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XI Chemistry MCQS

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions covering various topics in chemistry, including atomic structure, molecular geometry, gas laws, and significant figures. Each question presents four options, with some questions focusing on calculations and principles related to chemical compounds and reactions. The content appears to be aimed at students preparing for exams in chemistry.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
5 views16 pages

XI Chemistry MCQS

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions covering various topics in chemistry, including atomic structure, molecular geometry, gas laws, and significant figures. Each question presents four options, with some questions focusing on calculations and principles related to chemical compounds and reactions. The content appears to be aimed at students preparing for exams in chemistry.

Uploaded by

syedabdulrafay76
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CHAPTER # 01

1. Number of atoms in 60gm of carbon will be:


a. 3.01×1023 b. 3.01×1024 c. 6.02×1023 d. 6.02×1024
2. Significant figures in 0.0880 are:
a. 5 b 2 c. 3 d. 4
23
3. The volume of 3.01x10 molecule of N2 gas at S.T.P will be
a. 44.8dm3 b. b. 11.2 dm3 c. 22.4 dm3 d. 28 dm3
4. The characteristics of 103
a. 2 b. b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
5. The total number of ions in one mole of FeCl3 is:
a. 6.02*1023 b. b.12.04*1023 c. 18.06*1023 d. 24.08*1023
6. The relative atomic mass of chlorine(Cl) is 35.5 a.m.u, the mass in gram of 0.5 moles of chlorine gas is:
a. 17.75gm b. b.35.5gm c. 71gm d. 142gm
7. While considering the rules of significant figures the simplified result of 4.367+8.54+24.0043 is:
a. 36.9 b. b.36.91 c. 39.911 d. 36.9113
8. While considering the rules of significant figures the simplified result of 3.1 + 14.367 is:
a. 17.467 b. b.17.47 c. 17.50 d. 17.5
9. This has five mass significant figures:
a. 0.00215 b. b.21500 c. 21.5210 d. 21.521
10. During experiment, average of several replicate measurements is taken because it:
a. has no negative error d. b.has no systematic error
c. shows positive error e. d.is more reliable
11. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O and its molecular mass is 60 its molecular formula is:
a. CH2O b. b.C2H4O2 c. C3H6O3 d. C4H8O4
12. The molecular mass of heavy water is:
a. 16a.m.u b. b.18a.m.u c. 20a.m.u d. 22a.m.u
13. Which of the following has the same number of molecules at STP
a. 1dm3 of N2 and O2 b.100 cm3 of CO2 and O2
c. 500 cm3 of Cl2 and O2 d. d. All of these
14. Which of the following contains two significant figures:
a. 0.04 b. b.0.004 c. 0.0004 d. 0.042
15. The number of moles in 58.5 gm of NaCl is 58.5 gm of NaCl is:
a. 58.5 moles b. b.35.5 moles c. 23 moles d. 1 moles
16. Which number has five significant figure:
a. 302.10 b. b.3.00002 c. 30000 d. 30200
17. The beaker containing 180 gm of water contains:
a. 6.02*1023 molecules b. 10.02*1025 molecules
c. 6.02*1024 molecules d. 12.01*1023 molecules
18. The integer part of logarithm is called:
a. Characteristic b. b.Mantissa c. Base d. none
19. The integer part of logarithm is called:
a. Characteristic b. Mantissa c. base
20. The number of moles in 58.5 gm of NaCl is .
a. 8.5 b. b.1 c. 35.5 d. 23
23
21. 3.01×10 molecules of Oxygen gas at S.T.P occupy a volume of dm3.
