1.

Engine Types

Q1. Which type of engine is most commonly used in commercial jet airliners for fuel
efficiency?

• a) Piston engine
• b) Turbofan engine
• c) Turbojet engine
• d) Turboprop engine
Answer: b) Turbofan engine

Q2. What is the primary advantage of a turboprop engine compared to a turbofan engine?

• a) better performance at high speeds

• b) better performance at high altitudes
• c) Higher efficiency at low speeds and altitudes
• d) Increased thrust for military applications
Answer: c) Higher efficiency at low speeds and altitudes

Q3. Which of the following is a feature of a turbojet engine?

• a) High bypass ratio

• b) Uses a propeller for thrust
• c) Operates at subsonic speeds
• d) Primarily used in supersonic aircraft
Answer: d) Primarily used in supersonic aircraft

2. Aircraft Models and their Engines

Q4. The Boeing 777 is powered by which engine model?

• a) GE90-115B
• b) Pratt & Whitney F119
• c) Rolls-Royce Trent 1000
• d) CF34-10
Answer: a) GE90-115B

Q5. Which engine powers the Airbus A320neo?

• a) PW1000G
• b) GE9X
• c) CFM LEAP-1A
• d) Trent XWB
Answer: c) CFM LEAP-1A
Q6. The F-22 Raptor is powered by which type of engine?

• a) Pratt & Whitney F119-PW-100

• b) Rolls-Royce Adour
• c) GE J79
• d) Allison T58
Answer: a) Pratt & Whitney F119-PW-100

3. Propulsion Technologies

Q7. The ZeroAvia HyFlyer aircraft uses what type of propulsion system?

• a) Hydrogen fuel cell engine

• b) Turboprop engine
• c) Electric battery engine
• d) Hybrid-electric engine
Answer: a) Hydrogen fuel cell engine

Q8. What is a key feature of scramjet propulsion?

• a) Operates at supersonic speeds

• b) Utilizes traditional jet fuel
• c) Only used for short-range flights
• d) Uses a rotating turbine
Answer: a) Operates at supersonic speeds

Q9. Which of the following is a challenge of electric propulsion in aviation?

• a) High energy density of batteries

• b) Long-range capabilities with existing technology
• c) Efficient cooling of engines
• d) Shorter flight duration compared to conventional engines
Answer: b) Long-range capabilities with existing technology

4. Historical Aircraft and Propulsion

Q10. The Wright Flyer used what kind of engine?

• a) Piston engine
• b) Electric engine
• c) Jet engine
• d) Turboprop engine
Answer: a) Piston engine
Q11. Which engine powered the Lockheed SR-71 Blackbird?

• a) Pratt & Whitney J58

• b) Rolls-Royce Olympus
• c) General Electric J79
• d) Pratt & Whitney F119
Answer: a) Pratt & Whitney J58

Q12. The Concorde was powered by which of the following engines?

• a) Rolls-Royce Olympus 593

• b) GE90-115B
• c) Pratt & Whitney JT8D
• d) Trent 1000
Answer: a) Rolls-Royce Olympus 593

5. Military Aircraft Engines

Q13. The Eurofighter Typhoon is powered by which engine?

• a) Eurojet EJ200
• b) Rolls-Royce RB199
• c) Pratt & Whitney F119
• d) General Electric F404
Answer: a) Eurojet EJ200

Q14. Which engine powers the F-16 Fighting Falcon?

• a) Pratt & Whitney F100-PW-229

• b) Rolls-Royce Spey
• c) General Electric J79
• d) Pratt & Whitney J58
Answer: a) Pratt & Whitney F100-PW-229

Q15. The F-35 Lightning II uses which propulsion system?

• a) Pratt & Whitney F135

• b) Rolls-Royce Adour
• c) General Electric F110
• d) Allison T56
Answer: a) Pratt & Whitney F135
6. Spacecraft Propulsion

Q16. The RS-25 rocket engine was used in which spacecraft?

• a) Space Shuttle
• b) Apollo Lunar Module
• c) SpaceX Dragon
• d) Soyuz Rocket
Answer: a) Space Shuttle

Q17. Which spacecraft used the Raptor engine for its propulsion system?

• a) Starship (SpaceX)
• b) Saturn V Rocket
• c) Mars Rover
• d) Lunar Module
Answer: a) Starship (SpaceX)

Q18. Which of the following is a feature of Hall Effect Thrusters?

• a) Used in satellite propulsion

• b) Operates with conventional jet fuel
• c) Primarily for subsonic flight
• d) Based on the combustion of liquid hydrogen
Answer: a) Used in satellite propulsion

7. Emerging Propulsion Systems

Q19. The Lilium Jet is powered by which type of propulsion system?

• a) Hydrogen fuel cell engine

• b) Electric propulsion system
• c) Gas turbine engine
• d) Scramjet engine
Answer: b) Electric propulsion system

Q20. What is a key advantage of hybrid-electric propulsion in aviation?

• a) Increased thrust
• b) Reduced noise and emissions
• c) Improved fuel efficiency at high speeds
• d) Easier integration with traditional aircraft
Answer: b) Reduced noise and emissions
8. Hybrid and Electric Aviation Concepts

Q21. The E-Fan X program was developed by which company?

• a) Boeing
• b) Airbus
• c) Lockheed Martin
• d) General Electric
Answer: b) Airbus

Q22. Which aircraft is an example of electric-powered regional aviation?

• a) ZeroAvia HyFlyer
• b) Eviation Alice
• c) Boeing 787 Dreamliner
• d) Airbus A350
Answer: b) Eviation Alice

Q23. What is the primary benefit of using hydrogen fuel cells in aircraft?

• a) Longer flight duration

• b) Reduced fuel consumption
• c) Zero emissions during operation
• d) Increased engine thrust
Answer: c) Zero emissions during operation

9. Technological Innovations in Aircraft Engines

Q24. The CFM LEAP-1A is known for its:

• a) High bypass ratio

• b) Low pressure turbine
• c) Low fuel consumption and higher efficiency
• d) Use of kerosene for propulsion
Answer: c) Low fuel consumption and higher efficiency

Q25. Which engine technology is used to reduce the noise levels in modern aircraft?

• a) Variable fan blade technology

• b) High-temperature resistant alloys
• c) Turbojet engine configurations
• d) Gas turbine compressors
Answer: a) Variable fan blade technology
Q26. Ceramic Matrix Composites (CMCs) are used in which part of an aircraft engine?

• a) Fan blades
• b) Combustion chamber
• c) Engine nacelle
• d) Exhaust nozzles
Answer: b) Combustion chamber

1. Engine Types (Continued)

Q27. A turbojet engine is most efficient at which flight condition?

• a) Subsonic flight
• b) Supersonic flight
• c) Low altitudes
• d) During takeoff and landing
Answer: b) Supersonic flight

Q28. In a turbofan engine, the bypass ratio refers to:

• a) The ratio of fuel consumption to engine power

• b) The amount of air bypassing the core engine to provide thrust
• c) The number of turbine stages in the engine
• d) The thrust-to-weight ratio of the engine
Answer: b) The amount of air bypassing the core engine to provide thrust

Q29. The turboprop engine is most commonly used in which type of aircraft?

• a) Commercial airliners
• b) Cargo planes
• c) High-speed jets
• d) Small, regional aircraft
Answer: d) Small, regional aircraft

Q30. Which engine type is used primarily in unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) for long
endurance?

• a) Piston engine
• b) Turbojet engine
• c) Turboprop engine
• d) Electric engine
Answer: c) Turboprop engine
2. Aircraft Models and their Engines (Continued)

Q31. The Boeing 737 Max is powered by which engine model?

• a) CFM LEAP-1B
• b) Pratt & Whitney PW1000G
• c) Rolls-Royce Trent 7000
• d) GE90
Answer: a) CFM LEAP-1B

Q32. The Lockheed C-130 Hercules uses which of the following engines?

• a) Rolls-Royce T56
• b) Pratt & Whitney F119
• c) Turbomeca Arriel
• d) General Electric F404
Answer: a) Rolls-Royce T56

Q33. Which of the following aircraft uses Pratt & Whitney PW4000 engines?

• a) Boeing 747-8
• b) Airbus A320
• c) Boeing 767
• d) Lockheed Martin F-22
Answer: c) Boeing 767

Q34. The A380 is powered by which engine options?

• a) Rolls-Royce Trent 900 or Engine Alliance GP7200

• b) Pratt & Whitney JT9D
• c) CFM56
• d) General Electric CF6-80E1
Answer: a) Rolls-Royce Trent 900 or Engine Alliance GP7200

3. Propulsion Technologies (Continued)

Q35. A scramjet engine operates most efficiently at what type of speeds?

• a) Subsonic speeds
• b) Supersonic speeds
• c) Hypersonic speeds
• d) Transonic speeds
Answer: c) Hypersonic speeds
Q36. The NASA X-43A experimental aircraft used which type of propulsion?

• a) Scramjet
• b) Turbofan
• c) Rocket engine
• d) Ramjet
Answer: a) Scramjet

Q37. What is the primary advantage of hydrogen fuel cell propulsion in aviation?

• a) High energy density

• b) Zero emissions during flight
• c) Longer operational range
• d) Better fuel efficiency than conventional engines
Answer: b) Zero emissions during flight

Q38. The Virgin Galactic SpaceShipTwo uses which type of engine for its propulsion?

• a) Liquid rocket engine

• b) Hybrid rocket engine
• c) Jet turbine engine
• d) Electric ion engine
Answer: b) Hybrid rocket engine

4. Historical Aircraft and Propulsion (Continued)

Q39. The First World War saw widespread use of which type of engine in fighter aircraft?

• a) Rotary engine
• b) Turbofan engine
• c) Turbojet engine
• d) Electric engine
Answer: a) Rotary engine

Q40. Which aircraft was the first to use a jet engine for propulsion?

• a) Heinkel He 178
• b) Boeing 707
• c) Lockheed Constellation
• d) Messerschmitt Bf 109
Answer: a) Heinkel He 178
Q41. The Concorde supersonic airliner used engines from which manufacturer?

• a) Rolls-Royce
• b) Pratt & Whitney
• c) General Electric
• d) BMW Rolls-Royce
Answer: a) Rolls-Royce

5. Military Aircraft Engines (Continued)

Q42. The Lockheed Martin F-35 Lightning II uses the Pratt & Whitney F135 engine, which
is a derivative of which previous engine model?

• a) F119
• b) J58
• c) F100
• d) F404
Answer: a) F119

Q43. The McDonnell Douglas F-15E Strike Eagle uses which engine?

• a) Pratt & Whitney F100-PW-229

• b) Rolls-Royce RB199
• c) General Electric F110-GE-129
• d) F135
Answer: c) General Electric F110-GE-129

Q44. Which of the following aircraft uses the General Electric F414 engine?

• a) F/A-18 Super Hornet

• b) F-16 Fighting Falcon
• c) Eurofighter Typhoon
• d) F-35 Lightning II
Answer: a) F/A-18 Super Hornet

6. Spacecraft Propulsion (Continued)

Q45. The Mars Curiosity Rover used which type of propulsion system?

• a) Nuclear-powered thermoelectric generator

• b) Chemical rocket propulsion
• c) Solar-powered ion engine
• d) Hybrid rocket engine
Answer: a) Nuclear-powered thermoelectric generator
Q46. The RS-68 engine is used in which spacecraft?

• a) Delta IV Rocket
• b) Soyuz Rocket
• c) Saturn V Rocket
• d) Falcon Heavy
Answer: a) Delta IV Rocket

Q47. What is the key advantage of using ion thrusters in space propulsion?

• a) High thrust-to-weight ratio

• b) Ability to operate for long durations with high efficiency
• c) Cheap manufacturing cost
• d) Low complexity
Answer: b) Ability to operate for long durations with high efficiency

7. Emerging Propulsion Systems (Continued)

Q48. The Lilium Jet uses electric propulsion with vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL)
capability, making it an example of:

• a) Conventional airliner technology

• b) Electric vertical take-off and landing (eVTOL) technology
• c) Hybrid jet technology
• d) Hypersonic air travel
Answer: b) Electric vertical take-off and landing (eVTOL) technology

Q49. The Urban Aeronautics CityHawk aircraft is an example of which type of propulsion?

• a) Hydrogen fuel cell

• b) Turbofan engine
• c) Electric propulsion
• d) Hybrid-electric VTOL
Answer: d) Hybrid-electric VTOL

8. Hybrid and Electric Aviation Concepts (Continued)

Q50. The Alice Aircraft is an all-electric aircraft designed by which company?

• a) Eviation Aircraft
• b) Boeing
• c) Airbus
• d) Embraer
Answer: a) Eviation Aircraft
Q51. What is a key challenge faced by electric aviation in terms of propulsion systems?

• a) High weight of batteries

• b) Limited thrust capabilities
• c) Excessive heat generation
• d) Fuel inefficiency
Answer: a) High weight of batteries

9. Technological Innovations in Aircraft Engines (Continued)

Q52. The LEAP-X engine technology, which features a ceramic matrix composite fan blade, is
developed by which manufacturer?

• a) General Electric
• b) Rolls-Royce
• c) Pratt & Whitney
• d) Honeywell
Answer: a) General Electric

1. Engine Types (Continued)

Q53. Which engine type is typically used in helicopters for vertical lift and hovering?

• a) Turbofan engine
• b) Piston engine
• c) Turboshaft engine
• d) Electric motor
Answer: c) Turboshaft engine

Q54. A turbofan engine generally has a higher bypass ratio compared to which engine type?

• a) Turbojet engine
• b) Piston engine
• c) Turboprop engine
• d) Scramjet engine
Answer: a) Turbojet engine

Q55. Which of the following engine types is most suited for high-speed supersonic flights?

• a) Turbofan engine
• b) Turbojet engine
• c) Turboprop engine
• d) Piston engine
Answer: b) Turbojet engine
Q56. A turboprop engine is more efficient than a turbofan engine at what flight condition?

• a) At very high altitudes

• b) At high speeds
• c) At low altitudes and slow speeds
• d) During supersonic speeds
Answer: c) At low altitudes and slow speeds

2. Aircraft Models and their Engines (Continued)

Q57. The Cessna 172, one of the most popular training aircraft, uses which engine type?

• a) Turboprop engine
• b) Piston engine
• c) Jet engine
• d) Turbofan engine
Answer: b) Piston engine

Q58. The Boeing 787 Dreamliner uses which of the following engine options?

• a) Rolls-Royce Trent 1000

• b) Pratt & Whitney GTF
• c) General Electric CF6-80
• d) CFM LEAP-1A
Answer: a) Rolls-Royce Trent 1000

Q59. The Douglas DC-3 is powered by which engine type?

• a) Turbofan engine
• b) Piston engine
• c) Turbojet engine
• d) Electric motor
Answer: b) Piston engine

Q60. Which engine powers the Boeing 747-400?

• a) Rolls-Royce RB211
• b) Pratt & Whitney JT9D
• c) CFM56
• d) General Electric CF6
Answer: b) Pratt & Whitney JT9D
3. Propulsion Technologies (Continued)

Q61. Which propulsion system is used in the NASA X-15 for hypersonic flight?

• a) Rocket engine
• b) Scramjet engine
• c) Turbojet engine
• d) Ion engine
Answer: a) Rocket engine

Q62. The SST (Supersonic Transport) uses which type of propulsion system?

• a) Turbofan engines
• b) Turbojet engines
• c) Rocket engines
• d) Electric engines
Answer: b) Turbojet engines

Q63. The Ion thruster propulsion system is primarily used in what type of spacecraft?

• a) Manned space missions

• b) Mars exploration missions
• c) Satellite station-keeping and deep space missions
• d) Reusable space shuttles
Answer: c) Satellite station-keeping and deep space missions

Q64. Which of the following is the primary challenge of electric propulsion in aviation?

• a) Insufficient fuel capacity

• b) Low power-to-weight ratio of batteries
• c) Complex turbine systems
• d) Fuel inefficiency
Answer: b) Low power-to-weight ratio of batteries

4. Historical Aircraft and Propulsion (Continued)

Q65. The B-17 Flying Fortress was powered by which type of engine?

• a) Radial piston engine

• b) Turbojet engine
• c) Turboprop engine
• d) Turboshaft engine
Answer: a) Radial piston engine
Q66. Which aircraft was the first to fly across the Atlantic Ocean nonstop?

• a) The Spirit of St. Louis

• b) The Wright Flyer
• c) Boeing 707
• d) Lockheed Constellation
Answer: a) The Spirit of St. Louis

Q67. The Boeing 747 is considered a milestone in civil aviation due to its use of which engine
type?

• a) Turbojet engine
• b) Turbofan engine
• c) Piston engine
• d) Turboprop engine
Answer: b) Turbofan engine

5. Military Aircraft Engines (Continued)

Q68. The F-22 Raptor features which advanced engine technology for superior performance?

• a) Stealth technology
• b) Vectoring nozzles
• c) Turbojet engines
• d) Electrostatic propulsion
Answer: b) Vectoring nozzles

Q69. Which engine is used in the B-2 Spirit Bomber?

• a) Pratt & Whitney F119

• b) Rolls-Royce RB199
• c) General Electric F118-GE-100
• d) Turbojet engines
Answer: c) General Electric F118-GE-100

Q70. Which of the following is a feature of the F-35 Lightning II's engine?

• a) Single-stage turbine
• b) Integrated lift fan for vertical flight
• c) Dual turbofan engines
• d) Combustion chamber using hydrogen fuel
Answer: b) Integrated lift fan for vertical flight
6. Spacecraft Propulsion (Continued)

Q71. The Saturn V rocket used F-1 engines designed by which manufacturer?

• a) Rocketdyne
• b) Rolls-Royce
• c) General Electric
• d) Pratt & Whitney
Answer: a) Rocketdyne

Q72. The SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket is powered by which engine?

• a) Merlin engines
• b) RS-25 engines
• c) RD-180 engines
• d) F-1 engines
Answer: a) Merlin engines

Q73. The Apollo Lunar Module was powered by which propulsion system?

• a) Solid rocket motors

• b) Liquid bipropellant engine
• c) Ion thruster
• d) Hybrid propulsion system
Answer: b) Liquid bipropellant engine

7. Emerging Propulsion Systems (Continued)

Q74. The E-VTOL aircraft concept is primarily designed for what purpose?

• a) Military defense operations

• b) Civilian transportation in urban environments
• c) Long-distance cargo flights
• d) High-altitude reconnaissance
Answer: b) Civilian transportation in urban environments

Q75. The Urban Aeronautics CityHawk is an example of a hybrid-electric VTOL that is

designed to operate in which environment?

• a) Low-altitude space exploration

• b) Urban air mobility
• c) Submarine operations
• d) Long-range commercial flights
Answer: b) Urban air mobility
8. Hybrid and Electric Aviation Concepts (Continued)

Q76. Eviation Aircraft's Alice aircraft is an all-electric airplane designed for what purpose?

• a) Commercial airliners
• b) Short-range regional flights
• c) Cargo transportation
• d) Military operations
Answer: b) Short-range regional flights

Q77. Which propulsion system is used in the E-Fan X aircraft program developed by Airbus?

• a) Hybrid-electric propulsion
• b) Hydrogen fuel cell propulsion
• c) Turboprop engines
• d) Scramjet engines
Answer: a) Hybrid-electric propulsion

9. Technological Innovations in Aircraft Engines (Continued)

Q78. Ceramic Matrix Composites (CMCs) are used to reduce the weight of which component
in an aircraft engine?

• a) Turbine blades
• b) Engine nacelle
• c) Engine fan blades
• d) Combustion chamber lining
Answer: a) Turbine blades

Q79. The LEAP-1A engine, developed by General Electric, features which type of advanced
technology to improve fuel efficiency?

• a) Hybrid-electric systems
• b) High bypass ratio and advanced materials
• c) Jet fuel made from bio-sources
• d) Increased turbine shaft power
Answer: b) High bypass ratio and advanced materials

10. Aircraft Systems and Components

Q80. What is the primary function of an aircraft's ailerons?

• a) Control the pitch of the aircraft

• b) Control the roll of the aircraft
• c) Control the yaw of the aircraft
 • d) Control the altitude of the aircraft
Answer: b) Control the roll of the aircraft

Q81. Which system is responsible for maintaining the aircraft's pressure in the cabin during
flight?

• a) Hydraulic system
• b) Pneumatic system
• c) Environmental control system
• d) Fuel system
Answer: c) Environmental control system

Q82. In modern commercial jets, which of the following systems is typically used for anti-
icing?

• a) De-icing boots
• b) Heat exchangers
• c) Electrothermal system
• d) Electrostatic precipitation system
Answer: a) De-icing boots

Q83. What does the autopilot system control in an aircraft?

• a) Only the throttle

• b) Aircraft’s flight path and altitude
• c) Only the landing gear
• d) Aircraft speed
Answer: b) Aircraft’s flight path and altitude

11. Aircraft Flight Dynamics

Q84. The center of gravity (CG) is important in determining which of the following?

• a) The aircraft's speed

• b) The aircraft's ability to take off
• c) The aircraft’s stability and control
• d) The aircraft's fuel efficiency
Answer: c) The aircraft’s stability and control

Q85. Which of the following aircraft parts is primarily used to control the yawing motion of the
aircraft?

• a) Ailerons
• b) Rudder
• c) Elevators
 • d) Flaps
Answer: b) Rudder

Q86. What does the angle of attack refer to in the context of flight dynamics?

• a) The angle between the aircraft's wings and the ground

• b) The angle between the aircraft's nose and the flight path
• c) The angle between the aircraft's engines and the fuselage
• d) The angle between the aircraft's fuselage and the horizon
Answer: b) The angle between the aircraft's nose and the flight path

Q87. What is the primary effect of ground effect during takeoff and landing?

• a) Decreases drag
• b) Increases lift
• c) Decreases thrust
• d) Increases fuel consumption
Answer: b) Increases lift

12. Aircraft Performance and Efficiency

Q88. Which of the following factors significantly affects the takeoff distance of an aircraft?

• a) Wind speed
• b) Wing surface area
• c) Elevation of the airport
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Q89. The service ceiling of an aircraft refers to:

• a) The maximum altitude at which the aircraft can fly

• b) The altitude at which the aircraft is most fuel-efficient
• c) The highest altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a specified rate of climb
• d) The altitude at which the aircraft will stall
Answer: c) The highest altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a specified rate of
climb

Q90. Which of the following is a primary factor affecting fuel efficiency in aircraft?

• a) Engine type
• b) Aerodynamic design
• c) Aircraft weight
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
13. Aviation Safety

Q91. The Swiss Cheese Model of accident causation is used to explain:

• a) How different accidents can occur at the same time

• b) How a single failure can lead to an accident
• c) How multiple layers of defense can prevent accidents
• d) How weather can influence aviation safety
Answer: c) How multiple layers of defense can prevent accidents

Q92. The primary function of CRM (Crew Resource Management) is to:

• a) Improve the efficiency of aircraft systems

• b) Ensure proper maintenance of aircraft engines
• c) Enhance communication and decision-making among crew members
• d) Control the aircraft's autopilot system
Answer: c) Enhance communication and decision-making among crew members

Q93. In aviation, HFACS (Human Factors Analysis and Classification System) is used to:

• a) Classify human error in aviation incidents

• b) Predict flight delays
• c) Develop new aircraft technology
• d) Measure flight speed
Answer: a) Classify human error in aviation incidents

Q94. In the context of aviation safety, human error can be classified into which of the
following categories?

• a) Skill-based errors
• b) Decision-making errors
• c) Perceptual errors
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

14. Aircraft Maintenance and Inspection

Q95. Which of the following is a key principle of preventive maintenance in aviation?

• a) Perform repairs only when a failure occurs

• b) Regularly inspect and replace components based on their lifespan
• c) Only conduct inspections during flight
• d) Perform inspections at irregular intervals
Answer: b) Regularly inspect and replace components based on their lifespan
Q96. The SHELL model of human factors refers to:

• a) The relationship between System, Environment, Liveware, and Hardware

• b) The types of human errors in aviation
• c) The structure of aviation maintenance logs
• d) The basic components of flight navigation systems
Answer: a) The relationship between System, Environment, Liveware, and Hardware

Q97. Which maintenance inspection is typically conducted every 100 flight hours or once every
12 months, whichever comes first?

• a) A-check
• b) B-check
• c) C-check
• d) D-check
Answer: b) B-check

15. Aircraft Navigation and Communication Systems

Q98. Which of the following is used for long-range navigation in aircraft?

• a) VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range)

• b) GPS (Global Positioning System)
• c) Radar
• d) ILS (Instrument Landing System)
Answer: b) GPS (Global Positioning System)

Q99. The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is used to:

• a) Navigate the aircraft through airways

• b) Avoid mid-air collisions by providing warnings and advisories
• c) Communicate with air traffic control
• d) Determine the aircraft's altitude
Answer: b) Avoid mid-air collisions by providing warnings and advisories

Q100. The ILS (Instrument Landing System) is primarily used for:

• a) Precise navigation during takeoff

• b) Vertical guidance during approach and landing
• c) Communication with the control tower
• d) Monitoring aircraft speed
Answer: b) Vertical guidance during approach and landing
16. Aircraft Types and Configurations

Q101. What is the primary difference between monoplane and biplane configurations?

• a) Number of engines
• b) Number of wings
• c) Wing shape
• d) Wing material
Answer: b) Number of wings

Q102. Which of the following is a characteristic of a canard configuration in an aircraft?

• a) The horizontal stabilizer is placed in front of the main wing

• b) The main wing is positioned above the fuselage
• c) The tailplane is placed below the fuselage
• d) The engine is mounted on the tail
Answer: a) The horizontal stabilizer is placed in front of the main wing

Q103. A tailless aircraft lacks which of the following?

