28-07-2025

2001CMD303021250007 MD

PHYSICS

1) Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1) 40Ω
(2) 25Ω
(3) 250Ω
(4) 500Ω

2) A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing in negative z direction.
Branch PQRS is a three quarter circle, while branch PS is straight. If force on branch PS is F, force

on branch PQR is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A square loop of side a hangs from an insulating hanger of spring balance. The magnetic field of
strength B occurs only at the lower edge. It carries a current I. Find the change in the reading of the

spring balance if the direction of current is reversed (weight of wire > IaB).

(1) IaB
(2) 2IaB
(3)

(4)

4) When a current loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, then which of the following may be
correct; If are the net force and net torque on the ring respectively?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(1) i, ii
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, iv
(4) iii, iv

5) A small rod of bismuth is suspended freely between the poles of a strong electromagnet. It is
found to arrange itself at right angles to the magnetic field. This observation establishes that
bismuth is

(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Ferri-magnetic
(4) Antiferro-magnetic

6) The minimum magnetic dipole moment of electron in hydrogen atom is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

7) A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation of 4 seconds. If the magnet
is broken in two halves (each piece has half of original length) and one piece is made to oscillate in
same field then its time period becomes

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 8 s
(4) 1 s

8) Which one of the following graphs represents the behaviour of magnetic susceptibility of
paramagnetic substance with the temperature.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance at –73°C is 0.0060, then its value at
–173°C will be :-

(1) 0.0030
(2) 0.0120
(3) 0.0180
(4) 0.0045

10) In two separate experiments the neutral points due to two small magnets are at a distance of r
and 2r in broad side-on position. The ratio of their magnetic moments will be :-

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 8

11) The work done in rotating a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the external
magnetic field direction is 'n' times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°.
Where 'n' gives by:

(1) 1/2
(2) 2
(3) 1/4
(4) 1

12) A steel wire of length L has a magnetic moment M. It is then bent into a semi-circular arc; the
new magnetic moment will be:

(1) M
(2) 2M/π
(3) M/L
(4) M × L

13) A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points A and B along its axis at distances of 24 cm and 48 cm
on the opposite sides. Ratio of magnetic fields at these points will be -

(1) 8
(2)
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) An electron of charge e moves in a circular orbit of radius r around the nucleus at a frequency .
The magnetic moment associated with the orbital motion of the electron is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A wire of length L metre carrying a current of I ampere is bent in the form of a circle. Its
magnitude of magnetic moment will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A ring of radius R, made of an insulating material, carries a charge Q uniformly distributed on it.
If the ring rotates about an axis passing through its centre and normal to plane of the ring with
constant angular speed ω, then the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the ring is :

(1) QωR2

(2)
(3) Qω2R

(4)

17) Susceptibility of Mg at 300 K is 1.2 × 10–5. The temperature at which its susceptibility will be 1.8
× 10–5 is :

(1) 450 K
(2) 200 K
(3) 375 K
(4) None of these

18) Which of the following statements is incorrect about hysteresis ?

(1) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic substances.

The hysteresis loop area is proportional to the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
(2)
material.
The hyteresis loop area is independent of the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
(3)
material.
(4) The shape of the hysteresis loop is characteristic of the material.

19) Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Material) List-II (Susceptibility(X))

A. Diamagnetic I. =0

B. Ferromagnetic II. 0> ≥ –1

C. Paramagnetic III. >>1

D. Non-Magnetic IV. 0 < < ε (a small positive number)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(4) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

20) The area of hysteresis loop of a material is equivalent to 250 Joule/m3. When 10 kg material is
magnetised by an alternating field of 50Hz then energy lost in one hour will be if the density of
material is 7.5 gm/cm3.

(1) 6 × 104 Joule

(2) 6 × 104 Erg
(3) 3 × 102 Joule
(4) 3 × 102 Erg

21) A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane
perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s–1. The
induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm, is :-

(1) 2 µV
(2) 2πµV
(3) πµV

(4)
µV

22)

An aluminium ring B faces an electromagnet A. The current I through A can be altered

(1) Whether I increases or decreases, B will not experience any force

(2) If I decrease, A will repel B
(3) If I increases, A will attract B
(4) If I increases, A will repel B

23) An electron moves along the line AB which lies in the same plane as a circular loop of conducting
wire as shown in fig. What will be the direction of the current induced in the loop?

(1) No current will be induced

(2) The current will be clockwise
(3) The current will anticlockwise
(4) The current will change direction as the electron passes by

24) A current carrying solenoid is approaching a conducting loop as shown in the figure. The
direction of induced current as observed by an observer on the other side of the loop will be

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) East
(4) West

25) A vertical bar magnet is dropped from the shown position along the axis of a fixed metallic coil
as shown in fig - I. In fig - II the magnet is fixed and horizontal coil is dropped. The acceleration of

the magnet and coil are a1 and a2 respectively then

(1) a1 > g , a2 > g

(2) a1 > g , a2 < g
(3) a1 < g , a2 < g
(4) a1 < g , a2 > g

26) There are two coils A and B as shown in the figure. A current started flowing in B as shown,
when A is moving towards B and current in B stops when A stops moving. B is always kept fixed. We

can conclude that

(1) There is a varying current in A in clockwise direction.

(2) There is a varying current in A in Anticlock-wise direction.
(3) There is a constant current in A in clockwise direction.
(4) There is a constant current in A in anticlockwise direction.

27) A circular coil of 500 turns of wire has an enclosed area of 0.1 m2 per turn. It is kept
perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction 0.2 T and rotated by 180° about a diameter
perpendicular to the field in 0.1 sec. How much charge will pass when the coil is connected to a
galvanometer with a combined resistance of 50 ohms :-

(1) 0.2 C
(2) 0.4 C
(3) 2C
(4) 4C

28) The north and south poles of two identical magnets approach a coil, containing a condenser,

with equal speeds from opposite sides. Then

(1) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive

(2) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
(3) Both the plates will be positive
(4) Both the plates will be negative

29)

An electron beam is moving with uniform speed near to a conducting loop then the induced current
in the loop :-

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anti clockwise
(3) Both
(4) No current

30) The figure shows a conducting ring of radius R. A uniform steady magnetic field B lies
perpendicular to the plane of the ring in a circular region of radius r (< R). If the resistance per unit
length of the ring is λ, then the current induced in the ring when its radius gets doubled is

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

31) An infinitely long conductor AB lies along the axis of a circular loop of radius R. If the current in
the conductor AB varies at the rate of x ampere/second, then the induced emf in the loop is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero
32) Predict the direction of induced current in the situation described by the following fig. :-

(1) ACW
(2) CW
(3) No induced current
(4) None of these

33) A current carrying loop is placed in uniform magnetic field in four different orientations, I, II, III
and IV. Arrange them in the decreasing order of potential energy.