a. 22.4 b. b.224 c. 11.2 d. 2.24
22. The correct formula of glucose is:
a. C6H11O5 b. C6H12O6 c. C12H22O11.
23. The formula of lime water is:
a. CaCO3
b. Ca(OH)2
c. CaOCl
CHAPTER # 02
1. Line spectra is used for the identification of a/an:
a. proton b. electron c. element d. molecule
2. According to Hund’s Rule, the electronic configuration of carbon (C=6) is:
a. 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 b. 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1, 2pz1 c. 1s2 2s2 2px2
3. The number of orbital in fourth energy levels is:
a. 4 b. 9 c. 16 d. 32
4. Alpha rays consist of:
(a) Two protons and two electrons (b) Two neutrons and two electrons
(c) Two protons and two neutrons (d) Two neutrons and one proton
5. The maximum number of electrons in a particular energy level is :
(a)2n2 (b) n2 (c)(2l+1) (d) 2(2l+1)
6. The energy of each quantum of radiation is directly proportional to its :
(a)Wavelength (b)Frequency (c)Wave number (d) Source of energy
7. These radioactive rays are non-material in nature :
(a)α rays (b)β rays (c)γ rays (d) canal rays
8. The potential energy of an electron can be denoted by :
(a) Ze2/r2 (b) Ze/r (c)Ze2/r (d) –Ze2/r
9. If the ionic radii of both K+ and F- are about 1.34 A , the expected values of the atomic radii of K and F
respectively are:
a) 1.34A and 1.34 A b) 2.31A and 0.64A c) 2.31A and 1.34A d) 0.64A and 2.31A
10. Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are:
a)n=1, l=0 b)n=2,l=0 c)n=2,l=2 d)n=2,l=1
11. The e/m ratio of positive rays is maximum for:
a)hydrogen b)helium c)oxygen d)nitrogen
12. This is not isoelectronic with Na+1:
a) Ne b) F-1 c) Mg+2 d) K+1
13. Quantum number values for 3d orbital are:
a) n=3 , l=2 b) n=3, l=3 c) n=2, l=2 d) n=3, l=0
14. The energy of each quantum of radiation is directly proportional to its:
a) wavelength b) frequency c) wave number d) source of energy
15. The number of orbitals of each energy level is given by the formula:
a) 2n2 b) (2l+1) c) 2(2l+1) d) n2
16. Most of the radiation coming out from pitchblende were:
a) protons b) electrons c) positrons d) neutrons
17. Diamond is very hard because of:
a) sp2-hybridization b) van der Waal’s forces
c) Large amount of energy required to break the bonds
d) Close packing of carbon atoms and large number of covalent bonds.
18. No two electrons in an atom can have all four Quantum numbers identical is the statement of:
a) Pauli’s exclusion principle b) Hund’s rule
c) Aufbau Principle d) (n+l) rule
19. The particle having a mass 1836 times that of the electrons is:
a) neutron b) proton c) meason d) hyperon
20. On emission of alpha particles 92U239 changes into:
a) 90Th 234 b) 88Ra226 c) 84Po210 d) 91Pa231
21. The n+l rule for 5d orbital is:
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
22. When gaseous anions and cations are bought closer the energy involved:
a) electron affinity b) lattice energy
c) electronegativity d) ionization potential
23. Bohr’s model of atom is contradicted by:
a) Heisenberg uncertainty principle b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
c) Plank’s quantum theory d) none
24. The colour of light depends upon its:
a) Wavelength b) velocity c) source d) none
CHAPTER # 03
1. The number of sigma & pi bonds in C2H2 are:
a) 2 & 3 b) 2 & 2 c) 3 & 2 d) 3 & 3
2. This molecule has minimum bond angle :
a)CS2 (b)NH3 (c)BF3 (d)H2O