• a) Vertical stabilizer
• b) Horizontal stabilizer
• c) Main wing
• d) Propulsion system
Answer: b) Horizontal stabilizer

Q104. The twin-engine configuration is typically used in which of the following aircraft types?

• a) Commercial airliners
• b) Light personal aircraft
• c) Cargo aircraft
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

17. Air Traffic Control (ATC) and Procedures

Q105. The purpose of the ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) is to:

• a) Provide pilots with real-time weather updates

• b) Guide aircraft during approach and landing
• c) Automatically communicate with air traffic controllers
• d) Provide pilots with the latest information about terminal areas
Answer: d) Provide pilots with the latest information about terminal areas
Q106. The clearance delivery function in air traffic control is responsible for:

• a) Giving pilots clearance to take off

• b) Providing weather information to pilots
• c) Issuing flight plans and clearances before departure
• d) Managing flight approach to the airport
Answer: c) Issuing flight plans and clearances before departure

Q107. The separation standard in air traffic control refers to:

• a) The distance between aircraft to avoid collisions

• b) The altitude at which aircraft are to cruise
• c) The separation between commercial and private flights
• d) The separation of aircraft from the runway during taxiing
Answer: a) The distance between aircraft to avoid collisions

Q108. Which of the following is an example of separation in air traffic control?

• a) Ensuring aircraft maintain safe vertical and horizontal distance

• b) Directing aircraft to use a specific runway
• c) Controlling the rate of climb
• d) Advising on fuel consumption
Answer: a) Ensuring aircraft maintain safe vertical and horizontal distance

18. Aircrew and Pilot Training

Q109. The Private Pilot License (PPL) allows a pilot to:

• a) Fly commercial flights for compensation

• b) Fly in any weather conditions
• c) Fly a personal aircraft for non-commercial purposes
• d) Conduct aerobatic maneuvers
Answer: c) Fly a personal aircraft for non-commercial purposes

Q110. What is the main purpose of simulator training for pilots?

• a) To train pilots to fly in emergency conditions

• b) To simulate real-life flight scenarios for practice
• c) To reduce costs in flying training
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Q111. The Instrument Rating (IR) allows pilots to:

• a) Fly without visual reference to the ground

• b) Fly internationally
• c) Operate large commercial jets
• d) Fly at night only
Answer: a) Fly without visual reference to the ground

19. Aviation Regulations and Compliance

Q112. According to FAA regulations, the minimum age for obtaining a Private Pilot License
(PPL) is:

• a) 18 years
• b) 21 years
• c) 17 years
• d) 16 years
Answer: c) 17 years

Q113. The European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) is responsible for:

• a) Issuing airworthiness certificates for aircraft in the EU

• b) Providing air traffic control services across Europe
• c) Ensuring pilots are licensed to operate internationally
• d) Approving air carrier routes within Europe
Answer: a) Issuing airworthiness certificates for aircraft in the EU

Q114. The ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) sets standards for:

• a) Aircraft design and safety

• b) Pilot training and certification
• c) International flight operations
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

20. Aircraft Design and Technology

Q115. The fly-by-wire system in modern aircraft is used to:

• a) Improve fuel efficiency

• b) Automate flight control inputs using electronic signals
• c) Enhance cockpit communication with ATC
• d) Increase engine power output
Answer: b) Automate flight control inputs using electronic signals
Q116. The wing sweep on high-speed aircraft like the Concorde is used to:

• a) Increase drag for better control

• b) Improve fuel efficiency during takeoff
• c) Minimize drag and allow supersonic speeds
• d) Enhance maneuverability at low speeds
Answer: c) Minimize drag and allow supersonic speeds

Q117. In the context of aircraft design, laminar flow refers to:

• a) The smooth and uninterrupted airflow over the aircraft’s surface

• b) The turbulent air caused by engine exhaust
• c) The separation of airflow from the aircraft’s wing
• d) The swirling of air inside the cabin during flight
Answer: a) The smooth and uninterrupted airflow over the aircraft’s surface

Q118. The aerodynamic drag on an aircraft is primarily caused by:

• a) The aircraft's weight

• b) The air resistance acting on the aircraft
• c) The engine thrust
• d) The altitude of the flight
Answer: b) The air resistance acting on the aircraft

21. Aviation History

Q119. The first powered flight by the Wright brothers took place in which year?

• a) 1903
• b) 1911
• c) 1895
• d) 1920
Answer: a) 1903

Q120. The Lockheed SR-71 Blackbird was primarily used for which purpose?

• a) Commercial airliner
• b) Reconnaissance and intelligence gathering
• c) Cargo transportation
• d) Passenger flights
Answer: b) Reconnaissance and intelligence gathering
Q121. The Concorde was a supersonic jet developed by a partnership between which two
countries?

• a) United States and France

• b) United Kingdom and France
• c) United States and Canada
• d) Germany and the United Kingdom
Answer: b) United Kingdom and France

22. Aircraft Systems Maintenance and Repair

Q122. The primary function of the landing gear is to:

• a) Control aircraft speed during flight

• b) Support the aircraft during landing and takeoff
• c) Aid in the navigation of the aircraft
• d) Provide electrical power to the cockpit
Answer: b) Support the aircraft during landing and takeoff

Q123. NDT (Non-Destructive Testing) is used in aircraft maintenance to:

• a) Measure the fuel efficiency of engines

• b) Detect material defects without damaging components
• c) Determine the weight of the aircraft
• d) Test flight control systems
Answer: b) Detect material defects without damaging components

Q124. In aircraft maintenance, what is the purpose of corrosion prevention?

• a) To reduce engine noise

• b) To ensure that aircraft parts do not wear out
• c) To prevent the deterioration of metal parts due to moisture and chemicals
• d) To enhance the aerodynamics of the aircraft
Answer: c) To prevent the deterioration of metal parts due to moisture and chemicals

23. Engine Types and Configurations

Q125. A turbojet engine primarily produces thrust through:

• a) Propeller motion
• b) Exhaust gas acceleration
• c) Electric fans
• d) Reciprocating pistons
Answer: b) Exhaust gas acceleration
Q126. The turboprop engine is most effective at which speed range?

• a) Supersonic speeds
• b) Very low speeds only
• c) Low to medium subsonic speeds
• d) Hypersonic speeds
Answer: c) Low to medium subsonic speeds

Q127. Which of the following aircraft used four turboprop engines?

• a) Boeing 747
• b) Airbus A380
• c) Lockheed C-130 Hercules
• d) McDonnell Douglas DC-10
Answer: c) Lockheed C-130 Hercules

Q128. A radial engine configuration typically features:

• a) Inline cylinders
• b) Cylinders arranged in a circle around the crankshaft
• c) Electric propulsion
• d) Jet thrust
Answer: b) Cylinders arranged in a circle around the crankshaft

Q129. What type of engine was used on the Wright Flyer I in 1903?

• a) Radial piston engine

• b) Inline piston engine
• c) Jet engine
• d) Rocket engine
Answer: b) Inline piston engine

Q130. The Boeing 747-400 uses which engine configuration?

• a) Two turboprops
• b) Four high-bypass turbofan engines
• c) Twin turbojet engines
• d) Single piston engine
Answer: b) Four high-bypass turbofan engines
24. Aircraft Materials and Structures

Q131. Early aircraft were typically made of:

• a) Aluminum and titanium

• b) Carbon fiber
• c) Wood and fabric
• d) Steel only
Answer: c) Wood and fabric

Q132. Modern aircraft like the Boeing 787 Dreamliner use what material extensively?

• a) Wood
• b) Steel
• c) Carbon fiber composites
• d) Brass
Answer: c) Carbon fiber composites

Q133. The purpose of the fuselage is to:

• a) Provide lift
• b) House the cockpit, passengers, and cargo
• c) Stabilize yaw motion
• d) Generate propulsion
Answer: b) House the cockpit, passengers, and cargo

Q134. What is the function of stringers in aircraft construction?

• a) Support engine thrust

• b) Provide aerodynamic lift
• c) Reinforce the fuselage longitudinally
• d) House electrical wiring
Answer: c) Reinforce the fuselage longitudinally

25. Flight Controls and Stability

Q135. The primary flight controls include:

• a) Flaps, slats, spoilers

• b) Ailerons, elevators, rudder
• c) Landing gear, trim tab, propeller
• d) Autopilot, airbrake, flap
Answer: b) Ailerons, elevators, rudder
Q136. The rudder controls which axis of an aircraft?

• a) Longitudinal
• b) Lateral
• c) Vertical
• d) Diagonal
Answer: c) Vertical

Q137. Elevators are used to control the aircraft's:

• a) Pitch
• b) Roll
• c) Yaw
• d) Speed
Answer: a) Pitch

Q138. Ailerons are located on which part of the aircraft?

• a) Nose
• b) Horizontal stabilizer
• c) Wings
• d) Fuselage
Answer: c) Wings

Q139. Spoilers are primarily used to:

• a) Reduce lift and increase drag

• b) Increase engine thrust
• c) Provide yaw control
• d) Extend wing span
Answer: a) Reduce lift and increase drag

Q140. The trim tab helps:

• a) Increase engine efficiency

• b) Minimize pilot workload by reducing control forces
• c) Control fuel flow
• d) Redirect airflow into the engine
Answer: b) Minimize pilot workload by reducing control forces
26. Aircraft Performance and Flight Mechanics

Q141. The best rate of climb (Vy) gives the:

• a) Maximum climb angle

• b) Minimum stall speed
• c) Greatest altitude gain per unit of time
• d) Maximum range
Answer: c) Greatest altitude gain per unit of time

Q142. Lift is generated by:

• a) High-pressure air over the wing

• b) High-pressure air under the wing
• c) Equal pressure on both sides
• d) Air hitting the fuselage
Answer: b) High-pressure air under the wing

Q143. The angle of attack is the angle between:

• a) Wing chord and horizontal ground

• b) Wing chord and relative wind
• c) Fuselage and horizon
• d) Rudder and airflow
Answer: b) Wing chord and relative wind

Q144. Stall occurs when:

• a) Engine power is reduced

• b) The lift-to-drag ratio is maximum
• c) The angle of attack exceeds the critical limit
• d) Landing gear is retracted
Answer: c) The angle of attack exceeds the critical limit

Q145. Drag increases most significantly with:

• a) Increase in altitude
• b) Increase in temperature
• c) Increase in speed
• d) Use of autopilot
Answer: c) Increase in speed
Q146. The service ceiling of an aircraft refers to the:

• a) Maximum altitude the aircraft can reach without any climb

• b) Maximum altitude where a standard climb rate can be maintained
• c) Maximum altitude at which the aircraft can glide
• d) Minimum height for cruise
Answer: b) Maximum altitude where a standard climb rate can be maintained

27. Navigation and Instruments

Q147. The altimeter measures:

• a) Speed
• b) Altitude
• c) Direction
• d) Climb rate
Answer: b) Altitude

Q148. The attitude indicator shows:

• a) Engine status
• b) Angle of attack
• c) Aircraft's orientation in pitch and roll
• d) Flight path vector
Answer: c) Aircraft's orientation in pitch and roll

Q149. VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) is used for:

• a) Fuel measurement
• b) Airspeed measurement
• c) Radio navigation
• d) Weather prediction
Answer: c) Radio navigation

Q150. The heading indicator must be regularly aligned with:

• a) GPS
• b) Magnetic compass
• c) Airspeed indicator
• d) Artificial horizon
Answer: b) Magnetic compass
Q151. Turn coordinator shows:

• a) Rate of climb
• b) Rate and coordination of turns
• c) Bank angle
• d) Stall margin
Answer: b) Rate and coordination of turns

28. Propulsion Systems (Advanced)

Q152. The high-bypass turbofan engine is primarily designed to:

• a) Increase supersonic capability

• b) Reduce fuel efficiency
• c) Improve thrust at low speeds and reduce noise
• d) Increase maintenance cost
Answer: c) Improve thrust at low speeds and reduce noise

Q153. The Ramjet engine operates effectively:

• a) At subsonic speeds
• b) At zero airspeed
• c) At supersonic speeds
• d) In space
Answer: c) At supersonic speeds

Q154. Which engine type powers the Space Shuttle’s Orbiter during launch?

• a) Turbojet
• b) Solid rocket boosters
• c) Ramjet
• d) Pulsejet
Answer: b) Solid rocket boosters

Q155. The pulsejet was famously used in:

• a) V-1 flying bomb

• b) Concorde
• c) F-22 Raptor
• d) A380
Answer: a) V-1 flying bomb
29. Famous Aircraft Models

Q156. The Boeing B-52 Stratofortress is a:

• a) Commercial airliner
• b) Strategic bomber
• c) Cargo aircraft
• d) Fighter jet
Answer: b) Strategic bomber

Q157. The F-22 Raptor is a:

• a) Bomber
• b) Reconnaissance aircraft
• c) Fifth-generation stealth fighter
• d) Civilian supersonic jet
Answer: c) Fifth-generation stealth fighter

Q158. The Douglas DC-3 was significant for:

• a) Being the first supersonic jet

• b) Revolutionizing commercial air travel
• c) Carrying nuclear weapons
• d) Using fly-by-wire systems
Answer: b) Revolutionizing commercial air travel

Q159. The Airbus A380 is the world’s:

• a) Smallest aircraft
• b) Most fuel-efficient single-engine jet
• c) Largest passenger aircraft
• d) Fastest cargo plane
Answer: c) Largest passenger aircraft

Q160. The Concorde cruised at:

• a) Mach 0.9
• b) Mach 1.0
• c) Mach 1.5
• d) Mach 2.0
Answer: d) Mach 2.0
21. Aircraft Configurations

Q161. A canard configuration places:

• a) Engines behind the fuselage

• b) Horizontal stabilizer ahead of the main wing
• c) Landing gear on the wings
• d) Rudder below the tail
Answer: b) Horizontal stabilizer ahead of the main wing

Q162. A flying wing lacks:

• a) Landing gear
• b) Distinct fuselage or tail surfaces
• c) Ailerons
• d) Lift-producing wings
Answer: b) Distinct fuselage or tail surfaces

Q163. The tandem wing configuration uses:

• a) Wings placed side-by-side

• b) One wing above the other
• c) Two wings in longitudinal alignment
• d) A single fixed wing
Answer: c) Two wings in longitudinal alignment

Q164. A biplane has:

• a) Two engines
• b) Two wings stacked vertically
• c) Two fuselages
• d) Twin rudders
Answer: b) Two wings stacked vertically

Q165. The delta wing is shaped like:

• a) A semicircle
• b) A triangle
• c) A box
• d) A cross
Answer: b) A triangle
22. Engine Configurations

Q166. A twinjet aircraft has:

• a) Two passengers
• b) Two jet engines
• c) Two landing gears
• d) Two cockpits
Answer: b) Two jet engines

Q167. The Boeing 747 uses:

• a) Two turboprop engines

• b) Four turbofan engines
• c) One piston engine
• d) Six ramjets
Answer: b) Four turbofan engines

Q168. A pusher configuration engine is mounted to:

• a) Pull the aircraft from the front

• b) Push the aircraft from the rear
• c) Rest on the tail
• d) Not move at all
Answer: b) Push the aircraft from the rear

Q169. The Airbus A380 is powered by:

• a) Two jet engines

• b) Four turboprops
• c) Four turbofan engines
• d) Six piston engines
Answer: c) Four turbofan engines

Q170. A quadjet aircraft has:

• a) Four engines
• b) Four wings
• c) Four seats
• d) Four fuselages
Answer: a) Four engines
23. Historical Aircraft and Aviation Milestones

Q171. The Wright Flyer first flew in:

• a) 1885
• b) 1903
• c) 1920
• d) 1945
Answer: b) 1903

Q172. The first jet-powered aircraft was the:

• a) Wright Flyer
• b) Bell X-1
• c) Heinkel He 178
• d) Boeing 707
Answer: c) Heinkel He 178

Q173. The first supersonic flight was by:

• a) Concorde
• b) Lockheed SR-71
• c) Bell X-1
• d) MiG-21
Answer: c) Bell X-1

Q174. The first commercial jetliner was:

• a) Boeing 747
• b) Lockheed Constellation
• c) De Havilland Comet
• d) Airbus A310
Answer: c) De Havilland Comet

Q175. The Concorde retired in:

• a) 1995
• b) 2003
• c) 1987
• d) 2010
Answer: b) 2003
24. Helicopters and VTOL Aircraft

Q176. A VTOL aircraft can:

• a) Only fly vertically

• b) Land and take off vertically
• c) Fly at supersonic speeds only
• d) Not change direction
Answer: b) Land and take off vertically

Q177. The Bell Boeing V-22 Osprey uses:

• a) Jet engines
• b) Turboprops with tiltrotors
• c) Rocket boosters
• d) Radial piston engines
Answer: b) Turboprops with tiltrotors

Q178. A gyroplane has:

• a) A powered rotor
• b) An unpowered rotor and a powered propeller
• c) Only a jet engine
• d) Fixed wings
Answer: b) An unpowered rotor and a powered propeller

Q179. Helicopters use:

• a) Piston engines only

• b) Rocket engines
• c) Rotating airfoils (rotors) for lift
• d) Solid-fuel boosters
Answer: c) Rotating airfoils (rotors) for lift

Q180. The Chinook helicopter has:

• a) One main rotor

• b) Twin rotors in tandem
• c) Tiltwing configuration
• d) Jet engines
Answer: b) Twin rotors in tandem
25. Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs)

Q181. A UAV is also called a:

• a) Tank
• b) Robot
• c) Drone
• d) Spaceship
Answer: c) Drone

Q182. Military drones are often used for:

• a) Cargo only
• b) Civil transport
• c) Reconnaissance and combat
• d) Agriculture only
Answer: c) Reconnaissance and combat

Q183. The MQ-9 Reaper is a:

• a) Jetliner
• b) Drone used for ISR and attack
• c) Supersonic fighter
• d) Submarine support craft
Answer: b) Drone used for ISR and attack

Q184. Most small commercial drones use:

• a) Rocket motors
• b) Multirotors (quadcopters)
• c) Turbofans
• d) Ion drives
Answer: b) Multirotors (quadcopters)

Q185. UAVs are controlled by:

• a) Cable
• b) Ground-based pilots or autonomous systems
• c) Cockpit crews
• d) Wi-Fi only
Answer: b) Ground-based pilots or autonomous systems
26. Gliders and Lighter-than-Air Craft

Q186. A glider has:

• a) Engines for propulsion

• b) No wings
• c) No engine, relies on air currents
• d) Rocket boosters
Answer: c) No engine, relies on air currents

Q187. Hot air balloons rise because:

• a) Fire creates pressure

• b) Heated air is denser
• c) Heated air is lighter than surrounding air
• d) Hydrogen expansion
Answer: c) Heated air is lighter than surrounding air

Q188. Zeppelins are a type of:

• a) Rocket
• b) Helicopter
• c) Rigid airship
• d) Submarine
Answer: c) Rigid airship

Q189. The Hindenburg disaster occurred in:

• a) 1912
• b) 1937
• c) 1945
• d) 1951
Answer: b) 1937

Q190. The Goodyear Blimp is primarily used for:

• a) Warfare
• b) Mining
• c) Aerial advertising and TV coverage
• d) Crop dusting
Answer: c) Aerial advertising and TV coverage
27. Supersonic and Hypersonic Flight

Q191. A supersonic aircraft travels faster than:

• a) A car
• b) Sound (Mach 1)
• c) Wind
• d) Light
Answer: b) Sound (Mach 1)

Q192. The SR-71 Blackbird was famous for:

• a) Subsonic cargo missions

• b) Slow reconnaissance
• c) High-speed reconnaissance above Mach 3
• d) Passenger transport
Answer: c) High-speed reconnaissance above Mach 3

Q193. Hypersonic speed begins around:

• a) Mach 1
• b) Mach 2
• c) Mach 5
• d) Mach 10
Answer: c) Mach 5

Q194. The X-15 rocket plane reached speeds up to:

• a) Mach 1
• b) Mach 3
• c) Mach 6.7
• d) Mach 10
Answer: c) Mach 6.7

Q195. The Concorde cruised at around:

• a) Mach 0.8
• b) Mach 1.0
• c) Mach 2.0
• d) Mach 3.5
Answer: c) Mach 2.0
28. Amphibious and Seaplanes

Q196. A seaplane is designed to:

• a) Land only on grass

• b) Operate from water surfaces
• c) Operate only in snow
• d) Fly in space
Answer: b) Operate from water surfaces

Q197. An amphibious aircraft can:

• a) Only float
• b) Only fly in rain
• c) Land on both land and water
• d) Convert to submarine
Answer: c) Land on both land and water

Q198. The Grumman Goose is a type of:

• a) Fighter
• b) Amphibious aircraft
• c) Rocketplane
• d) Drone
Answer: b) Amphibious aircraft

Q199. The Beriev Be-200 is a:

• a) Supersonic bomber
• b) Ground trainer
• c) Jet-powered amphibious aircraft
• d) Glider
Answer: c) Jet-powered amphibious aircraft

Q200. Floatplanes differ from flying boats in that:

• a) They don’t fly

• b) They use pontoons rather than a boat-like hull
• c) They have rotors
• d) They are satellites
Answer: b) They use pontoons rather than a boat-like hull
29. Military Aircraft Types and Roles

Q201. A fighter aircraft is designed primarily for:

• a) Bombing cities
• b) Air-to-air combat
• c) Cargo delivery
• d) Aerial refueling
Answer: b) Air-to-air combat

Q202. The B-2 Spirit is classified as a:

• a) Fighter
• b) Transport plane
• c) Stealth bomber
• d) Surveillance drone
Answer: c) Stealth bomber

Q203. An AWACS aircraft provides:

• a) Firefighting service
• b) Airborne early warning and control
• c) In-flight entertainment
• d) Passenger comfort
Answer: b) Airborne early warning and control

Q204. A tanker aircraft is used for:

• a) Fuel transportation on land

• b) Carrying bombs
• c) In-flight refueling
• d) Reconnaissance
Answer: c) In-flight refueling

Q205. The A-10 Thunderbolt II is known for:

• a) High speed
• b) Air superiority
• c) Close air support
• d) Stealth capability
Answer: c) Close air support
30. Civil and Commercial Aviation

Q206. The Boeing 737 is primarily used for:

• a) Spaceflight
• b) Regional military patrol
• c) Short to medium-haul passenger transport
• d) Agricultural spraying
Answer: c) Short to medium-haul passenger transport

Q207. The Airbus A320 family features:

• a) Rocket engines
• b) Fly-by-wire controls
• c) Helicopter blades
• d) Tailwheel landing gear
Answer: b) Fly-by-wire controls

Q208. A wide-body aircraft has:

• a) Only one engine

• b) A wider fuselage for two aisles
• c) A smaller cargo area
• d) Only military application
Answer: b) A wider fuselage for two aisles

Q209. The McDonnell Douglas DC-10 has:

• a) One engine
• b) Twin tail booms
• c) Three engines (trijet)
• d) Propellers only
Answer: c) Three engines (trijet)

Q210. A hub-and-spoke model is used for:

• a) Engine mounting
• b) Landing gear alignment
• c) Airline route structure
• d) Helicopter rotor design
Answer: c) Airline route structure
31. Experimental and Concept Aircraft

Q211. The NASA X-43 was designed to test:

• a) Crop spraying
• b) Hypersonic air-breathing flight
• c) Bomb delivery
• d) Sea rescue
Answer: b) Hypersonic air-breathing flight

Q212. The Northrop Grumman X-47B is a:

• a) Passenger drone
• b) Supersonic jet
• c) Unmanned combat air vehicle
• d) Helicopter
Answer: c) Unmanned combat air vehicle

Q213. The Boeing X-48 was a prototype for:

• a) Conventional fuselage
• b) Flying wing/blended wing body
• c) Rotary-wing craft
• d) Rocket-plane hybrid
Answer: b) Flying wing/blended wing body

Q214. The Bell X-1 broke:

• a) The speed of light

• b) The sound barrier
• c) Records for largest wingspan
• d) Orbit altitude
Answer: b) The sound barrier

Q215. Experimental aircraft typically carry the prefix:

• a) “B”
• b) “F”
• c) “X”
• d) “A”
Answer: c) “X”
32. Ground Effect Vehicles & Novel Types

Q216. A ground effect vehicle (GEV) operates:

• a) In deep space
• b) Underwater
• c) Just above the surface using aerodynamic lift
• d) On wheels
Answer: c) Just above the surface using aerodynamic lift

Q217. The Caspian Sea Monster was a:

• a) Helicopter prototype
• b) Soviet GEV or ekranoplan
• c) Jet trainer
• d) Amphibious airliner
Answer: b) Soviet GEV or ekranoplan

Q218. Ground effect increases lift when flying:

• a) At low altitudes close to a surface

• b) In thin air
• c) Over cold water
• d) At high Mach numbers
Answer: a) At low altitudes close to a surface

Q219. An ornithopter generates thrust via:

• a) Fixed wings
• b) Jet engines
• c) Flapping wings
• d) Rotor blades
Answer: c) Flapping wings

Q220. Hybrid airships combine features of:

• a) Helicopters and boats

• b) Balloons and fixed-wing aircraft
• c) Drones and tanks
• d) Seaplanes and jets
Answer: b) Balloons and fixed-wing aircraft
33. Aircraft Control Surfaces & Stability

Q221. The rudder controls motion about the:

• a) Roll axis
• b) Pitch axis
• c) Yaw axis
• d) Vertical axis
Answer: c) Yaw axis

Q222. The elevator is typically located on:

• a) Nose
• b) Main wing
• c) Horizontal stabilizer
• d) Fuselage sides
Answer: c) Horizontal stabilizer

Q223. Ailerons are used to control:

• a) Pitch
• b) Yaw
• c) Roll
• d) Drag
Answer: c) Roll

Q224. A T-tail configuration places the horizontal stabilizer:

• a) Below the fuselage

• b) Mid-fuselage
• c) Atop the vertical fin
• d) On the wing tips
Answer: c) Atop the vertical fin

Q225. Fly-by-wire replaces mechanical linkages with:

• a) Water lines
• b) Pneumatics
• c) Electronic control systems
• d) Fuel systems
Answer: c) Electronic control systems
34. Avionics & Cockpit Systems

Q226. Glass cockpit displays use:

• a) Analog gauges
• b) Paper scrolls
• c) Electronic screens
• d) Periscopes
Answer: c) Electronic screens

Q227. Autopilot systems can:

• a) Fully refuel aircraft

• b) Maintain course, altitude, and speed
• c) Replace ATC
• d) Record black box data
Answer: b) Maintain course, altitude, and speed

Q228. The FMS (Flight Management System) integrates:

• a) Engine cooling
• b) Entertainment
• c) Navigation, performance, and route planning
• d) Fuel refueling
Answer: c) Navigation, performance, and route planning

Q229. The black box in aviation refers to:

• a) Paint coating
• b) Autopilot CPU
• c) Cockpit voice and flight data recorder
• d) Rudder actuator
Answer: c) Cockpit voice and flight data recorder

Q230. HUD stands for:

• a) Helicopter Under Door

• b) Head-Up Display
• c) High Utility Design
• d) Hydraulic Unit Divider
Answer: b) Head-Up Display
35. Aircraft Certification & Safety

Q231. The FAA is the civil aviation authority in:

• a) Russia
• b) France
• c) USA
• d) China
Answer: c) USA

Q232. ICAO stands for:

• a) International Certification of Aero Operations

• b) International Civil Aviation Organization
• c) International Cockpit and Aircraft Ordinance
• d) Institute of Canadian Aerospace Operations
Answer: b) International Civil Aviation Organization

Q233. ETOPS certification allows:

• a) Subsonic travel
• b) Flight beyond 60 mins from diversion airports
• c) Helicopter overflight
• d) Spaceflight operation
Answer: b) Flight beyond 60 mins from diversion airports

Q234. Airworthiness refers to:

• a) Maximum payload capacity

• b) Flight crew licenses
• c) Aircraft’s fitness for safe flight
• d) Military weapon capabilities
Answer: c) Aircraft’s fitness for safe flight

30. Aircrew Roles and Responsibilities

Q235. The pilot-in-command (PIC) is responsible for:

• a) Maintenance only
• b) Ground operations
• c) The overall safety of the flight
• d) Only takeoff and landing
Answer: c) The overall safety of the flight
Q236. The flight engineer is primarily responsible for:

• a) Air traffic communication

• b) Monitoring aircraft systems
• c) Flying the aircraft
• d) Handling cargo
Answer: b) Monitoring aircraft systems

Q237. The copilot (first officer) assists the captain and may:

• a) Not operate the radio

• b) Be seated in the cabin
• c) Take control of the aircraft if needed
• d) Only monitor weather
Answer: c) Take control of the aircraft if needed

Q238. A loadmaster is typically found in:

• a) Fighter jets
• b) Commercial passenger jets
• c) Cargo aircraft
• d) Ultralight aircraft
Answer: c) Cargo aircraft

Q239. A navigator was a key role in older aircraft to:

• a) Repair engines
• b) Determine the aircraft's position and route
• c) Handle passenger issues
• d) Monitor cabin pressure
Answer: b) Determine the aircraft's position and route

31. Air Traffic Control (ATC)

Q240. Air Traffic Control is responsible for:

• a) Aircraft maintenance
• b) Fuel loading
• c) Ensuring safe and orderly flow of air traffic
• d) Handling airport cleaning
Answer: c) Ensuring safe and orderly flow of air traffic
Q241. Ground control manages aircraft:

• a) In flight
• b) During taxi, pushback, and on runways
• c) During landing
• d) In emergencies only
Answer: b) During taxi, pushback, and on runways

Q242. Tower control handles:

• a) Enroute navigation
• b) Maintenance clearance
• c) Aircraft in the immediate airspace of the airport
• d) Gate assignment
Answer: c) Aircraft in the immediate airspace of the airport

Q243. Approach control provides service during:

• a) Engine check
• b) Pre-flight inspection
• c) Climb and descent phases near an airport
• d) Refueling
Answer: c) Climb and descent phases near an airport

Q244. The Flight Information Region (FIR) is:

• a) A weather code
• b) A type of engine
• c) An airspace designated for ATC responsibility
• d) A flight certification
Answer: c) An airspace designated for ATC responsibility

32. Avionics and Electrical Systems

Q245. Avionics refers to:

• a) Interior decoration systems

• b) Ground fuel systems
• c) Electronic systems used in aircraft
• d) Hydraulics only
Answer: c) Electronic systems used in aircraft
Q246. The transponder in an aircraft is used to:

• a) Transmit audio to passengers

• b) Assist with radar identification
• c) Monitor cabin temperature
• d) Control flight surfaces
Answer: b) Assist with radar identification

Q247. A glass cockpit uses:

• a) CRTs and knobs

• b) Manual gauges only
• c) Digital displays (LCD/LED screens)
• d) Nonelectronic displays
Answer: c) Digital displays (LCD/LED screens)

Q248. An ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) is triggered by:

• a) Speed drops
• b) Altitude rise
• c) Impact forces
• d) GPS detection
Answer: c) Impact forces

Q249. The black box in aircraft includes:

• a) Engine parts
• b) Seat configurations
• c) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder
• d) Luggage scanner
Answer: c) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder

33. Landing Gear Systems

Q250. The tricycle landing gear consists of:

• a) Two main wheels only

• b) A tail wheel and two main gears
• c) A nose wheel and two main gears
• d) No wheels
Answer: c) A nose wheel and two main gears
Q251. Retractable landing gear is designed to:

• a) Increase drag
• b) Decrease aerodynamic efficiency
• c) Be fixed during all phases
• d) Reduce drag during flight
Answer: d) Reduce drag during flight

Q252. The taildragger configuration has:

• a) A nose wheel and two main gears

• b) Skids only
• c) Two main wheels and a tail wheel
• d) One monowheel
Answer: c) Two main wheels and a tail wheel

Q253. Modern commercial jets use:

• a) Fixed gear
• b) Tailwheel gear
• c) Retractable tricycle landing gear
• d) Bicycle landing gear
Answer: c) Retractable tricycle landing gear

34. Aerodynamic Forces

Q254. The four forces of flight are:

• a) Lift, weight, friction, acceleration

• b) Lift, drag, thrust, weight
• c) Thrust, friction, inertia, lift
• d) Gravity, rotation, lift, speed
Answer: b) Lift, drag, thrust, weight

Q255. Induced drag increases with:

• a) Lower angles of attack

• b) Higher airspeeds
• c) Lower weights
• d) Higher angles of attack
Answer: d) Higher angles of attack
Q256. Parasite drag includes:

• a) Induced drag only

• b) Interference and form drag
• c) Lift-based drag
• d) No drag at all
Answer: b) Interference and form drag

Q257. Winglets are added to:

• a) Reduce weight
• b) Increase lift at stall
• c) Reduce induced drag and improve fuel efficiency
• d) Support fuel tanks
Answer: c) Reduce induced drag and improve fuel efficiency

36. Rotary-Wing Aircraft (Helicopters & VTOL)

Q258. A helicopter produces lift using:

• a) Fixed wings
• b) Rotor blades
• c) Jet nozzles
• d) Fuselage rotation
Answer: b) Rotor blades

Q259. The main rotor provides:

• a) Only yaw control

• b) Lift and thrust
• c) Fuel storage
• d) Lighting
Answer: b) Lift and thrust

Q260. The tail rotor counteracts:

• a) Engine thrust
• b) Lift imbalance
• c) Main rotor torque
• d) Landing gear drag
Answer: c) Main rotor torque
Q261. The Chinook helicopter features:

• a) One rotor
• b) Side-by-side rotor blades
• c) Tandem rotors
• d) Coaxial rotors
Answer: c) Tandem rotors

Q262. A tiltrotor aircraft can:

• a) Hover only
• b) Fly only like a jet
• c) Transition between helicopter and airplane modes
• d) Only land on water
Answer: c) Transition between helicopter and airplane modes

37. Aircraft Propulsion and Engines

Q263. A turbofan engine is common in:

• a) Light aircraft
• b) Gliders
• c) Commercial jets
• d) Balloons
Answer: c) Commercial jets

Q264. Turbojets are most efficient at:

• a) Low speeds
• b) Supersonic speeds
• c) Hovering
• d) Taxiing
Answer: b) Supersonic speeds

Q265. The turboprop combines:

• a) Jet engine core with a propeller

• b) Ramjet with rotary wing
• c) Rocket booster with fixed wings
• d) Electric motor with battery
Answer: a) Jet engine core with a propeller
Q266. Ramjets function only when:

• a) Stationary
• b) At rest
• c) In forward motion
• d) Vertical
Answer: c) In forward motion

Q267. A scramjet differs from a ramjet by:

• a) Slowing air to subsonic speeds

• b) Using liquid oxygen
• c) Burning fuel in supersonic airflow
• d) Running on diesel
Answer: c) Burning fuel in supersonic airflow

38. Gliders and Lighter-than-Air Aircraft

Q268. Gliders generate lift:

• a) Using jet engines

• b) By descending through air
• c) From helicopter blades
• d) With no wings
Answer: b) By descending through air

Q269. A hot air balloon rises because:

• a) Air below cools

• b) Hot air inside is denser
• c) Hot air inside is lighter than outside
• d) Pressure from steam
Answer: c) Hot air inside is lighter than outside

Q270. A zeppelin is a type of:

• a) Biplane
• b) Helicopter
• c) Rigid airship
• d) Glider
Answer: c) Rigid airship
Q271. Blimps differ from zeppelins in that they:

• a) Have no engines
• b) Are rigid in structure
• c) Lack an internal framework
• d) Use heavier-than-air gases
Answer: c) Lack an internal framework

Q272. Modern blimps are usually filled with:

• a) Hydrogen
• b) Nitrogen
• c) Helium
• d) Oxygen
Answer: c) Helium

39. Famous Aircraft and Records

Q273. The Wright Flyer first flew in:

• a) 1899
• b) 1903
• c) 1914
• d) 1921
Answer: b) 1903

Q274. The Concorde was capable of:

• a) Subsonic flight only

• b) Vertical takeoff
• c) Supersonic passenger travel
• d) Carrier operations
Answer: c) Supersonic passenger travel

Q275. The SR-71 Blackbird holds records for:

• a) Payload
• b) Fuel efficiency
• c) Speed and altitude
• d) Helicopter range
Answer: c) Speed and altitude
Q276. The Spirit of St. Louis was flown by:

• a) Amelia Earhart
• b) Chuck Yeager
• c) Charles Lindbergh
• d) Howard Hughes
Answer: c) Charles Lindbergh

Q277. The Voyager aircraft made:

• a) A transatlantic flight
• b) A round-the-world flight without refueling
• c) First biplane stunt
• d) Mars sample return
Answer: b) A round-the-world flight without refueling

40. Flight Mechanics and Performance

Q278. Thrust must overcome:

• a) Lift
• b) Drag
• c) Weight
• d) Gravity
Answer: b) Drag

Q279. Lift acts perpendicular to the:

• a) Drag vector
• b) Fuselage axis
• c) Flight path
• d) Wing surface
Answer: c) Flight path

Q280. Angle of attack is between:

• a) Engine thrust and lift

• b) Wind and temperature
• c) Chord line and relative airflow
• d) Elevator and fuselage
Answer: c) Chord line and relative airflow
Q281. Stall occurs when:

• a) Speed is too high

• b) Lift is maximum
• c) Airflow separates due to high AoA
• d) Fuel runs out
Answer: c) Airflow separates due to high AoA

Q282. The critical Mach number is the point where:

• a) Engine fails
• b) Lift drops to zero
• c) Local airflow first becomes supersonic
• d) Aircraft explodes
Answer: c) Local airflow first becomes supersonic

41. Aircraft Systems and Subsystems

Q283. Hydraulic systems in aircraft operate:

• a) Air conditioning
• b) Flight controls and brakes
• c) Cabin lighting
• d) Avionics software
Answer: b) Flight controls and brakes

Q284. Pneumatic systems use:

• a) Oil
• b) Hydraulic fluid
• c) Compressed air
• d) Coolant
Answer: c) Compressed air

Q285. The bleed air system supplies:

• a) Fuel
• b) Pressurization and anti-icing
• c) Hydraulic pressure
• d) Lighting
Answer: b) Pressurization and anti-icing
Q286. The fuel system ensures:

• a) Lift
• b) Electrical power
• c) Engine combustion
• d) Tire inflation
Answer: c) Engine combustion

Q287. An APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) provides:

• a) Backup flight controls

• b) Electrical power and air on ground
• c) Landing gear operation
• d) Radar signals
Answer: b) Electrical power and air on ground

42. Aircraft Materials and Structures

Q288. Aircraft frames are commonly made of:

• a) Wood only
• b) Steel
• c) Aluminum alloys and composites
• d) Brick
Answer: c) Aluminum alloys and composites

Q289. Composites are favored because they:

• a) Burn easily
• b) Are heavy
• c) Offer high strength-to-weight ratio
• d) Require no testing
Answer: c) Offer high strength-to-weight ratio

Q290. The fuselage houses:

• a) Engines only
• b) Fuel tanks
• c) Cockpit, cabin, cargo
• d) Only wheels
Answer: c) Cockpit, cabin, cargo
Q291. Wing spars are critical for:

• a) Brake control
• b) Aerodynamic painting
• c) Wing structural integrity
• d) Seat belts
Answer: c) Wing structural integrity

Q292. A monocoque structure relies on:

• a) Internal frames
• b) External skin for strength
• c) Fuel weight
• d) Wires and cables
Answer: b) External skin for strength

43. Landing Gear Systems

Q293. Tricycle landing gear includes:

• a) One nose wheel and two main wheels

• b) Two tail wheels
• c) Four wingtip wheels
• d) No wheels
Answer: a) One nose wheel and two main wheels

Q294. Tailwheel gear is also known as:

• a) Nosewheel
• b) Conventional gear
• c) Bicycle gear
• d) Sideways gear
Answer: b) Conventional gear

Q295. Retractable gear improves:

• a) Fuel capacity
• b) Landing stability
• c) Aerodynamics in flight
• d) In-flight entertainment
Answer: c) Aerodynamics in flight
Q296. Shock absorption in gear is often achieved using:

• a) Wires
• b) Leaf springs
• c) Oleos or gas struts
• d) Paint
Answer: c) Oleos or gas struts

Q297. Anti-skid systems prevent:

• a) Nose pitch
• b) Tire damage during storage
• c) Wheel lock during landing
• d) Seat vibration
Answer: c) Wheel lock during landing

44. Cabin and Environmental Control

Q298. Cabin pressurization is necessary above:

• a) 3,000 ft
• b) 8,000 ft
• c) 10,000 ft
• d) 15,000 ft
Answer: b) 8,000 ft

Q299. The oxygen system is used during:

• a) Taxi
• b) Ground inspection
• c) Decompression events
• d) Boarding
Answer: c) Decompression events

Q300. Air conditioning packs regulate:

• a) Engine oil
• b) Tire pressure
• c) Cabin temperature
• d) Hydraulic fluid
Answer: c) Cabin temperature
Q301. HEPA filters remove:

• a) Avionics faults
• b) Bacteria and particles from cabin air
• c) Airspeed errors
• d) Pilot fatigue
Answer: b) Bacteria and particles from cabin air

Q302. The outflow valve controls:

• a) Engine exhaust
• b) Landing gear pressure
• c) Cabin pressure by releasing air
• d) Wing shape
Answer: c) Cabin pressure by releasing air

45. Avionics and Instrumentation

Q303. The attitude indicator displays the aircraft’s:

• a) Speed
• b) Heading
• c) Pitch and bank
• d) Altitude
Answer: c) Pitch and bank

Q304. The altimeter works based on:

• a) GPS signals
• b) Airspeed
• c) Static air pressure
• d) Magnetic field
Answer: c) Static air pressure

Q305. A transponder sends:

• a) Voice messages
• b) Radar pulses
• c) Identification and altitude data to ATC
• d) Cabin pressure readings
Answer: c) Identification and altitude data to ATC
Q306. Glass cockpit refers to:

• a) Reinforced glass windshields

• b) Cockpits made entirely of glass
• c) Electronic flight instrument displays
• d) Transparent floors
Answer: c) Electronic flight instrument displays

Q307. The heading indicator must be:

• a) Reset manually after turns

• b) Ignored during IFR
• c) Tuned using GPS
• d) Replaced every flight
Answer: a) Reset manually after turns

46. Navigation Systems

Q308. VOR provides pilots with:

• a) Vertical guidance
• b) Lateral position relative to a ground station
• c) Airspeed
• d) Flight duration
Answer: b) Lateral position relative to a ground station

Q309. ILS (Instrument Landing System) aids in:

• a) Takeoff
• b) Enroute navigation
• c) Precision approach and landing
• d) Cabin pressure monitoring
Answer: c) Precision approach and landing

Q310. ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) points to:

• a) ILS beam
• b) VOR radial
• c) Magnetic north
• d) Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Answer: d) Non-directional beacon (NDB)
Q311. GPS is a:

• a) Ground-based system
• b) Satellite-based navigation system
• c) Manual charting tool
• d) Cockpit switch
Answer: b) Satellite-based navigation system

Q312. RNAV (Area Navigation) allows aircraft to:

• a) Fly only via ground stations

• b) Avoid all airspace
• c) Navigate between any two points
• d) Only fly VFR
Answer: c) Navigate between any two points

47. Communication Systems

Q313. VHF radios in aircraft typically operate between:

• a) 30–50 MHz
• b) 108–137 MHz
• c) 2.4–5 GHz
• d) 500–1000 MHz
Answer: b) 108–137 MHz

Q314. Mayday is used to signal:

• a) Routine check-in
• b) Engine start
• c) Life-threatening emergency
• d) Fuel level update
Answer: c) Life-threatening emergency

Q315. Pan-Pan call indicates:

• a) A hijack
• b) Distress
• c) Urgency without immediate danger
• d) Fuel jettison
Answer: c) Urgency without immediate danger
Q316. The Squawk code 7700 indicates:

• a) Normal operations
• b) Hijacking
• c) Radio failure
• d) General emergency
Answer: d) General emergency

Q317. ACARS is used to:

• a) Measure acceleration
• b) Control landing gear
• c) Send digital messages between pilots and airline ops
• d) Encrypt passenger Wi-Fi
Answer: c) Send digital messages between pilots and airline ops

48. Ground Handling and Support Systems

Q318. Ground Power Units (GPUs) provide:

• a) Engine cooling
• b) Cabin oxygen
• c) External electrical power on ground
• d) Fueling
Answer: c) External electrical power on ground

Q319. Pushback tractors are used for:

• a) Refueling aircraft
• b) Cleaning aircraft
• c) Towing aircraft from gate
• d) Lifting cargo
Answer: c) Towing aircraft from gate

Q320. Jet bridges connect:

• a) Runways and taxiways

• b) ATC towers and terminals
• c) Terminal to aircraft door
• d) Cockpit and cabin
Answer: c) Terminal to aircraft door
Q321. Chocks are used to:

• a) Start engines
• b) Stop aircraft from rolling
• c) Clean tires
• d) Drain oil
Answer: b) Stop aircraft from rolling

Q322. Marshalling signals are given by:

• a) Pilots
• b) Tower controllers
• c) Ground personnel with hand signals
• d) Cabin crew
Answer: c) Ground personnel with hand signals

49. Air Traffic Control (ATC) and Airspace

Q323. ATC ensures:

• a) In-flight meal safety

• b) Passenger boarding
• c) Safe aircraft separation
• d) Aircraft cleaning
Answer: c) Safe aircraft separation

Q324. Controlled airspace requires:

• a) No communication
• b) Pilot visual contact only
• c) Clearance from ATC
• d) Balloon-only access
Answer: c) Clearance from ATC

Q325. Uncontrolled airspace allows:

• a) No aircraft
• b) ATC-directed IFR only
• c) Pilots to self-separate visually
• d) Only drones
Answer: c) Pilots to self-separate visually
Q326. Class A airspace typically starts at:

• a) Ground level
• b) 1,000 ft AGL
• c) 18,000 ft MSL
• d) 500 ft MSL
Answer: c) 18,000 ft MSL

Q327. Flight Information Regions (FIRs) are:

• a) Weather systems
• b) Airline-specific routes
• c) Global airspace divisions for ATC
• d) Passenger tracking zones
Answer: c) Global airspace divisions for ATC

50. Safety and Emergency Systems

Q328. ELTs (Emergency Locator Transmitters) are activated by:

• a) Heat
• b) Loss of power
• c) High-speed flight
• d) Impact or manual switch
Answer: d) Impact or manual switch

Q329. Life vests are mandatory for:

• a) Overland flights
• b) Cargo planes
• c) Overwater operations
• d) Night flights
Answer: c) Overwater operations

Q330. Oxygen masks deploy during:

• a) Fire
• b) Airspeed errors
• c) Cabin pressure loss
• d) Takeoff
Answer: c) Cabin pressure loss
Q331. Aircraft fire extinguishing systems often use:

• a) Gasoline
• b) Water
• c) Halon or similar agents
• d) Steam
Answer: c) Halon or similar agents

Q332. Escape slides are deployed:

• a) After cargo loading

• b) During every landing
• c) In emergency evacuations
• d) In preflight checks
Answer: c) In emergency evacuations

Q333. The black box includes:

• a) Flight data and cockpit voice recorders

• b) Engine parts
• c) Radar systems
• d) Hydraulic pumps
Answer: a) Flight data and cockpit voice recorders

Q334. A RAIM alert in GPS indicates:

• a) Rapid airspeed
• b) System is ready
• c) Integrity issue with satellite signal
• d) Cabin temperature drop
Answer: c) Integrity issue with satellite signal

51. Flight Instruments (Continued)

Q335. The airspeed indicator measures speed relative to:

• a) Ground
• b) Mach number
• c) Surrounding air
• d) Sound
Answer: c) Surrounding air
Q336. The vertical speed indicator (VSI) shows:

• a) Distance covered
• b) Climb or descent rate
• c) Groundspeed
• d) Altitude above sea level
Answer: b) Climb or descent rate

Q337. The turn coordinator indicates:

• a) Rate of turn and quality of turn

• b) Wind direction
• c) Elevation
• d) Fuel flow
Answer: a) Rate of turn and quality of turn

Q338. A Machmeter is used primarily in:

• a) Gliders
• b) Light aircraft
• c) Supersonic or high-speed aircraft
• d) Hot air balloons
Answer: c) Supersonic or high-speed aircraft

Q339. A standby attitude indicator functions when:

• a) All systems are working

• b) The GPS is down
• c) Main gyro system fails
• d) External lights are on
Answer: c) Main gyro system fails

52. Engine Instruments and Monitoring Systems

Q340. EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is critical for:

• a) Tire pressure
• b) Fuel level
• c) Engine health
• d) Cabin humidity
Answer: c) Engine health
Q341. A tachometer measures:

• a) Hydraulic pressure
• b) RPM of engine or propeller
• c) Altitude
• d) Voltage
Answer: b) RPM of engine or propeller

Q342. The oil pressure gauge helps prevent:

• a) Wing icing
• b) Engine seizure
• c) Bird strikes
• d) Cabin decompression
Answer: b) Engine seizure

Q343. A drop in manifold pressure could indicate:

• a) Improved performance
• b) Reduced engine output
• c) Increased climb rate
• d) High RPM
Answer: b) Reduced engine output

Q344. The fuel flow meter provides data on:

• a) Oxygen levels
• b) Airspeed
• c) Fuel consumption rate
• d) Cabin lighting
Answer: c) Fuel consumption rate

53. Materials and Structures

Q345. Aluminum alloys are commonly used in aircraft because of:

• a) High cost
• b) Heavy weight
• c) Corrosion sensitivity
• d) Strength-to-weight ratio
Answer: d) Strength-to-weight ratio
Q346. Titanium is often used in aircraft:

• a) Tires
• b) Low-temp areas
• c) High-temp areas like engine parts
• d) Plastic panels
Answer: c) High-temp areas like engine parts

Q347. Composites are advantageous due to:

• a) High density
• b) Electrical conductivity
• c) Weight savings and flexibility
• d) Rust prevention
Answer: c) Weight savings and flexibility

Q348. Stress corrosion cracking is most critical in:

• a) Leather seats
• b) Fuselage skin
• c) Avionics bay
• d) Paint layers
Answer: b) Fuselage skin

Q349. The fuselage is the:

• a) Engine section
• b) Main body of aircraft
• c) Tip of the wing
• d) Vertical stabilizer
Answer: b) Main body of aircraft

54. Flight Performance and Dynamics

Q350. Lift is produced when:

• a) Pressure is greater above the wing

• b) Pressure is greater below the wing
• c) The wing is flat
• d) Flaps are up
Answer: b) Pressure is greater below the wing
Q351. Drag acts in what direction?