(1) I>III>II>IV
(2) I>II>III>IV
(3) I>IV>II>III
(4) III>IV>I>II

34) In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5
seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is 9.8 × 10–6 kg m2. If the magnitude of
magnetic moment of the needle is x × 10–5 Am2; then the value of 'x' is :

(1) 5 π2
(2) 128 π2
(3) 50 π2
(4) 1280 π2

35) The potential difference between point A and B, in a section of a circuit shown, is

(1) 5 V
(2) 1 V
(3) 10 V
(4) 17 V

36) In the circuit shown in figure four batteries E1, E2, E3, E4 are connected as shown in figure. The
emf and internal resistances of all batteries are shown in figure. In List-I the battery names are
given and in List-II, some statement containing information about the batteries are given.

List-I List-II
 (P) E1 (1) is getting charged

(Q) E2 (2) is getting discharged

Potential difference across terminals of battery

(R) E3 (3)
is greater than emf of battery

Potential difference across terminals of battery is less

(S) E4 (4)
than emf of battery

Potential difference across terminals of battery

(5)
is equal to emf of battery
(1) P → 1,3;Q → 1,3;R → 1,3;S → 2,4
(2) P → 1,3;Q → 1,3;R → 2,4;S → 2,4
(3) P → 2,4;Q → 1,3;R → 1,3;S → 2,4
(4) P → 1,3;Q → 2,4;R → 1,3;S → 2,4

37) For what value of the unknown resistance X, the potential difference between B and D will be

zero in the arrangement of adjoining figure.

(1) 4 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 3 Ω
(4) 6 Ω

38) In the circuit given here, the points A, B and C are 70 V, 0, 10V respectively. Then

(1) the point D will be at a potential of 60V

(2) the point D will be at a potential of 20V
(3) currents in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the ratio of 9:2:3
(4) currents in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the ratio of 3:2:1

39) Find the equlvelent resistance between A and B of the network extending off to the inifinity
shown in the figure for R1 = 1Ω, R2 = 4Ω :-

(1) 4 Ω
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) 8 Ω

40) Of the two bulbs in a house hold circuit, one glows brighter than the other, which of the two
bulbs has a large resistance ?

(1) The bright bulb

(2) The dim bulb
(3) Both have the same resistance
(4) The brightness does not depend upon the resistance

41) If two bulbs of wattage 60 W and 100 W respectively each rated at 110 V are connected in series
with the supply of 220 V, which bulb will fuse ?

(1) 60 W bulb
(2) 100 W bulb
(3) Both the bulbs
(4) Bulbs will not fuse

42) A uniform copper wire carries a current i amperes and has p charge carriers per metre3. The
length of the wire is ℓ metres and its cross-section area is s metre2. If the charge on a carrier is q
coulombs, the drift velocity in ms–1 is given by

(1) i/ℓsq
(2) i/psq
(3) psq/i
(4) i/psℓq

43) In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its balanced state. The meter bridge wire has a
resistance 0.1 ohm/cm. The value of unknown resistance X and the current drawn from the battery
of negligible resistance is :-
(1) 6 Ω, 5 amp
(2) 10 Ω, 0.1 amp
(3) 4 Ω, 1.0 amp
(4) 12 Ω, 0.5 amp

44) The specific resistance of a wire is ρ , its volume is 3m3 and its resistance is 3 ohms, then its
length will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material,

connected in parallel. If the lengths and the radii of the wires are in the ratio of and then the
ratio of the currents passing through the wires will be :-

(1) 3

(2)

(3)

(4) 2

CHEMISTRY

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Cr2+ is oxidising and Mn3+ is reducing in nature.
Statement II : Sc3+ compounds are repelled by the applied magnetic field. In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

2) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

Element which exhibits +3

(a) (i) Mn
oxidation state only

Element which exhibits

(b) (ii) Zn
more number of oxidation states

Element which is a
(c) reducing agent in its (iii) Sc
+2 oxidation state

Element which is not considered

(d) (iv) Cr
as a transition element

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

3) Identify the pair of Lanthanoides with one strong oxidant and one strong reductant.

(1) Yb(II), Eu(II)

(2) Eu(IV), Lu(III)
(3) Ce(IV), Eu(II)
(4) Ce(IV), Tb(IV)

4) The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is :

(1) 2.84 BM
(2) 3.87 BM
(3) 4.90 BM
(4) 5.92 BM

5) The oxidation number of the underlined atom in the following species

Identify the incorrect option :

(1) Cu2O is –1
–
(2) ClO3 is +5
(3) K2Cr2O7 is + 6
(4) HAuCl4 is +3

6) The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to

(1) The π–bonding involves overlap of p–orbitals of oxygen with d–orbitals of manganese
(2) There is no π–bonding
(3) The π–bonding involves overlap of p–orbitals of oxygen with p–orbitals of managanese
(4) The π–bonding involves overlap of d–orbitals of oxygen with d–orbitals of manganese

7) When neutral or faintly alkaline KMnO4 is treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is converted
into 'X'. 'X' is-

(1) I2
–
(2) IO4
–
(3) IO3
(4) IO–

8) Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

Zirconium and Hafnium have identical radii of 160 pm and 159 pm, respectively as a
(1)
consequence of lanthanoid contraction.
(2) Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state.
0
(3) The lanthanoid ions other than the f type and the f14 type are all paramagnetic.
The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii from lanthanum to lutetium is called lanthanoid
(4)
contraction.

9) , X and Y are respectively :-

(1) X = OH–, Y = H+
(2) X = H+, Y = OH–
–
(3) X = OH , Y = H2O2
–
(4) X = H2O2, Y = OH

10) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Ag is a transition element.
Statement-II : Ag atom has completely filled d-orbital (4d10) in it's ground state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

11) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Complexes) (Types)
 [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and ionisation
(a) (i)
[Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 isomerism

[Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] and coordination

(b) (ii)
[Cr(CN)6] [Co(NH3)6] isomerism

[Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br and
(c) (iii) linkage isomerism
[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4

[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and
(d) (iv) solvate isomerism
[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

12) The number of bridging carbonyl groups in [Co2(CO)8] and [Mn2(CO)10], respectively are

(1) 2 and 2
(2) 2 and 4
(3) 0 and 2
(4) 2 and 0

13) What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal
field theory ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14)

The ratio of cis and trans-isomers of the complex [Ma2bcde]n± is:

(1) 5 : 3
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 7 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

15) The number of paramagnetic species from the following given complexs is equal to-
[Ni(CN)4]2-, [Ni(CO)4], [NiCl4]2-
[Fe(CN)6]4-, [Cu(NH3)4]2+
[Fe(CN)6]3- and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which of the following complex will show largest splitting of d-orbitals?