3. The geometry of NH4+ & SO2-2 ion is:
a) Tetrahedral b) Trigonal c) Pyramidal d) square planar
4. This molecule has the zero dipole moment:
a) NH3 b)CCl4 c)HCl d)H2O
5. The bond order in N2 molecule is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
6. This molecule has maximum bond angle :
a)CS2 (b)NH3 (c)SO2 (d)H2O
7. The energy of this bond is greatest :
a)CH4 (b)O2 (c)N2 (d) Cl2
8. The dipole moment of this molecule is zero:
a)NH3 (b)CO2 (c) H2O (d) HCl
9. A molecule of AB2 type undergoes sp3 hybridization with two nonbonding electron pairs , its geometry should be:
a)linear b)regular tetrahedron c)bent d)pyramidal
10. This molecule has the maximum bond angle :
a)NH3 b)CO2 c)SO2 d)H2O
11. The number of bonds in C2H2 molecules is:
a) one σ and two π b)three σ and one π
c) three σ and two π d)two σ and two π
12. The strength of sigma bond is highest for:
a) s – s overlap b) s – p overlap c) p – p overlap d) sp3 – s overlap
13. The dipole moment of Cl2 molecule is:
a) 0.00 D b) 1.03 D c) 1.85 D d) 1.67 Dd two
14. An orbital can have a maximum of:
a) 2 electron b) 6 electron c) 8 electron d) 32 electron
15. Which bond is non polar?
a) Cl-Cl b) N-Cl c) C-Cl d) H-Cl
16. The sp2 hybrid orbitals are:
a) Non-planer b) Co-planer c) Linear d) None of these
17. Which atomic orbital is always involved in sigma bonding:
a) s orbital b) p orbital c) d orbital d) none
18. In ethene (C2H4) molecules, there are:
a) five sigma bonds and one pie bond b) five sigma bonds
c) four sigma bond and two pie bond d) none of these
19. Which of the compound is sp2 hybridization?
a) NH3 b) C2H2 c) C2H4 d) H2O
20. Which of the following compound have dipole moment?
a) BF3 b) H2O c) CO2 d) CCl4
21. _________ bonds are present in one molecule of ethane:
a) four sigma two pi b) two sigma four pi c) five sigma one pi d) none
22. The bond distance between carbon carbon single bond is:
a) 1.54A b) 1.34A c) 1.34A d) 1.20A
23. In hydrogen halides_________ possesses the largest ionic character:
a) HF b) HCl c) HBr d) none
CHAPTER # 04
1) These pairs do not obey Dalton’s Law :
a. He & H2 b. H2 & Ar c. HCl & NH3 d. He & NH3
2) The vapor pressure of H2O at 100oC is:
a. 76torr b. 5 atm c. 101325 pascal d. 12.5 psi
3) Under similar conditions CH4 diffuses faster than SO2 gas:
a. 1.5 times b. 2 times c. 4 times d. 16 times
4) The substance which can exist in all three states.
a. water b. b. iodine c. Both d. None
5) The average distance between the collisions of gas molecule is known as _____.
a. Median free path b. b. Mean free path c. Both d. None
6) Which forces are present between the molecules of ideal gas
a. cohesive b. b. repulsive c. adhesive d. none
7) The distribution and spreading of gas molecules throughout the vessel is called __.
a. Expansion b. b. Effusion c. Diffusion d. None
8) The phenomenon in which the gas molecules pass through the tiny holes or pores into the vessel is called ___.
a. Diffusion b. b. Effusion c. Expansion d. None
9) The normal atmospheric pressure is _______.
a. 760 cm of Hg b. b.759 torr c. 14.7 psi d. none
10) If the pressure inside the tyre is 28 psi, so the total pressure on tire will be ____ .
a. 14.7 psi b. b.28 psi c. 56.7 psi d. 42.7 psi
11) Which is not a unit of pressure:
a. Bar b. b. N/m2 c. Pa d. Nm2
12) The common scale of temperature is _______.
a. Centigrade b. b. Kelvin c. Fahrenheit d. None
