MCQ – 3

1. Which of the following laws was amended by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A. IPC
B. CPC
C. Evidence Act
D. Family Courts Act
Answer: A
2. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 regulates:
A. Cybercrime enforcement
B. Personal data processing
C. Freedom of expression
D. Public safety communication
Answer: B
3. Which body recommends legal reforms in India?
A. Supreme Court
B. Law Commission of India
C. Parliament
D. Bar Council
Answer: B
4. Which new criminal law code replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
B. Nyaya Praman Adhiniyam, 2023
C. Digital Evidence Act, 2023
D. None of the above
Answer: A
5. The term “decriminalization” in recent legal reforms refers to:
A. Making all crimes bailable
B. Removing imprisonment for certain offenses
C. Eliminating the death penalty
D. All of the above
Answer: B
6. A key objective of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is:
A. Protecting consumer rights
B. Replacing CrPC
C. Judicial appointments
D. Amending land laws
Answer: B
7. Which sector saw increased regulation through the Consumer Protection (E-
Commerce) Rules?
A. Real estate
B. Aviation
 C. Online retail
D. Banking
Answer: C
8. In 2022, the Supreme Court recognized marital rape as:
A. A punishable offense
B. Not recognized under Indian law
C. A civil wrong
D. Under consideration by the legislature
Answer: B
9. Which law deals with regulation of crypto currency in India?
A. Crypto Regulation Act, 2023
B. SEBI Guidelines, 2021
C. There is no specific law yet
D. Digital India Act
Answer: C
10. The Mediation Act, 2023 aims to:
A. Ban private mediation
B. Promote out-of-court settlement
C. Replace arbitration
D. Only apply to criminal cases
Answer: B
11. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 25
Answer: A
12. Fundamental Duties are mentioned in:
A. Part III
B. Part IV
C. Part IVA
D. Part VI
Answer: C
13. Which of the following is not a writ under Article 32?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Certiorari
C. Injunction
D. Mandamus
Answer: C
14. The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A. 15 August 1947
B. 26 January 1950
C. 26 November 1949
 D. 2 October 1949
Answer: C
15. The basic structure doctrine was laid down in:
A. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: B
16. The Preamble declares India as:
A. Sovereign, Democratic, Secular State
B. Socialist, Sovereign, Republic
C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
D. Federal, Socialist, Republic
Answer: C
17. Which Schedule lists the distribution of powers between Union and States?
A. Third Schedule
B. Seventh Schedule
C. Ninth Schedule
D. Tenth Schedule
Answer: B
18. Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees:
A. Right to speech
B. Right to equality
C. Right to life and personal liberty
D. Right to religion
Answer: C
19. Directive Principles of State Policy are:
A. Justiciable
B. Enforceable in court
C. Non-justiciable
D. Personal duties
Answer: C
20. The Emergency provisions are in:
A. Part XVIII
B. Part XVI
C. Part IX
D. Part XXI
Answer: A
21. The Right to Education is a part of:
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21A
 D. Article 23
Answer: C
22. Which body resolves disputes between states?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Supreme Court
C. President
D. High Court
Answer: B
23. The Tenth Schedule is related to:
A. Languages
B. Panchayats
C. Anti-defection law
D. Finance Commission
Answer: C
24. Amendment of the Constitution is dealt under:
A. Article 368
B. Article 352
C. Article 14
D. Article 19
Answer: A
25. "Secularism" was added to the Preamble by:
A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 52nd Amendment
Answer: B
26. Tort is a breach of:
A. Contractual obligation
B. Duty imposed by law
C. Statutory duty
D. All of the above
Answer: B
27. Which of the following is a general defense in tort?
A. Battery
B. Negligence
C. Volenti non fit injuria
D. Trespass
Answer: C
28. Defamation is:
A. A crime only
B. A tort only
C. Both tort and crime
 D. Neither a tort nor a crime
Answer: C
29. Nuisance may be:
A. Public
B. Private
C. Both A and B
D. Only criminal
Answer: C
30. Which case laid the foundation for negligence?
A. Donoghue v. Stevenson
B. Rylands v. Fletcher
C. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
D. Ashby v. White
Answer: A
31. “Strict liability” was established in which case?