3-
(1) [Fe(C2O4)3]
3-
(2) [FeF6]
3-
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(4) [Fe(NH3)6]

17) Among the following, metal carbonyls, the C-O bond is strongest in :-

+
(1) [Mn(CO)6]
(2) [Cr(CO)6]
–
(3) [V(CO)6]
2–
(4) [Ti(CO)6]

18)

The formula of sodium nitroprusside is :-

(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO2]
(2) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
(3) NaFe[Fe(CN)6]
(4) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2]

19) Correct order of leaving group nature is :

(1)

(2) H2O > H2S

(3)

(4)

20) Order of nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent

(1) I > Br > Cl >F

(2) F > Cl > Br >I

(3) I > Cl > Br >F

(4) F >I > Br > Cl

21) Which of the following have maximum nucleophilicity :-

–
(1) CH3–CH2–O

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of
(1)
electrons from a nucleophile.
Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can from a bond by accepting a pair of
(2)
electrons from another electrophile.
Electrophile are generally neutral species and can from a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
(3)
from a nucleophile.
Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by
(4)
accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile.

23) Which of the following is not an electrophile?

⊕
(1) H3O
(2)
(3) H2O
(4) All of these

24) Which of the following statement is not true?

Nucleophiles possess unshared pairs of electron which are utilized in forming bonds with
(1)
electrophilic substrate.
The cyanide ion is an ambident nucleophile and causes nucleophilic substitution of alkyl halide
(2)
by either of its carbon atom or nitrogen atom
The nitrite ion is an ambident nucleophile and causes nucleophilic substitution of alkyl halide by
(3)
either of its oxygen atom or nitrogen atom.
(4) Strength of nucleophile generally decreases on going down a group in the periodic table.

25) Which of the following is strongest nucleophile?

(1) CH3–CH2–NH2
(2) CH3=CH–NH2

(3)
(4) CH2=CH–CH=CH–NH2

26) The incorrect statement is

(1) Benzene – Polar medium

(2) H2O – Polar medium
(3) Benzene – Non-polar medium
(4) H2O – Nucleophile

27) Which among the following is most preferred solvent for SN1 reaction?

(1) DMF
(2) Acetone
(3) Methanol
(4) DMSO

28) In SN1 the first step involves the formation of

(1) free radical

(2) carbanion
(3) carbocation
(4) final product

29) Select the incorrect statement among the following:

(1) Carbocation rearrangement can take place in SN1 reaction.

(2) SN1 is a single step reaction
(3) In SN1 reaction, racemisation takes place
(4) SN1 reactions invovle the formation of carbocation as intermediate

30) Which of the following halide contains bond ?

(1) Allyl halide

(2) Alkyl halide
(3) Benzyl halide
(4) Vinyl halide

31) Arrange the following in order of their nucleophilicity in protic solvent

(1) i > ii > ii

(2) iii > ii > i
(3) ii > i > iii
(4) None

32) Which among the following species is an ambident nucleophile?

(1) Ethene
(2) Benzene
(3) Cyanide ion
(4) Acetone

33) When the concentration of alkyl halide is tripled and the concentration of nucleophile is reduced
to half, the rate of SN2 reaction increase by:

(1) 3 times
(2) 2 times
(3) 1.5 times
(4) 6 times

34) SN2 mechanism proceeds through intervention of-

(1) Carbonium ion

(2) Transition state
(3) Free radical
(4) Carbanion

35) Which one of the following has maximum nucleophilicity:

(1)

(2)

(3) Et3N
(4)

36) Select the incorrect statement among the following:

(1) SN1 reaction involve two steps

(2) SN2 reactions involve single step
(3) SN2 reaction involves transition state
(4) SN2 reaction involve carbonium ion intermediate

37) When the concentration of alkyl halide is doubled and the amount of nucleophile is reduced to
half, the rate of SN1 reaction increases by:

(1) 3 times
(2) 2 times
(3) 1.5 times
(4) 6 times

38) Which of the following statement is correct for SN1 reaction:

(1) Intermediate of SN1 reaction is carbocation.

(2) It is more than one step process.
(3) Its rate depends only on concentration of reactant
(4) All of these

39) The weakest nucleophile but best leaving group is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) In which of the following rearrangement of carbocation is not possible.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following carbocation is most likely to undergo rearrangement?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following will not be possible during rearrangement of carbocation for the following

compound.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

43)

In SN2 reactions the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds :

CH3Cl, CH3–CH2–Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is

(1) CH3–CH2–Cl > CH3–Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
(2) (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CCl
(3) CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)3CCl
(4) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl

44)
Which of the following is most reactive towards SN1 reaction ?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–Br

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Find the correct reactivity order for SN1 reaction among given compound :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(1) Mutations provide variation upon which natural selection can act.
(2) The vast majority of mutations produce alleles which are dominant.
(3) Mutations arise spontaneously, infrequently and at random.
(4) Mutation rate can be increased by artificial means.

2) Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by the change in chromosome structure involving :-

(1) deletion
(2) duplication
(3) inversion
(4) translocation
3) Identify the type of mutation in given diagram :-

(1) Inversion
(2) Point mutation
(3) Deletion
(4) Substitution

4) Transition means :-

(1) One purine is replaced by another purine

(2) One purine is replaced by pyrimidine
(3) One pyrimidine is replaced by another pyrimidine
(4) both (1) and (3)

5) The plant on which Hugo De Vries studied mutation is :-

(1) Pea plant

(2) Oenothera lamarckiana
(3) Potato
(4) Radish

6) A segment of DNA has a base sequence : If a nitrogen base

G is deleted from second codon, what will be correct sequence of DNA segment after frame shift
mutation :-

(1) AAG GAG GAC CAA CCA

(2) AGG AGG ACC CAA CCA
(3) AAG AGG ACC AAC CA
(4) AAG AGG ACC CAA CCA

7) A classical example of point mutation is :-

(1) Down syndrome

(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Klinfelter syndrome
(4) Turner syndrome

8) A women with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by –

(1) Turner syndrome
(2) Down syndrome
(3) Superfemaleness
(4) Triploidy

9) Monosomy and trisomy are represented respectively as :-

(1) n – 1, n + 2
(2) 2n + 2, 2n + 1
(3) 2n – 1, 2n + 1
(4) 2n – 2, 2n + 1

10) Find the incorrect match :-

(1) Change in genome number - Down's syndrome

(2) Frame shift mutation - Thalassemia
(3) Chromosomal aberration - CML (Chronic myeloid leukemia)
(4) Aneuploidy - Turner's syndrome

11) Which of the following statements about mutation are true :-

I. Mutations are the source of new alleles for genes.
II. Mutations are generally recessive.
III. Mutations are random events and can happen in any cell at any time.
IV. Most mutations tend to be harmful for organisms.

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, II, III and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I and III

12)

A normal woman, whose father had haemophilia, married a normal man. What which be chance of
occurrence of haemophilia in their children?

