*Crime and Evidence*
1. Which crime is committed when Onesimus shoots Gaius but the gun jams?
A. Homicide
B. Physical Injuries
C. Reckless Imprudence
D. Attempted murder
2. Under what condition is a photocopy of a deed of sale admissible as secondary
evidence?
A. When it is notarized.
B. When the original is unavailable in good faith and its loss is proven.
C. When presented with an affidavit.
D. When it is a certified true copy.
3. Darwin set dried leaves on fire, but it was stopped before serious damage occurred.
What is the offense?
A. Arson
B. Reckless Imprudence
C. Attempted arson
D. Malicious Mischief
4. What can be done if an RTC case proceeds without a preliminary investigation?
A. File a motion to dismiss.
B. Appeal to the Court of Appeals.
C. File a motion to quash the information.
D. File a petition for certiorari.
5. What is the crime when a person finds a lost cellphone and fails to return it?
A. Qualified theft
B. Other form of theft
C. Estafa
D. Conversion
6. What defense applies when Ronald defends his cousin from an attack?
A. Defense of relatives
B. Self-defense
C. Defense of stranger
D. Defense of property
7. What offense did Roberto commit when he destroyed a TV in anger?
A. Damage to property
B. Qualified theft
C. Arson
D. Malicious mischief
8. Why are photocopies of marked bills not admissible?
A. They are easily forged.
B. They are inadmissible due to potential authenticity questions.
C. They are not original.
D. They are considered hearsay.
9. Dely pushed Bely, who died after striking a metal object. What offense applies?
A. Praeterintentionem
B. Reckless Imprudence Resulting in Homicide
C. Homicide
D. Murder
10. What type of evidence is the ₱5,000 used in a buy-bust?
A. Object evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Real evidence
11. The photocopies of seller’s marked bills—what category of evidence are they?
A. Object evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Physical evidence
12. Gerald shot Efren with treachery, but Efren survived. What crime?
A. Frustrated murder
B. Attempted murder
C. Homicide
D. Physical Injuries
13. A house servant stole from the employer. What crime?
A. Simple theft
B. Robbery
C. Estafa
D. Qualified theft
14. Subversion is classified as a crime against which?
A. Public order
B. Public interest
C. State security
D. National security
15. Which statement is false regarding Efren shooting Mauro but hitting Peter accidentally?
A. "Efren is liable for the death of Peter."
B. “Efren’s act of shooting Mauro is unlawful.”
C. "The intent to kill Mauro is transferred to Peter."
D. "This is an example of aberratio ictus."
16. Elias punches Eddie, causing a lost tooth and incapacitation. What injury?
A. Slight physical injury
B. Less serious physical injury
C. Mutilation
D. Serious physical injury
17. What was Brent’s motive in stabbing Jeffrey?
A. Revenge
B. Jealousy
C. Greed
D. Self-defense
18. Which is not a requirement for the defense of greater evil?
A. The means used to avoid injury must be lawful.
B. The injury sought to be avoided is greater than that caused.
C. The evil is actual or imminent.
D. There is no other available means to avert the evil.
19. Dwelling and premeditation are inherent in which crime?
A. Homicide
B. Murder
C. Parricide
D. Infanticide
20. Who bears the burden of proof in self-defense?
A. The accused.
B. The prosecution.
C. The court.
D. The victim.
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*Forensic Science and Investigation*
