1.
Which component is responsible for temporarily holding data and instructions for
the CPU?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Hard Disk
D. Cache
2. Which type of network topology connects each device to a central hub?
A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Star
D. Bus
3. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for logical addressing?
A. Data Link
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
4. Which protocol is used to assign IP addresses dynamically?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. FTP
D. HTTP
5. Which of the following is not an output device?
A. Monitor
B. Printer
C. Speaker
D. Scanner
6. The process of arranging files and directories into a logical structure on a storage
device is called:
A. Formatting
B. Partitioning
C. File System Organization
D. Defragmentation
7. Which command is used to test connectivity between two network devices?
A. ipconfig
B. ping
C. tracert
D. netstat
8. Which cable type is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
A. UTP
B. STP
C. Fiber Optic
D. Coaxial
9. In a client-server network, the server mainly provides:
A. Equal access to all resources
B. Centralized services and data management
C. Peer-to-peer connections
D. Random access to data
10. Which device regenerates signals to extend network distance?
A. Hub
B. Repeater
C. Switch
D. Router
11. Which Kaizen principle directly addresses eliminating tasks that add no value to a
process?
A. Set in Order
B. Standardize
C. Sort
D. Sustain
12. In PC assembly, which step should be performed immediately before installing the
motherboard into the case?
A. Connect power supply
B. Install CPU and RAM
C. Attach external drives
D. Install operating system
13. Which tool would best identify POST errors when a monitor displays nothing?
A. CMOS battery tester
B. Debug card
C. Multimeter
D. Loopback plug
14. A technician receives a PC that powers on but has no display. The fan runs, but the
motherboard beeps three times. What is the most likely fault?
A. Hard disk failure
B. CPU overheating
C. RAM not detected
D. BIOS corruption
15. Which component is most sensitive to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage?
A. Power supply unit
B. Motherboard
C. Case fan
D. Optical drive
16. When applying the 5S method, which step ensures a process becomes a permanent
habit?
A. Shine
B. Sustain
C. Sort
D. Standardize
17. Which of the following actions would most likely prevent static discharge damage when
replacing RAM?
A. Using insulated pliers
B. Wearing an anti-static wrist strap
C. Turning off the monitor
D. Disconnecting all network cables
18. In troubleshooting, if replacing RAM resolves a boot failure, which principle of
problem-solving has been applied?
A. Root cause elimination
B. Trial-and-error
C. Preventive maintenance
D. Kaizen
19. Which BIOS setting determines which device loads the operating system first?
A. CMOS date and time
B. Boot sequence
C. Power management
D. Drive configuration
20. A PC’s CMOS battery is dead. Which of these will occur?
A. OS will fail to load
B. BIOS settings will reset
C. CPU will fail to start
D. Hard disk will be unreadable
21. In preventive maintenance, defragmentation is useful for:
A. SSD drives only
B. Hard disks
C. Optical drives
D. All storage devices
22. Which safety protocol is most critical when handling a power supply unit?
A. Disconnecting network cables
B. Discharging capacitors
C. Wearing gloves
D. Testing the RAM
23. Which type of troubleshooting method starts with the easiest and most likely solution?
A. Bottom-up
B. Top-down
C. Divide-and-conquer
D. Quick-win
24. Why is applying thermal paste between CPU and heat sink important?
A. It prevents oxidation
B. It improves heat transfer
C. It reduces power consumption
D. It prevents short circuits
25. If a motherboard is powered but not functioning, which of these should be tested last?
A. Power cables
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. PSU
26. 16. The primary purpose of POST in computer startup is to:
A. Load the operating system
B. Test essential hardware components
C. Install drivers
D. Configure BIOS settings
Unit 2: Operating Systems & Software Essentials
27. Which of the following file systems supports file permissions and encryption natively in
Windows?
A. FAT32
B. NTFS
C. exFAT
D. EXT4
28. In a dual-boot setup, the boot loader’s primary role is to:
A. Allocate disk space for each OS
B. Select and load the chosen OS
C. Install drivers for both OS
D. Format the disk partitions
29. Which Linux command is used to update package lists in Ubuntu?
A. apt-get upgrade
B. apt-get update
C. sudo install
D. package-refresh
30. When creating user accounts in Windows, the most restrictive built-in account type is:
A. Standard user
B. Administrator
C. Guest
D. Power user
31. Which Windows tool can be used to manage disk partitions without third-party
software?
A. Disk Cleanup
B. Disk Management
C. Task Manager
D. Device Manager
32. A system administrator needs to install an OS without overwriting user data. Which
installation type should they choose?