13) The law holds by the ideal gas at constant temperature is _______.
a. Boyles law b. b. Charles law c. Avogadro’s law d. None
14) The apparatus used by the Robert Boyle is ________ .
a. J-shaped tube b. b. H-shaped tube c. L-shaped tube d. None
15) Which liquid is present inside the Boyles apparatus ________.
a. Water b. b. Iodine c. Mercury d. None
16) If the volume of the gas is decreased at constant temperature, average velocity of the gas molecules becomes:
a. Double b. b.Tripled c. Constant d. None
17) The graph b/w P & 1/V is ________.
a. Parabolic b. b. Hyperbolic c. Elliptic d. Straight line
18) Zeros kelvin is = ______.
a. 273C a) b. -249.63C c. -636.9F d. -459.6F
19) Equal volumes of all gases at same temperature and pressure contain the same no of ______.
a. atoms b. b. ionic c. molecules d. all
20) What will be the volume occupied by 14g of nitrogen at 20C and 740 torr pressure?.
a. 5.6 dm3 b. b.10.2 dm3 c. 12.34 dm3 d. None
21) Non-ideal gas obeys this gas equation.
a. General gas equation b. Equation of state
c. Universal gas equation d. Vander waal equation
22) Non-ideal gas shows non-ideal behaviour at _______.
a. Low temperature & high pressure d. b. All temperature and pressure
c. High temperature & low pressure e. d. none
23) In isothermal process if volume changes from V1 to V2 and pressure changes from P1 to P2 then temperature ____.
a. Increases from T1 to T2 b. Remains constant
c. Decreases from T1 to T2 d. d. None
24) A/c to graham’s law, the rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the ______ of density of gas.
a. square b. b. cube c. root d. none
25) If the mass of the gas is doubled and its volume is also doubled then its density becomes _____.
a. quadrupled b. b. twice c. thrice d. none
26) The gas A diffuses four times faster than SO2, the gas A is _________.
a. hydrogen b. b. helium c. carbon-dioxide d. methane
27) Dalton’s law is mostly applied to the case of gas collected over_______.
a. steam b. b. mercury c. water d. none
28) A mixture of gases at 760 torr contains 2 mole nitrogen and 4 moles of carbon dioxide then the partial pressure
of nitrogen is _________.
a. 500 torr b.265 torr c. 253.33 torr d. None
29) The rate of diffusion of CO2 is equal to that of
a. CH4 b. CO c. C3H8 d. SO2
30) If absolute temperature is doubled and pressure increased to 4 times, the volume:
a. is halved b. is doubled c. becomes 4 times d. remains unchanged
31) On Celcius scale absolute zero is equal to:
a. 273.16 0 C b. 00 C c. 20 k d. -273.160 C
32) An ideal gas obeys the laws under this condition:
a. high pressure b. all temperature and pressure c. high temperature d. Low temperature
33) In S.I system the unit of pressure is
a. Kg/ms2 b. Kg/ms c. Kg/m d. Kg/m2s
34) The volume of gas would be theoretically be zero at:
a. 0oC b. 0K c. 273K d. 273oC
35) At S.T.P 0.1 mole of a gas occupies the volume:
a. 22.4dm3 b. 2.24 dm3 c. 2.24 ft3 d. 100 cm3
36) A gas at zero Kelvin:
a. is super cooled b. freezes c. liquefies d. vanishes
37) This instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure
a) Barometer b) calorimeter c) spectrometer d) voltmeter
2
38) The value of R (gas constant) , when pressure is expressed in N/m is:
a) 0.0821 dm3 atm K-1 mol-1 b) 8.314 J.K-1 mol-1 c) 9.8 J K-1 mol-1
23
39) 3.01*10 molecules of oxygen gas at STP occupy a volume at:
a. 22.4 dm3 b. 224 dm 3 c.11.2 dm 3 d. 2.24 dm 3
CHAPTER # 05