• a) Forward
• b) Upward
• c) Opposite to motion
• d) Downward only
Answer: c) Opposite to motion

Q352. Thrust must equal drag to achieve:

• a) Takeoff
• b) Level acceleration
• c) Constant speed flight
• d) Vertical climb
Answer: c) Constant speed flight

Q353. Induced drag increases with:

• a) Altitude
• b) Airspeed
• c) Lift
• d) Temperature
Answer: c) Lift

Q354. The center of gravity (CG) affects:

• a) Passenger mood
• b) Fuel color
• c) Stability and controllability
• d) Brake temperature
Answer: c) Stability and controllability

55. Aerodynamics

Q355. Bernoulli's principle explains that as the speed of a fluid increases, its pressure:

• a) Increases
• b) Decreases
• c) Remains constant
• d) Becomes turbulent
Answer: b) Decreases
Q356. Boundary layer refers to:

• a) The layer of air above the aircraft

• b) The airflow near the surface of an object
• c) A layer of fuel
• d) The air inside the cockpit
Answer: b) The airflow near the surface of an object

Q357. The angle of attack is the angle between the:

• a) Aircraft’s body and the ground

• b) Wing chord line and relative airflow
• c) Fuselage and landing gear
• d) Horizontal stabilizer and the fuselage
Answer: b) Wing chord line and relative airflow

Q358. The stall speed of an aircraft:

• a) Decreases with altitude

• b) Increases with altitude
• c) Increases with higher load factors
• d) Is unaffected by aircraft weight
Answer: c) Increases with higher load factors

Q359. Mach number is the ratio of:

• a) Aircraft speed to the speed of sound

• b) Aircraft speed to the airspeed
• c) Airspeed to altitude
• d) Engine thrust to weight
Answer: a) Aircraft speed to the speed of sound

56. Flight Phases and Operations

Q360. The takeoff roll is the phase during which:

• a) The aircraft reaches cruising altitude

• b) The aircraft accelerates along the runway
• c) The flight plan is checked
• d) The engines are powered down
Answer: b) The aircraft accelerates along the runway
Q361. During climb, the aircraft's angle of attack typically:

• a) Increases
• b) Decreases
• c) Remains constant
• d) Fluctuates randomly
Answer: a) Increases

Q362. Descent is typically initiated by:

• a) Decreasing engine power and lowering the nose

• b) Increasing altitude and speed
• c) Activating emergency procedures
• d) Raising the landing gear
Answer: a) Decreasing engine power and lowering the nose

Q363. During the approach phase, the aircraft's speed is:

• a) Increased
• b) Decreased
• c) Constant
• d) Unpredictable
Answer: b) Decreased

Q364. The landing roll begins when:

• a) The aircraft reaches touchdown speed

• b) The aircraft lifts off the ground
• c) The aircraft touches the ground and slows down
• d) The engines shut off
Answer: c) The aircraft touches the ground and slows down

57. Aircraft Systems

Q365. The hydraulic system on an aircraft is responsible for:

• a) Controlling engine power

• b) Operating flight control surfaces
• c) Providing oxygen to the cabin
• d) Monitoring airspeed
Answer: b) Operating flight control surfaces
Q366. Electronics on an aircraft include:

• a) Lights and engines

• b) Air conditioning and cargo
• c) Avionics systems and flight controls
• d) Flight attendants and catering
Answer: c) Avionics systems and flight controls

Q367. Autopilot systems typically control:

• a) Only heading and altitude

• b) Thrust and landing gear
• c) Flight path, heading, altitude, and speed
• d) Emergency oxygen release
Answer: c) Flight path, heading, altitude, and speed

Q368. The environmental control system (ECS) regulates:

• a) Engine performance
• b) Cabin pressure and temperature
• c) Fuel flow
• d) Aircraft stability
Answer: b) Cabin pressure and temperature

Q369. The landing gear consists of components such as:

• a) Tires, struts, and shock absorbers

• b) Fuselage, wings, and tail
• c) Wings and stabilizers
• d) Propellers and engines
Answer: a) Tires, struts, and shock absorbers

58. Aircraft Performance Calculations

Q370. The takeoff distance increases with:

• a) Higher altitude
• b) Lower weight
• c) Higher engine power
• d) Lower drag
Answer: a) Higher altitude
Q371. Fuel consumption in aircraft is typically measured in:

• a) Liters per hour

• b) Gallons per minute
• c) Pounds per hour
• d) Miles per gallon
Answer: c) Pounds per hour

Q372. The climb rate is calculated as:

• a) The distance the aircraft travels per hour

• b) The speed of the aircraft divided by its weight
• c) The altitude gained per minute of flight
• d) The number of turns during ascent
Answer: c) The altitude gained per minute of flight

Q373. The landing distance is influenced by:

• a) Engine type
• b) Wing loading
• c) Airspeed during approach
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Q374. Weight and balance calculations are important to ensure:

• a) The correct number of passengers

• b) The aircraft is within safe loading limits
• c) The aircraft has enough fuel
• d) The proper engine temperature
Answer: b) The aircraft is within safe loading limits

59. Flight Planning and Navigation

Q375. A flight plan typically includes:

• a) Aircraft type, route, and weather forecast

• b) Crew names and passenger list
• c) Fuel amounts only
• d) Weather and airspeed
Answer: a) Aircraft type, route, and weather forecast
Q376. Flight levels are expressed in:

• a) Feet above ground level (AGL)

• b) Feet above sea level (MSL)
• c) Kilometers
• d) Nautical miles
Answer: b) Feet above sea level (MSL)

Q377. Airways are:

• a) Routes that aircraft must follow when flying at high altitudes

• b) Specific landing procedures
• c) Routes marked on the ground
• d) Only used by helicopters
Answer: a) Routes that aircraft must follow when flying at high altitudes

Q378. VFR (Visual Flight Rules) are:

• a) Flight rules for pilots flying without instruments

• b) Rules for aircraft flying in controlled airspace
• c) Rules for flights under instrument navigation
• d) Rules allowing flights above 10,000 ft
Answer: a) Flight rules for pilots flying without instruments

Q379. IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) require:

• a) The pilot to be able to see the ground at all times

• b) Pilots to fly only during the day
• c) Aircraft to fly based on instruments without visual reference to the ground
• d) Special training for night operations
Answer: c) Aircraft to fly based on instruments without visual reference to the ground

60. Aircraft Safety and Emergency Procedures

Q380. A go-around is performed when:

• a) The aircraft experiences a mechanical failure

• b) A safe landing is not possible
• c) The runway is clear
• d) The fuel level is too high
Answer: b) A safe landing is not possible
Q381. In the event of a cabin depressurization, passengers are instructed to:

• a) Lower the window shades

• b) Fasten seatbelts and use oxygen masks
• c) Open emergency exits
• d) Increase altitude immediately
Answer: b) Fasten seatbelts and use oxygen masks

Q382. During an engine failure after takeoff, the pilot should:

• a) Attempt to restart the engine

• b) Land straight ahead or turn back to the airport
• c) Perform a steep climb
• d) Turn on all lights and signals
Answer: b) Land straight ahead or turn back to the airport

Q383. The fire suppression system in an aircraft is designed to:

• a) Prevent overheating of the engine

• b) Put out fires in the engine or cargo bay
• c) Alert passengers of smoke
• d) Increase cabin pressure
Answer: b) Put out fires in the engine or cargo bay

Q384. Smoke evacuation procedures include:

• a) Using oxygen masks

• b) Turning off all lights
• c) Leaving the cabin immediately
• d) Turning off the autopilot
Answer: a) Using oxygen masks

61. Aircraft Maintenance and Inspections

Q385. The purpose of an aircraft inspection is to:

• a) Verify fuel efficiency

• b) Ensure the aircraft’s safety and airworthiness
• c) Measure the aircraft's speed
• d) Monitor crew performance
Answer: b) Ensure the aircraft’s safety and airworthiness
Q386. The Pre-flight inspection involves:

• a) Checking the cargo weight

• b) Reviewing the flight plan
• c) Ensuring all systems are operational
• d) Testing the aircraft’s speed
Answer: c) Ensuring all systems are operational

Q387. Structural inspections typically focus on:

• a) Engine performance
• b) Wing and fuselage integrity
• c) Electrical systems
• d) Pilot health
Answer: b) Wing and fuselage integrity

Q388. The A check in an aircraft maintenance schedule involves:

• a) Major engine overhaul

• b) Routine inspections and minor repairs
• c) Landing gear replacement
• d) Complete aircraft disassembly
Answer: b) Routine inspections and minor repairs

Q389. Engine overhauls are usually performed based on:

• a) Calendar time
• b) Total hours flown
• c) Manufacturer's recommendations
• d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

62. Flight Crew and Training

Q390. Crew resource management (CRM) is a training program designed to:

• a) Improve communication and decision-making skills among crew members

• b) Increase the speed of flight
• c) Teach passengers emergency procedures
• d) Train pilots in engine mechanics
Answer: a) Improve communication and decision-making skills among crew members
Q391. Pilot licensing is typically managed by:

• a) Airlines
• b) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
• c) National aviation authorities
• d) Aircraft manufacturers
Answer: c) National aviation authorities

Q392. Type rating refers to:

• a) A certificate for a specific aircraft type

• b) An endorsement for night flying
• c) The total flying hours required
• d) The age limit for flying
Answer: a) A certificate for a specific aircraft type

Q393. In simulator training, pilots practice:

• a) Engine start procedures

• b) Emergency scenarios
• c) Fuel calculations
• d) Passenger announcements
Answer: b) Emergency scenarios

Q394. A flight crew is composed of:

• a) Pilots only
• b) Cabin crew only
• c) Pilots and cabin crew
• d) Maintenance crew and passengers
Answer: c) Pilots and cabin crew

63. Weather and Environmental Factors

Q395. Icing can negatively impact aircraft performance by:

• a) Reducing drag
• b) Decreasing weight
• c) Decreasing lift and increasing drag
• d) Stabilizing flight
Answer: c) Decreasing lift and increasing drag
Q396. Turbulence is caused by:

• a) Clear skies
• b) Stable air conditions
• c) Sudden changes in airflow
• d) Low humidity
Answer: c) Sudden changes in airflow

Q397. Wind shear refers to:

• a) A gradual change in wind speed or direction

• b) A sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance
• c) The temperature gradient between layers of air
• d) The strength of turbulence
Answer: b) A sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance

Q398. Thunderstorms are most likely to form in:

• a) High pressure areas

• b) Low pressure areas with warm, moist air
• c) Cold and dry air masses
• d) Stable, calm air
Answer: b) Low pressure areas with warm, moist air

Q399. The jet stream affects aircraft by:

• a) Reducing visibility
• b) Providing smooth flying conditions
• c) Significantly altering flight paths and speed
• d) Increasing cabin temperature
Answer: c) Significantly altering flight paths and speed

64. Airport Operations and Procedures

Q400. Air traffic control (ATC) provides services to:

• a) Pilots only
• b) All aircraft operating in controlled airspace
• c) Only large commercial airlines
• d) Only military aircraft
Answer: b) All aircraft operating in controlled airspace
Q401. The runway designator indicates the:

• a) Length of the runway

• b) Compass heading of the runway
• c) Traffic pattern around the airport
• d) Time of takeoff
Answer: b) Compass heading of the runway

Q402. VFR flight plans are used when:

• a) Flying in controlled airspace

• b) Weather conditions are good for visual navigation
• c) Flight is under instrument control
• d) The aircraft is flying at a cruising altitude
Answer: b) Weather conditions are good for visual navigation

Q403. Instrument approach procedures (IAP) are designed for:

• a) Clear weather conditions

• b) Approaching airports in low visibility
• c) Taking off in bad weather
• d) Flying in daylight hours only
Answer: b) Approaching airports in low visibility

Q404. A clearway is a region in the vicinity of an airport where:

• a) Aircraft must avoid certain airspaces

• b) No obstacles are allowed to be higher than a specified altitude
• c) Only visual flight is permitted
• d) Only military aircraft are allowed to fly
Answer: b) No obstacles are allowed to be higher than a specified altitude

65. Aircraft Classification and Types

Q405. A commercial aircraft is typically designed to:

• a) Carry cargo only

• b) Carry passengers and cargo
• c) Carry passengers only
• d) Perform military operations
Answer: b) Carry passengers and cargo
Q406. General aviation (GA) aircraft are:

• a) Designed for military operations

• b) Primarily used for private, non-commercial use
• c) Built only for cargo transport
• d) Exclusively used by commercial airlines
Answer: b) Primarily used for private, non-commercial use

Q407. Light aircraft typically have a gross takeoff weight (GTOW) of:

• a) Less than 12,500 lbs

• b) More than 50,000 lbs
• c) Between 12,500 lbs and 60,000 lbs
• d) Over 100,000 lbs
Answer: a) Less than 12,500 lbs

Q408. Supersonic aircraft are designed to fly at speeds greater than:

• a) Mach 1
• b) Mach 2
• c) Mach 0.5
• d) Mach 3
Answer: a) Mach 1

Q409. Business jets are primarily used for:

• a) Commercial passenger flights

• b) Private air travel and corporate transportation
• c) Cargo and mail transport
• d) Military reconnaissance
Answer: b) Private air travel and corporate transportation

66. Aviation Regulations and Standards

Q410. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is responsible for:

• a) Setting aviation fuel prices

• b) Establishing global aviation safety standards
• c) Managing air traffic control services
• d) Developing new aircraft designs
Answer: b) Establishing global aviation safety standards
Q411. Airworthiness directives are issued by:

• a) Airlines
• b) Aircraft manufacturers
• c) The national aviation authority (e.g., FAA or EASA)
• d) ICAO
Answer: c) The national aviation authority (e.g., FAA or EASA)

Q412. Flight crew licensing is regulated by:

• a) The manufacturer of the aircraft

• b) The airline
• c) The national aviation authority
• d) ICAO
Answer: c) The national aviation authority

Q413. The European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) primarily ensures:

• a) The global standardization of air traffic control systems

• b) The safety of civil aviation within Europe
• c) The protection of wildlife near airports
• d) The regulation of airfares within Europe
Answer: b) The safety of civil aviation within Europe

Q414. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) in the United States is responsible for:

• a) Setting international aviation policies

• b) Regulating air traffic within the United States
• c) Ensuring worldwide aviation fuel standards
• d) Manufacturing aircraft
Answer: b) Regulating air traffic within the United States

67. Aircraft Systems and Operations

Q415. The powerplant of an aircraft typically includes:

• a) Wings and fuselage

• b) Engines and related systems
• c) Avionics and communication systems
• d) Landing gear and cabin systems
Answer: b) Engines and related systems
Q416. The pitot-static system measures:

• a) Fuel consumption
• b) Engine temperature
• c) Airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed
• d) Engine thrust and weight
Answer: c) Airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed

Q417. Autopilot systems help pilots by:

• a) Completing the flight plan

• b) Maintaining altitude, heading, and speed
• c) Performing all flight maneuvers
• d) Monitoring aircraft weight
Answer: b) Maintaining altitude, heading, and speed

Q418. Aircraft de-icing systems are used to:

• a) Reduce cabin temperature

• b) Remove ice from the wings and tail
• c) Increase engine power
• d) Improve aerodynamics during flight
Answer: b) Remove ice from the wings and tail

Q419. The flaps on an aircraft are used to:

• a) Increase lift and decrease drag during takeoff and landing

• b) Control the yaw of the aircraft
• c) Increase the speed of the aircraft
• d) Steer the aircraft on the ground
Answer: a) Increase lift and decrease drag during takeoff and landing

68. Human Factors in Aviation

Q420. Human Factors in aviation focus on:

• a) Improving the speed of aircraft engines

• b) Understanding how humans interact with systems and technology
• c) Developing new aircraft materials
• d) Creating more efficient fuel
Answer: b) Understanding how humans interact with systems and technology
69. Safety and Emergency Procedures

Q421. Emergency exits on an aircraft are designed to:

• a) Increase cargo space

• b) Provide a safe evacuation route during an emergency
• c) Reduce fuel consumption
• d) Enhance the passenger experience
Answer: b) Provide a safe evacuation route during an emergency

Q422. In the event of an emergency landing, pilots are trained to:

• a) Increase altitude
• b) Stabilize the aircraft and prepare for a safe touchdown
• c) Open all doors to let passengers exit
• d) Immediately shut down the engines
Answer: b) Stabilize the aircraft and prepare for a safe touchdown

Q423. The emergency oxygen system on an aircraft is activated when:

• a) Cabin pressure drops below a safe level

• b) The aircraft reaches cruising altitude
• c) The aircraft enters a specific airspace
• d) The weather conditions worsen
Answer: a) Cabin pressure drops below a safe level

Q424. Fire extinguishers on an aircraft are typically located:

• a) In the cockpit only

• b) In the overhead compartments and under seats
• c) Only in the galley
• d) Outside the aircraft
Answer: b) In the overhead compartments and under seats

Q425. Passenger briefings typically include:

• a) Weather conditions during the flight

• b) Emergency evacuation procedures and the location of exits
• c) Information about the airline's history
• d) Seatbelt regulations
Answer: b) Emergency evacuation procedures and the location of exits
70. Aircraft Loading and Weight Distribution

Q426. The center of gravity (CG) of an aircraft is:

• a) The point where the aircraft's weight is evenly distributed

• b) Always at the midpoint of the fuselage
• c) Located at the nose of the aircraft
• d) Never adjusted
Answer: a) The point where the aircraft's weight is evenly distributed

Q427. Load distribution on an aircraft is important because:

• a) It affects the aircraft's fuel efficiency

• b) It ensures the aircraft remains within weight limits and maintains balance
• c) It determines the maximum speed of the aircraft
• d) It increases the passenger comfort
Answer: b) It ensures the aircraft remains within weight limits and maintains balance

Q428. Excessive weight on the aircraft's wings can result in:

• a) Increased fuel consumption

• b) Reduced engine performance
• c) Structural damage and reduced flight efficiency
• d) Improved climb rate
Answer: c) Structural damage and reduced flight efficiency

Q429. The maximum takeoff weight (MTOW) of an aircraft refers to:

• a) The maximum weight allowed for the aircraft during landing

• b) The weight of the aircraft including passengers, cargo, and fuel
• c) The weight of the aircraft without fuel
• d) The weight of the aircraft's engines
Answer: b) The weight of the aircraft including passengers, cargo, and fuel

Q430. In cargo loading, it is important to:

• a) Prioritize the heaviest items at the back of the aircraft

• b) Load cargo randomly
• c) Distribute weight evenly across the aircraft
• d) Load all fragile items first
Answer: c) Distribute weight evenly across the aircraft
71. Aircraft Navigation Systems

Q431. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is used in aviation for:

• a) Air traffic control communication

• b) Determining precise location and route
• c) Enhancing the fuel efficiency of the aircraft
• d) Managing cabin temperature
Answer: b) Determining precise location and route

Q432. Inertial Navigation Systems (INS) provide:

• a) Real-time weather data

• b) Information about the aircraft's position based on its velocity and heading
• c) Airspeed and altitude readings
• d) Communication between the aircraft and ground control
Answer: b) Information about the aircraft's position based on its velocity and heading

Q433. The autopilot system relies on:

• a) Manual control from the pilot

• b) Aircraft sensors and flight management systems
• c) External radar data
• d) The aircraft's fuel levels
Answer: b) Aircraft sensors and flight management systems

Q434. VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) is a type of:

• a) Communication system
• b) Radar system for detecting aircraft
• c) Navigation aid that provides directional signals
• d) Weather system
Answer: c) Navigation aid that provides directional signals

Q435. The Instrument Landing System (ILS) is used to:

• a) Guide the aircraft in flight

• b) Provide information about weather conditions
• c) Direct aircraft during the final approach to a runway
• d) Monitor passenger behavior
Answer: c) Direct aircraft during the final approach to a runway
72. Aircraft Communication Systems

Q436. The primary method of communication between aircraft and air traffic control is:

• a) Radio transmission
• b) Satellite communication
• c) Telephone
• d) Visual signals
Answer: a) Radio transmission

Q437. ACARS (Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System) is used for:

• a) In-flight entertainment
• b) Automatic reporting of flight information such as position, weather, and fuel
consumption
• c) Communicating with passengers
• d) Navigational guidance
Answer: b) Automatic reporting of flight information such as position, weather, and fuel
consumption

Q438. The transponder in an aircraft is used to:

• a) Measure the aircraft's fuel efficiency

• b) Relay the aircraft’s location to air traffic control
• c) Send weather data to ground control
• d) Monitor engine performance
Answer: b) Relay the aircraft’s location to air traffic control

Q439. HF radio communication in aviation is primarily used for:

• a) Short-range communications between aircraft and ground stations

• b) Long-range communication, especially in remote areas or over oceans
• c) Communication between the cockpit and cabin crew
• d) Real-time video transmission
Answer: b) Long-range communication, especially in remote areas or over oceans

Q440. The ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) is designed to:

• a) Detect engine failure

• b) Automatically transmit a distress signal in the event of a crash
• c) Monitor airspeed and altitude
• d) Provide communication between pilots and passengers
Answer: b) Automatically transmit a distress signal in the event of a crash
73. Aircraft Maintenance and Inspections

Q441. A pre-flight inspection of an aircraft is primarily conducted to:

• a) Verify fuel levels

• b) Ensure the aircraft is safe and airworthy before takeoff
• c) Check the comfort of passenger seats
• d) Adjust cabin lighting
Answer: b) Ensure the aircraft is safe and airworthy before takeoff

Q442. The Airframe and Powerplant (A&P) mechanic is responsible for:

• a) Designing new aircraft models

• b) Maintaining and repairing the aircraft’s airframe and engine systems
• c) Managing in-flight services
• d) Piloting the aircraft
Answer: b) Maintaining and repairing the aircraft’s airframe and engine systems

Q443. The aircraft logbook is used to:

• a) Record flight times of the aircraft

• b) Track maintenance activities and repairs performed on the aircraft
• c) Record passenger complaints
• d) Monitor aircraft performance data
Answer: b) Track maintenance activities and repairs performed on the aircraft

Q444. A daily inspection for an aircraft is required to be conducted:

• a) Before each flight to ensure the aircraft is airworthy

• b) Every 6 months
• c) Once every 5 flights
• d) Before the flight is planned to depart from the airport
Answer: a) Before each flight to ensure the aircraft is airworthy

Q445. Service bulletins are issued by aircraft manufacturers to:

• a) Advertise new aircraft models

• b) Provide information on routine maintenance procedures and upgrades
• c) Suggest routes for improved efficiency
• d) Offer discounts on spare parts
Answer: b) Provide information on routine maintenance procedures and upgrades
74. Aircraft Structures

Q446. The fuselage of an aircraft serves as:

• a) The wings' attachment point

• b) The main body of the aircraft where passengers and cargo are carried
• c) The engine housing
• d) The vertical stabilizer
Answer: b) The main body of the aircraft where passengers and cargo are carried

Q447. The wings of an aircraft are responsible for:

• a) Providing the structural support for the engines

• b) Generating lift to counteract the weight of the aircraft
• c) Housing the fuel tanks
• d) Controlling the aircraft's flight path
Answer: b) Generating lift to counteract the weight of the aircraft

Q448. The empennage (tail section) of an aircraft includes:

• a) The wings and fuselage

• b) The vertical and horizontal stabilizers
• c) The main landing gear
• d) The cargo hold
Answer: b) The vertical and horizontal stabilizers

Q449. The landing gear of an aircraft is responsible for:

• a) Providing power to the engines

• b) Maintaining control during flight
• c) Supporting the aircraft on the ground and during takeoff and landing
• d) Generating thrust for the engines
Answer: c) Supporting the aircraft on the ground and during takeoff and landing

Q450. The engine nacelle is:

• a) The fuel tank of the aircraft

• b) The housing that contains the aircraft’s engine
• c) The control system for navigation
• d) The area where passengers sit
Answer: b) The housing that contains the aircraft’s engine
75. Aircraft Propulsion Systems

Q451. A turbofan engine is primarily used in:

• a) Helicopters
• b) General aviation aircraft
• c) Commercial airliners and military jets
• d) Gliders
Answer: c) Commercial airliners and military jets

Q452. The turboprop engine combines:

• a) Jet propulsion with rotor blades

• b) A jet engine with a propeller-driven aircraft
• c) A piston engine with a turbine
• d) An electric motor with jet turbines
Answer: b) A jet engine with a propeller-driven aircraft

Q453. The jet engine operates on the principle of:

• a) Air compression and expansion

• b) Rocket propulsion
• c) Magnetic levitation
• d) Fuel combustion only
Answer: a) Air compression and expansion

Q454. The afterburner in a jet engine is used to:

• a) Increase fuel efficiency

• b) Enhance thrust by burning excess fuel after the turbine
• c) Cool the engine
• d) Regulate exhaust temperatures
Answer: b) Enhance thrust by burning excess fuel after the turbine

Q455. The compressor in a jet engine:

• a) Increases the speed of the exhaust gases

• b) Compresses incoming air to increase pressure before combustion
• c) Transports fuel to the engine
• d) Reduces the weight of the engine
Answer: b) Compresses incoming air to increase pressure before combustion
76. Aircraft Performance

Q456. Takeoff distance is influenced by factors such as:

• a) Aircraft weight, wind speed, and runway conditions

• b) The number of passengers aboard
• c) The color of the aircraft
• d) The air conditioning settings
Answer: a) Aircraft weight, wind speed, and runway conditions

Q457. The climb rate of an aircraft is primarily determined by:

• a) The aircraft’s weight and engine performance

• b) The altitude of the destination airport
• c) The number of crew members
• d) The aircraft’s color
Answer: a) The aircraft’s weight and engine performance

Q458. The maximum cruising speed of an aircraft is typically determined by:

• a) The aircraft's engine capacity and aerodynamic design

• b) The number of passengers
• c) The altitude of the destination airport
• d) The type of aircraft exterior paint used
Answer: a) The aircraft's engine capacity and aerodynamic design

Q459. The stall speed of an aircraft refers to:

• a) The minimum speed required for takeoff

• b) The speed at which the aircraft loses lift and enters an aerodynamic stall
• c) The speed at which the aircraft can cruise without burning excessive fuel
• d) The maximum speed the aircraft can reach in a dive
Answer: b) The speed at which the aircraft loses lift and enters an aerodynamic stall

Q460. Range of an aircraft is influenced by:

• a) Aircraft design, weight, fuel capacity, and weather conditions

• b) The number of crew members
• c) The aircraft's exterior color
• d) The number of passengers on board
Answer: a) Aircraft design, weight, fuel capacity, and weather conditions
Q461. Who was the first person to fly solo across the Atlantic Ocean in 1927?