(1) Non haemophilic but 75% will be carriers.

(2) 50% children will be haemophilic.
(3) 75% children will be haemophilic.
(4) 25% children will be haemophilic.

13) Match the following columns:

(1) A → P; B → Q; C → T; D → S; E → R
(2) A → P; B → Q; C → S; D → R; E → T
(3) A → P; B → Q; C → R; D → S; E → T
(4) A → T; B → S; C → R; D → Q; E → P

14) Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also
expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.

(1) A and B only

(2) C and D only
(3) B and E only
(4) A and E only

15)

Which is genetically not possible ?

(1) Haemophilic father transfers the haemophilic gene to his son

(2) Haemophilic father transfers the haemophilic gene to his daughter
(3) Carrier mother transfers the haemophilic gene to her son
(4) Carrier mother transfers the haemophilic gene to her daughter

16) The inheritance of two genetic diseases namely phenylketonuria and haemophilia are to be
studied in two different individuals. Both these studies will involve the use of :-

(1) Autosomes
(2) Sex chromosomes
(3) Restriction endonuclease
(4) Pedigree analysis

17) Which of the following statement is true for colourblindness :-

(1) It is due to mutation in certain genes present in y-chromosome

(2) It occurs in about 8% of female and about 0.4 % of male
(3) The son of a woman who is carrier of colourblind has 50% chance of being colourblind
(4) It is an autosomal linked disorder

18) Phenyl ketonuria is not

(1) Autosomal dominant disease.

(2) Autosomal recessive disease.
(3) In born error of metabolism.
(4) Disease in which phenylalanine converted into phenyl pyruvic acid and other derivative.

19)

Given pedigree chart represent autosomal recessive disease. What is the probability of 5th child
inheriting this disease :-

(1) 25%
(2) 75%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

20) Match the following -

Column-I Column-II

Board plam with characteristic

A Haemophilia (i)
palm crease

B Down's Syndrome (ii) Delayed clotting of blood

Klinefelter's
C (iii) Few feminine characters
syndrome

D Turner's Syndrome (iv) Rudimentary ovaries

(1) (A)-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) (A)-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) (A)-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) (A)-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

21) Study the pedigree chart given below :-

What does it show :-

(1) Inheritance of recessive sex-linked disorder haemophilia

(2) Inheritance of myotonic dystrophy
(3) Inheritance of phenylketonuria, an autosomal recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

22) Find out the genotype of father and mother in the given pedigree chart.

(1) Mother: AA; Father: Aa

(2) Mother: Aa; Father: Aa
(3) Mother: AA; Father: aa
(4) Mother: aa; Father: Aa

23) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Phenylketonuria is an example of pleiotropy.
Reason (R): Phenylketonuria results in mental retardation and a reduction in hair and skin
pigmentation besides too much phenylalanine in the body.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

24) Assertion : Pedigree analysis are useful to trace inheritance of characters in human beings.
Reason : Human beings do not show Mendelian inheritance of their traits.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

25) What is the genotype of the affected male in the given pedigree chart?
(1) Aa or AA
(2) Heterozygous for genes on X chromosome
(3) Heterozygous for genes on Y chromosome
(4) aa

26) In a pedigree, what does the given symbol represent?

(1) Mating between husband and wife

(2) Consanguineous mating
(3) Affected parents
(4) Mating between different generations

27) Sterile female with rudimentary ovaries and lack of secondary sexual characters in human is a
result of disorder caused due to

(1) Chromosome complement 44 + XXX

(2) Absence of one of the X-chromosomes
(3) Mutation in X-chromosome
(4) Presence of an extra Y-chromosome

28)

Assertion: The possibility of a female becoming a hemophilic is extremely rare

Reason: Mother of hemophilic female has to be at least carrier and the father should be hemophilic

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason is False

29) Assertion : Turner syndrome is caused due to monosomy of X chromosome in female.

Reason : Such individuals shows masculine as well as feminine development.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true
30) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Sickle cell anemia occur due to mutation
Reason (R): Deletion or insertions of base pairs in DNA is point mutation
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

31) Find the correct option with respect to chromosome number :-

(a) 32 (i) Down’s syndrome

(b) 16 (ii) Klienfelter’s syndromes
(c) 45 (iii) Turner’s syndrome
(d) 47 (AA + XXY) (iv) Drones
(e) 47 (AAA + XX) (v) Worker bees
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v

32) Select the incorrect match regarding the symbols used in Pedigree analysis:

(1)
- Sex unspecified

(2)
- Affected individual

(3) - Consanguineous mating

(4)
- Parent with male child affected with disease

33) Read the following statements

(a) All the daughters will show disorder, if father possesses the same
(b) Does not transmit to son, if mother does not exhibit disorder
Both the above stated features will be applicable for

(1) X-linked dominant gene

(2) Y-linked dominant gene
(3) Autosomal dominant gene
(4) X-linked recessive gene

34) DNA is
(1) Acidic and positively charged
(2) Basic and positively charged
(3) Acidic and negatively charged
(4) Basic and negatively charge

35) Name of DNA as ‘Nuclein’ was given by

(1) Francis crick

(2) Erwin Chargaff
(3) Friedrich Meischer
(4) Rosalind Franklin

36) Length of DNA is usually defined as

(1) Number of nucleotides present in it

(2) Number of pair of nucleotides present in it
(3) Number of base pairs present in it
(4) All of these

37) Assertion: A bacteriophage known as ϕ × 174 has 5,386 nucleotides, bacteriophage lambda has
48,502 base pairs (bp) and Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 106 bp.
Reason: The diploid content of human DNA is 3.3 × 109 bp.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false

38) Select the incorrect match

(1) Φ × 174 – 5386 bp

(2) λ phage – 48502 bp
(3) E. coli – 4.6 × 106 bp
(4) Haploid human cell – 3.3 × 109 bp

39) Discovery of nuclein by Meischer was at the time when

(1) Walter Sutton gave chromosomal basis of inheritance

Thomas Hunt Morgan narrowed the search to the chromosomes located in the nucleus of most
(2)
cells.
(3) Mendel laid down the proposition for principles of inheritance
(4) Both 1 and 2

40) DNA is a :-

(1) Long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides

(2) Long polymer of ribonucleotides
(3) Polymer of amino acid
(4) Polymer of nucleosides

41) Genetic material in which of the following has least number of nucleotides?

