e]
[Answers: a, c, d]
18. Criteria of labor are
13. Layers of the uterus are a) Painlessness
a) Pericardium b) Delayed placenta seperation
b) Endometrium c) Dilatation of cervix
c) Myometrium d) Show presents
d) Myocardium e) Regular and effective contraction
e) Perimetrium
[Answers: c, d e]
[Answers: b, c, e]
19. Death or expulsion of the fetus from the
14. Features of term babies are uterus
spontaneously or by induction is called e) One cоссух
a) Ectopic pregnancy
b) Abortion [Answers: b, c, e]
c) Hemorrhage
d) Septic abortion 24. Following steps are used to examine the
e) Spontaneous abortion abdomen of a pregnant women
a) By palpation
[Answers: b, e] b) By insertion
c) By Auscultation
20. Common complications of premature d) Precaution
rupture of e) By inspection
membrane are
a) Cervical area infection [Answers: a, c, e]
b) Preterm delivery
c) Infection 25. The female pelvis categories are as
d) Hemorrhage follows
e) Cord prolapse a) Obligatory
b) Anthropoid
[Answers: a, b, c, e] c) Asymmetrical
d) Gynaecoid
21. Features of neonatal term baby's are e) Platypelloid
a) Pink color skin
b) Completed 37 weeks of gestation [Answers: b, d, e]
c) Primitive reflex is absent
d) Birth weight is 2.5 to 4 kg 26. Causes of high fertility in Bangladesh
e) 34 weeks to 36 weeks of gestation are
a) Educated peoplé
[Answers: a, b, d] b) Early marriage
c) Motivated people
22. Following measure are takes during d) Illiteracy
immediate e) Poverty
neonatal care
a) Apply medicine [Answers: b, d, e]
b) Keep cord clean and dry
c) Keep always cover with gauze 27. The endometrial/menstrual cycle divided
d): Maintain aseptic precaution into
e) Antibiotic cream/powder to be applied following phases
a) Secretory phase
[Answers: b, d] b) Ovulation phase
c) Proliferative phase
23. The pelvic consists of following bones d) Basal temperature phase
a) Humerus e) Menses
b) Two sesamoid bones
c) One symphysis pubis [Answers: a, c, e]
d) One sacrum
28. Complications of untreated syphilis d) Unclean dress
during e) Contaminated blood products
pregnancy are
a) Preterm birth [Answers: a, e]
b) Birth asphyxia
c) Intra uterine death 31. True pelvis consists of
d) Miscarriages a) Lies under the abdomen
e) Birth trauma b) Lies below the pelvic brim
c) Consists of mid fossa
[Answers: a, c, d] d) It consists of pelvic inlet, mid-pelvis, and
pelvic
29. Common cause of neonatal seizures are outlet
a) Prematurity e) Transversely rounded or bland
b) Birth injury
c) Hypoglycemia [Answers: b, c, d]
d) Low birth weight
e) Birth asphyxia True pelvis consists of:
1. Lies below the pelvic brim
[Answers: b, c, e] 2. Forms the bony birth canal
3. Includes three main parts:
Common causes of neonatal seizures o Pelvic inlet
include: o Mid-pelvis (mid fossa)
1. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy o Pelvic outlet
(HIE) – Most common cause due to 4. Bounded by sacrum, ischium, pubis,
birth asphyxia and coccyx
2. Intracranial hemorrhage – Especially 5. Important in labor and delivery –
in preterm babies determines how easily the fetus can pass
3. Hypoglycemia – Low blood sugar through the birth canal
4. Hypocalcemia – Low calcium levels
5. Infections – e.g., meningitis, sepsis, 32. Umbilical cord consists of
TORCH infections a) Two veins and one artery
6. Electrolyte imbalance – Sodium, b) One vein and two arteries
magnesium disturbances c) Artery carries deoxygenated blood
7. Inborn errors of metabolism – Rare d) Artery provides oxygen and nutrients to
genetic metabolic disorders the fetus
8. Cerebral malformations – Congenital e) Vein carries oxygenated blood
brain structure defects
9. Drug withdrawal – In babies born to [Answers: b, d]
mothers with substance use