1. London dispersion forces is stronger in:


a. F2 b. Cl2 c. Br2 d. I2
2. This liquid has the highest surface tension:
a. Water b. Mercury c. Ethanol d. Gasoline
3. The material that assumes the shape of a container without filling it completely is called ____
a. Gas b. Liquid c. solid
4. Which halogen is present as liquid at room temperature?
a. Fluorine b. Chlorine c. Bromine d. Iodine
5. Drop of ink when add to water diffuses slowly because:
a. Due to large spaces b\w molecules b. Due to absence of intermolecular forces
c. Natural effect d Due to small empty spaces b\w the molecules
6. Liquids are _____ compressible.
a. In- b. Moderately c. Slightly d. None
7. On heating liquid generally expansion take place because ______.
a. Due to increase in KE b. Due to increase in pressure c. Both d. None
8. Which of the following doesn’t depend on intermolecular forces?
a. Heat of vaporization b. Vapour pressure c. Boiling point d. All of them
9. Polar molecules have charges at different parts of the molecules. Due to these charges, they attract each other
with a force called
a. London dispersion force b. Hydrogen bonding c. Dipole-dipole force d. None
10. The forces of attraction between nonpolar molecules which become polar for an instant is called ____.
a. London dispersion force b. Hydrogen bonding c. Dipole-dipole force d. None
11. The force of attraction between an induced dipole is called _____.
a. London force b. Dipole-dipole force c. Hydrogen bonding d. None
12. Which intermolecular force is present in H2S?
a. London dispersion force b. Hydrogen bonding c. Dipole-dipole force d. None
13. Which one has strongest Hydrogen bonding?
a. H2S b. HF c. H2O d. NH3
14. Osmotic pressure belongs to which property.
a. Colligative b. Constitutive c. Additive d. None
15. The property which depends on number and kind of atoms is ____.
a. Additive b. Constitutive c. None
16. The point at which atmospheric pressure ____ vapor pressure then this point is called boiling point
a. Is greater than b. Is less than c. Is equal to d. None
17. In which condition food cooks quickly when
a. The pen is open b. A pen is covered with heavy lid c. A pen is covered with lighter lid d. None
18. Evaporation takes place at ____.
a. Low temperature b. High temperature c. All temperature d. None
19. Vapor pressure is a ____.
a. Intensive property b. Extensive property c. Additive property
20. A liquid with stronger intermolecular forces mostly are ___.
a. Non-volatile b. Volatile c. Compressible d. None
21. Which of the following has unit dyne/cm?
a. Viscosity b. Evaporation c. Surface tension d. None
22. The scientist who discussed the phenomenon of viscosity are:
a. Poiseuelle b. Fritz c. Newton d. Vander waal
23. Which of the following processes involve a weakening of a attraction between particles?
a. Condensation b. Crystallization c. Freezing d. Evaporation
24. Thermostat is an instrument which
a. Increase the temperature b. Decrease the temperature
c. Maintains the pressure d. Fluctuate the temperature
25. Which of the following halogens are gases at room temperature?
a. Fluorine and Chlorine b. Fluorine and Bromine c. Bromine and iodine d. None
26. Vander waal forces are effective
a. At long distances b. Only at short distance c. Independent of distance d. Both long as well as short
27. The intermolecular forces are of;
a. Two type b. Three type c. Four type d. Five type
28. The S.I unit of viscosity is:
a. Poise b. Milipoise c. Centipoise d. N.s.m-2
29. The atmospheric pressures recorded in different places at the same time are given below:

Nathiagali Hunza Murree Gilgit

700 torr 650 torr 710 torr 600 torr


water will boil first in:
a. Nathiagali b. Hunza c. Murree d. Gilgit
30. The basis of motor oil grading is:
a. Viscosity b. Surface Tension c. Vapour Pressure d. Boiling point
31. Capillary action of liquids is due to:
a Viscosity b. surface tension c. density d. Fluidity
32. The internal resistance of the liquid is called
a. Surface tension b. viscosity c. resistance d.all of these
33. The unit of viscosity is:
a. millipoise b. milligramme c. joule d. ampere
34. Evaporation is a:
a. natural process b. physical process c. cooling process d. chemical process
35. In the diagram below, the name of the reverse process of B is:
a. sublimation b. condensation c. evaporation d. fusion