• a) Howard Hughes
• b) Charles Lindbergh
• c) Wiley Post
• d) Amelia Earhart
Answer: b

Q462. Which design feature distinguished the Wright brothers’ 1903 Flyer from most
modern aircraft?

• a) Retractable tricycle landing gear

• b) Jet-powered propulsion
• c) Canard elevator located at the front
• d) Swept wings for speed
Answer: c

Q463. Which of the following aircraft is a supersonic jet fighter?

• a) F-16 Fighting Falcon

• b) Airbus A330
• c) Cessna 172 Skyhawk
• d) Boeing 747
Answer: a

Q464. Which of the following propulsion systems is a turboprop engine?

• a) A jet engine with a large fan bypass

• b) A piston engine with fuel injection
• c) A gas turbine engine driving a propeller through a reduction gearbox
• d) A rocket engine with solid fuel
Answer: c

Q465. VOR stands for which of the following?

• a) Very Only Radio

• b) Visual Omni Refueling
• c) Variable Operational Radius
• d) VHF Omnidirectional Range
Answer: d
Q466. Which cockpit instrument relies on the pitot-static system to measure dynamic
pressure?

• a) Airspeed indicator
• b) Heading indicator
• c) Attitude indicator
• d) Altimeter
Answer: a

Q467. When an in-flight engine fire is discovered, what should a pilot do first?

• a) Immediately attempt an emergency landing

• b) Increase throttle to clear the flame
• c) Close throttle, cut off fuel, and activate the fire extinguisher
• d) Contact ATC before taking any action
Answer: c

Q468. Which aerodynamic force acts opposite to the direction of flight and consists of
parasitic and induced components?

• a) Drag
• b) Weight
• c) Lift
• d) Thrust
Answer: a

Q469. Which international body develops and maintains global aviation standards and
recommended practices?

• a) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

• b) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
• c) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
• d) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
Answer: b

Q470. TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) onboard an aircraft primarily provides
what function?

• a) Fuel management optimization

• b) Weather radar information
• c) Alerts and advisories to avoid mid-air collisions
• d) Automatic pilot assistance during tight turns
Answer: c
Q471. What condition must prevail for a pilot to log an hour of instrument flight time?

• a) Flying exclusively at night

• b) Operating strictly under instrument flight rules (IFR)
• c) Flying without passengers
• d) Flying with visual reference to the ground
Answer: b

Q472. Strong downdrafts of air near the ground that can cause wind shear and severe
turbulence are called?

• a) Cold fronts
• b) Heavy rain showers
• c) Mountain waves
• d) Microbursts
Answer: d

Q473. In aviation communications, the acronym NOTAM stands for?

• a) National Operations of Terminal Airspace

• b) Notification of Arrival Methods
• c) Notice to Airmen
• d) Navigation of Traffic and Air Movement
Answer: c

Q474. In older commercial airliners, the flight engineer’s primary role is to:

• a) Provide air traffic control services

• b) Assist the cabin crew with passenger duties
• c) Manage and monitor the engines and aircraft systems
• d) Pilot the aircraft
Answer: c

Q475. Which of the following was a supersonic commercial airliner?

• a) Boeing 727
• b) Lockheed Tristar L-1011
• c) de Havilland Comet
• d) Concorde
Answer: d
Q476. What does the aircraft attitude indicator display?

• a) Current speed relative to ground

• b) Direction of travel relative to magnetic north
• c) Pitch and bank relative to the horizon
• d) Altitude above sea level
Answer: c

Q477. What type of engine typically powers a small general aviation airplane, such as a
Cessna 172?

• a) Turbojet
• b) Electric motor
• c) Piston (reciprocating) engine
• d) Turbofan
Answer: c

Q478. In modern avionics, GPS is an example of a GNSS. What does GNSS stand for?

• a) Ground-based Navigation Signal System

• b) Geo-Navigational Safety Standard
• c) Global Navigation Satellite System
• d) General Network Synchronization Service
Answer: c

Q479. The cabin pressurization system on a modern jet aircraft is primarily used to:

• a) Supply oxygen to individual passengers

• b) Reduce aerodynamic drag during high speed flight
• c) Maintain a safe and comfortable cabin pressure for passengers and crew
• d) Increase engine thrust at high altitude
Answer: c

Q480. Aircraft voice communications on VHF channels use which type of modulation?

• a) Amplitude modulation (AM)

• b) Frequency modulation (FM)
• c) Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
• d) Single-sideband modulation (SSB)
Answer: a
Q481. According to FAA regulations, what is the minimum pilot certificate required to act
as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers for hire?

• a) Student Pilot certificate

• b) Commercial Pilot certificate
• c) Recreational Pilot certificate
• d) Private Pilot certificate
Answer: b

Q482. What happens when an airplane’s wing exceeds its critical angle of attack?

• a) Lift significantly decreases (wing stalls)

• b) Angle of climb becomes infinite
• c) Drag goes to zero
• d) Thrust automatically increases
Answer: a

Q483. When ATC says “cleared to land,” the pilot should:

• a) Go around and climb back to pattern altitude

• b) Taxi off the runway at the nearest exit
• c) Land on any runway of choice
• d) Land on the runway as cleared
Answer: d

Q484. What does the pitot tube measure in an aircraft’s air data system?

• a) Cabin pressure
• b) Dynamic fuel pressure
• c) Atmospheric static pressure
• d) Total (stagnation) pressure
Answer: d

Q485. Reaching Mach 1 means an aircraft is flying at:

• a) The same speed as a jet stream

• b) The speed of sound in that medium
• c) Twice the speed of sound
• d) The speed of 1 Mach is undefined
Answer: b
Q486. What is the term for the angle between an airplane wing’s chord line and the
oncoming airflow?

• a) Bank angle
• b) Angle of yaw
• c) Angle of attack
• d) Downwash angle
Answer: c

Q487. In aviation transponder codes, squawk 7500 indicates:

• a) Fuel shortage
• b) General emergency
• c) Radio communication failure
• d) Unlawful interference (hijacking)
Answer: d

Q488. During flight, hypoxia refers to which condition?

• a) Engine failure at high altitude

• b) Excessive humidity
• c) Reduced oxygen reaching body tissues
• d) Low cabin pressure
Answer: c

Q489. The approach of a cold front is typically signaled by which weather phenomenon?

• a) Rapid temperature rise

• b) Stratus clouds and steady rain
• c) Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds
• d) Lingering cirrostratus clouds
Answer: c

Q490. Wake turbulence generated by a large aircraft is strongest at which relative position
of a trailing aircraft?

• a) Below and behind the leading aircraft

• b) Above and ahead of the leading aircraft
• c) Directly beside the leading aircraft
• d) Far ahead of the leading aircraft
Answer: a
Q491. Which navigation method involves calculating position using only heading, speed,
and time from a known point?

• a) VOR tracking
• b) Dead reckoning
• c) Radar vectoring
• d) GPS navigation
Answer: b

Q492. In aircraft emergency equipment, “ELT” stands for:

• a) Emergency Locator Transmitter

• b) Enhanced Landing Technology
• c) Emergency Lift Throttle
• d) Engine Light Trigger
Answer: a

Q493. What is the effect of high density altitude on aircraft performance?

• a) Reduced engine power and lift

• b) Increased engine power
• c) No effect on performance
• d) Increased climb rate
Answer: a

Q494. Why are swept wings often used on jet airliners and fighters?

• a) To improve stall characteristics at low speed

• b) To provide additional fuel tank space
• c) To reduce drag at high (transonic/supersonic) speeds
• d) To reduce manufacturing costs
Answer: c

Q495. In airplane performance, V1 is defined as:

• a) The maximum flap extension speed

• b) The speed at which the aircraft rotates
• c) The decision speed beyond which takeoff cannot be safely aborted
• d) The stall speed in landing configuration
Answer: c
Q496. Which of the following is the speed read directly from the airspeed indicator in the
cockpit, without corrections?

• a) True airspeed
• b) Mach speed
• c) Ground speed
• d) Indicated airspeed
Answer: d

Q497. In aviation safety, “FOD” commonly stands for:

• a) Fuel on Demand
• b) Foreign Object Debris (or Damage)
• c) Flight Operational Directive
• d) Frequency Occupied Duty
Answer: b

Q498. What is the primary function of a VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range) station?

• a) Providing azimuth (bearing) information to aircraft

• b) Broadcasting ATIS
• c) Transmitting weather data
• d) Measuring visibility
Answer: a

Q499. Which of the following is a turbofan engine used on many airliners?

• a) Pratt & Whitney R-1340

• b) Rolls-Royce RB211
• c) Lycoming O-320
• d) General Electric J47
Answer: b

Q500. Stall speed refers to:

• a) The speed above which the aircraft is in ground effect

• b) The maximum speed an aircraft can fly
• c) The speed at which the engines fail
• d) The minimum speed at which the wing can produce enough lift to support the aircraft
Answer: d
Q501. What does the term “spatial disorientation” refer to in aviation?

• a) A navigational error caused by a faulty compass

• b) Temporary amnesia of flight procedures
• c) A pilot’s inability to correctly interpret attitude, altitude, or motion due to confusing
sensory inputs
• d) A system fault in the cockpit instrumentation
Answer: c

Q502. An aircraft’s transponder is primarily used to:

• a) Control the cabin pressurization automatically

• b) Send weather reports to pilots
• c) Transmit identification and altitude information to ATC radar
• d) Enhance fuel efficiency while in flight
Answer: c

Q503. What information is typically provided by the ATIS (Automatic Terminal

Information Service) at an airport?

• a) Scheduled maintenance activities

• b) Traffic congestion in the terminal building
• c) Restaurant menus near the airport
• d) Current weather, active runways, and airport notices
Answer: d

Q504. Which cockpit instrument displays the aircraft’s heading relative to magnetic north?

• a) Altimeter
• b) Heading indicator (Directional Gyro)
• c) Vertical speed indicator
• d) Attitude indicator
Answer: b

Q505. Pilot use the PAPI (Precision Approach Path Indicator) to:

• a) Navigate using radio beacons

• b) Maintain the correct glide slope during approach
• c) Measure crosswind on the runway
• d) Control engine power settings
Answer: b
Q506. Activation of a stall warning horn indicates that the wing is approaching:

• a) Minimum fuel state

• b) Its critical angle of attack
• c) Maximum takeoff weight
• d) Overspeed condition
Answer: b

Q507. Extending the wing flaps during landing helps the aircraft by:

• a) Automatically activating spoilers

• b) Reducing aircraft weight
• c) Decreasing wing surface area
• d) Increasing lift and drag so it can land at a lower speed
Answer: d

Q508. In aviation, the term “black box” commonly refers to:

• a) The emergency oxygen supply

• b) The onboard weather radar
• c) The flight data recorder and cockpit voice recorder
• d) The main landing gear
Answer: c

Q509. A runway designated 09R is oriented approximately with a magnetic heading of:

• a) 180° (south)
• b) 90° (east)
• c) 9° (north)
• d) 270° (west)
Answer: b

Q510. When flying under IFR, the pilot navigates primarily using:

• a) Ground visual landmarks

• b) Pilotage (maps and landmarks)
• c) Celestial navigation
• d) Aircraft instruments and ATC guidance
Answer: d
Q511. At a tower-controlled airport, a steady green light signal from the control tower to
an aircraft in flight means:

• a) Land at discretion
• b) Return to the ramp
• c) Continue circling
• d) Cleared to land
Answer: d

Q512. What equipment and conditions are required to operate VFR in Class B airspace?

• a) Only a flight plan and 5 mi visibility

• b) Night vision goggles
• c) A licensed mechanic on board
• d) Two-way radio communication, Mode C transponder, 3 mi visibility, clear of clouds
Answer: d

Q513. ADIZ (often mentioned in flight planning) stands for:

• a) Air Defense Identification Zone

• b) Aircraft Directional Instruction Zone
• c) Authorized Departure Instrument Zone
• d) Automatic Data Integration Zone
Answer: a

Q514. During takeoff, extending a small number of flaps helps to:

• a) Increase lift for a shorter takeoff roll

• b) Lower the runway threshold
• c) Stabilize the aircraft at high speed
• d) Reduce engine exhaust noise
Answer: a

Q515. External static wicks on an aircraft are used to:

• a) Enhance radio communication

• b) Dissipate electrical charges accumulated on the airframe
• c) Control the deployment of landing gear
• d) Measure wind speed and direction
Answer: b
Q516. Which radio frequency is reserved worldwide for aviation distress and emergency
communications?

• a) 121.5 MHz
• b) 88.3 MHz
• c) 108.0 MHz
• d) 156.8 MHz
Answer: a

Q517. In high-speed flight, the term “Mach tuck” describes:

• a) A nose-down pitching moment as the aircraft approaches the speed of sound

• b) A condition of symmetric wingtip stalls
• c) The effect of cabin pressurization
• d) The aerodynamic flutter of rudder
Answer: a

Q518. The difference between a flight director and an autopilot is that:

• a) The flight director controls the engines, autopilot controls the flaps
• b) A flight director is a type of radio beacon
• c) Autopilot is only used in gliders
• d) The flight director provides guidance signals, while the autopilot can fly the aircraft
Answer: d

Q519. What information does a DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) readout provide to
the pilot?

• a) The magnetic heading

• b) The nearest cloud base
• c) The current groundspeed
• d) The slant range distance to the tuned navigation station
Answer: d

Q520. Lenticular clouds forming on the lee side of mountains indicate the presence of:

• a) Stable air and no lift

• b) Mountain wave lift
• c) Clear air turbulence at high altitude
• d) Low-level turbulence from wind shear
Answer: b
Q521. In transponder codes, squawk 7600 indicates:

• a) Unlawful interference (hijacking)

• b) General emergency
• c) Loss of pressurization
• d) Radio communication failure
Answer: d

Q522. What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level in inches of mercury?

• a) 29.00 inHg
• b) 28.92 inHg
• c) 29.92 inHg
• d) 30.50 inHg
Answer: c

Q523. For VFR flight above 3000 feet in U.S. airspace, recommended cruising altitudes
are:

• a) All odd thousand altitudes regardless of heading

• b) Assigned by ATC only
• c) Odd thousand + 500 feet when heading 0–179°, even thousand + 500 when heading
180–359°
• d) All even thousand altitudes regardless of heading
Answer: c

Q524. In aviation physiology, “hypemic hypoxia” refers to:

• a) Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood (often from carbon monoxide)

• b) A form of dehydration
• c) Extreme fatigue from hyperventilation
• d) Low external atmospheric pressure
Answer: a

Q525. In humid air, a piston engine’s power output typically:

• a) Reverses direction
• b) Decreases (because water vapor displaces oxygen)
• c) Is not affected
• d) Increases (humid air burns better)
Answer: b
Q526. What causes “adverse yaw” when an airplane initiates a roll?

• a) A sudden change in cabin pressure

• b) Decreased lift on both wings
• c) Increased drag on the wing that is rising
• d) The autopilot engaging
Answer: c

Q527. In U.S. aviation, altimeter settings (atmospheric pressure) are given in:

• a) Kilopascals (kPa)
• b) Millibars (mb)
• c) Inches of mercury (inHg)
• d) Pascals (Pa)
Answer: c

Q528. True Airspeed (TAS) is the speed of an aircraft measured:

• a) In a vacuum
• b) Over the ground without wind
• c) By the pitot system directly
• d) Through the air mass, accounting for altitude and non-standard conditions
Answer: d

Q529. ATIS transmissions are labeled alphabetically. If the current ATIS identifier is
“Hotel,” the next one will be called:

• a) India
• b) Golf
• c) Juliet
• d) Kilo
Answer: a

Q530. IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) means the weather is:

• a) Below freezing at altitude

• b) Below visual flight rules minimums, requiring instrument navigation
• c) Clear with no clouds
• d) Free from precipitation
Answer: b
Q531. In the standard atmosphere, temperature decreases with altitude at approximately:

• a) 5°C per 100 feet

• b) 0.5°C per 1000 feet
• c) 1°C per 100 feet
• d) 2°C per 1000 feet
Answer: d

Q532. Trimming an airplane refers to adjusting which component to relieve control

pressures?

• a) Main landing gear

• b) Flaps
• c) Trim tabs on control surfaces
• d) Fuel mixture
Answer: c

Q533. When a pilot says the aircraft is in a “dirty” configuration, it usually means:

• a) The windows are muddy

• b) The navigation database is outdated
• c) The flaps and landing gear are extended
• d) The aircraft has been exposed to smoke
Answer: c

Q534. The distress call “Mayday” is used to indicate:

• a) Routine departure clearance

• b) Immediate life-threatening emergency
• c) Change of flight level
• d) Request for flight following
Answer: b

Q535. Breaking the “sound barrier” means an aircraft is flying:

• a) At maximum lift coefficient

• b) At or above the speed of sound (Mach 1)
• c) At supersonic cruising altitude
• d) Below 1000 feet AGL
Answer: b
Q536. On a standard 4-light PAPI approach slope indicator, two white and two red lights
indicate that the aircraft is:

• a) Below the glide path

• b) Aligned with the runway centerline
• c) Above the glide path
• d) On the correct glide path
Answer: d

Q537. The abbreviations ETA and ETD on a flight plan stand for:

• a) Emergency Transponder Alert and Emergency Transponder Disconnect

• b) Extra Time Accelerated and Extra Time Delay
• c) Engine Temperature Above and Engine Temperature Below
• d) Estimated Time of Arrival and Estimated Time of Departure
Answer: d

Q538. What does Flight Level 250 (FL250) correspond to?

• a) 2500 feet above ground level

• b) Flight level is unrelated to altitude
• c) 25,000 meters
• d) 25,000 feet pressure altitude (altimeter set to 29.92 inHg)
Answer: d

Q539. If ice accumulates on an airplane’s wings, it will generally:

• a) Reduce lift and increase drag, degrading performance

• b) Have no effect if speed is constant
• c) Increase lift at higher speeds
• d) Stabilize the aircraft during turbulence
Answer: a

Q540. In GPS navigation, what does the acronym RAIM stand for?

• a) Radio Altimeter Indication Meter

• b) Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
• c) Rotational Attitude Information Mechanism
• d) Radar Altitude Input Module
Answer: b
Q541. In aviation, what does the term 'hypoxia' refer to?

• a) A lack of sufficient oxygen in the body leading to impaired function

• b) High noise levels in the cockpit
• c) The process of icing on wings
• d) Overloading an aircraft
Answer: a

Q542. What does a displaced threshold on a runway indicate?

• a) The landing zone starts beyond the normal threshold, usually for obstacle clearance
• b) The runway is closed beyond that point
• c) Only smaller aircraft can land on the runway
• d) A temporary runway closure
Answer: a

Q543. In aircraft maintenance, what does 'TBO' stand for?

• a) Time Between Overhaul

• b) Technical Breach Order
• c) Turbine Blade Orientation
• d) Total Burn Out
Answer: a

Q544. What is the function of the fuel control unit (FCU) in a turbine engine?

• a) Regulate fuel flow based on throttle settings

• b) Monitor oil temperature in the engine
• c) Adjust propeller pitch during flight
• d) Control ignition timing for the engine
Answer: a

Q545. Which VHF frequency is designated as the international emergency frequency for
civil aircraft?

• a) 121.5 MHz
• b) 123.0 MHz
• c) 121.8 MHz
• d) 118.0 MHz
Answer: a
Q546. In aerodynamics, what does 'Mach 1' signify?

• a) The speed of sound

• b) Twice the speed of sound
• c) The speed of light
• d) One meter per second
Answer: a

Q547. Runway 27 is labeled to indicate an approximate magnetic heading of which

direction?

• a) 90° (east)
• b) 270° (west)
• c) 180° (south)
• d) 45° (northeast)
Answer: b

Q548. Which VHF frequency is designated as the international emergency frequency for
civil aircraft?

• a) 121.5 MHz
• b) 123.0 MHz
• c) 121.8 MHz
• d) 118.0 MHz
Answer: a

Q549. In the United States, what does the acronym FAA stand for?

• a) Federal Aviation Association

• b) Federal Aeronautics Administration
• c) Federal Aviation Administration
• d) Federal Airworthiness Authority
Answer: c

Q550. Which organization is responsible for setting global aviation standards?

• a) ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization)

• b) FAA (Federal Aviation Administration)
• c) EASA (European Union Aviation Safety Agency)
• d) IATA (International Air Transport Association)
Answer: a
Q551. What type of information is typically provided by the ATIS (Automatic Terminal
Information Service) broadcast at an airport?

• a) Current weather conditions, active runways, and other relevant airport information
• b) Financial reports of the airport authority
• c) Military flight schedules
• d) Pilot license databases
Answer: a

Q552. What does the term 'wind shear' refer to?

• a) A sudden change in wind speed or direction

• b) Strong downward vertical air movement
• c) An intense lateral thunderstorm gust
• d) Wind at high altitude only
Answer: a

Q553. What does DME stand for in aviation navigation?

• a) Distance Measuring Equipment

• b) Directional Magnetic Equipment
• c) Digital Map Encoding
• d) Direct Meteorological Encounter
Answer: a

Q554. In aviation, what does the acronym ELT stand for?

• a) Emergency Locator Transmitter

• b) Emergency Landing Technique
• c) Electromagnetic Landing Transponder
• d) Emergency Life-support Tank
Answer: a

Q555. Which primary flight control surface is used to control the roll of an aircraft?

• a) Ailerons
• b) Elevators
• c) Rudder
• d) Flaps
Answer: a
Q556. Which VHF frequency is designated as the international emergency frequency for
civil aircraft?

• a) 121.5 MHz
• b) 123.0 MHz
• c) 121.8 MHz
• d) 118.0 MHz
Answer: a

Q557. In aviation, what does the acronym CRM typically stand for?

• a) Crew Resource Management

• b) Critical Response Mitigation
• c) Cockpit Reference Manual
• d) Customer Relations Management
Answer: a

Q558. In aviation, what does the acronym SOP typically stand for?

• a) Standard Operating Procedure

• b) Safety of Passengers
• c) Signal On Path
• d) Secondary Operations Program
Answer: a

Q559. Which civilian aircraft is known for its distinctive V-tail design?

• a) Cessna 172 Skyhawk

• b) Piper PA-28 Cherokee
• c) Beechcraft Bonanza
• d) Boeing 767
Answer: c

Q560. Which pilot license is generally required to serve as Pilot-in-Command on a

scheduled airline flight?

• a) Commercial Pilot License

• b) Airline Transport Pilot License
• c) Flight Instructor Certificate
• d) Private Pilot License
Answer: b
Q561. Which of the following aircraft features a canard configuration?

• a) Boeing 747
• b) Cessna 172
• c) Piaggio P.180 Avanti
• d) Airbus A320
Answer: c

Q562. Which cockpit instrument indicates the rate of climb or descent of an aircraft?

• a) Altimeter
• b) Vertical Speed Indicator
• c) Attitude Indicator
• d) Airspeed Indicator
Answer: b

Q563. In a turbofan engine, what does the bypass ratio refer to?

• a) The ratio of fuel flow to air intake

• b) The ratio of bypass airflow to core airflow
• c) The ratio of thrust to engine weight
• d) The ratio of compressor pressure ratio to turbine expansion ratio
Answer: b

Q564. Which class of medical certificate is typically required for a commercial airline
pilot?

• a) Class I
• b) Class II
• c) Class III
• d) Class IV
Answer: a

Q565. In aerodynamics, what does 'Mach 1' signify?

• a) The speed of sound

• b) Twice the speed of sound
• c) The speed of light
• d) One meter per second
Answer: a
Q566. In a piston-engine aircraft, what is the purpose of the magneto?

• a) Generate spark for ignition

• b) Measure engine RPM
• c) Cool the engine
• d) Control the fuel mixture
Answer: a

Q567. What is the purpose of a trim tab on an aircraft wing or control surface?

• a) To make small adjustments to control forces for hands-free flight

• b) To improve the aerodynamic efficiency of the wing tip
• c) To act as a spare control surface if the main one fails
• d) To detect structural icing
Answer: a

Q568. Who was the first person to fly solo non-stop across the Atlantic Ocean?

• a) Charles Lindbergh
• b) Amelia Earhart
• c) Orville Wright
• d) Howard Hughes
Answer: a

Q569. In the United States, which authority issues type certificates for new aircraft
designs?

• a) FAA (Federal Aviation Administration)

• b) NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration)
• c) NTSB (National Transportation Safety Board)
• d) ICAO
Answer: a

Q570. In the United States, what does the acronym FAA stand for?

• a) Federal Aviation Association

• b) Federal Aeronautics Administration
• c) Federal Aviation Administration
• d) Federal Airworthiness Authority
Answer: c
Q571. What does the navigation acronym 'VOR' stand for?

• a) VHF Omnidirectional Range

• b) Visual Omni Range
• c) Very high frequency Omni Range
• d) Variable Orientation Radio
Answer: a

Q572. What does the acronym 'ILS' stand for in aviation?

• a) Instrument Landing System

• b) In-flight Lighting System
• c) International Location Service
• d) Independent Load Scanner
Answer: a

Q573. If a sudden cabin depressurization occurs during high-altitude flight, what

immediate action should the flight crew take?

• a) Initiate an emergency descent to a safe altitude (around 10,000 feet)

• b) Climb to a higher altitude
• c) Turn off the pressurization system and continue flight
• d) Immediately divert to the nearest airport without descent
Answer: a

Q574. What does the aviation 'sterile cockpit rule' refer to?

• a) Prohibiting non-essential activities and conversations during critical phases of flight

(below 10,000 ft)
• b) Sterilizing cockpit surfaces for hygiene
• c) Turning off non-essential avionics
• d) Restricting cockpit entry during flight
Answer: a

Q575. Which of the following is a wide-body jet airliner?