10. Genetic or idiopathic epilepsy Umbilical cord consists of:
syndromes – Less common, but possible 1. One vein – carries oxygenated,
nutrient-rich blood from the placenta to
30. Mode of transmission of HIV the fetus
a) Sexual intercourse 2. Two arteries – carry deoxygenated
b) Saline blood and waste from the fetus to the
c) Touch placenta
3. Wharton’s jelly – a gelatinous a) Phenobarbitone
substance that protects the vessels b) Diazepam
4. Covered by amniotic membran c) Ampicillin
d) Phenytoin
33. Family planning means e) Heparin
a) Involves choosing when to have children
b) Includes refuse contraception's [Answers: a, b, d]
c) Prevention of unwanted pregnancy
d) Methods to achieve pregnancy 37. The correct attachment for breastfeeding
e) Illegal abortion includes which of the following?
a) Baby's mouth wide open
[Answers: a, c, d] b) Baby's lower lip is curved outward
c) No support for the head
Family planning means: d) Baby's chin is touching the breast
1. Choosing when to have children e) Mouth covers only nipple
2. Determining the number and spacing
of children [Answers: a, b, d]
3. Preventing unwanted pregnancies
4. Using contraceptive methods 38. Which statements are true for uterine
(temporary or permanent) inertia?
5. Using fertility treatments to achieve a) Hypotonic activity of the uterus
pregnancy (if desired) b) Uterine activity is suboptimal
6. Promoting maternal and child health c) There is good relaxation between
by planned pregnancies contractions
d) Poor dilation of the cervix
34. Immediate complication of obstructed e) Membranes usually remain intact
labor are
a) PPH [Answers: a, c, e]
b) VVF
c) Low birth weight 39. APGAR scoring system involves which
d) Renal failure of the
e) Rupture of uterus following?
a) Appearance
[Answers: a, d, e] b) Frequency of eye opening
c) Respiration
35. Signs of hypothermia in a newborn are d) Weight
a) Baby is more active e) Grimace
b) Lethargy
c) Baby cries [Answers: a, c, e]
d) Baby is unable to feed
e) Respiratory distress 40. WHO recommended visits are
a) 1st visit after 24 hours
[Answers: b, d, e] b) 1st visit within 24 hours
c) 2nd visit after 5 days
36. Which drugs are used for control of d) 3rd visit after 45 days
convulsions?
e) 4th visit within 42 to 45 days d) Wearing gloves
e) Prolonged rupture of membrane
[Answers: b, c, e]
Answers: a, c, e]
41. Which of the following cases are
contraindicated
for birth control pill usage? Best Answer [51-100]
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) High blood pressure 1. The power house of the cell is
c) Fever a) Nucleus
d) Pain b) Ribosome
e) Deep tendon thrombosis c) Lysosome
d) Mitochondria
[Answers: a, b, e]
[Answer: d) Mitochondria]
42. What are effective delegation strategies?
a) Create crisis 2. Which of the following characteristic of
b) Cooperation contraction of true labor?
c) Interfere a) Occurring & irregular intercourse
d) Maintain proper chain of command b) Pain starting mainly in the abdomen
e) Coordination c) Gradually increasing intervals
d) Increasing intensity with walking
[Answers: b, d, e]
[Answer: d) Increasing intensity with
43. Components of a partograph include walking]
a) Uterine contraction
b) Amount of blood loss 3. Radiates to the abdomen Normal pelvis is
c) Dilation of cervix a) Anthropoid
d) Uterine involution b) Gynecoid
e) Fetal heart rate c) Android
d) Platypelloid
[Answers: a, c, e]
[Answer: b) Gynecoid]
44. Identify the sutures of the fetal skill
a) Sagittal suture 4. Compressibility & softening of the lower
b) Parietal suture uterine
c) Coronal suture Segment
d) Lambdoid suture a) Hegar's sign
e) Occipital suture b) Goodell's sign
c) Chadwick's sign
[Answers: a, c, d] d) Quickening