Solid

A
C

Liquid Gas
B
CHAPTER # 06
1. Diamond is an example of :
a. Metallic solid b. Molecular solid c. Ionic solid d. Covalent solid
2. If then the crystal structure is:
a. Orthorhombic b. Hexagonal c. Monoclinic d. Triclinic
3. It is an example of crystalline solids:
a. Glass b. Table salt c. Rubber d. Plastic
4. ___________ have strong intermolecular forces.
a. Solid b. Liquid c. Gas d. None
5. Solids only possess ___ kinetic energy.
a. Translational b. Rotational c. Vibrational d. None
6. The movement of molecules in solids is very slow , therefore the diffusion will be
a. Maximum b. Moderate c. Sometimes maximum d. Minimum always
7. The decrease in volume per unit volume when pressure is increased by 1 atm is called _____.
a. Coefficient of temperature b. Coefficient of expansion c. Compressibility d. None
8. The increase in volume per unit volume when temperature is increased by 1C is called ____.
a. Coefficient of temperature b. Coefficient of expansion c. Compressibility d. None
9. Which of the following is not a amorphous solid?
a. Dust b. Rubber c. Glass d. None
10. Amorphous solids are also known as ______.
a. True solids b. Impure solids c. Super cooled liquids d. None
11. CuSO4.5H2O is blue in color due to presence of _____.
a. Copper metal b. Sulphate ion c. Water of Crystallization d. None
12. The breaking up of layer crystal into smaller one with identical size and shape is called _.
a. Deformation b. Cleavage c. Break down d. None
13. The shape of a crystal in which it usually grows is called ____.
a. Crystal growth b. Crystal builder c. Habit of a crystal d. None
14. The property of a material which allows it to change or assume different properties in different directions is
called
a. Isotropy b. Anisotropy c. Un-symmetry d. None
15. Which of the following most correctly defines the plane of symmetry?
a. A plane which divides the crystal into two identical halves b. A plane which divides the crystal
c. A plane which divides crystal into unequal part d. None
16. ZnSO4 & NiSO4 are ____.
a. Polymorphs b. Isomorphs c. Iso-electric d. None
17. Which of the following forms polymorphs?
a. NaCl b. H2S c. PbO2 d. None
18. The temperature at which more than one form of substance exist in equilibrium is called ____.
a. Triple point b. Melting point c. Critical point d. Transition point
19. The structure and shape of an ionic solid depend upon the _____.
a. Radius of atom b. Radius of cation c. Radius of anion d. Radius ratio
20. The solid substance in which the particles forming the solids are polar or non-polar molecules are called ____.
a. Atomic crystal b. Molecular crystal c. Crystal d. None
21. Which of the following plays an important role in molecular crystal?
a. London force b. Dipole-dipole force c. Hydrogen bonding d. Vander Waal force
22. Some salts e.g CaCl2 absorb moisture from atmosphere are called _____.
a. Hydrophilic b. Hydrophobic c. Hygroscopic d. None
23. When gaseous ions are allowed to form a crystal , energy
a. Is evolved b. Is absorbed c. Both d. No effect
24. Crystal lattice is an arrangement of particles in ____ dimension.
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
25. Lattice energy is also called ____.
a. Crystal energy b. Ionization energy c. Energy of affinity d. Bond energy
26. If a=b≠c and α=β=γ=900 the crystal system is
a.Cubic b.Tetragonal c. Orthorhombic d. Triclinic
27. This substance shows anisotropic behaviour in electrical conductivity:
a. solid NaCl b. diamond c. Vander Waal force d. London force
0
28. If a = b ≠ c and α=β=γ=90 , the crystal system is:
a. cubic b. tetragonal c. orthorhombic d. triclinic
29. The process in which the solid directly changes into vapours without passing through liquid phase is called:
a. evaporation b. condensation c. sublimation d. neutralization
30. The no. of crystal system on the basis of unit cell is:
a. 5 b. 9 c. 7 d. 8
CHAPTER # 07
1. If a catalyst is added in a chemical system at equilibrium, the value of Kc:
a. will increase b. will decrease c. will become zero d. will not be changed
2. When a catalyst is added to a system in equilibrium, Kc will be:
a. decreased b. increased c. un-changed d. zero
3. For the reaction 2PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 , the relationship between Kc and Kp is:
a. Kp = Kc b. Kp > Kc c. Kp < Kc d. Kp ≤ Kc
4. Which of the reactions has the same value of Kc and Kp?
a. H2 + I2 2HI b. 3H2 + N2 2NH3 c. PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 d. 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
5. The solubility product (Ksp) of AgCl is 1 x 10-10 mole2.dm-6. Its precipitation occurs if the product of the ionic
concentration is:
a. less than Ksp b. greater than Ksp c. equal to Ksp d. twice Ksp
6. The active mass of reacting substance mean:
a. mole/dm3 b. gm/dm3 c. gm/cm3 d. mole/cm3
7. If Kc is very small:
a. reverse reaction will occur b. forward reaction will take place c. more product will be formed
8. For the reaction 2NH3 3H2 + N2 , the relationship between Kc and Kp is:
a. Kp = Kc b. Kp > Kc c. Kp < Kc d. Kp ≤ Kc
9. A heterogenous system consists of:
a. Only one phase b. Three phases c. more than one phase d. Two phases
10. Precipitation occurs if the ionic concentration is :
a. less than Ksp b. more than Ksp c. equal to Ksp d. None of these
11. When the product of ionic concentrations of sparingly soluble salt is equal to its solubility product(K sp), the
solution is said to be a:
a. Dilute solution b. saturated solution c. super saturated solution d. Very dilute solution
12. With an increase in temperature, a system involving exothermic reaction will:
a. Move in the forward direction b. move in the reverse direction
c. Remains at equilibrium d. none of these
13. For the reaction 2NH3 3H2 + N2 , the relationship between Kc and Kp is:
a. Kp = Kc b. Kp > Kc c. Kp < Kc d. Kp ≤ Kc
14. The most favorable conditions of temperature and pressure for oxidation of SO2 in to SO3 are:
a. Low temperature and high pressure b. Low temperature and low pressure
c. High temperature and high pressure d. High temperature and Low pressure
15. The yield of ammonia in Haber’s process is favored by:
a. High pressure and high temperature b. High pressure and low temperature
c. Low pressure and low temperature d. Low pressure and high temperature
16. The extent of reaction will be maximum for this Kc value:
a. 10-13 b. 0. 1 c. 10 d. 103
17. For a reversible reaction, if the concentrations of the reactants are doubled, then the equilibrium constant will :
a. Also be doubled be halved c. remain the same d. Become one-fourth
18. The equation for Ksp of CaF2 is :
a. Ksp = [Ca++] [F2] b. Ksp = [Ca+2] [F-] 2 c. Ksp = [Ca++] [F-] d. Ksp = [Ca] [F]
19. In the following reaction. Kp > Kc :
a. H2 + I2 2HI b. PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 c. 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 d. 2NO2 N2O4
CHAPTER # 08
1. This oxide is amphoteric in nature:
a. K2O b. CO2 c. CaO d. Al2O3
2. This compound gives acidic solution when dissolved in water:
a. NaCl b. NH4Cl c. CH3COONH4 d. Na2SO4
3. At pH=0, universal indicator shows this color:
a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Pink
4. In pure water, universal indicator acquires this color:
a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Pink
5. This oxide is amphoteric in nature:
a. K2O b. CO2 c. CaO d. Al2O3
6. The pH of 0.001M HCl is:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 3
7. The universal indicator in water shows the color:
a. Red b. Green c. Blue
8. The pH of Blood is:
a. 7.3 b. 8.4 c. 5.6
9. Color of universal indicator in acid is:
a. Red b. Purple c. Green
10. The pH of lemon juice is likely to be:
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10
11. What is the pOH of the solution whose pH is 8?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 4 d.2
12. The range of pH is:
a. 1-10 b. 0-20 c. 1-100 d. 0-14
13. The colour of universal indicator in neutral solution is:
a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Pink
14. Among these solutions, this one has the highest pH value:
a. 0.01 M NaOH b. 0.02 M HCl c. 0.01 M NaHCO3 d. 0.10 M H2SO4
15. This salt will hydrolyze in water:
a. NaCl b. NH4Cl c. KCl d. Na2SO4
16. The pH of milk of magnesia is