• a) Boeing 737
• b) Embraer 195
• c) Boeing 777
• d) Cessna 172
Answer: c
Q576. What is the main function of an aircraft's Flight Data Recorder (FDR)?

• a) Record flight parameters for accident investigation

• b) Improve fuel efficiency
• c) Monitor passenger cabin environment
• d) Provide navigation data to pilots in real-time
Answer: a

Q577. In a jet engine, what is the primary purpose of the compressor section?

• a) Increase the pressure of the incoming air

• b) Ignite the fuel-air mixture
• c) Reduce the temperature of the exhaust gases
• d) Provide the final thrust for the engine
Answer: a

Q578. Which type of cloud is most commonly associated with thunderstorms?

• a) Cirrus
• b) Cumulonimbus
• c) Stratus
• d) Altocumulus
Answer: b

Q579. What is the typical minimum age to hold a private pilot license (PPL) in many
countries?

• a) 16 years
• b) 17 years
• c) 18 years
• d) 21 years
Answer: b

Q580. What does a pilot need in addition to a commercial license to fly a specific large
transport aircraft?

• a) A type rating for that aircraft

• b) An IFR rating
• c) A flight instructor rating
• d) A multi-engine rating
Answer: a
Q581. Which was the first jet-powered commercial airliner to enter service?

• a) Boeing 707
• b) De Havilland Comet
• c) Douglas DC-3
• d) Concorde
Answer: b

Q582. Wind shear is generally most hazardous during which phase of flight?

• a) Takeoff and landing

• b) Level cruise
• c) Taxiing on the ground
• d) While refueling
Answer: a

Q583. For flights over large bodies of water, which safety equipment is typically required
for passenger safety?

• a) Life vests for each passenger and an emergency life raft

• b) Only life jackets for each passenger
• c) Flotation cushions on each seat
• d) No additional equipment if the destination is within 2 hours
Answer: a

Q584. Which two forces must be balanced for an aircraft to maintain steady, level flight?

• a) Lift equals weight, and thrust equals drag

• b) Lift equals thrust, and weight equals drag
• c) Lift equals drag, and thrust equals weight
• d) Weight equals drag, and thrust equals lift
Answer: a

Q585. Which aircraft was the first supersonic passenger airliner to enter service?

• a) Concorde
• b) Boeing 747
• c) Tupolev Tu-144
• d) Lockheed L-1011
Answer: c
Q586. What is the purpose of a vortex generator on an aircraft wing?

• a) Reduce stall speed

• b) Increase lift at low speeds
• c) Improve airflow adherence to the wing surface
• d) Reduce overall aircraft weight
Answer: c

Q587. What kind of aircraft is the Lockheed U-2?

• a) High-altitude reconnaissance aircraft

• b) Heavy bomber
• c) Trainer aircraft
• d) Supersonic fighter
Answer: a

Q588. Which component ensures directional stability in an aircraft?

• a) Vertical stabilizer
• b) Ailerons
• c) Flaps
• d) Winglets
Answer: a

Q589. The Wright brothers’ Flyer used which type of control system?

• a) Wing-warping for roll control

• b) Ailerons and elevators
• c) Rudder only
• d) Fly-by-wire
Answer: a

Q590. Which engine type is most commonly found in modern airliners?

• a) Turbofan
• b) Turbojet
• c) Turboprop
• d) Ramjet
Answer: a
Q591. What is the function of a thrust reverser on a jet engine?

• a) Reduce forward thrust on landing

• b) Increase cruise speed
• c) Start the engine
• d) Provide emergency braking only
Answer: a

Q592. What does a radar altimeter measure?

• a) Height above the terrain directly below the aircraft

• b) Distance from sea level
• c) Altitude in cabin pressurization systems
• d) Pressure altitude
Answer: a

Q593. What is a 'delta wing' configuration best suited for?

• a) High-speed supersonic flight

• b) Low-speed maneuverability
• c) Vertical takeoff
• d) Short field performance
Answer: a

Q594. The Airbus A380 has how many passenger decks?

• a) One
• b) Two
• c) Three
• d) Four
Answer: b

Q595. What is the function of the aircraft transponder in Mode C operation?

• a) Transmits altitude and identification code

• b) Provides weather radar data
• c) Enables autopilot control
• d) Acts as a backup communication device
Answer: a
Q596. What was the first aircraft to exceed Mach 3 in sustained flight?

• a) SR-71 Blackbird
• b) F-104 Starfighter
• c) MiG-25 Foxbat
• d) Concorde
Answer: a

Q597. Which aircraft uses a blended wing body design?

• a) Boeing X-48
• b) Boeing 737
• c) Airbus A300
• d) Concorde
Answer: a

Q598. What does the term 'critical angle of attack' mean?

• a) Angle where airflow over the wing becomes turbulent and lift is lost
• b) Minimum pitch needed to climb
• c) Angle at which flaps are deployed
• d) Vertical angle during stall recovery
Answer: a

Q599. What is an advantage of fly-by-wire systems?

• a) Reduced weight and increased control precision

• b) Manual redundancy
• c) Use of hydraulic boosters
• d) Easier visual checks
Answer: a

Q600. What is the purpose of a stall warning system?

• a) Alert pilots before the aircraft reaches a critical angle of attack

• b) Indicate engine flameout
• c) Warn about fuel imbalance
• d) Signal incorrect autopilot input
Answer: a
Q601. What type of aircraft is the Boeing CH-47 Chinook?

• a) Attack helicopter
• b) Transport helicopter with tandem rotors
• c) Tiltrotor aircraft
• d) Fixed-wing surveillance aircraft
Answer: b

Q602. Which aircraft engine configuration places the engines inside the wings?

• a) Embedded engine configuration

• b) Underslung configuration
• c) Pylon-mounted configuration
• d) Rear-mounted configuration
Answer: a

Q603. What distinguishes a turboprop engine from a turbofan engine?

• a) Turboprop uses a propeller driven by a turbine

• b) Turboprop produces only jet thrust
• c) Turbofan is limited to subsonic speeds
• d) Turboprop uses afterburners
Answer: a

Q604. What is the primary function of a flight data recorder (FDR)?

• a) Record cockpit conversations

• b) Log technical flight parameters for investigation
• c) Transmit real-time telemetry
• d) Monitor passenger movement
Answer: b

Q605. The Concorde used what type of engine?

• a) Turbojet
• b) Turboprop
• c) Turbofan
• d) Piston engine
Answer: a
Q606. Which of the following is a canard-configured aircraft?

• a) Saab Viggen
• b) Boeing 747
• c) Lockheed C-130
• d) F-22 Raptor
Answer: a

Q607. What is the major advantage of a swept wing?

• a) Reduced drag at transonic and supersonic speeds

• b) Better low-speed handling
• c) Increased lift during landing
• d) Enhanced fuel efficiency at low altitudes
Answer: a

Q608. What does VTOL stand for?

• a) Very Tall Operational Lift

• b) Vertical Takeoff and Landing
• c) Variable Thrust Output Lift
• d) Vertical Tactical Operations Launcher
Answer: b

Q609. What is a major disadvantage of a delta wing?

• a) Poor low-speed performance

• b) Unstable at high speeds
• c) Expensive to manufacture
• d) Requires high-lift devices
Answer: a

Q610. What aircraft has the NATO reporting name “Bear”?

• a) Tupolev Tu-95
• b) Ilyushin Il-76
• c) MiG-29
• d) Yakovlev Yak-130
Answer: a
Q611. Which aircraft system is used to maintain cabin pressure at high altitudes?

• a) Environmental control system

• b) Bleed air system
• c) Deicing system
• d) APU system
Answer: a

Q612. In a glass cockpit, traditional gauges are replaced by:

• a) LCD or LED screens

• b) Manual dials
• c) Backup pitot tubes
• d) Pressure transducers
Answer: a

Q613. What is the function of slats on an aircraft wing?

• a) Delay stall by redirecting airflow over the wing

• b) Increase lift by extending the trailing edge
• c) Reduce drag during cruise
• d) Provide lateral stability
Answer: a

Q614. What kind of aircraft is the MQ-9 Reaper?

• a) Unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV)

• b) Stealth bomber
• c) Jet trainer
• d) Air superiority fighter
Answer: a

Q615. Which aircraft engine type typically offers the highest fuel efficiency at subsonic speeds?

• a) High-bypass turbofan
• b) Turbojet
• c) Turboshaft
• d) Ramjet
Answer: a
Q616. What configuration is common in business jets like the Learjet?

• a) Rear-fuselage-mounted engines
• b) Pusher-prop configuration
• c) Twin-boom layout
• d) Canard delta
Answer: a

Q617. Which of these aircraft has variable-sweep wings?

• a) F-14 Tomcat
• b) B-52 Stratofortress
• c) MiG-21
• d) Su-27 Flanker
Answer: a

Q618. Which agency is responsible for air traffic control in the United States?

• a) FAA
• b) IATA
• c) ICAO
• d) NTSB
Answer: a

Q619. The first human flight in a hot air balloon was conducted by:

• a) Montgolfier brothers
• b) Leonardo da Vinci
• c) Otto Lilienthal
• d) Orville Wright
Answer: a

Q620. The Boeing B-17 was used extensively during which war?

• a) World War II
• b) Korean War
• c) Vietnam War
• d) Gulf War
Answer: a
Q621. What is the SHELL model used for in aviation?

• a) Human factors analysis

• b) Engine inspection
• c) ATC regulations
• d) GPS calibration
Answer: a

Q622. What do canards do in aircraft configuration?

• a) Provide pitch control from the front

• b) Act as speed brakes
• c) House radar systems
• d) Support rudder input
Answer: a

Q623. A pusher configuration in aircraft refers to:

• a) Engine mounted behind the propeller

• b) Rearward-facing tail
• c) Canard wings
• d) Twin engine setup
Answer: a

Q624. Which airliner introduced fly-by-wire as standard?

• a) Airbus A320
• b) Boeing 727
• c) Douglas DC-8
• d) McDonnell Douglas MD-11
Answer: a

Q625. What is the primary advantage of a turbofan engine over a turbojet?

• a) Lower noise and better fuel efficiency

• b) Higher speed at supersonic flight
• c) Easier to maintain
• d) Smaller size
Answer: a
Q626. The term “angle of incidence” in aircraft refers to:

• a) Fixed angle between wing chord and fuselage

• b) Angle between elevator and tail
• c) Angle of wing sweep
• d) Engine thrust line deviation
Answer: a

Q627. Which aircraft featured stealth technology and flew during the Gulf War?

• a) F-117 Nighthawk
• b) F-4 Phantom
• c) F/A-18 Hornet
• d) A-10 Thunderbolt
Answer: a

Q628. Which of the following aircraft is a tiltrotor?

• a) V-22 Osprey
• b) AH-64 Apache
• c) C-130 Hercules
• d) Mi-26 Halo
Answer: a

Q629. What is one function of an Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)?

• a) Power aircraft systems on ground

• b) Provide lift during takeoff
• c) Pressurize hydraulic systems mid-flight
• d) Replace main engines
Answer: a

Q630. The BAE Hawk is primarily used as:

• a) Advanced jet trainer

• b) Long-range bomber
• c) Stealth fighter
• d) Maritime patrol aircraft
Answer: a
Q631. In aviation, CRM stands for:

• a) Crew Resource Management

• b) Critical Radar Monitoring
• c) Cockpit Routing Module
• d) Compressor Regulated Mixture
Answer: a

Q632. What was the first operational jet-powered bomber?

• a) Arado Ar 234
• b) B-52 Stratofortress
• c) Heinkel He 111
• d) Junkers Ju 87
Answer: a

Q633. The primary advantage of tricycle landing gear is:

• a) Better forward visibility on ground

• b) Simpler brake systems
• c) More lift
• d) Faster climb rate
Answer: a

Q634. What is the function of a pitot tube?

• a) Measures airspeed
• b) Controls cabin temperature
• c) Detects turbulence
• d) Controls rudder position
Answer: a

Q635. The Dassault Rafale is a:

• a) Twin-engine multirole fighter

• b) Strategic bomber
• c) Heavy cargo aircraft
• d) Helicopter gunship
Answer: a
Q636. Which aircraft was used for the first powered, controlled, and sustained flight?

• a) Wright Flyer
• b) Spirit of St. Louis
• c) Curtiss Jenny
• d) Boeing Model 1
Answer: a

Q637. What is the configuration of the Lockheed SR-71's engines?

• a) Twin turbojets with afterburners

• b) Twin turbofans without afterburners
• c) Quad turboprops
• d) Rear-mounted piston engines
Answer: a

Q638. The MiG-21 uses which engine type?

• a) Turbojet
• b) Turboprop
• c) Piston
• d) Electric ducted fan
Answer: a

Q639. The Airbus A350 is powered by which engine model?

• a) Rolls-Royce Trent XWB

• b) GE90
• c) Pratt & Whitney PW4000
• d) CFM56
Answer: a

Q640. What was a major innovation of the Douglas DC-3?

• a) First to make commercial air travel profitable

• b) First with supersonic speed
• c) First with digital fly-by-wire
• d) First with stealth capabilities
Answer: a
Q641. A delta wing offers excellent performance in which flight regime?

• a) Supersonic
• b) Low speed
• c) Short takeoff
• d) Slow climb
Answer: a

Q642. What is the function of the rudder on an aircraft?

• a) Controls yaw
• b) Controls roll
• c) Increases lift
• d) Reduces drag
Answer: a

Q643. Which aircraft has a flying wing design?

• a) B-2 Spirit
• b) F-16 Fighting Falcon
• c) C-17 Globemaster III
• d) MiG-29 Fulcrum
Answer: a

Q644. Which of the following is an example of a STOL (Short Takeoff and Landing) aircraft?

• a) De Havilland Canada DHC-6 Twin Otter

• b) Boeing 747
• c) Airbus A340
• d) Lockheed SR-71
Answer: a

Q645. Which aircraft first broke the sound barrier?

• a) Bell X-1
• b) North American P-51 Mustang
• c) Lockheed U-2
• d) F-86 Sabre
Answer: a
Q646. Which configuration has engines mounted above the wing?

• a) Overwing engine configuration

• b) Pylon-mounted
• c) Canard engine
• d) Mid-fuselage engine
Answer: a

Q647. The primary role of a turboshaft engine is to:

• a) Drive a helicopter's rotor

• b) Propel a jet aircraft
• c) Power a piston engine
• d) Create thrust without moving parts
Answer: a

Q648. Which aircraft uses a blended wing body (BWB) design?

• a) NASA X-48
• b) Boeing 707
• c) Cessna 172
• d) Airbus Beluga
Answer: a

Q649. Which aircraft introduced the concept of fly-by-wire control in military aviation?

• a) General Dynamics F-16

• b) McDonnell Douglas F-4
• c) MiG-25
• d) Northrop F-5
Answer: a

Q650. The term "V-tail" refers to:

• a) Two slanted tail surfaces that replace the vertical and horizontal stabilizers
• b) Tail rotor in helicopters
• c) Canard configuration
• d) Under-fuselage tail gear
Answer: a
Q651. Which engine configuration was used in the Boeing 727?

• a) Three rear fuselage-mounted engines

• b) Two underwing turbofans
• c) One overwing turbofan
• d) Four piston engines
Answer: a

Q652. Which type of error involves breaking rules intentionally?

• a) Violation
• b) Skill-based error
• c) Mistake
• d) Lapse
Answer: a

Q653. The Hawker Harrier uses what kind of propulsion system?

• a) Thrust-vectoring jet for VTOL

• b) Twin turbojets
• c) Tiltrotor
• d) Quad turboprop
Answer: a

Q654. Which aircraft has a swing-wing mechanism?

• a) Panavia Tornado
• b) Su-27
• c) Boeing 777
• d) Mirage 2000
Answer: a

Q655. What is the primary role of an aircraft’s APU?

• a) Power electrical systems when engines are off

• b) Drive the landing gear
• c) Pump hydraulic fuel to the wing
• d) Aid in cruise control
Answer: a
Q656. In a swept-wing aircraft, stall typically starts at:

• a) Wingtip
• b) Wing root
• c) Horizontal stabilizer
• d) Rudder
Answer: a

Q657. Which of the following is not a primary control surface?

• a) Spoiler
• b) Elevator
• c) Rudder
• d) Aileron
Answer: a

Q658. The Antonov An-225 is known for being the:

• a) Heaviest aircraft ever built

• b) First aircraft with glass cockpit
• c) First stealth bomber
• d) Longest-range fighter
Answer: a

Q659. The “Swiss Cheese Model” is used in aviation safety to:

• a) Explain how multiple defenses can fail

• b) Model aircraft aerodynamics
• c) Illustrate maintenance workflows
• d) Plan airport layouts
Answer: a

Q660. Which configuration minimizes ground noise in urban areas?

• a) Over-wing engine mount

• b) Wingtip-mounted engine
• c) Canard pusher configuration
• d) Tailwheel landing gear
Answer: a
Q661. Which aircraft type commonly uses a pusher propeller configuration?

• a) UAVs
• b) Commercial airliners
• c) Tiltrotors
• d) Helicopters
Answer: a

Q662. The aircraft designated B-29 was used primarily in:

• a) WWII
• b) Korean War
• c) Gulf War
• d) Vietnam War
Answer: a

Q663. The Su-57 Felon is a:

• a) Russian fifth-generation stealth fighter

• b) French UAV
• c) Trainer aircraft
• d) Maritime patrol jet
Answer: a

Q664. What is an example of a contra-rotating propeller aircraft?

• a) Tupolev Tu-95
• b) Boeing 737
• c) Airbus A310
• d) Hawker Tempest
Answer: a

Q665. The primary advantage of blended wing body design is:

• a) Higher aerodynamic efficiency

• b) Easier maintenance
• c) Faster speed
• d) Stealth only
Answer: a
Q666. The F-35 Lightning II uses what type of engine configuration?

• a) Single engine with vectored thrust

• b) Twin turbojets
• c) Twin turboprops
• d) Piston with push-pull design
Answer: a

Q667. In HFACS, the “unsafe acts” level refers to:

• a) Errors and violations

• b) Organizational influence
• c) Precondition for unsafe acts
• d) Supervisory errors
Answer: a

Q668. Which aircraft was the first to fly faster than Mach 3?

• a) Lockheed SR-71
• b) MiG-25
• c) Bell X-1
• d) North American F-86
Answer: a

Q669. What configuration is seen in the Beechcraft Starship?

• a) Canard pusher
• b) Twin-fuselage
• c) Tiltrotor
• d) V-tail tractor
Answer: a

Q670. What is the purpose of spoilers on an aircraft wing?

• a) Reduce lift and increase drag

• b) Provide thrust
• c) Assist in takeoff
• d) Improve cruise efficiency
Answer: a
Q671. What does a transponder in aircraft help with?

• a) ATC identification and altitude reporting

• b) Navigation radio signals
• c) Ground speed monitoring
• d) Deicing automation
Answer: a

Q672. Which aircraft holds the record for the highest manned altitude?

• a) Lockheed SR-71
• b) Bell X-15
• c) U-2 Dragon Lady
• d) MiG-31
Answer: b

Q673. The concept of “human error is inevitable” is central to:

• a) Error management philosophy

• b) CRM checklist
• c) Fuel planning
• d) Crew scheduling
Answer: a

Q674. The Junkers Ju 87 is commonly known as the:

• a) Stuka dive bomber

• b) Messerschmitt interceptor
• c) Zeppelin
• d) Lancaster heavy bomber
Answer: a

Q675. Which navigation system uses a constellation of satellites?

• a) GPS
• b) VOR
• c) DME
• d) NDB
Answer: a
Q676. What was the primary role of the Boeing B-17 during WWII?

• a) Strategic bombing
• b) Aerial refueling
• c) Transport
• d) Reconnaissance
Answer: a

Q677. The V-22 Osprey features which unique configuration?

• a) Tiltrotor
• b) Biplane
• c) Delta-wing
• d) Blended wing body
Answer: a

Q678. What engine type powers the Airbus A320neo?

• a) Turbofan
• b) Turbojet
• c) Piston
• d) Ramjet
Answer: a

Q679. The term “canard” refers to a control surface:

• a) Located forward of the main wing

• b) Attached to the tail boom
• c) On the wingtip
• d) Below the fuselage
Answer: a

Q680. What is the function of a thrust reverser?

• a) Decelerate the aircraft after landing

• b) Improve climb rate
• c) Enhance fuel efficiency
• d) Assist in cruise
Answer: a
Q681. The first operational jet fighter was:

• a) Messerschmitt Me 262
• b) Gloster Meteor
• c) F-80 Shooting Star
• d) MiG-9
Answer: a

Q682. A glider typically has:

• a) No engine
• b) A turbojet engine
• c) A piston engine
• d) A turboprop engine
Answer: a

Q683. The Concorde used what type of engine?

• a) Turbojet with afterburner

• b) Turbofan
• c) Piston engine
• d) Electric ducted fan
Answer: a

Q684. The purpose of Crew Resource Management (CRM) is to:

• a) Optimize team communication and decision-making

• b) Replace autopilot systems
• c) Track pilot log hours
• d) Maintain aircraft records
Answer: a

Q685. The primary control for roll in an aircraft is:

• a) Aileron
• b) Rudder
• c) Elevator
• d) Spoiler
Answer: a
Q686. Which aircraft was famously used in the Doolittle Raid?

• a) B-25 Mitchell
• b) B-17 Flying Fortress
• c) B-24 Liberator
• d) P-51 Mustang
Answer: a

Q687. Anhedral wings are typically used to:

• a) Improve maneuverability
• b) Increase lift at low speed
• c) Enhance climb rate
• d) Reduce induced drag
Answer: a

Q688. The Bell X-1 was shaped like a:

• a) Bullet
• b) Arrow
• c) Wing
• d) Shuttle
Answer: a

Q689. What type of error is considered unintentional and skill-based?

• a) Slip
• b) Violation
• c) Recklessness
• d) Disobedience
Answer: a

Q690. What system helps prevent stalls in commercial aircraft?

• a) Stick shaker
• b) Inertial navigation system
• c) Thrust reverser
• d) ILS
Answer: a
Q691. The first successful vertical takeoff jet fighter was:

• a) Harrier Jump Jet

• b) F-22 Raptor
• c) MiG-29
• d) Dassault Rafale
Answer: a

Q692. Which aircraft is a flying boat?

• a) PBY Catalina
• b) Douglas DC-3
• c) F-86 Sabre
• d) C-130 Hercules
Answer: a

Q693. Which modern airliner features a carbon-fiber fuselage?

• a) Boeing 787 Dreamliner

• b) Airbus A310
• c) Boeing 757
• d) Concorde
Answer: a

Q694. Which aircraft has forward-swept wings?

• a) Grumman X-29
• b) F-16 Fighting Falcon
• c) F-15 Eagle
• d) A-10 Thunderbolt II
Answer: a

Q695. The Boeing 747-8 has how many engines?

• a) 4
• b) 2
• c) 6
• d) 3
Answer: a
Q696. What is a “pusher” configuration in aviation?

• a) Engine and propeller are behind the wing

• b) Nose-mounted engine
• c) Engine embedded in wing
• d) Vertical thrust only
Answer: a

Q697. The Antonov An-124 is primarily used for:

• a) Heavy cargo transport

• b) Supersonic reconnaissance
• c) Passenger transport
• d) Search and rescue
Answer: a

Q698. A swept wing delays:

• a) Shock wave formation

• b) Lift generation
• c) Thrust generation
• d) Fuel flow
Answer: a

Q699. Which engine is commonly used in business jets?

• a) Turbofan
• b) Piston
• c) Turboprop
• d) Ramjet
Answer: a

Q700. What is the standard cruise speed for a commercial jetliner?

• a) Mach 0.78–0.85
• b) Mach 0.4
• c) Mach 1.2
• d) Mach 0.2
Answer: a
Q701. In the SHELL model, “Software” refers to:

• a) Rules, procedures, and documentation

• b) Hardware parts
• c) Electronic chips
• d) Pilot behavior
Answer: a

Q702. Which aircraft was designed specifically for aircraft carrier operations?

• a) F/A-18 Hornet
• b) F-104 Starfighter
• c) C-130 Hercules
• d) MiG-29
Answer: a

Q703. Which aircraft was the primary fighter in the Battle of Britain?

• a) Supermarine Spitfire
• b) B-17 Flying Fortress
• c) MiG-3
• d) Junkers Ju 88
Answer: a

Q704. In ATC, the acronym “VFR” stands for:

• a) Visual Flight Rules

• b) Variable Frequency Radar
• c) Verified Flight Registry
• d) Vertical Flight Rate
Answer: a

Q705. What type of configuration does the Cessna 337 Skymaster have?

• a) Push-pull twin-engine
• b) Tandem-wing
• c) Tiltrotor
• d) Blended wing body
Answer: a
Q706. Which aircraft introduced the “glass cockpit” in commercial aviation?

• a) Airbus A320
• b) Boeing 707
• c) Concorde
• d) DC-8
Answer: a

Q707. Which generation of fighters includes the F-22 Raptor?

• a) Fifth
• b) Fourth
• c) Third
• d) Sixth
Answer: a

Q708. What is a lapse in human factors terminology?

• a) Memory-based error
• b) Rule violation
• c) Procedural shortcut
• d) A system fault
Answer: a

Q709. Which of the following uses a pulsejet engine?

• a) German V-1 Flying Bomb

• b) Lockheed SR-71
• c) U-2
• d) Yak-40
Answer: a

Q710. What configuration does the Piaggio Avanti use?

• a) Pusher propeller and canard

• b) Twin-engine underwing
• c) Over-wing engines
• d) Rear-mounted jets
Answer: a
Q711. The Airbus A380 has how many passenger decks?

• a) 2 full-length
• b) 1
• c) 3
• d) 2 half-length
Answer: a

Q712. Which engine type achieves the highest speeds?

• a) Ramjet
• b) Turboprop
• c) Turbofan
• d) Piston
Answer: a

Q713. Which military aircraft features stealth and vertical takeoff capabilities?