A. Clean install
B. Upgrade install
C. Dual boot
D. Repair install
33. In Ubuntu, which directory contains system configuration files?
A. /var
B. /usr
C. /etc
D. /home
34. Which boot method must be enabled in BIOS to support secure booting of modern OS
installations?
A. Legacy Boot
B. UEFI
C. Safe Boot
D. PXE Boot
35. Which Windows command-line utility can check and repair file system errors?
A. sfc
B. chkdsk
C. fixboot
D. format
36. In virtualized OS installation, which component provides hardware emulation?
A. Hypervisor
B. Guest OS
C. Host BIOS
D. Bootloader
37. When setting file permissions in Linux, a permission value of 755 means:
A. Owner: read/write, Group: read/write, Others: read/write
B. Owner: read/write/execute, Group: read/execute, Others: read/execute
C. Owner: execute only, Group: none, Others: none
D. Owner: read/write, Group: none, Others: none
38. Which process in OS installation ensures that the OS can coexist with other installed
systems without overwriting them?
A. Partitioning
B. Formatting
C. Cloning
D. Defragmentation
39. The Windows Registry is best described as:
A. A database storing hardware, software, and user configuration
B. A backup storage system
C. An executable library
D. A temporary cache
40. Which Ubuntu package manager command removes an installed application and its
configuration files?
A. apt remove
B. apt-get purge
C. uninstall
D. dpkg delete
41. During dual-boot setup, why is it recommended to install Windows before Linux?
A. Linux requires more disk space
B. Windows overwrites the bootloader if installed later
C. Linux cannot detect Windows partitions
D. Linux uses a different BIOS standard
42. Which Windows feature allows the restoration of system settings to an earlier date
without affecting personal files?
A. Backup and Restore
B. System Restore
C. Refresh PC
D. File History
Unit 3: Networking & Resource Sharing
43. Which networking device operates at both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model?
A. Hub
B. Router
C. Multilayer Switch
D. Bridge
44. Which IP address class supports up to 16 million hosts per network?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
45. In IPv4 addressing, the subnet mask 255.255.255.192 provides how many usable host
addresses?
A. 62
B. 64
C. 126
D. 128
46. Which command is used in Windows to display the MAC address of a network adapter?
A. ipconfig
B. ipconfig /all
C. netstat
D. tracert
47. In a wireless network, WPA3 improves security by:
A. Disabling encryption
B. Using stronger encryption protocols (SAE)
C. Reducing authentication time
D. Removing password protection
48. Which network topology is most fault-tolerant?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Mesh
49. Which protocol resolves domain names to IP addresses?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. HTTP
50. A network that connects computers within a single building is classified as:
A. WAN
B. MAN
C. LAN
D. PAN
51. In TCP/IP, which layer corresponds to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
A. Internet
B. Transport
C. Application
D. Link
52. Which command in Linux is used to test the path packets take to a destination?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. ifconfig
D. netstat
53. In a DHCP process, which step assigns an IP address to the client?
A. DHCPDISCOVER
B. DHCPOFFER
C. DHCPREQUEST
D. DHCPACK
54. Which protocol uses port 22 by default?
A. FTP
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. Telnet
55. A network printer can be accessed from multiple computers primarily because of:
A. Resource sharing
B. Peer-to-peer topology
C. Dedicated cabling
D. Unique IP addressing
56. Which technology allows the creation of multiple virtual networks on a single physical
switch?
A. VLAN
B. VPN
C. NAT
D. DHCP
57. Which network device breaks up collision domains but not broadcast domains?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. Hub
D. Firewall
58. The primary purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation) is to:
A. Increase internet speed
B. Convert private IP addresses to public addresses
C. Assign MAC addresses
D. Provide encryption
Unit 4: IT Entrepreneurship & Workplace Ethics
59. In a feasibility study, which analysis determines whether an IT project is financially
viable?
A. Operational feasibility
B. Technical feasibility
C. Economic feasibility
D. Legal feasibility
60. Which document outlines the long-term vision, goals, and direction of an IT enterprise?
A. Business plan
B. Cash flow statement
C. Marketing plan
D. Feasibility report
61. In an IT business, the term “bootstrapping” refers to:
A. Securing venture capital
B. Starting with minimal external funding
C. Hiring specialized staff early
D. Outsourcing all operations
62. Which pricing strategy sets a low price initially to attract customers and increase market
share?