21. Which affidavit part shows the official acted within jurisdiction?
A. Affidavit of Undertaking.
B. Signature of affiant.
C. Contents of the affidavit.
D. Jurat signature.
22. Which are competent evidence of identity per the 2004 Notarial Rules?
A. Community Tax Certificate, School ID, Library Card.
B. Employer's ID, Credit Card, ATM Card.
C. Voter’s ID, NBI clearance, driver’s license.
D. Club Membership Card, Business Card, Utility Bill.
23. Which deed provides protection against past or future title defects?
A. Quitclaim deed.
B. General warranty deed.
C. Special warranty deed.
D. Bargain and sale deed.
24. Which type of death is relevant for organ donation?
A. Clinical (somatic) death.
B. Cellular death.
C. Brain death.
D. Apparent death.
25. What stage follows death featuring muscle relaxation and pupils dilated?
A. Rigor mortis.
B. Algor mortis.
C. Livor mortis.
D. Primary flaccidity.
26. Blood pooling in the body after death is called:
A. Livor mortis (post-mortem lividity).
B. Rigor mortis.
C. Algor mortis.
D. Putrefaction.
27. What is the ligature-finger circulation test?
A. Compression test.
B. Diaphanous test.
C. Auscultation test.
D. Eye test.
28. A body in primary flaccidity after 30 minutes suggests:
A. Death occurred hours ago.
B. Death occurred recently, before rigor mortis began.
C. The body is in rigor mortis.
D. The body is in advanced decomposition.
29. First step at a potentially hazardous scene:
A. Secure the perimeter.
B. Identify the victim.
C. Collect evidence.
D. Scan for environmental dangers (sights, sounds, smells).
30. Best evidence method outdoors with one fixed point:
A. Polar coordinate method.
B. Baseline method.
C. Triangulation method.
D. Grid method.
31. Best way to file rural road accident reports:
A. By numerical route designation.
B. By date of incident.
C. By name of parties involved.
D. By type of vehicle.
32. Least useful for ventilation decision in fire:
A. Heat.
B. Smoke flow direction.
C. Smoke velocity.
D. Smoke color.
33. What is contained in the “details” section of an investigative report?
A. Narrative description of the incident.
B. Specific investigative steps taken.
C. Relationships identified during the investigation.
D. All of these.
34. Who is authorized to inform the investigator of a person’s death?
A. The attending physician.
B. The next of kin.
C. Medical Examiner.
D. The police officer on scene.
35. In ventilating a peaked roof, what should firefighters do?
A. Make openings on the leeward side.
B. Make openings at the eaves.
C. Make openings near the center of the roof.
D. Make opening on the windward side at the peak.
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*Criminology and Theories*
36. Where is the Golden Triangle in Southeast Asia?
A. Vietnam-Cambodia-Laos Borders.
B. Thailand-Burma-Laos Borders.
C. Malaysia-Indonesia-Philippines Borders.
D. China-Vietnam-Myanmar Borders.
37. What is the toughest challenge for investigators when dealing with informants?
A. Managing their expectations for payment.
B. Convincing an insider to “spill the beans.”
C. Protecting their identity.
D. Verifying the accuracy of their information.
38. What is the first event in the combustion process?
A. Ignition point.
B. Fire point.
C. Self-ignition temperature.
D. Flash point.
39. Which type of police report includes offense, offender, and victim data?
A. Uniform crime reporting.
B. Incident-based.
C. Summary reporting.
D. NIBRS.
40. What is the fundamental responsibility of an officer at a crime scene?
A. Identify witnesses.
B. Apprehend suspects.
C. Document evidence.
D. Preserve the scene in its original condition.
41. A child witnessing abuse then emulating it—what theory applies?
A. Social Learning Theory.
B. Strain Theory.
C. Control Theory.
D. Life Course Theory.
42. ‘Pink collar crime’ is associated with which theory?
A. Social Disorganization Theory.
B. Critical Feminists Theory.
C. Rational Choice Theory.
D. Labeling Theory.
43. Mitch abuses Aira because he’s jealous. Which theory applies?
A. Routine Activities Theory.
B. General Strain Theory.
C. Social Control Theory.
D. Power-Control Theory.
44. Which theory suggests that women committing more serious crimes results from
empowerment?
A. Adler’s Theory of Masculinity.
B. Liberal Feminist Theory.
C. Radical Feminist Theory.
D. Marxist Feminist Theory.
45. According to Marxist criminology, criminals typically come from which class?
A. Capitalist.
B. Working.
C. Non-productive.
D. Bourgeoisie.
46. Wilma commits theft in her job. Which theory applies?
A. Differential Association Theory.
B. Social Bond Theory.
C. Anomie Theory.
D. Opportunity Theory.
47. A female defendant more likely acquitted in abuse cases—what theory explains this?
A. Chivalry Theory.
B. Social Learning Theory.
C. Conflict Theory.
D. Feminist Theory.
48. “He’s rich—he can buy a new laptop.” Which theory does this quote illustrate?