(1) Escheirchia coli

(2) Φ × 174 bacteriophage
(3) Bacteriophage λ
(4) Human WBC

42) Sickle cell anemia is :-

(1) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

(2) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(3) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(4) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

43) A normal woman whose father was albino, marries an albino man, what proportion of normal and
albino are expected among their offsprings :-

(1) All normal

(2) 2 normal : 1 Albino
(3) All albino
(4) 1 normal : 1 Albino

44) Choose the correct option for the chromosomal disorders :-

I. Thalassemia
II. Turner syndrome
III. Colourblindness
IV. Down syndrome
V. Phenylketonuria

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, IV and V
(3) III, IV and V
(4) II and IV

45) Identify incorrect

(1) - Thalassemia is controlled by two closely liked gene

Phenylketonuria is caused by mutation in the gene which code for phenyl alanine hydroxylase
(2)
enzyme
(3) Thalassemia is qualitative problem
(4) In 'X' - linked gene(disorder) female can be carrier also

46) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) T-cells help the B-cells to produce antibody
(2) T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also stimulate B-cells to produce the same.
(3) Health is affected by genetic factors, life style, balanced diet and vaccination
(4) Gambusia is used to control diseases like malaria, elephantiasis and dengue.

47) Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Recombinant RNA technology
(3) Fungus (yeast)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

48) Given below are pairs of pathogens, disease caused by them and their classification. Which is
incorrectly matched ?

Causative
Disease Pathogen
agent

Haemophilus
(1) Pneumonia Bacteria
influenzae

(2) Typhoid Salmonella Bacteria

(3) Filariasis Microsporum Round worm

Chikungunya
(4) Chikungunya Virus
Virus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) In case of snakebites, the injection which is given to the patients, contains preformed antibodies
against the snake venom. This type of immunization is :-

(1) Active aquired immunity

(2) Passive aquired immunity
(3) Innate immunity
(4) Non-specific immunity

50) Which of the following is correct match :-

Transmitted
(1) Ascariasis
by culex

Transmitted
(2) Filariasis
by Aedes

Transferred
(3) Amoebiasis
by housefly
 Transmitted
(4) Dengue
by anopheles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) Which is the infective stage of plasmodium for humans ?

(1) Gametocyte
(2) Merozoite
(3) Sporozoite
(4) Cryptozoite

52) Which of the following set of cells are affected by HIV?

(1) Macrophage and B-lymphocytes

(2) Macrophage and T-lymphocytes
(3) Eosinophils and mast cells
(4) T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes

53) Identify the correct statement regarding communicable diseases ?

(1) Mary Mallon associated with tetanus infection.

(2) AIDS never get transmitted through artificial insemination.
(3) Primary host of plasmodium is mosquito.
(4) Filariasis causes chronic inflammation of blood vessels.

54) Find out the true (T) /false (F) statements and choose the correct option :
(i) Many infections diseases have been controlled to a large extent by use of vaccines
(ii) Chikungunya is a bacterial disease
(iii) Mycobacterium is responsible for both tuberculosis and leprosy
(iv) Small pox has been eradicated through 'Pulse Polio Immunization Programme'

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) T F F T

(2) F T F T

(3) T T F F

(4) T F T F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
55) Microenvironment for development and maturation of T-lymphocytes is provided by

(1) Only thymus

(2) Only bone marrow
(3) Both thymus and bone marrow
(4) Thymus and spleen

56) Appearance of dry scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp,
intense itching are the main symptoms of ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Chicken pox
(3) Ring worm
(4) 1 and 3 both

57) Which of the following is correct matching :-

Cellular
(1) Epidermal cells
barrier

Physical
(2) Fever, Acid in stomach, saliva
barrier

Cytokine
(3) Interferons
barrier

Natural killer cell

Physiological
(4) macrophages PMNL-
barrier
Neutrophils
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Immune system retains the memory of which response in vaccination process :-

(1) Passive immunization response

(2) Primary immune response
(3) Secondary immune response
(4) All the above

59) Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
(2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.
(3) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(4) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes

60)
Read the following statements (A–E)

(A) Gross deformities in genital organs

(B) Elephantiasis
(C) Vector is female aedes mosquito
(D) Slowly developing chronic inflammation usually of blood vessels of lower limbs
(E) It is caused by wuchereria bancrofti.
How many of the above statements are incorrect about given diagram ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

61)

Match the following :-

Column I Column II

a Common cold i Diarrhoea

Haemophilus
b Typhoid ii
influenzae

c Pneumonia iii Stool, mucous, blood

d Malaria iv Rhino virus

e Cholera v Salmonella typhi

f Amoebiasis vi Haemozoin granules

(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii
62) During life cycle of Plasmodium, fertilization and development takes place in the mosquito's ____.

(1) Intestine
(2) RBC's
(3) Stomach (GUT)
(4) Liver

63)

(a) Haemophilus influenzae

(b) Streptococcus strain
(c) Infects alveoli of lungs
(d) Fluid present in alveoli in severe cases
(e) Lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour
(f) Droplet or aerosol infections
Above features are related with :-

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Common cold
(3) Influenza
(4) Swine flu

64) Select the correct option to fill up the blanks.

(i) Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another, are called ____ diseases.
(ii) In human body, parasite of malaria initially multiplies within the ______ and then attack the
______.
(iii) _____ is the yellowish fluid secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation.
(iv) ______ and ______ are the primary lymphoid organs.

(1) (i) infectious, (ii) bone marrow, thymus, (iii) colostrum, (iv) liver cell, RBCs
(2) (i) infectious, (ii) liver cell, RBCs (iii) colostrum, (iv) Bone marrow, thymus
(3) (i) interferon, (ii) bone marrow, thymus (iii) colostrum, (iv) liver cell, RBCs
(4) (i) infectious, (ii) liver cell, RBCs, (iii) colostrum, (iv) spleen, lymph node

65) Mark the incorrect statement :-

(1) The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B-cell to produce them
(2) Wuchereria is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of female Culex vector
(3) Haemozoin (toxic substance) is associated with Malaria
After getting into the body of the person, HIV releases its ssDNA into macrophages where DNA
(4)
genome of virus replicates to form viral RNA with the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase

66)

Choose the wrong statement

(1) Time lag between infection and appearance of AIDS is a few hours to a week
(2) HIV has RNA as genetic material
(3) HIV replicates in macrophages
(4) ARV drugs are only partially effective in AIDS treatment

67) Most cancers are treated by combination of :-

(a) Surgery
(b) Radiotherapy
(c) Chemotherapy

(1) Only a and b

(2) Only a and c
(3) Only b and c
(4) a, b and c

68)

Which type of radiations can cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation ?
(a) Ionising radiations
(b) X-rays
(c) Non-ionising radiations
(d) UV-rays

(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) a and b
(4) a, b, c and d

69)

Mark the correctly matched option

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

70) The figure below shows steps A, B & C of replication of retrovirus. Select the option giving

correct identification
(1) B–Incorporation of viral DNA into host genome with intregase enzyme
(2) C–Production of new viral DNA by infected cell
(3) A–Replication of viral RNA by protease enzyme
(4) C–Viral RNA replication by reverse transcriptase enzyme

71) (a) It is not a congenital disease

(b) Spreads due to conscious behaviour pattern
(c) Loss of contact inhibition
(d) "Don't die of ignorance"
(e) Metastasis
How many of the above statements are not correct about AIDS :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

72) Assertion (A): An antibody is represented as H2L2.