45. Causes of puerperal sepsis include [Answer: a) Hegar's sign]

a) Unclean delivery
b) Use of sterile instruments • Hegar's sign is a clinical indication
c) Repeated per vaginal examination
• of carly pregnancy, characterized by: b) Ovaries, birth canal, urethra
softening c) Fallopian tubes, ovaries, uterus
• and compressibility of the lower uterine d) Bladder, fallopian tube, urethra
segment
• Goodell's sign – Softening of the cervix [Answer: c) Fallopian tubes, ovaries, uterus]
• Chadwick's sign – Bluish discoloration
of the cervix and vaginal wall 10. At what gestational age concept of
• Quickening – First fetal movement felt production is
by the mother (around 16–20 weeks) considered as viable?
a) 9 weeks
5. Post partum blue occur b) 20 weeks
a) During antenatal period c) 24 weeks
b) During labour d) 30 weeks
c) During post partum period
d) During intaaat pertod [Answer: c) 24 weeks]

[Answer: c) During post partum period]

11. Peer teaching influencing others in
6. Menarche means a) Discussion
a) Onset of first menstruation b) Poor learning
b) Onset of pain c) Grasping
c) Onset of labor d) Active learning
d) Onset of pregnancy
[Answer: d) Active learning]
[Answer: a) Onset of first menstruation]
12. Resolve problem as soon as possible 'it
7. Normal fetal heart rate is related
a) 90 to 130 beats per minute To
b) 100 to 200 beats per minute a) Conflict
c) 110 to 160 beats per minute b) Burnout
d) 160 to 170 beats per minute c) Recognition
d) Legislation
[Answer: c) 110 to 160 beats per minute]
[Answer: a) Conflict]
8. What is the common sign of menopause?
a) Insomnia 13. International day of midwife is
b) Dysuria a) 5 April
c) Hot flash b) 5 May
d) Headache c) 12 May
d) 25 May
[Answer: c) Hot flash]
Answer: b) 5 May
9. Pelvic inflammatory disease refers to
infection 14. Which is the formats for calculating
involving which anatomical structures? EDD?
a) Valve, uterus, birth canal a) LMP + 5 months + 9 days
b) LMP+ 9 months +7 days uterine contractions, during labor and
c) LMP+ 9 months +9 days delivery. It
d) LMP + 10 months + 7 days is also used medically to induce or augment
labor
[Answer: b) LMP + 9 months +7 days] and to control postpartum bleeding.

15. Vulva is composed of 19. Which of the following fundal height

a) Vagina, uterus, cervix indicate
b) Labia majora, fallopian tubes, ovaries less than 12 weeks gestation when the LMP
c) Clitoris vestibule & fourchette is
d) Cervix, mammary gland & ovaries unknown?
a) Uterus in the pelvis
[Answer: c) Clitoris vestibule & fourchette] b) Uterus in the abdomen
c) Uterus in the syphoid
16. Early amniocentesis is done in which d) Uterus in the umbilicus
period of
pregnancy- [Answer: a) Uterus in the pelvis]
a) 9-11 weeks
b) 12-14 weeks
c) 14-16 weeks 20. Weight of the non-pregnant uterus is
d) 16-18 weeks a) 20-40 gm
b) 30-40 gm
[Answer: c) 14-16 weeks] c) 60-80 gm
d) 80-100 gm
17. Important investigation for detection of
cervical [Answer: c) 60-80 gm]
cancer is
a) Urine for R/E
b) Urine for C/S 21. How long time need in wait for
c) Vaginal examination clamping & cut
d) VIA test the cord?
a) 1-2 minutes
[Answer: d) VIA test] b) 1-3 minutes
c) 1-4 minutes
18. Uterine contraction increases by d) 1-5 minutes
administer of
a) Estrogen [Answer: b) 1-3 minutes]
b) Fetal cortisol
c) Oxytocin 22. Neurological complication can be
d) Progesterone prevented by
a) Iron
[Answer: c) Oxytocin] b) Copper
c) Folic acid
Explanation: Oxytocin is a hormone that d) Vitamin B12
stimulates
[Answer: c) Folic acid]
 a) Expulsive phase
23. The name of milk that is produced first b) Latent phase
after c) Active phase
birth is d) Transitional phase
a) Colostrum
b) Meconium [Answer: a) Expulsive phase]
c) Foremilk
d) Hindmilk 29. Which of the following is used as an
emergency
[Answer: a) Colostrum] contraceptive?
a) Combined oral contraceptive pill
24. Life span of a red blood cells is b) Progestin-only pill
a) 110 days c) IUD
b) 120 days d) Levonorgestrel
c) 150 days
d) 160 days [Answer: d) Levonorgestrel]