A. Skimming
B. Penetration pricing
C. Cost-plus pricing
D. Value-based pricing
63. . A software company ensures that all products meet accessibility standards for users
with disabilities. This is an example of:
A. Legal compliance
B. Corporate greed
C. Market segmentation
D. Competitive advantage
64. Which of the following best represents ethical behavior in IT?
A. Installing software without a license to save costs
B. Using open-source software with attribution
C. Selling customer data to third parties
D. Ignoring cybersecurity policies
65. The main purpose of a SWOT analysis in IT business planning is to:
A. Identify competitors’ weaknesses
B. Assess strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats
C. Measure profit margins
D. Forecast hardware lifespans
66. Which financial statement shows a company’s profitability over a specific period?
A. Balance sheet
B. Income statement
C. Cash flow statement
D. Budget report
67. An IT enterprise that prioritizes customer privacy over aggressive marketing is applying
which ethical principle?
A. Respect for autonomy
B. Maximizing profit
C. Transparency
D. Equal access
68. In entrepreneurship, a “value proposition” refers to:
A. The legal rights to a business name
B. The unique benefit offered to customers
C. The total market size
D. The company’s profit margin
69. Which of the following is an example of corporate social responsibility (CSR) for an IT
company?
A. Donating refurbished computers to schools
B. Reducing product warranties
C. Focusing only on urban clients
D. Using proprietary software exclusively
70. In workplace ethics, “whistleblowing” refers to:
A. Reporting unethical practices within an organization
B. Negotiating business contracts
C. Advertising company services
D. Promoting team collaboration
71. Which market entry strategy involves partnering with another company to share
resources?
A. Franchising
B. Joint venture
C. Licensing
D. Exporting
72. An IT consultant signs a contract that prevents them from working with competitors for
two years. This is known as:
A. Non-compete agreement
B. Memorandum of understanding
C. Service level agreement
D. Confidentiality clause
73. In ethical decision-making, the “utilitarian” approach focuses on:
A. Following the law strictly
B. Achieving the greatest good for the greatest number
C. Protecting individual rights above all
D. Avoiding personal responsibility
74. Which of the following best represents “professional integrity” in IT?
A. Delivering promised results honestly and on time
B. Taking shortcuts to meet deadlines
C. Prioritizing profit over quality
D. Keeping all methods secret from the client
Unit 5: System Security & Protection
75. Which Windows Server role is responsible for centralized user authentication and
directory services?
A. DNS Server
B. DHCP Server
C. Active Directory Domain Services
D. File Server
76. In a firewall rule set, which rule type is evaluated first?
A. Deny rules
B. Allow rules
C. The first matching rule in sequence
D. The most recent rule added
77. Which wireless security protocol is considered obsolete due to weak encryption?
A. WPA3
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. SAE
78. Which type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software?
A. Worm
B. Trojan horse
C. Rootkit
D. Ransomware
79. In network security, the process of converting plaintext into ciphertext is called:
A. Encoding
B. Encryption
C. Hashing
D. Obfuscation
80. Which tool can be used to capture and analyze network packets?
A. Wireshark
B. Netstat
C. Ping
D. ipconfig
81. Which type of attack floods a system with requests to exhaust its resources?
A. Phishing
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Denial of Service
D. SQL Injection
82. Which Windows feature helps prevent unauthorized changes by requiring administrative
approval?
A. Windows Defender
B. BitLocker
C. User Account Control
D. Secure Boot
83. The main function of a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) in network security is to:
A. Provide internet access to internal users only
B. Host public-facing services while isolating them from the internal network
C. Block all external traffic
D. Encrypt internal communications
84. Which type of cryptographic key is used in symmetric encryption?
A. Same key for encryption and decryption
B. Different keys for encryption and decryption
C. Public key only
D. Private key only
85. In Windows Server, which command can promote a server to a domain controller?
A. netsh
B. dcpromo
C. gpupdate
D. adjoin
86. Which wireless frequency provides faster speeds but shorter range?
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 900 MHz
D. 1.2 GHz
87. Which type of firewall inspects the state of network connections before allowing traffic?
A. Packet-filtering firewall
B. Stateful inspection firewall
C. Proxy firewall
D. Application firewall
88. Which security concept ensures that data cannot be altered without detection?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication
89. Which Windows feature encrypts the entire disk to protect data at rest?
A. File History
B. BitLocker
C. Windows Defender
D. Secure Boot
90. Which cyberattack tricks users into revealing confidential information through fake
websites or emails?
A. Phishing
B. Spoofing
C. Keylogging
D. Ransomware
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. B
18. B
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. B
23. D
24. B
25. B
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. C
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. B
38. A
39. A
40. B
41. B
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. A
46. B
47. B
48. D
49. B
50. C
51. B
52. B
53. D
54. B
55. A
56. A
57. A
58. B
59. C
60. A
61. B
62. B
63. A
64. B
65. B
66. B
67. A
68. B
69. A
70. A
71. B
72. A
73. B
74. A
75. C
76. C
77. C
78. B
79. B
80. A
81. C
82. C
83. B
84. A
85. B
86. B
87. B
88. B
89. B
90. A