a. 10.5 b. 10.0 c. 10.8 d. 11.0
17. This ion is more strongly hydrated with water:
a. Br- b. O-2 c. Ca+2 d. Al+3
18. This pair does not represent buffer solutions:
a. CH3COOH + CH3COONa b. NH4OH + NH4Cl c. Na2CO3 + NaHCO3 d. CH3COOH + HCl
19. The color of Universal indicator in neutral solution is:
a. red b. green c. blue d. pink
20. The percentage dissociation of NH4OH is:
a. 1.2 % b. 1.4 % c. 1.9 % d. 2.1 %
21. The colour of universal indicator in basic solution is:
a. Yellow b. Green c. Orange d. Deep Blue
22. This ion has greatest degree of hydration:
a. Na+ b. Mg+2 c. Al+3 d. K+
20. What is the pOH of the solution whose pH is 8?
a. 6 b. 10 c. 4 d. 2
21. If pH of a solution is zero,the nature of solution will be:
a. acidic b. basic c. amphoteric d. none
CHAPTER # 09
1. If the rate law of reaction is its order of reaction is:
a. zero b. first c. second d. third
2. Rate constant of a chemical reaction is affected by:
a. concentration of reactant b. concentration of product c. temperature d. reaction time
3. The change in the concentration of reacting substances in a unit time called:
a. rate of reaction b. rate constant c. rate law d. velocity constant
4. The addition of a catalyst to a reaction changes:
a. Internal energy b. activation energy c. threshold energy d. Gibb’s free energy
5. Reactions with high activation energy:
a. are slow b. are fast c. are moderate d. do not occur
6. This chemical method is used for determining the rate of reaction:
a. Physical method b. Calorimetric method c. Polarimetric method d. Hydrolysis.
7. Photochemical reactions, which proceed only under the influence of light, are of the order:
a. Zero b. First c. Second d. Third
8. Rate=K[NH3]2. Keeping the other conditions same, if concentration of NH3 is increased by four times, then the
initial rate of reaction X will be:
a. 2X b. 4X c. 8X d. 16X
9. They have low values of activation energy:
a. Slow reactions b. fast reactions c. Moderate reactions d. Ionic Reactions
10. A powdered solid is more reactive than its chunks due to:
a. High Temperature b. High Pressure c. Greater surface area d. Greater Volume
11. The reaction 2NO2 2NO + O2 is of:
a. zero order b. 1st order c. 2nd order d. 3rd order
12. Which of the following is the best to explain the action of a catalyst in speeding up a chemical reaction:
a. it increases the equilibrium constant for the reaction
b. it increases the kinetic energy of reaction molecules.
c. it prevents the reverse reaction from occurring
d. it decreases the energy of activation for the reaction
e. it decreases the enthalpy change for the reaction.
13. Which of the following condition for the reaction b/w H2 and Cl2 in the presence of sunlight is correct?
a. Rate = K [H2][Cl2]
b. Light lowers the energy of activation
c. rate is independent of the concentration of H2 and Cl2.
CHAPTER # 10
1.The sum of mole fractions of all the components of a solution is equal to:
a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. zero
2. Size of particles in colloidal solution is:
a. less than 1nm b. b/w 1 nm & 1000nm c. above 1000 nm d. zero
3.If 200 cm3 of 1M solution is diluted up to 2000cm3, its molarity would be:
a. 10 M b. 0.2 M c. 0.1 M d. 1M
4. The number of gram moles of solute present in 1 dm3 of solution is called:
a. Normality b. Molarity c. Mole Fractions d. Molality
5. When 2 moles of solute are present in 2dm3 of solution, then the concentration of the solution is:
a. 0.5 M b. 1 M c. 2 M d.3 M
6. The volume of 0.2 M H2SO4 required for the neutralization of 10cm3 of 0.1 M NaOH is:
a. 2.5 cm3 b. 5 cm3 c. 10 cm3 d. 15 cm3
7. The molarity of a solution containing 20g NaOH dissolved into 1 dm3 solution will be:
a. 0.1 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. 2
8. The molarity of a solution containing 4g NaOH dissolved in 10 ml solution is:
a. 0.4M b. 0. 1M c. 10M d. 1.0M
9. The molarity of a solution containing 53g Na2CO3 dissolved into 1 dm3 solution will be:
a. 0.1 b. 0.01 c. 0.02 d. 0.5
10. 1 dm3 = 1liter
11. The number of moles per dm3 is the molar concentration.

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