• a) F-35B
• b) F-16
• c) F-15E
• d) Eurofighter Typhoon
Answer: a

Q714. The main function of the flight data recorder (FDR) is to:

• a) Store flight parameters and performance data

• b) Record engine repairs
• c) Monitor passenger activity
• d) Schedule crew rest
Answer: a

Q715. What is the thrust arrangement of the Boeing 777?

• a) Twin underwing turbofans

• b) Quad fuselage-mounted
• c) Three rear-mounted
• d) Pusher propeller
Answer: a
Q716. What configuration allows amphibious aircraft to land on both water and runways?

• a) Hull with retractable gear

• b) Skids
• c) Floats only
• d) Helicopter rotors
Answer: a

Q717. The MiG-29 is an example of a:

• a) Twin-engine air superiority fighter

• b) Bomber
• c) Tiltrotor UAV
• d) Ground-attack drone
Answer: a

Q718. The DHC-4 Caribou is known for:

• a) STOL cargo capabilities

• b) Supersonic flight
• c) Maritime patrol
• d) Rocket launch support
Answer: a

Q719. Which aircraft is used primarily for aerial firefighting?

• a) CL-415
• b) Cessna 172
• c) F-14 Tomcat
• d) Learjet 45
Answer: a

Q720. Which type of human error involves choosing the wrong procedure?

• a) Mistake
• b) Slip
• c) Lapse
• d) Violation
Answer: a
Q721. What is the primary purpose of a variable-sweep wing?

• a) Optimize performance at various speeds

• b) Increase passenger comfort
• c) Improve cabin pressurization
• d) Enhance stealth capability
Answer: a

Q722. The Lockheed U-2 is primarily used for:

• a) High-altitude reconnaissance
• b) Aerial refueling
• c) Ground attack
• d) Maritime patrol
Answer: a

Q723. What type of engine powers the General Atomics MQ-9 Reaper?

• a) Turboprop
• b) Piston
• c) Turbojet
• d) Ramjet
Answer: a

Q724. Which of the following is a trijet airliner?

• a) McDonnell Douglas DC-10

• b) Boeing 757
• c) Airbus A320
• d) Embraer E190
Answer: a

Q725. The term “fly-by-wire” refers to:

• a) Electronic flight control systems

• b) Manual cable linkages
• c) Flywheel-based steering
• d) Wire-based navigation
Answer: a
Q726. What is the configuration of the Rutan Long-EZ?

• a) Canard with pusher propeller

• b) Biplane with retractable gear
• c) Tandem-wing trijet
• d) Delta wing with vertical launch
Answer: a

Q727. The A-10 Thunderbolt II is designed for:

• a) Close air support

• b) Long-range bombing
• c) Reconnaissance
• d) Dogfighting
Answer: a

Q728. A high bypass turbofan engine:

• a) Moves large mass of air for fuel efficiency

• b) Operates without any fan
• c) Is used only in helicopters
• d) Uses a rocket booster
Answer: a

Q729. Which aircraft was the first to exceed Mach 3 in level flight?

• a) SR-71 Blackbird
• b) Concorde
• c) F-4 Phantom II
• d) Bell X-1
Answer: a

Q730. Which aircraft is often used as an aerial refueling tanker?

• a) KC-135 Stratotanker
• b) F-22 Raptor
• c) MiG-21
• d) B-25 Mitchell
Answer: a
Q731. Which aircraft first introduced winglets to improve fuel efficiency?

• a) Boeing 747-400
• b) Concorde
• c) F-104 Starfighter
• d) Wright Flyer
Answer: a

Q732. What category does the Sikorsky CH-53 fall into?

• a) Heavy-lift helicopter
• b) Reconnaissance drone
• c) Ground-attack jet
• d) Agricultural aircraft
Answer: a

Q733. Which of the following is a stealth bomber?

• a) B-2 Spirit
• b) B-29 Superfortress
• c) B-25 Mitchell
• d) Su-24
Answer: a

Q734. What is a key feature of supersonic flow over a wing?

• a) Shock waves
• b) Laminar flow
• c) Maximum lift
• d) Stagnation zones
Answer: a

Q735. Which aircraft pioneered jet airliner travel?

• a) De Havilland Comet
• b) Boeing 707
• c) Douglas DC-3
• d) Concorde
Answer: a
Q736. Which fighter jet uses thrust vectoring for enhanced agility?

• a) Su-30MKI
• b) F-4 Phantom
• c) MiG-21
• d) Eurofighter Typhoon
Answer: a

Q737. Which aircraft has a blended wing body design?

• a) B-2 Spirit
• b) F-15 Eagle
• c) Boeing 727
• d) Aérospatiale-BAC Concorde
Answer: a

Q738. The Beechcraft King Air is an example of a:

• a) Twin turboprop utility aircraft

• b) Supersonic jet
• c) Glider
• d) VTOL fighter
Answer: a

Q739. A ground loop in aviation refers to:

• a) A sharp, uncontrolled turn while taxiing or landing

• b) A low-altitude aerobatic maneuver
• c) A maneuver in air combat
• d) A loop of electrical wiring
Answer: a

Q740. The C-5 Galaxy’s primary purpose is:

• a) Strategic airlift
• b) Mid-air refueling
• c) Maritime reconnaissance
• d) Close air support
Answer: a
Q741. What is the role of spoilers on a wing?

• a) Reduce lift and increase drag

• b) Control yaw
• c) Accelerate airflow
• d) Store fuel
Answer: a

Q742. Which aircraft is capable of supersonic vertical climb?

• a) F-22 Raptor
• b) B-1B Lancer
• c) A-10 Thunderbolt
• d) E-3 Sentry
Answer: a

Q743. In the HFACS framework, latent conditions are considered part of:

• a) Organizational influences
• b) Unsafe acts
• c) Human errors
• d) Skill-based slips
Answer: a

Q744. What is the configuration of the Tupolev Tu-160?

• a) Variable-sweep wing bomber

• b) Fixed-wing fighter
• c) Delta-wing glider
• d) VTOL helicopter
Answer: a

Q745. What kind of aircraft is a Piper Cub?

• a) Light general aviation aircraft

• b) Jet airliner
• c) VTOL fighter
• d) Flying boat
Answer: a
Q746. Which configuration uses two wings stacked vertically?

• a) Biplane
• b) Tandem wing
• c) Delta wing
• d) Canard
Answer: a

Q747. Which control surface is used primarily for yaw control?

• a) Rudder
• b) Aileron
• c) Elevator
• d) Flap
Answer: a

Q748. The Boeing 737 has engines mounted:

• a) Below the wings

• b) At the tail
• c) On top of the fuselage
• d) Internally
Answer: a

Q749. Which aircraft was nicknamed “The Flying Fortress”?

• a) B-17
• b) B-29
• c) B-24
• d) C-130
Answer: a

Q750. What’s the key advantage of a T-tail configuration?

• a) Reduced aerodynamic interference from wings

• b) Improved low-speed handling
• c) Decreased structural weight
• d) Simpler construction
Answer: a
Q751. Which aircraft uses forward-swept wings for enhanced agility?

• a) X-29
• b) F-4
• c) SR-71
• d) B-2
Answer: a

Q752. The Airbus Beluga is used for:

• a) Transporting oversized cargo

• b) Air-to-air combat
• c) Commercial travel
• d) Maritime patrol
Answer: a

Q753. The Robinson R44 is classified as a:

• a) Light helicopter
• b) UAV
• c) Amphibious jet
• d) Turboprop
Answer: a

Q754. A blended wing body design merges:

• a) Fuselage and wings smoothly

• b) Engine nacelles and tail
• c) Rotor and propeller
• d) Flaps and rudders
Answer: a

Q755. The purpose of the Swiss Cheese Model is to explain:

• a) How accidents occur due to multiple system failures

• b) The effect of altitude on cheese quality
• c) Food safety protocols in aviation
• d) Turbulence effects
Answer: a
Q756. What type of engine powers the Lockheed C-130 Hercules?

• a) Turboprop
• b) Turbojet
• c) Piston
• d) Ramjet
Answer: a

Q757. The Bleriot XI is famous for:

• a) Crossing the English Channel in 1909

• b) The first supersonic flight
• c) Launching missiles
• d) Aerial refueling
Answer: a

Q758. The F-14 Tomcat was designed with:

• a) Variable-geometry wings
• b) Canard layout
• c) Pusher propellers
• d) Rocket engines
Answer: a

Q759. What’s the main reason stealth aircraft have angular surfaces?

• a) Deflect radar waves

• b) Improve engine cooling
• c) Enhance visual appeal
• d) Reduce aerodynamic drag
Answer: a

Q760. A “go-around” in aviation means:

• a) Aborting a landing approach

• b) Spinning in air
• c) Circling the runway
• d) Taxiing again
Answer: a
Q761. What type of aircraft is the Cirrus SR22?

• a) Single-engine piston aircraft

• b) Business jet
• c) Glider
• d) VTOL craft
Answer: a

Q762. Which of the following was a famous World War I fighter?

• a) Fokker Dr.I
• b) Spitfire
• c) Mustang
• d) Thunderbolt
Answer: a

Q763. The Eurofighter Typhoon is manufactured by:

• a) A European consortium
• b) Boeing
• c) Lockheed Martin
• d) Saab
Answer: a

Q764. The term “wake turbulence” is caused by:

• a) Wingtip vortices
• b) Jet exhaust
• c) Bird strike
• d) Engine malfunction
Answer: a

Q765. What does VTOL stand for?

• a) Vertical Takeoff and Landing

• b) Variable Thrust Option Level
• c) Vector Thrust Oscillation
• d) Vertical Turbine Operating Lift
Answer: a
Q766. Which part of an aircraft houses the avionics?

• a) Cockpit and avionics bay

• b) Landing gear
• c) Winglets
• d) Cargo hold
Answer: a

Q767. What type of aircraft is the Embraer Phenom 300?

• a) Light business jet

• b) Utility helicopter
• c) Ground-attack fighter
• d) Amphibious aircraft
Answer: a

Q768. The Dassault Rafale is primarily used by:

• a) France
• b) Russia
• c) USA
• d) China
Answer: a

Q769. What configuration is used in the Boeing X-48?

• a) Blended wing body

• b) Canard-pusher
• c) Tiltrotor
• d) Tandem wing
Answer: a

Q770. What is the main function of the vertical stabilizer?

• a) Control yaw
• b) Control pitch
• c) Generate lift
• d) Deploy flaps
Answer: a
Q771. Which of the following is a tiltrotor aircraft?

• a) Bell V-280 Valor

• b) Su-30
• c) A330 MRTT
• d) Lockheed P-3 Orion
Answer: a

Q772. The de-icing boots are typically found on:

• a) Leading edges of wings

• b) Wingtips
• c) Engine nacelles
• d) Landing gear
Answer: a

Q773. Which aircraft configuration allows maximum payload at low speed?

• a) STOL with high-lift wings

• b) Delta wing
• c) Canard-pusher
• d) Ramjet inline
Answer: a

Q774. What configuration does the BAE Systems Hawk use?

• a) Tandem-seat advanced jet trainer

• b) Trijet transport
• c) Canard stealth
• d) Tiltwing
Answer: a

Q775. What distinguishes the Avro Vulcan from other bombers of its era?

• a) Delta wing design

• b) Canard layout
• c) Rear-facing cockpit
• d) Propeller propulsion
Answer: a
Q776. Which aircraft was the first to be certified for commercial use with winglets?

• a) Boeing 737
• b) Airbus A320
• c) Boeing 747
• d) Douglas DC-10
Answer: a

Q777. The Gulfstream G550 is classified as a:

• a) Business jet
• b) Fighter jet
• c) Propeller-driven transport
• d) Cargo aircraft
Answer: a

Q778. What is the primary purpose of the aileron on an aircraft?

• a) Control roll
• b) Control pitch
• c) Control yaw
• d) Increase lift
Answer: a

Q779. The Lockheed Martin F-35 Lightning II is a:

• a) Multirole stealth fighter

• b) Reconnaissance drone
• c) Cargo transport
• d) Civilian airliner
Answer: a

Q780. The Concorde was famous for:

• a) Supersonic commercial flight

• b) Vertical takeoff and landing
• c) Long-range bomber capabilities
• d) Solar-powered flight
Answer: a
Q781. What type of aircraft is the Sikorsky S-70 Black Hawk?

• a) Utility helicopter
• b) Fighter jet
• c) Light turboprop
• d) Cargo airship
Answer: a

Q782. What does the term "swept wing" refer to?

• a) A wing with a backward angle for reducing drag at high speeds

• b) A wing that is straight and perpendicular to the fuselage
• c) A wing that moves upward for increased altitude
• d) A wing shaped for optimal lift at low speeds
Answer: a

Q783. The Boeing 787 Dreamliner uses which type of engines?

• a) Turbofan engines
• b) Turboprop engines
• c) Jet engines
• d) Piston engines
Answer: a

Q784. The McDonnell Douglas F-4 Phantom was primarily used by:

• a) United States military

• b) Soviet Union
• c) Chinese Air Force
• d) NATO
Answer: a

Q785. The primary advantage of a turboprop engine over a jet engine is:

• a) Better fuel efficiency at lower speeds

• b) Faster top speed
• c) Higher altitude performance
• d) Better reliability in extreme temperatures
Answer: a
Q786. Which aircraft is known for its iconic V-shaped tail and supersonic capabilities?

• a) Concorde
• b) Lockheed SR-71
• c) Boeing 727
• d) Tupolev Tu-144
Answer: a

Q787. The Airbus A380 is known for being the:

• a) Largest passenger airliner

• b) First commercial supersonic aircraft
• c) First jet airliner with winglets
• d) Only aircraft capable of vertical takeoff
Answer: a

Q788. Which of the following aircraft features a canard configuration?

• a) Saab 37 Viggen
• b) Boeing 747
• c) Lockheed F-16
• d) Eurofighter Typhoon
Answer: a

Q789. Which aircraft was the first to achieve Mach 2 in level flight?

• a) Convair F-102 Delta Dagger

• b) Bell X-1
• c) Lockheed F-104 Starfighter
• d) Lockheed SR-71 Blackbird
Answer: a

Q790. The primary function of the elevator on an aircraft is to:

• a) Control pitch
• b) Control yaw
• c) Control roll
• d) Adjust flap position
Answer: a
Q791. The Sikorsky CH-47 Chinook is primarily used for:

• a) Heavy-lift helicopter operations

• b) Combat air support
• c) Reconnaissance missions
• d) Aerial firefighting
Answer: a

Q792. The Boeing 727 has which type of engine configuration?

• a) Trijet
• b) Twinjet
• c) Quadjet
• d) Turboprop
Answer: a

Q793. The F-22 Raptor is a:

• a) Fifth-generation stealth fighter

• b) Commercial airliner
• c) Supersonic passenger jet
• d) Ground-attack helicopter
Answer: a

Q794. Which aircraft is known for its iconic boomerang-shaped wings?

• a) B-2 Spirit
• b) Boeing 747
• c) Concorde
• d) F-111 Aardvark
Answer: a

Q795. The tail rotor of a helicopter is used to:

• a) Counteract torque from the main rotor

• b) Provide forward thrust
• c) Stabilize yaw during hover
• d) Generate lift
Answer: a
Q796. What is the primary purpose of a rudder on an aircraft?

• a) Control yaw
• b) Control pitch
• c) Control roll
• d) Increase speed
Answer: a

Q797. The primary feature of a canard wing configuration is:

• a) A small wing placed forward of the main wing

• b) Dual engines mounted above the fuselage
• c) Large control surfaces for pitch stability
• d) A vertically stabilizing tailplane
Answer: a

Q798. Which of the following aircraft is classified as a supersonic transport (SST)?

• a) Concorde
• b) Boeing 707
• c) Airbus A330
• d) Lockheed C-130 Hercules
Answer: a

Q799. The Boeing 757 is known for:

• a) Its ability to take off and land on short runways

• b) The longest wingspan of any Boeing aircraft
• c) Supersonic cruising capabilities
• d) Its electric propulsion system
Answer: a

Q800. What is the role of the flap on an aircraft wing?

• a) Increase lift during takeoff and landing

• b) Control roll
• c) Adjust pitch stability
• d) Reduce drag during cruising
Answer: a
Q801. What configuration does the Boeing 737 use?

• a) Twinjet narrow-body
• b) Trijet wide-body
• c) Single-engine high wing
• d) Biplane open cockpit
Answer: a

Q802. The MiG-29 Fulcrum is developed by which country?

• a) Soviet Union
• b) France
• c) China
• d) United States
Answer: a

Q803. Which type of engine is used in the Airbus A320neo?

• a) High-bypass turbofan
• b) Piston engine
• c) Ramjet
• d) Turbojet
Answer: a

Q804. The V-22 Osprey is a unique aircraft because it:

• a) Combines helicopter and fixed-wing capabilities

• b) Is solar powered
• c) Uses balloon lift
• d) Is amphibious
Answer: a

Q805. The Fokker Dr.I triplane was used during:

• a) World War I
• b) World War II
• c) Korean War
• d) Vietnam War
Answer: a
Q806. Which of the following aircraft is designed for aerial refueling?

• a) KC-135 Stratotanker
• b) C-130 Hercules
• c) F-15 Eagle
• d) A-10 Thunderbolt
Answer: a

Q807. The SR-71 Blackbird used which type of engine?

• a) Turbo-ramjet hybrid
• b) Piston engine
• c) Straight jet
• d) Pulse jet
Answer: a

Q808. A T-tail configuration has the horizontal stabilizer:

• a) Mounted on top of the vertical stabilizer

• b) Located under the fuselage
• c) Integrated into the main wings
• d) Positioned forward of the cockpit
Answer: a

Q809. The Embraer E-Jet family is mainly used for:

• a) Regional passenger transport

• b) Military combat
• c) Cargo transport
• d) Agricultural work
Answer: a

Q810. The Ilyushin Il-76 is primarily a:

• a) Strategic airlifter
• b) Light personal aircraft
• c) Attack helicopter
• d) Amphibious reconnaissance jet
Answer: a
Q811. Which of the following is a tiltrotor aircraft?

• a) Bell V-280 Valor

• b) Dassault Mirage 2000
• c) Boeing 747
• d) Eurofighter Typhoon
Answer: a

Q812. A quadjet aircraft uses how many engines?

• a) Four
• b) Two
• c) Three
• d) One
Answer: a

Q813. The Antonov An-225 Mriya is famous for being the:

• a) Heaviest aircraft ever built

• b) Fastest aircraft
• c) Smallest military jet
• d) First stealth bomber
Answer: a

Q814. The term “delta wing” refers to a wing shape that resembles a:

• a) Triangle
• b) Rectangle
• c) Parallelogram
• d) Semi-circle
Answer: a

Q815. Which aircraft has a twin boom tail configuration?

• a) P-38 Lightning
• b) F-16 Falcon
• c) Boeing 787
• d) B-2 Spirit
Answer: a
Q816. Which country developed the Dassault Rafale?

• a) France
• b) UK
• c) Russia
• d) Japan
Answer: a

Q817. Which of these aircraft is known for vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL)?

• a) Harrier Jump Jet

• b) Boeing 737
• c) McDonnell Douglas DC-9
• d) Antonov An-24
Answer: a

Q818. The Junkers Ju 87 "Stuka" was used extensively during:

• a) WWII
• b) WWI
• c) Korean War
• d) Gulf War
Answer: a

Q819. Which fighter jet features thrust vectoring for enhanced maneuverability?

• a) Sukhoi Su-30MKI
• b) F-4 Phantom
• c) MiG-21
• d) Mirage F1
Answer: a

Q820. What configuration is used by flying wing aircraft like the B-2 Spirit?

• a) No distinct fuselage or tail

• b) Twin-tail design
• c) Open cockpit biplane
• d) Forward-swept wing
Answer: a
Q821. Which aircraft was the first to use composite materials extensively?

• a) Boeing 787 Dreamliner

• b) Airbus A310
• c) Concorde
• d) Lockheed L-1011
Answer: a

Q822. Which organization regulates civil aviation in the United States?

• a) FAA
• b) NASA
• c) IATA
• d) ICAO
Answer: a

Q823. Which aircraft was the first successful heavier-than-air powered aircraft?

• a) Wright Flyer
• b) Voisin-Farman I
• c) Fokker D.VII
• d) Bell X-1
Answer: a

Q824. What is the main advantage of a glass cockpit?

• a) Enhanced situational awareness with digital displays

• b) Reduced aircraft weight
• c) Manual control enhancements
• d) Soundproof cabin
Answer: a

Q825. The Boeing 2707 was a canceled project for a:

• a) Supersonic transport
• b) Light utility aircraft
• c) Helicopter
• d) Amphibious plane
Answer: a
Q826. The Tupolev Tu-160 “Blackjack” is a:

• a) Strategic bomber
• b) Stealth fighter
• c) Passenger aircraft
• d) Drone
Answer: a

Q827. A contra-rotating propeller setup is used to:

• a) Cancel out torque effects

• b) Increase yaw
• c) Improve landing performance
• d) Allow VTOL operation
Answer: a

Q828. Which component controls yaw in an aircraft?

• a) Rudder
• b) Aileron
• c) Elevator
• d) Spoiler
Answer: a

Q829. What was the main role of the A-10 Thunderbolt II?

• a) Close air support

• b) Reconnaissance
• c) Stealth attack
• d) Air refueling
Answer: a

Q830. Which aircraft is capable of Mach 3+ speeds?

• a) SR-71 Blackbird
• b) F-16 Fighting Falcon
• c) MiG-25 Foxbat
• d) Boeing 737
Answer: a
Q831. Which of these aircraft has a pusher propeller configuration?

• a) Piaggio Avanti
• b) Boeing 727
• c) F-22 Raptor
• d) Airbus A310
Answer: a

Q832. A swept-forward wing is advantageous for:

• a) Enhanced maneuverability at low speed

• b) Increased lift at high altitude
• c) Better stall resistance
• d) Reduced visibility
Answer: a

Q833. The tailhook system is mainly used in:

• a) Carrier-based aircraft
• b) Helicopters
• c) Gliders
• d) Seaplanes
Answer: a

Q834. Which country developed the Chengdu J-20 stealth fighter?

• a) China
• b) Japan
• c) USA
• d) Germany
Answer: a

Q835. What type of propulsion system is used in scramjets?

• a) Supersonic combustion ramjet

• b) Piston engine
• c) Turboprop
• d) Electric fans
Answer: a
Q836. What is the main advantage of a blended wing body (BWB)?

• a) Lower drag and better fuel efficiency

• b) Faster landing
• c) Easier construction
• d) Simpler avionics
Answer: a

Q837. The Airbus A220 was originally developed by:

• a) Bombardier
• b) Boeing
• c) Embraer
• d) Mitsubishi
Answer: a

Q838. Which component adjusts an aircraft’s pitch?

• a) Elevator
• b) Aileron
• c) Rudder
• d) Trim tab
Answer: a

Q839. Which of the following aircraft was used in the Battle of Britain?

• a) Supermarine Spitfire
• b) MiG-29
• c) F-22
• d) Su-35
Answer: a

Q840. The Antonov An-124 is primarily used for:

• a) Heavy cargo transport

• b) Air-to-air refueling
• c) Maritime patrol
• d) Stealth reconnaissance
Answer: a
Q841. What was the first operational stealth aircraft?

• a) F-117 Nighthawk
• b) B-2 Spirit
• c) F-22 Raptor
• d) SR-71 Blackbird
Answer: a

Q842. The Sukhoi Su-57 is classified as a:

• a) Fifth-generation stealth fighter

• b) Strategic bomber
• c) Tiltrotor transport
• d) Twin-engine airliner
Answer: a

Q843. What is the primary role of the E-3 Sentry aircraft?

• a) Airborne early warning and control (AWACS)

• b) Close air support
• c) Aerial refueling
• d) Strategic bombing
Answer: a

Q844. The primary purpose of a turboprop engine is to:

• a) Drive a propeller for efficient low-speed flight

• b) Provide supersonic thrust
• c) Operate without fuel
• d) Generate electrical power
Answer: a

Q845. The Hawker Hurricane played a crucial role in which historical event?

• a) Battle of Britain
• b) Korean War
• c) Vietnam War
• d) Gulf War
Answer: a
Q846. The first human-piloted powered flight was conducted in:

• a) 1903
• b) 1911
• c) 1898
• d) 1923
Answer: a

Q847. The Lockheed C-5 Galaxy is primarily used for:

• a) Heavy military cargo transport

• b) Long-range bombing
• c) Maritime surveillance
• d) Aerial refueling
Answer: a

Q848. Which aircraft is known for its ability to take off and land on extremely short runways
(STOL)?

• a) De Havilland DHC-6 Twin Otter

• b) Boeing 747
• c) Lockheed SR-71
• d) McDonnell Douglas F-15
Answer: a

Q849. The F/A-18 Hornet is primarily used by:

• a) The United States Navy

• b) The German Air Force
• c) The Russian Air Force
• d) The French Navy
Answer: a

Q850. The term “glass cockpit” refers to:

• a) An aircraft cockpit with digital displays instead of analog gauges

• b) A transparent canopy used in stealth aircraft
• c) A reinforced windshield for supersonic flight
• d) A pilot training simulator
Answer: a
Q851. The Concorde was a:

• a) Supersonic passenger jet

• b) Cargo glider
• c) Tiltrotor aircraft
• d) Heavy bomber
Answer: a

Q852. Which aircraft was the first to break the sound barrier in level flight?

• a) Bell X-1
• b) MiG-15
• c) F-86 Sabre
• d) F-100 Super Sabre
Answer: a

Q853. The Airbus A380 is the world's:

• a) Largest passenger aircraft

• b) First commercial supersonic jet
• c) First VTOL airliner
• d) Smallest turboprop
Answer: a

Q854. Which of the following aircraft is known for its twin vertical stabilizers?