A. Donoghue v. Stevenson
B. Rylands v. Fletcher
C. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
D. Rudul Sah v. State of Bihar
Answer: B
32. Which of the following is not a tort?
A. Assault
B. Defamation
C. Trespass
D. Breach of contract
Answer: D
33. In tort, damages are:
A. Punitive only
B. Always criminal
C. Monetary compensation
D. Not awarded
Answer: C
34. Res ipsa loquitur means:
A. Let the buyer beware
B. The act speaks for itself
C. Ignorance of law is no excuse
D. Let the thing perish
Answer: B
35. Trespass to land includes:
A. Entry without permission
B. Causing indirect harm
C. Breach of contract
 D. Slander
Answer: A
36. Malicious prosecution is a tort that protects:
A. Freedom of expression
B. Personal liberty
C. Property
D. Privacy
Answer: B
37. Absolute liability was evolved in:
A. Rylands v. Fletcher
B. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. Donoghue v. Stevenson
Answer: B
38. Which tort is committed when someone falsely imprisons another?
A. Battery
B. Defamation
C. False imprisonment
D. Nuisance
Answer: C
39. Which defense is not valid in tort law?
A. Inevitable accident
B. Consent
C. Statutory authority
D. Mistake
Answer: D
40. A tort must result in:
A. Breach of contract
B. Legal injury
C. Political protest
D. Statutory violation
Answer: B
41. Which of the following is a bailable offense?
A. Murder
B. Rape
C. Public nuisance
D. Dowry death
Answer: C
42. Mens rea means:
A. Guilty mind
B. Guilty act
C. Moral wrong
 D. Legal wrong
Answer: A
43. Which of the following is a compoundable offense?
A. Murder
B. Rape
C. Hurt
D. Dacoity
Answer: C
44. Culpable homicide is:
A. Always murder
B. Not always murder
C. A bailable offense
D. Only a civil wrong
Answer: B
45. "Actus Reus" refers to:
A. Guilty intent
B. Guilty act
C. Legal defense
D. Acquittal
Answer: B
46. FIR stands for:
A. First Investigation Report
B. First Intelligence Record
C. First Information Report
D. Fast Investigation Record
Answer: C
47. In 2023, which Chief Justice of India retired?
A. Ranjan Gogoi
B. D.Y. Chandrachud
C. N.V. Ramana
D. U.U. Lalit
Answer: D
48. The Uniform Civil Code draft was proposed recently by:
A. Kerala
B. Gujarat
C. Uttarakhand
D. Maharashtra
Answer: C
49. Which judgment declared the electoral bonds unconstitutional in 2024?
A. Common Cause v. Union of India
B. PUCL v. Union of India
C. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India
 D. ADR v. EC
Answer: C
50. The Vishaka Guidelines were replaced by:
A. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013
B. POCSO Act
C. Maternity Benefit Act
D. Equal Remuneration Act
Answer: A
51. Who is the current (2025) Chief Justice of India?
A. N.V. Ramana
B. U.U. Lalit
C. D.Y. Chandrachud
D. Sanjiv Khanna
Answer: D
52. The 2023 SC ruling on same-sex marriage:
A. Legalized it
B. Criminalized it again
C. Left it to Parliament
D. Struck down Article 15
Answer: C
53. The Digital India Act is proposed to replace:
A. IT Act, 2000
B. RTI Act
C. Data Protection Bill
D. Cybersecurity Policy
Answer: A
54. In 2023, the SC declared which practice unconstitutional?
A. Electoral bonds
B. CAA
C. Triple talaq
D. Section 377
Answer: A
55. FASTag-related penalty rules are enforced under:
A. Motor Vehicles Act
B. Traffic Regulation Rules
C. National Highways Fee Rules
D. Public Safety Act
Answer: C
56. Which state declared internet access a legal right in 2024?
A. Kerala
B. Karnataka
C. Tamil Nadu
 D. Delhi
Answer: A
57. Lok Adalats are governed under:
A. Arbitration Act
B. Legal Services Authorities Act
C. CPC
D. Mediation Act
Answer: B
58. Who was appointed as India’s first woman judge in ICJ in 2023?
A. Justice Indu Malhotra
B. Justice B.V. Nagarathna
C. Justice Gita Mittal
D. Justice Rajiv Shakdher
Answer: C
59. Which court struck down the remission of Bilkis Bano’s convicts?
A. Gujarat High Court
B. Supreme Court
C. Bombay High Court
D. Allahabad High Court
Answer: B
60. In which year was the POCSO Act enacted?
A. 2009
B. 2012
C. 2015
D. 2020
Answer: B