[Answer: b) 120 days] 30. The most effective contraceptive method

for
25. Permanent cessation of menstruation is birth spacing is
called a) Condom
a) Amenorrhea b) IUCD
b) Menopause c) Oral pill
c) Oligomenorrhea d) Diaphragm
d) Menorrhagia
[Answer: b) lUCD]
[Answer: b) Menopause]
31. How can we identify gestational age?
26. Normal weight gain during pregnancy is a) USG (ultrasonography)
a) 3 kg b) X-ray
b) 7-10 kg c) Urine test
c) 12-17 kg d) Doppler study
d) 15-20 kg
[Answer: a) USG (ultrasonography)]
[Answer: c) 12-17 kg]
32. Which one of the following can prevent
27. Loading dose of MgSO4- infection
a) 10 mg MgSO4 of a newborn baby?
b) 12 mg MgSO4 a) Vernix
c) 8 mg MgSO4 b) Lanugo
d) 6 gm MgSO4 c) Milia
d) Nervous flatulence
[Answer: a) 10 mg MgSO]
[Answer: a) Vernix]
28. Which is the phase of the 2nd stage of
labor?
33. Which vaccine is recommended as early 38. The first fetal movement felt by the
as mother
possible after birth? during pregnancy is called
a) MMR a) Quickening
b) BCG b) Fetal movement
c) DPT c) Uterus irritability
d) Hepatitis-B d) Bladder irritability

[Answer: b) BCG] [Answer: a) Quickening]

34. Which gland is responsible for initiating 39. Fetal heart rate (FHR) can be auscultated
the as
menstrual cycle? early as possible at which of the following
a) Ovaries gestational ages?
b) Anterior pituitary gland a) 5 weeks of gestation
c) Posterior pituitary gland b) 10 weeks of gestation
d) Hypothalamus c) 20 weeks of gestation
d) 25 weeks of gestation
[Answer: d) Hypothalamus]
[Answer: b) 10 weeks of gestation]
35. Which one Is non-verbal
communication? 40. Which maneuver is used in abdominal
a) Storytelling palpation?
b) Gesture posture a) Wond-screw maneuver
c) Written b) Lovesci maneuver
d) Telephone c) Leopold maneuver
d) McRoberts maneuvar
[Answer: b) Gesture posture]
[Answer: c) Leopold maneuver]
36. The largest diameter of the pelvic outlet
is 41. The following drug is used for
a) Anterior-posterior hypertension in
b) Transverse diameter pregnancу:
c) Oblique diameter a) Labetalol
d) Longitudinal b) Nifedipine
c) Methyldopa
[Answer: b) Transverse diameter] d) Hydralazine

37. Which hormone acts on milk ejection? [Answer: a) Labetalol]

a) Oxytocin
b) Estrogen 42. The sign of shoulder dystocia isa)
c) Progesterone Golden sign
d) Luteinizing hormone b) Turtle sign
c) Birthmarks
[Answer: a) Oxytocin] d) Tingling sign
[Answer: b) Turtle sign] d) Polypectomy

43. Which one of the following is used to [Answer: c) Amniotomy]

take a
cervical smear? 48. Which of the following drug helps (lung
a) Colposcope maturation?
b) Vaginoscope a) Dexamethasone
c) Ayre's spatula b) Oxytocin dlareqnaig doidWte
d) Forceps c) Epinephrine hydrochloride
d) Ampicillin
[Answer: c) Ayre's spatula]
[Answer: a) Dexamethasone]
44. Greenish-yellow color of amniotic fluid
Indicates 49. Complication of retained placenta is
a) Fetal distress a) Subinvolution of uterus
b) Rh incompatibility b) Sepsis
c) Post-maturity c) PPH (Postpartum hemorrhage)
d) Intrauterine fetal device (IUD) d) Thromoembolism

[Answer: a) Fetal distress] [Answer: c) PPH (Postpartum hemorrhage)]

45. Milky whitish discharge with a fishy 50. Inflammation of the breast as a result of
odor and a an
history of itching is diagnosed by infection is called
a) Bacterial vaginosis a) Sulphangitis
b) Trichomoniasis b) Meningitis
c) Candidiasis c) Mastitis
d) Urinary tract infection d) Otitis

[Answer: a) Bacterial vaginosis] [Answer: c) Mastitis]

46. The following inflammation of the

vessel wall is
Called
a) Endometritis
b) Cholecystitis
c) Thrombophlebitis
d) Pulmonary embolism

[Answer: c) Thrombophlebitis]

47. Artificial rupture of membrane is called

a) Myomectomy
b) Episiotomy
c) Amniotomy