• a) F-15 Eagle
• b) B-52 Stratofortress
• c) Su-25 Frogfoot
• d) Cessna 172
Answer: a

Q855. What configuration does the Boeing 747 use?

• a) Four-engine, swept-wing wide-body

• b) Twin-engine, high-wing biplane
• c) Single-engine, delta-wing
• d) Tiltrotor aircraft
Answer: a
Q856. The Saab JAS 39 Gripen is primarily used by:

• a) Swedish Air Force

• b) U.S. Navy
• c) Indian Air Force
• d) Chinese Air Force
Answer: a

Q857. The Northrop Grumman B-2 Spirit uses which configuration?

• a) Flying wing
• b) Canard
• c) Delta-wing
• d) Twin boom
Answer: a

Q858. Which aircraft was designed to replace the F-14 Tomcat in the U.S. Navy?

• a) F/A-18E/F Super Hornet

• b) F-15 Strike Eagle
• c) F-22 Raptor
• d) F-4 Phantom II
Answer: a

Q859. The Tupolev Tu-144 is known for being:

• a) The first supersonic airliner

• b) A WWII fighter
• c) A stealth bomber
• d) A tiltrotor prototype
Answer: a

Q860. What type of engine does a typical general aviation aircraft like the Cessna 172 use?

• a) Piston engine
• b) Turbojet
• c) Ramjet
• d) Rocket
Answer: a
Q861. Which aircraft was famously used in the D-Day invasion for paratrooper drops?

• a) Douglas C-47 Skytrain

• b) Boeing B-17 Flying Fortress
• c) Avro Lancaster
• d) Focke-Wulf Fw 190
Answer: a

Q862. The F-22 Raptor is built with what primary purpose?

• a) Air superiority
• b) Aerial refueling
• c) Strategic bombing
• d) Maritime patrol
Answer: a

Q863. The vertical stabilizer helps control:

• a) Yaw
• b) Pitch
• c) Roll
• d) Thrust
Answer: a

Q864. What is the defining feature of a biplane?

• a) Two main wings stacked vertically

• b) Tandem cockpit
• c) Jet propulsion
• d) Swept-back canards
Answer: a

Q865. The Mitsubishi A6M Zero was a WWII fighter aircraft from:

• a) Japan
• b) USA
• c) Germany
• d) UK
Answer: a
Q866. The Boeing KC-46 Pegasus is designed for:

• a) Aerial refueling
• b) Stealth bombing
• c) Surveillance
• d) Amphibious assault
Answer: a

Q867. The F-35 Lightning II has how many engine(s)?

• a) One
• b) Two
• c) Three
• d) Four
Answer: a

Q868. The term “V/STOL” stands for:

• a) Vertical/Short Take-Off and Landing

• b) Very Slow Take-Off and Landing
• c) Variable Speed Transport On Landing
• d) Ventilated Static Turbine Over Lift
Answer: a

Q869. Which aircraft uses an oblique wing in experimental design?

• a) NASA AD-1
• b) MiG-31
• c) Su-57
• d) Concorde
Answer: a

Q870. The Curtiss JN-4 “Jenny” was used primarily for:

• a) Pilot training in WWI

• b) Jet combat
• c) Crop dusting
• d) Supersonic reconnaissance
Answer: a
Q871. The Boeing 777 is primarily powered by:

• a) Two turbofan engines

• b) Four turbojets
• c) A single pusher prop
• d) Hybrid-electric motors
Answer: a

Q872. What is a canard configuration?

• a) A small forward wing ahead of the main wing

• b) A dual vertical tail design
• c) An underwing engine layout
• d) A rear-facing propeller
Answer: a

Q873. The Eurofighter Typhoon uses what engine configuration?

• a) Twin turbofan engines

• b) Four piston engines
• c) Single turboprop
• d) Ramjets
Answer: a

Q874. The Boeing X-45 is an example of:

• a) Unmanned combat aerial vehicle (UCAV)

• b) Supersonic transport
• c) Amphibious fighter
• d) Tiltrotor UAV
Answer: a

Q875. What is the main purpose of winglets?

• a) Reduce drag and improve fuel efficiency

• b) Increase aircraft speed
• c) Add weight for stability
• d) Carry weapons
Answer: a
Q876. The first successful transatlantic flight was made by:

• a) Alcock and Brown

• b) Wright brothers
• c) Charles Lindbergh
• d) Amelia Earhart
Answer: a

Q877. The MiG-21 is known for being one of the most:

• a) Mass-produced supersonic jet fighters

• b) Expensive aircraft
• c) Long-range bombers
• d) Tiltrotor planes
Answer: a

Q878. The Avro Vulcan was part of which country’s air force?

• a) United Kingdom
• b) USA
• c) USSR
• d) France
Answer: a

Q879. The X-15 experimental aircraft reached:

• a) The edge of space

• b) Commercial supersonic flight
• c) The moon
• d) A permanent museum display
Answer: a

Q880. What is the main advantage of swept wings?

• a) Better performance at high speed

• b) Increased maneuverability at low speeds
• c) Easier production
• d) Increased weight capacity
Answer: a
Q881. The P-51 Mustang was a:

• a) Long-range WWII fighter

• b) Ground attack jet
• c) Nuclear bomber
• d) Tiltrotor
Answer: a

Q882. The Airbus A310 MRTT is a:

• a) Military tanker and transport version of the A310

• b) Twin-boom reconnaissance plane
• c) Trainer variant of A320
• d) Supersonic private jet
Answer: a

Q883. The Cessna Citation is a family of:

• a) Business jets
• b) Trainer aircraft
• c) Gliders
• d) Amphibious aircraft
Answer: a

Q884. What does the “U” in UAV stand for?

• a) Unmanned
• b) Utility
• c) Unified
• d) Underwing
Answer: a

Q885. What aircraft famously served as Air Force One for President Kennedy?

• a) Boeing 707
• b) Lockheed Constellation
• c) Douglas DC-9
• d) Boeing 747-8
Answer: a
Q886. The Focke-Wulf Fw 190 was flown by which country in WWII?

• a) Germany
• b) Italy
• c) Japan
• d) France
Answer: a

Q887. The term “cranked arrow delta” refers to a wing design used in:

• a) SR-71 Blackbird
• b) Concorde
• c) B-52 Stratofortress
• d) MiG-29
Answer: a

Q888. The Beechcraft King Air series consists of:

• a) Twin-turboprop utility aircraft

• b) Supersonic business jets
• c) Amphibious firefighting planes
• d) Heavy cargo lifters
Answer: a

Q889. The Il-62 was the Soviet equivalent of:

• a) Long-range passenger jet like Boeing 707

• b) Ground attack aircraft
• c) Tactical helicopter
• d) Supersonic interceptor
Answer: a

Q890. The Yak-141 was an experimental:

• a) Supersonic VTOL fighter

• b) Twin-fuselage trainer
• c) Tiltrotor transport
• d) Amphibious scout
Answer: a
Q891. The Boeing 787 Dreamliner is known for:

• a) Extensive use of composite materials

• b) Being the first jetliner ever
• c) Military bombing missions
• d) Short-haul routes only
Answer: a

Q892. The NASA Pathfinder was powered by:

• a) Solar energy
• b) Jet fuel
• c) Compressed air
• d) Rocket engine
Answer: a

Q893. The Douglas A-4 Skyhawk is classified as a:

• a) Light attack aircraft

• b) Long-range bomber
• c) Strategic reconnaissance aircraft
• d) Business jet
Answer: a

Q894. The Boeing X-37 is an:

• a) Unmanned spaceplane
• b) Manned supersonic trainer
• c) Tiltrotor prototype
• d) Amphibious glider
Answer: a

Q895. The Dassault Falcon 7X is a:

• a) Long-range business jet

• b) Ground attack fighter
• c) Surveillance drone
• d) Reconnaissance balloon
Answer: a
Q896. The Aermacchi MB-339 is used primarily for:

• a) Jet trainer purposes

• b) Heavy lift missions
• c) Maritime patrol
• d) Glider towing
Answer: a

Q897. The Boeing 314 Clipper was a:

• a) Flying boat airliner

• b) Twin-engine trainer
• c) Supersonic jet
• d) Cargo helicopter
Answer: a

Q898. The Learjet 35 is typically used for:

• a) Business and medevac flights

• b) Amphibious operations
• c) Firefighting missions
• d) Drone launch platforms
Answer: a

Q899. The Antonov An-2 is notable for being:

• a) The largest biplane ever mass-produced

• b) The fastest stealth jet
• c) A tiltrotor concept
• d) A nuclear-powered aircraft
Answer: a

Q900. The Sikorsky S-64 Skycrane is primarily used for:

• a) Heavy lift helicopter operations

• b) Amphibious combat
• c) Urban taxi service
• d) Air-to-air combat
Answer: a
Q901. What is the primary function of a turbofan engine in modern jetliners?
A) Provide vertical lift
B) Drive propellers
C) Generate thrust with bypass air
D) Act as an auxiliary power unit
Answer: C

Q902. Which of the following aircraft is an example of a blended wing body configuration?
A) Boeing 747
B) Lockheed Martin X-44
C) F-16 Fighting Falcon
D) Airbus A380
Answer: B

Q903. What kind of wing configuration does the Boeing B-52 Stratofortress have?
A) Canard
B) Delta
C) High-mounted straight wings
D) Variable-sweep
Answer: C

Q904. Which early aircraft was powered by a rotary engine?

A) Wright Flyer
B) Fokker Dr.I
C) Douglas DC-3
D) Supermarine Spitfire
Answer: B

Q905. What is the function of the vertical stabilizer on an aircraft?

A) Control pitch
B) Provide lift
C) Stabilize yaw
D) Reduce drag
Answer: C
Q906. The Airbus A350 uses which engine type?
A) CFM56
B) GE90
C) Rolls-Royce Trent XWB
D) PW4000
Answer: C

Q907. Which aircraft is commonly known for being the first operational stealth bomber?
A) F-117 Nighthawk
B) B-1 Lancer
C) B-2 Spirit
D) F-22 Raptor
Answer: C

Q908. What is the primary benefit of using a turboprop engine over a jet engine at low altitudes?
A) Greater noise suppression
B) Increased speed
C) Better fuel efficiency
D) Lower maintenance
Answer: C

Q909. Which of the following aircraft used a variable-sweep wing configuration?

A) Saab Draken
B) MiG-21
C) F-14 Tomcat
D) Mirage III
Answer: C

Q910. The "canard" configuration in aircraft typically refers to:

A) A rear-mounted elevator
B) A tail-less delta design
C) A small forward wing
D) A twin-tail stabilizer
Answer: C
Q911. Which aircraft served as the first supersonic passenger jet?
A) Boeing 2707
B) Concorde
C) Tupolev Tu-204
D) Dassault Falcon 7X
Answer: B

Q912. What is the primary purpose of thrust vectoring in military jets?

A) Decrease drag
B) Increase fuel efficiency
C) Enhance maneuverability
D) Improve takeoff roll
Answer: C

Q913. The Avro Lancaster was primarily used during which war?
A) World War I
B) Korean War
C) World War II
D) Vietnam War
Answer: C

Q914. Which aircraft featured a unique "flying pancake" design during experimental testing?
A) Vought V-173
B) Horten Ho 229
C) Breguet 941
D) Beechcraft Starship
Answer: A

Q915. Which engine configuration is used in the Airbus A320neo?

A) IAE V2500
B) LEAP-1A or PW1100G
C) GE90
D) JT8D
Answer: B
Q916. The F-22 Raptor uses what type of engine configuration?
A) Twin-engine afterburning turbofan
B) Single-engine turboprop
C) Quad-engine turbojet
D) Twin-engine propfan
Answer: A

Q917. Which aircraft has a "pusher" propeller configuration?

A) Cessna 172
B) Piaggio Avanti
C) Boeing 737
D) Lockheed C-130
Answer: B

Q918. The Boeing 737 MAX uses which engine model?

A) GE90
B) CFM LEAP-1B
C) PW1000G
D) JT9D
Answer: B

Q919. A swept wing design provides what advantage at high speeds?

A) Increased lift
B) Reduced stability
C) Improved maneuverability
D) Delayed drag rise
Answer: D

Q920. What type of aircraft is the Bell Boeing V-22 Osprey?

A) Gyrocopter
B) Tiltrotor
C) Autogyro
D) Quadrotor
Answer: B
Q921. Which of the following was a Cold War-era Soviet strategic bomber?
A) Avro Vulcan
B) B-1 Lancer
C) Tupolev Tu-95
D) F-4 Phantom
Answer: C

Q922. The Harrier jet is capable of:

A) Supersonic flight only
B) Vertical/Short Takeoff and Landing
C) Breaking the sound barrier
D) High-altitude long-range flight
Answer: B

Q923. Which material is commonly used in the construction of stealth aircraft?

A) Copper
B) Titanium
C) Radar-absorbent composites
D) Chrome steel
Answer: C

Q924. The main role of the Antonov An-225 Mriya was:

A) Aerial combat
B) Aerial refueling
C) Heavy cargo transport
D) Surveillance
Answer: C

Q925. The first aircraft to break the sound barrier in level flight was:
A) F-86 Sabre
B) Bell X-1
C) MiG-15
D) SR-71 Blackbird
Answer: B
Q926. What is the key feature of the Sukhoi Su-57 fighter?
A) Turboprop propulsion
B) Swing-wing
C) Stealth and supermaneuverability
D) Supersonic cargo capacity
Answer: C

Q927. Which aircraft uses a forward-swept wing design?

A) X-29
B) F-16
C) MiG-25
D) Dassault Mirage 2000
Answer: A

Q928. What is the typical engine configuration of a business jet like the Gulfstream G650?
A) Four turboprops
B) Two rear-mounted turbofans
C) Twin turbojets under wings
D) Single radial engine
Answer: B

Q929. Which organization certifies commercial aircraft in the USA?

A) ICAO
B) IATA
C) FAA
D) NASA
Answer: C

Q930. The Lockheed SR-71 Blackbird was primarily used for:

A) Ground attack
B) Reconnaissance
C) Bombing
D) Dogfighting
Answer: B
Q931. Which aircraft had six engines and the world’s longest wingspan before it was destroyed?
A) Lockheed C-5 Galaxy
B) Antonov An-225
C) Airbus Beluga
D) Boeing 777X
Answer: B

Q932. What aerodynamic advantage does a delta wing offer?

A) Slow flight stability
B) High-speed efficiency
C) VTOL capability
D) Fuel economy
Answer: B

Q933. What was the primary role of the Boeing KC-135 Stratotanker?
A) Bomber
B) Air refueling
C) Reconnaissance
D) Trainer
Answer: B

Q934. Which aircraft pioneered widespread use of fly-by-wire systems in commercial aviation?
A) Boeing 747
B) Airbus A320
C) Lockheed Tristar
D) DC-10
Answer: B

Q935. A monoplane refers to an aircraft with:

A) Two pairs of wings
B) Rotating wings
C) A single pair of wings
D) Multiple propellers
Answer: C
Q936. What is the purpose of winglets on modern aircraft?
A) Add thrust
B) Increase wing surface area
C) Reduce induced drag
D) Stabilize the fuselage
Answer: C

Q937. Which component controls an aircraft's roll?

A) Rudder
B) Elevator
C) Ailerons
D) Slats
Answer: C

Q938. The McDonnell Douglas DC-10 uses how many engines?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer: C

Q939. Which of the following is a tilt-wing aircraft?

A) V-22 Osprey
B) XV-15
C) Canadair CL-84
D) MiG-29
Answer: C

Q940. Which aircraft type is capable of supersonic cruise without afterburners?

A) F-16
B) Concorde
C) F-22
D) MiG-21
Answer: C
Q941. A "pylon" in aircraft refers to:
A) Structural support for engines
B) Navigation equipment
C) Rudder component
D) Passenger staircase
Answer: A

Q942. The Boeing 707 was instrumental in:

A) Developing stealth
B) Introducing jet travel
C) Supersonic transportation
D) STOL operations
Answer: B

Q943. What is a distinguishing feature of the B-2 Spirit’s design?

A) Canards
B) Triplane configuration
C) Flying wing
D) Pusher propellers
Answer: C

Q944. Which aircraft was the first to perform aerial refueling?

A) B-24 Liberator
B) DH.4
C) B-29 Superfortress
D) KC-135
Answer: B

Q945. The term "glass cockpit" refers to:

A) Transparent fuselage
B) Analog instruments
C) Digital avionics displays
D) Manual control systems
Answer: C
Q946. What configuration does the Boeing 787 Dreamliner use?
A) T-tail
B) Rear-mounted propellers
C) Twin-engine underwing turbofans
D) Pusher fans
Answer: C

Q947. Which aircraft utilized an oblique wing for experimental research?

A) Grumman X-29
B) NASA AD-1
C) Lockheed U-2
D) SR-71
Answer: B

Q948. The Lockheed Constellation is recognizable by its:

A) Swept wings
B) Four-engine pusher layout
C) Triple tail fin
D) Canard front surface
Answer: C

Q949. Which aircraft has forward-swept wings and a glass cockpit?

A) Yakovlev Yak-141
B) Bell X-1
C) Sukhoi Su-47
D) Dassault Rafale
Answer: C

Q950. What is a "flaperon" on an aircraft?

A) Device to inject fuel
B) Hybrid of flap and aileron
C) Nose wheel steering system
D) Propeller type
Answer: B
Q951. Which of the following is a triplane aircraft from WWI?
A) Sopwith Camel
B) Fokker Dr.I
C) Spad XIII
D) SE5a
Answer: B

Q952. What is the configuration of the Airbus A380's engines?

A) Two underwing turbofans
B) Four underwing turbofans
C) Four tail-mounted turbofans
D) Two pusher propellers
Answer: B

Q953. What does a canard configuration primarily enhance?

A) Fuel economy
B) Yaw control
C) Stall resistance and maneuverability
D) Altitude range
Answer: C

Q954. The Lockheed U-2 was designed for:

A) Ground attack
B) Reconnaissance at high altitude
C) Supersonic transport
D) Weather surveillance
Answer: B

Q955. Which aircraft features a blended wing-body configuration?

A) Boeing 777
B) Airbus A310
C) Northrop Grumman B-2 Spirit
D) Airbus A350
Answer: C
Q956. Which of the following aircraft is a pusher-propeller experimental plane?
A) Northrop Alpha
B) Piaggio Avanti
C) McDonnell XF-85 Goblin
D) Lockheed P-38 Lightning
Answer: B

Q957. The Bell X-1 was powered by:

A) Rocket engine
B) Turbofan engine
C) Jet engine
D) Radial piston engine
Answer: A

Q958. Which aircraft uses the GE90 engine?

A) Boeing 737
B) Boeing 777
C) Airbus A310
D) Concorde
Answer: B

Q959. The MiG-31 is known for:

A) VTOL
B) Supersonic interception
C) Aerial refueling
D) Heavy cargo transport
Answer: B

Q960. The Airbus Beluga is designed for:

A) Passenger comfort
B) High-altitude surveillance
C) Cargo transport of large components
D) Aerial refueling
Answer: C
Q961. Which early aircraft was built by the Wright brothers?
A) Curtiss JN-4
B) Wright Flyer
C) Fokker E.III
D) Bleriot XI
Answer: B

Q962. The primary function of an aircraft’s rudder is to:

A) Control pitch
B) Control roll
C) Control yaw
D) Stabilize lift
Answer: C

Q963. A delta wing configuration is most effective for:

A) Subsonic speeds
B) STOL operations
C) Supersonic flight
D) Helicopter lift
Answer: C

Q964. The Boeing B-29 was the first bomber with:

A) Pressurized cabin
B) Jet propulsion
C) Stealth coating
D) Forward-swept wings
Answer: A

Q965. The CFM LEAP-1B engine powers which aircraft?

A) Boeing 737 MAX
B) Boeing 787
C) Airbus A350
D) Embraer E195
Answer: A
Q966. What was a key characteristic of the Messerschmitt Me 262?
A) Rotary engine
B) Supersonic speed
C) First operational jet fighter
D) Stealth capability
Answer: C

Q967. Which aircraft featured a forward-swept wing for agility testing?

A) B-2 Spirit
B) X-29
C) Su-57
D) X-15
Answer: B

Q968. Which of the following aircraft was known for VTOL capabilities?
A) Dassault Mirage 2000
B) Harrier Jump Jet
C) Su-27
D) Boeing 737
Answer: B

Q969. Which of the following was a long-range supersonic bomber?

A) B-25 Mitchell
B) B-2 Spirit
C) B-1 Lancer
D) C-130 Hercules
Answer: C

Q970. The Concorde used what engine configuration?

A) Four underwing turbofans
B) Four Olympus turbojets in nacelles
C) Two propfan engines
D) Single rocket engine
Answer: B
Q971. What configuration does the Boeing 727 use?
A) Three rear-mounted engines
B) Twin underwing turbofans
C) Four wing-mounted propellers
D) Twin tail engines
Answer: A

Q972. The Antonov An-124 Ruslan was primarily designed for:

A) Air-to-air combat
B) Short-field landing
C) Heavy cargo transport
D) Civilian passenger service
Answer: C

Q973. What system allows aircraft to avoid mid-air collisions?

A) ILS
B) GPWS
C) TCAS
D) FMS
Answer: C

Q974. Which of the following aircraft used a twin-boom configuration?

A) Avro Vulcan
B) Lockheed P-38 Lightning
C) Su-34
D) McDonnell F-4 Phantom
Answer: B

Q975. Which commercial airliner pioneered fly-by-wire controls?

A) Concorde
B) Boeing 767
C) Airbus A320
D) Boeing 757
Answer: C
Q976. Which aircraft is nicknamed the “Hercules”?
A) B-52 Stratofortress
B) C-130
C) KC-135
D) B-24 Liberator
Answer: B

Q977. What does “STOL” stand for in aviation?

A) Standard Turn Off Line
B) Short Takeoff and Landing
C) Straight Tactical Operation Line
D) Short Terminal Operations Logistics
Answer: B

Q978. What does a swept-back wing do for an aircraft?

A) Increases stall speed
B) Decreases takeoff roll
C) Reduces drag at high speed
D) Increases turbulence
Answer: C

Q979. The BAE Systems Hawk is used primarily for:

A) Bombing missions
B) Reconnaissance
C) Pilot training
D) Air superiority
Answer: C

Q980. Which of the following was designed with stealth as a primary objective?
A) B-17 Flying Fortress
B) Su-27 Flanker
C) F-117 Nighthawk
D) Eurofighter Typhoon
Answer: C
Q981. The role of vortex generators on a wing is to:
A) Increase stall
B) Reduce weight
C) Delay boundary layer separation
D) Increase lift coefficient
Answer: C

Q982. The B-36 Peacemaker had how many engines?

A) 6 piston engines
B) 6 piston + 4 jet engines
C) 4 turbofans
D) 8 propellers
Answer: B

Q983. The McDonnell Douglas MD-11 is characterized by:

A) High-mounted wings
B) Three-engine configuration
C) Forward canards
D) Twin tails
Answer: B

Q984. Which country developed the Chengdu J-20?

A) Russia
B) USA
C) France
D) China
Answer: D

Q985. The first human flight with a hot air balloon occurred in:
A) 1683
B) 1783
C) 1883
D) 1983
Answer: B
Q986. Which of the following aircraft used an afterburning turbofan?
A) Airbus A320
B) F-15 Eagle
C) Embraer ERJ145
D) Boeing 707
Answer: B

Q987. Which aircraft was known for its supersonic dash capability at low altitude?
A) F-4 Phantom
B) MiG-29
C) Tornado GR4
D) Mirage F1
Answer: C

Q988. What is the purpose of a T-tail configuration?

A) Improve low-speed handling
B) Reduce ground interference
C) Maximize nose clearance
D) Increase lift at low speed
Answer: B

Q989. The Dassault Rafale is powered by:

A) One turbofan
B) Twin Snecma M88 engines
C) Two Rolls-Royce Trent 700
D) Four Olympus turbojets
Answer: B

Q990. The Boeing 787 Dreamliner uses which of the following technologies extensively?
A) All-metal structure
B) Riveted aluminum
C) Composite materials
D) Fiberglass fuselage
Answer: C
Q991. The Beechcraft Starship featured which unusual design?
A) Delta wing
B) Forward-swept wings
C) Canards and pusher props
D) Vertical lift jets
Answer: C

Q992. What does the term “supercruise” refer to?

A) Long-range cruise
B) Cruising below stall speed
C) Sustained supersonic flight without afterburners
D) Flying at Vne
Answer: C

Q993. Which aircraft was the first commercial twin-aisle jet?

A) Boeing 737
B) Lockheed L-1011
C) Boeing 747
D) DC-10
Answer: C

Q994. Which airliner had a distinctive upward-curved tail and rear-mounted engines?
A) Boeing 747
B) BAC One-Eleven
C) Concorde
D) Boeing 727
Answer: D

Q995. The term “yaw” in aircraft refers to rotation around which axis?
A) Longitudinal
B) Lateral
C) Vertical
D) None
Answer: C
Q996. The Su-27 Flanker was developed by which country?
A) USA
B) China
C) France
D) USSR
Answer: D

Q997. A “droop nose” is used on some aircraft to:

A) Improve fuel consumption
B) Reduce drag
C) Enhance pilot visibility during landing
D) Increase stability
Answer: C

Q998. The aircraft “Global Hawk” is a type of:

A) UAV for surveillance
B) Business jet
C) Military cargo plane
D) Trainer
Answer: A

Q999. Which engine manufacturer developed the PW4000?

A) General Electric
B) Rolls-Royce
C) Pratt & Whitney
D) Honeywell
Answer: C

Q1000. Which aircraft holds the current record for the highest speed?
A) F-15
B) MiG-25
C) SR-71 Blackbird
D) X-15
Answer: D