Reason (R): An antibody molecule has two heavy chains and two light chains.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

73) Consider the following characteristics and answer the question.

(a) Metastasis
(b) Contact inhibition
(c) Uncontrolled meiosis
(d) Malignancy
(e) Invasion
(f) Oncogenic transformation
The properties shown by malignant tumor are?

(1) a, b, d, e, f
(2) a, d, e, f
(3) a, b, d, e
(4) a, b, c, d, e, f

74) Assertion : Uncontrolled abnormal excessive mitotic cell division is cancer

Reason : Cancer is caused by x-rays

(1) A and R are right but R is not correct explanation of A

(2) A is right and R is explanation of A
(3) A is right R is wrong
(4) A and R both are wrong
75) Most feared property of malignant tumor is :

(1) Contact inhibition

(2) Memory
(3) Metastasis
(4) 1 and 3 both

76) Given are some techniques useful in detection of cancers of the internal organs.
(A) Radiography
(B) MRI
(C) CT
(D) Biopsy
Select the one which uses X-ray radiations.

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) (A) and (C)

77) Read the statements given below and select the correct option.
Statement-A: Cancer cells appear to have lost the property of contact inhibition.
Statement-B: In our body, cell growth and differentiation is highly unrestrained and not regulated.

(1) Both the statements A and B are correct

(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

78) Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV ?

(1) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.

(2) HIV does not escape but attacks the aquired immune response.
HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of
(3)
reverse transcriptase.
HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two
(4)
molecules of reverse transcriptase.

79) Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta and through mother's milk
to infant is respectively due to :-

(1) IgG, IgM

(2) IgA, IgG
(3) IgG, IgA
(4) IgG, IgD

80)
Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such
tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?

(1) auto-immune response

(2) humoral immune response
(3) physiological immune response
(4) cell-mediated immune response

81) Which one of the following combinations acts as a usual antigen binding site of an antibody?

(1) Variable regions of a light and another heavy chain

(2) Variable regions of two light chains
(3) Variable regions of two heavy chains
(4) Variable region of a heavy chain and constant region of a light chain

82) Many fungi belonging to genera _____, _____ and ________ are responsible for ringworms which is
one of the most common infectious diseases in man.

(1) Microphyton, Trichosporum, Epidermosporum

(2) Wucheria, Trichophyton, Ascaris
(3) Salmonella, Microspores, Wuchereria
(4) Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton

83) Statement I : Health could be defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well
being.
Statement II : Infectious diseases are easily transmitted from one person to another.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

84) Assertion : Allergy is the exaggerated response of immune system to certain antigens present in
the environment.
Reason : Mast cells release chemical like histamine and serotonin.

(1) Assertion is false but reason is true.

(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(4) Assertion is true but the reason is false.

85) Haemozoin is a toxin released from

(1) Streptococcus infected cells

(2) Plasmodium infected cells
(3) Haemophilus infected cells
(4) None of these

86) Assertion(A): HIV/AIDS can be transmitted through unprotected sexual contact and
contaminated needles.
Reason(R): HIV infects immune cells, weakening the body's ability to fight infections.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

87) Statement-I: Cancer is contagious and cells can spread from one person to other.
Statement-II: Cancerous cells are highly diffrentiated cells.

(1) Both the statements A and B are correct

(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

88) Statement-I: Interferons are a type of antibodies produced by body cells infected by bacteria.
Statement-II: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.

(1) Both the statements A and B are correct

(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

89) Statement-I: AIDS patients are not isolated from family and society.
Statement-II: AIDS spreads through mere touch and physical contact.

(1) Both the statements A and B are correct

(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

90) Statement-I: Both mind and mental health can affect health.
Statement-II: Mind influences, through our neural system and endocrine system our immune system.

(1) Both the statements A and B are correct

(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 1 1 2 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 4 1 3 4 2 2 4 3 4 1 3 4 4 1 4 4 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 4 4 1 1 3 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 1 4 2 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 4 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 2 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 2 4 4 3 1 4 3 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 3 1 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 3 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 1 2 4 1 4 4 3 1 2 1 2 1 3 4 3 4 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) Length PS = {r = radius of circular part of loop}

FPS = iℓB =
length PQR = 2 r
FPQR =

3)

IlB = Kx

4)

⇒ Current loop is magnetic dipole

⇒ for dipole Fnet = 0 (in ext uniform field)
⇒ τ = MBsinθ may or may not be zero

5)

Question Explanation :
Bismuth is suspended freely in magnetic field if it arrange it self at right angle than bismuth is.

Concept :
This question is based on Magnetic properties of material.

Solution :
Theory :

A. When a material is placed in magnetic field if material aligns parallel to the magnetic field. It
means the material is paramagnetic.
B. If the material aligns perpendicular (at right angle) to the magnetic field, it means material is
diamagnetic.
C. Bismuth is diamagnetic.
Hence,
Option (1) is correct

6) where n = l

7)

8)

Curie law

9)

10)

11)

12)

13) For a short magnet,

14) I = Electronic charge × frequency = ev

15)

If the radius of circle is r, then 2πr = L

Area = πr2 =
Magnetic moment =

16) also

17)

Hence,

18) The energy lost per unit volume of a substance in a complete cycle of magnetisation is
equal to the area of the hysteresis loop.

19) (A) Dia → II

(B) Ferro → III
(C) Para → (IV)
(D) Non magnetic → I

20)

Energy loss in 1 hour Energy loss in 1 hour

= Area × Volume × time × frequency= Area × Volume × time × frequency

= 1200 J × 50
= 60000 J
= 6 × 104 J

21) Explanation:
1. Problem Explanation:
A circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field B = 0.005 T. The radius of the loop is
shrinking at 1 mm/s. We need to find the induced EMF when the radius is 2 cm.

2.Concept:
Faraday's Law

3.Formula:
The induced EMF is given by Faraday's Law:

where magnetic flux,

Φ = BA = Bπr2

4.Calculation:
Differentiating both sides:
e = B.
Since A = πr2,

so,

Given:
• B = 0.025T
• r = 2 cm = 0.02 m

• = –1 mm/s = -0.0001 m/s

Substituting values :
e = 0.025 × 2π × 0.02 × 0.01
e= π × 10–6 V = πμV

4. Correct Answer:
Option 3: π μV

22)

Lenz law

23) Lenz law

24) The direction of current in the solenoid is anti-clockwise as seen by observer. On

displacing it towards the loop a current in the loop will be induced in a direction so as to
oppose the approach of solenoid. Therefore the direction of induced current as observed by

the observer will be clockwise.