A. Differential Association Theory.
B. Strain Theory.
C. Social Disorganization Theory.
D. Relative Deprivation Theory.
49. Which set reflects Classical Criminology?
I. Free will and rationality
II. Morality
III. Physical traits
IV. Responsibility
A. I and II.
B. II and III.
C. I, II, and III.
D. I, II, and IV.
50. What’s a professional tip regarding biases?
A. Acknowledge and embrace them.
B. Let them guide your decisions.
C. Ignore them completely.
D. Respect.
51. Rich individuals using foreign accounts to evade taxes – which model applies?
A. Economic Model of Criminal Behavior.
B. Psychological Model of Criminal Behavior.
C. Sociological Model of Criminal Behavior.
D. Biological Model of Criminal Behavior.
52. Jacob’s behavior arises from interaction of biological traits and adverse social
environment.
A. Psychological theory—crime is solely from mental defects.
B. Sociological theory—crime is solely from environmental factors.
C. Biosocial theory—crime is shaped by both biology and environment.
D. Classical theory—crime is a rational choice.
53. Which mental structure failed when keeping found money in the wallet?
A. Id.
B. Ego.
C. Super ego.
D. Conscience.
54. Pink-collar crime refers to embezzlement by female clerical workers.
A. True.
B. False.
C. These are financial crimes committed by office-based female employees.
D. It refers to crimes committed by women in traditionally male-dominated professions.
55. General Strain Theory applies when someone commits theft out of emotional stress,
such as loss.
A. True.
B. It explains crime as resulting from strain due to negative emotional experiences.
C. False, it applies to physical strain.
D. It applies to economic strain only.
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*Research and PNP Procedures*
56. Who makes the peer-review decision on a research paper?
A. The author.
B. Other scientists evaluate the study’s validity before publication.
C. The editor.
D. The publisher.
57. Which section outlines the scope and delimitations of a study?
A. Introduction.
B. Literature Review.
C. Scope and Delimitation of the Study.
D. Methodology.
58. Choosing every 20th person on a list is what sampling method?
A. Simple random sampling.
B. Systematic random sampling.
C. Stratified random sampling.
D. Cluster sampling.
59. If the cited work is a full book, what type of source is it?
A. Journal Article.
B. Chapter in a Book.
C. Book.
D. Website.
60. Discrimination based on physical appearance is explained by which theory?
A. Conflict Theory.
B. Functionalism.
C. Symbolic Interactionism.
D. Social Exchange Theory.
61. Is a 29-year-old eligible for PNP in June 2024?
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. Only if they have previous law enforcement experience.
D. Only if they are a college graduate.
62. What should DENR environmental officers do for legal compliance?
A. Consult with the local police station.
B. Coordinate with DENR Legal Division for proper filing procedures.
C. File directly with the court.
D. Seek advice from private lawyers.
63. What assesses risks before security planning?
A. Threat assessment.
B. Vulnerability assessment.
C. Risk analysis.
D. Security survey.
64. Which offense with ≤15-day penalty falls under Chief of Police jurisdiction?
A. Felonies.
B. Summonsable offenses punishable by up to 15 days.
C. Misdemeanors punishable by more than 15 days.
D. All offenses.
65. Susceptibility to attack or damage refers to what?
A. Threat.
B. Vulnerability.
C. Risk.
D. Hazard.
66. Theory emphasizing community partnership in policing?
A. Broken Windows Theory.
B. Community Policing Theory.
C. Zero Tolerance Policing.
D. Problem-Oriented Policing.
67. Which agencies work under the Anti-Agricultural Economic Sabotage Enforcement
Group?
I. DA
II. DTI
III. DILG
IV. DOJ
V. Bureau of Customs
A. I, II, III, and IV.
B. I, II, III, and V.
C. I, III, IV, and V.
D. All of the above.
68. What blotter is used for CICL (Children in Conflict with the Law)?
A. Blue blotter.
B. Green blotter.
C. Pink blotter.
D. Yellow blotter.
69. What notice type is issued for missing/unidentified persons?
A. Red notice.
B. Green notice.
C. Blue notice.
D. Yellow notice.
70. Who governs Cambodian National Police?
A. Department/Ministry of Home Affairs.
B. Ministry of Justice.
C. Prime Minister's Office.
D. Ministry of Defense.
71. What’s the highest rank in UK police?
A. Commissioner.
B. Chief Constable.
C. Superintendent.
D. Chief Inspector.
72. What is 1817 ÷ 3990 × 100?
A. 45.54%.
B. 54.46%.
C. 21.98%.
D. 78.02%.
73. When is pre-deployment briefing conducted?
A. After operations, for debriefing.
B. Before operations, when CPA/ECP are analyzed.
C. During operations, as a real-time update.
D. Only for major operations.
74. What board handles appeals from PLEB decisions?
A. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM).