25) 1 Explanation: A magnet and a coil are dropped in two scenarios. The task is to compare
the accelerations (a1 and a2) of the magnet and the coil during motion.
2. Concept Used: According to Lenz's Law, the induced current opposes the relative motion,
creating a resistive force due to electromagnetic damping. This reduces the net acceleration
below g.

3. Formula Used: Induced EMF where is the magnetic flux.

Force opposing motion: due to change in magnetic flux through Loop.

Net acceleration:
4. Calculation (in brief): In Figure I, the magnet experiences opposing force due to induced
current in the coil, so a1 < g.
In Figure II, the coil experiences opposing force due to induced current, so a2 < g.
Thus, a1 < g, a2 < g.
Concept Diagram :

Case 1st Case 2nd In

both the cases : anet < g

26)

Lenz law

27)

28)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what will be the charge polarity on the two plates of a
parallel plate condenser placed inside a coil when two identical magnets, one with a north pole
and the other with a south pole, approach the coil from opposite sides at equal speeds.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involved is electromagnetic induction. When a

magnet moves near a coil, it changes the magnetic flux through the coil, inducing an electric
current according to Faraday's law of induction. Lenz's law states that the direction of the
induced current opposes the change in magnetic flux. This induced current causes a potential
difference across the condenser plates inside the coil.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that an anticlockwise induced current (when viewed from one
side) implies a specific polarity on the plates of the condenser. Using the right-hand rule for
coils can help determine this polarity quickly.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the plates will have the same charge or ignoring the effect of
Lenz's law to find the direction of the induced current are common errors.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices stating both plates are positive or both
negative are incorrect because the induced current creates opposite charges on the two
plates. The option with plate 1 negative and plate 2 positive is incorrect based on the current's
direction set by Lenz's law and the right-hand rule.

29)
Due to electron beam no change in flux so induced current in loop = 0

30)

∵ magnetic field is steady there for flux is constant so no current is induced.

31) Magnetic lines on circular loop, due to current in wire AB are tangnetial to its plane.

∴ or induced emf = 0.

32)

Lenz law

33)

U = -MB cosθ

34)

B = 0.049 T, f=
I = 9.8 × 10–6 kg – m2
M = x × 10–5 A – m2

f=

M=
–5 2 –4
x × 10 = 128π × 10
x = 1280 π2

35)

Use KVL

36) Option does not make scence, AA Sir

37)
∵ VB = VD
only when

38) I1 = I2 + I3

⇒ 420– 6V0 = 2V0 – 20 + 3V0 ⇒ V0 = 40V

IAD = IDB = 2A & IDC = 1A

39) then

R= ⇒ R=
2
⇒ 4R + R = 4R + 2(4 + R)
⇒ R2 + 4R – 6R – 8 = 0
⇒ R2 – 4R + 2R – 8 = 0
⇒ R = 4 or R = –2
Hence option (1)

40) House hold connections are parallel combinations so :-

P1 > P2 ⇒ ⇒ R1 < R2
So dim bulb will have larger resistance
Hence option (2) is correct.
41)

So voltage drop across 60 W bulb = 220 ×

= 137.5 V
> 110 V
So 60 W bulb will fuse
Hence option (1) is correct.

42)

Question Explanation:

Given charge density, area, and current, find the drift velocity of charge carriers.

Concept:

Drift velocity relates current to charge carrier density and cross-sectional area.

Formula:

vd =

Calculation:

Substitute values into the drift velocity formula directly.

• i: current
• p: number of charge carriers per unit volume
• s: cross-sectional area
• q: charge per carrier

vd =

Final Answer:

The correct option is (2).

43)

44) R = and Volume = Aℓ

R= ⇒ℓ=

45)
 ∵R= = ⇒R∝

= =3:1

In parallel i ∝

CHEMISTRY

46)

Cr+2 → Cr+3
3d4 3d3 (t2g Half filled)
(R.A.)
Mn+3 → Mn+2
3d4 3d5 (Half filled 'd' orbital). (O.A.)

47)

Element which
exhibits +3 Sc[1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1]
(a) (iii) 0 0
oxidation state Sc+3 [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d ]
only
Element which
exhibits
Mn [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d5]
(b) more number of (i)
(oxidation state from +2 so +7)
oxidation
states
Element which is a Cr [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5]
reducing 0
Cr+2 [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d4]
(c) agent in (iv) Cr+2 acts as a reducing agent, Cr+3 is
its +2 oxidation
state stable because of its configuration - .
Element which is
Zn [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10]
not considered 0
(d) (ii) Zn+2 [1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d10]
as a transition
as it is pseudo transition element.
element

48)

63Eu = [Xe]4f7 6s2

Eu2+ is a strong reducing agent changing to common +3 state.
1 1 2
58Ce = [Xe] 4f 5d 6s

Ce(IV) is a strong oxidant.

E° of Ce4+/Ce3+ = 1.74 V
The of Ce suggests that it can oxidise water.
49)

Cr+2 = 3d4
B.M. = B.M.
4.90 B.M.

50)

Ox. state of "O" in Cu2O = –2

Ox. state of "Cl" in ClO3– = +5
Ox. state of "Cr" in K2Cr2O7 = +6
Ox. state of "Au" in HAuCl4 = + 3
∴ (1) is incorrect

51)

Manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to formation π bond involving p orbital
of oxygen with d orbital of manganese.

52)

KMnO4 + I– + OH– —→ MnO2 + IO3– + H2O

(x)

53) Lanthanoids shows general oxidation state +3 but some elements can shows +2 as well as
+4.

54)

55)

Statement-I :- All d block elements except Zn, Cd, Hg & Cn are transition elements.
Statement-II:- Electronic configuration of
Ag :– 36[Kr]4d105s1

56)

(a) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2

- linkage isomerism (iii)
(b) [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] and [Cr(CN)6] [Co(NH3)6]
- coordination isomerism (ii)
(c) [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
- ionisation isomerism (i)
(d) [Cr(H2O)6Cl3] and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
 - solvate isomerism (iv)
(a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

57)

58) In K4[Fe(CN)6]
Fe(26) = 3d6 4s2
Fe+2 = 3d6
in presence of SFL 3d6 →

59) 2 : 1

60)

[Ni(CN)4]–2 (Coordination number = 4)

CN¯ → SFL so pairing occurs
Ni+2 → 3d8

[Ni(CO)4] → Ni → 3d84s2

[Ni(Cl)4]–2 ; Cl¯ → WFL

Ni+2 → CN = 4
Ni+2 → 3d8

No pairing and so paramagnetic

[Fe(CN)6]4–
CN– → SFL
Pairing occurs → Diamagnetic
→ INNER ORBITAL COMPLEX
→ d2sp3 Hybrid.
[Cu(NH3)4]+2

Always paramagnetic irrespective of SFL and WFL

[Fe(CN)6]–3
C.N. = 6 ; CN¯ → SFL
Fe+3 → 3d5

1 unpaired e– and so
paramagnetic
2+
[Fe(H2O)6] ; H2O → WFL

No pairing and so Paramagnetic

61)

Splitting energy depends on strength of ligand.