B. Internal Affairs Service (IAS).
C. Disciplinary Appellate Board.
D. Civil Service Commission (CSC).
75. Who can summarily dismiss PNP personnel?
A. Chief, PNP only.
B. Regional Director only.
C. Chief, PNP and Regional Director.
D. President of the Philippines.
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*Forensic Examination and Corrections*
76. Which is prohibited in polygraph examination?
A. Explaining the procedure to the subject.
B. Using polygraph as props or trickery.
C. Asking relevant questions.
D. Obtaining consent from the subject.
77. What tracing pattern is common in fingerprint whorl classification?
A. Inner.
B. Meeting.
C. Outer.
D. Diverging.
78. Which fingerprint patterns are used in the Henry Classification System?
A. Arches and Loops.
B. Loops and Whorls.
C. Arches and Whorls.
D. Whorl patterns.
79. What is Level 1 fingerprint analysis?
A. Microscopic examination of ridge details.
B. Identify pattern type and ridge flow.
C. Identification of minutiae.
D. Comparison with known prints.
80. What is Level 3 fingerprint analysis?
A. Overall pattern recognition.
B. Minutiae location and orientation.
C. Fine details: sweat pores, ridge shapes, done under magnification.
D. Comparison and individualization.
81. What is the goal of firearms identification?
A. To determine the type of firearm used.
B. To link shell casings with a specific gun.
C. To identify the shooter.
D. To determine the caliber of the bullet.
82. Where are bullet identification marks typically placed?
A. Tip.
B. Base.
C. Ogive.
D. Bearing surface.
83. Caliber refers to what?
A. The length of the bullet.
B. The weight of the bullet.
C. The amount of powder in the cartridge.
D. Diameter of the bore of its barrel.
84. What’s used for reading obliterated writings?
A. Infra-red rays.
B. Ultraviolet light.
C. X-rays.
D. Oblique light.
85. Which statement about flash photography is false?
A. It provides illumination in dark scenes.
B. Mult-point lighting better mirrors flash use.
C. It can reduce shadows.
D. It can reveal details not visible to the naked eye.
86. One of the tented arch fingerprint types is?
A. Plain arch.
B. Angle type.
C. Loop.
D. Whorl.
87. What’s the most common issue in questioned document examination?
A. Authorship.
B. Forgery detection.
C. Alteration detection.
D. Dating of documents.
88. How many photo angles are standard for evidence shooting?
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Four.
D. Three (overall, medium, close-up).
89. What tool uses aniline dye + graphite marking?
A. Ballpoint pen.
B. Fountain pen.
C. Copy pencil.
D. Lead pencil.
90. What refers to characters leaning improperly in handwriting?
A. Slant.
B. Off-its-feet.
C. Alignment.
D. Spacing.
91. Which is an exception for personnel-inmate gift exchange?
A. Giving gifts to inmates for good behavior.
B. Inmates giving gifts to personnel during holidays.
C. Giving or selling to jail personnel is not allowed (it is an exception).
D. Personnel selling items to inmates.
92. Which team oversees learning and resident participation?
A. Medical Team.
B. Security Team.
C. Management Team.
D. Expediting Team.
93. RDC stay limit under BUCOR rules?
A. 30 days.
B. 60 days.
C. 90 days.
D. 120 days.
94. Which professional isn’t a case manager?
A. Nurse.
B. Social Worker.
C. Psychologist.
D. Counselor.
95. What is a non-punitive callout?
A. Disciplinary action.
B. Sanction.
C. Warning.
D. Pull-up.
96. Which term describes a serious infraction response?
A. Noted.
B. Dealt with.
C. Ignored.
D. Dismissed.
97. Which department is typically excluded from TCMP?
A. Business Office Department.
B. Clinical Department.
C. Security Department.
D. Education Department.
98. What’s a main goal of prison resident programs?
A. To punish residents.
B. Foster empowerment and self-sufficiency.
C. To maintain order.
D. To reduce recidivism.
99. Who monitors seminar participation?
A. Coordinator.
B. Speaker.
C. Assistant.
D. Guest.
100. What is a session where peer support and confrontation occur?
A. Individual counseling.
B. Group therapy.
C. General meeting.
D. Family session.