Strength of ligand ↑ → Δ0↑
[Fe(CN)6]3–
CN– → is strongest ligand among all options.
So, [Fe(CN)6]3– Δ0 is maximum among all.

62)

M—C ≡ O
As M—C BO↑ due to Back bonding, C–O BO↓
Or vice versa
If –ve charge on metal ↑
Back bonding ↑
M—C BO ↑ ⇒ C–O BO ↓
If +ve charge on metal ↑
M—C Back bonding ↓ ⇒ C–O BO ↑

Strongest Bond of C–O is in

63)

Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]

64) Explanation Question: To select correct order of L.G. nature

Concept: This question is based on Leaving group nature
Solution: Order of LG nature
option
(1) I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
(2) H2S > H2O
(3) CF3–OH– > NH2– > CH3–

only option (3) has correct order LG nature

Final Answer option : (3)

65)

Nucleophilicity is directly proportional to size of nucleophilic atom in P.P.S.

66) Most basic is good nucleophile

67)

It is the property of electrophile

68) H3O⊕, , H2O are not electrophiles.

69)

It is the property of nucleophile

70)

Localised l.p will have more nucleophilicity i.e.

71)

Benzene is a non polar solvent

72) Polar protic solvent favours SN1 reaction.

73)

Carbocation intermediate is obtained in SN1 mechanism.

74)

SN1 is a multiple step mechanism

75)
Vinyl halide contains bond

76)

Nucleophilicity ∝

Nucleophilicity :

77) have two nucleophilic sites as 'N' and 'C'

78)

Rate = k [R – X] [Nu]

79)

Transition state is obtained in SN2 mechanism

80)

Nucleophilicity µ Size of nucleophilic atom

81)

SN1 → Two steps

SN2 → One steps

82)

Rate = K[R - X]

83)

All statements are properties of SN1

84) has maximum delocalisation of negative charge with -I effect of CF3

85)

86)
cation is back bonding stabilize

87)

88)

Rate of SN2 ∝

89)

Rate of SN1 ⇒ R - I > R - Br > R - Cl > R - F

Rate of NS1 ∝ stability of cation formed after breaking C - X bond

1 ⊕
90) R.O.R for SN ∝ stability of C

(Stability of C+)
BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 87,77

92)

Deletion of a small portion of short arm of chromosomes

93)

Point mutation

94) Module Pg. # 333

95) Module Pg. # 329

96) Module Pg. # 339

97) NCERT XII, Pg. # 97

98) NCERT XII Pg. # 91

99)

OLD NCERT - XII (PAGE No. 92)

100) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 91, 289

101)

I, II, III and IV

102)

103) NCERT-XI; Page # 72

104) NCERT-XII; Page # 76

105) Haemophilic father can't transfer haemophilic gene to son because he transfer 'Y'
chromosome to his son, on which haemophilic gene is absent.

106)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 89

107) NCERT-XII Pg. # 89, 90

108) NCERT page # 90

109)

Option (1)

110)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 89-90

111) NCERT Pg. No. 89

112)

113) Ncert Page 90.

114) Reason is incorrect as Humans beings show Mendelian inheritance for many genes.
Ncert pg - 88

115)

Option : aa

116)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 88

117)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 92 (Turner Syndrome)

118)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

119)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 92

120)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 90

121)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 91-92

122)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 88

123)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 89

124)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 96

125)

Friedrich Meischer

126)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 96

127)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 96

128)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 96

129) NCERT_12_PG_100_2021-22

130) NCERT, Pg. # 96

131)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 96

132)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 90

133)

Option (4) : 1 normal : 1 Albino

134)

NCERT - XII, Page No. 91-92

 135)

NCERT - XII, Page No. 91

136) Explanation:
T-helper cells do not produce antibodies. They play a key role in stimulating B-cells to produce
antibodies, but they do not produce antibodies themselves.

The incorrect statement is: 2. T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also
stimulate B-cells to produce the same.

137)

NCERT Pg. # 136

138)

NCERT Pg # 130-133

139) NCERT Pg. 152

140) NCERT XII Pg. # 149

141)

Sporozoite

142) NCERT Pg. No. 156

143)

Primary host of plasmodium is mosquito.

144)

T F T F

145)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 150

146) Explanation :
Dry, scaly lesions with itching on skin, nails, and scalp are most likely symptoms of Ringworm.
Answer : (3)
147)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 134-135

148)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 136

149)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 135-136

150)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 133

151)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 131-132

152)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 131

153)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 131

154) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 145,148,150 (para-8.1,8.2)

155)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 131-140

156)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 138-139

157)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 158

158)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 141

 159)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 139

160) NCERT-XII, Page No. # 155

161)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 140

162)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 135

163)

A. (a) Metastasis: True for malignant tumors. They can spread to distant organs.
B. (b) Contact inhibition: False for malignant tumors. Loss of contact inhibition is a characteristic
of cancer cells.
C. (c) Uncontrolled meiosis: False. Malignant tumors exhibit uncontrolled mitosis (not meiosis).
D. (d) Malignancy: True for malignant tumors. It refers to their aggressive and invasive nature.
E. (e) Invasion: True for malignant tumors. They invade surrounding tissues.
F. (f) Oncogenic transformation: True. This refers to the transformation of normal cells into
cancerous cells.

Correct Properties of Malignant Tumors: a, d, e, f

The correct answer is : Option 2 (a, d, e, f)

164)

A: "Uncontrolled abnormal excessive mitotic cell division is cancer." This is correct. Cancer
results from uncontrolled mitotic cell division that leads to tumor formation and potential
spread. R: "Cancer is caused by x-rays." This is partially correct. While x-rays can be a
contributing factor and a known carcinogen due to their ability to cause DNA damage, they are
not the sole cause of cancer. Cancer has multiple causes, including genetic mutations, lifestyle
factors, and exposure to other carcinogens. However, R does not comprehensively explain A,
as cancer's root cause extends beyond x-rays.

The correct answer is : Option 1 (A and R are right but R is not correct explanation of
A)

165)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 141

166) NCERT Reference:

Zoology-XII Page No. 157
167) NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XII Page No. 157

168)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 138

169)

IgG, IgA (PAGE NO. 136, OUT OF NCERT)

170)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 135-136

171)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 135

172) NCERT XII, Page # 133

Many fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
responsible for ringworm which is one of the most common infectious diseases in man.

173)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 130

174)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 137

175)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 131

176)

NCERT - XII, PAGE No. 138-139

177)

NCERT Page No. # 140-141

178)
NCERT Page No. # 134-135

179)

NCERT Page No. # 138-139

180)

NCERT Page No. # 129