07-05-2025

6001CMD30300125001 MD

PHYSICS

1)

The value of sin (300°) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Value of cos2° nearly–

(1) 2

(2)

(3) 1
(4) 0

3) Calculate the distance between two points (0, –1, 1) and (3, 3, 13) : –

(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 17

4) Graph of equation 3x – 2y + 4 = 0 is–

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Differentiation of x = t2 – et + log t with respect to t is :-

(1)
2t – et +

(2)

(3) t + et + log t
(4) None

6) cos(A+B) is equal to:-

(1) cos A sin B + sin A cos B

(2) cos A sin B – sin A cos B
(3) cos A cos B + sin A sin B
(4) cos A cos B – sin A sin B

7) Find the derivative of y = e2:-

(1) e2
(2) e2 – 1
(3) e2 + 1
(4) 0

8) Find for :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Find the minimum value of y, if y = x2 + 4x

(1) –4
(2) 4
(3) –2
(4) 0

10)

Evaluate =

(1) –5 sin (5x) + c

(2) 5 sin (5x) + c

(3)
– sin (5x) + c

(4)
sin (5x) + c

11) Value of

(1) 2x + c
(2) 2logex + c
(3) x2 + c

(4)

12) is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None
14) The value of

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3)
(4)

15) Calculate slope of shown line :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)

16)

Magnitude of slope of the shown graph :-

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

17) Find the sum of given arithmetic progression

4 + 8 + 12 + ..... + 64

(1) 464
(2) 540
(3) 544
(4) 646

18) The sum of the series is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) (0.98)1/2=

(1) 0.98
(2) 1.01
(3) 0.97
(4) 0.99

20) Equation for the graph shown in figure is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)

Which of the following is not a fundamental unit?

(1) Kelvin
(2) Second
(3) Candela
(4) Kilogram weight

22) "Light year" is the practical unit for which of the following quantities ?

(1) Time
(2) Length
(3) Energy
(4) Power

23) N kg-1 is the unit of :-

(1) Velocity
(2) Energy
(3) Acceleration
(4) Force

24) If u1 & u2 are the units selected in two systems of units and n1 and n2 are their numerical values,
then :

(1) n1u2 = n2u1

(2)

(3) n1n2 = u1u2

(4) n1 – u1 = n2 – u2

25)

In the SI system, the unit of temperature is :-

(1) Degree centrigrade

(2) Degree Celsius
(3) Kelvin
(4) Degree Fahrenheit

26) Value of is:-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) 3

27) Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of which of the following?

(1) Length and mass

(2) Mass and time
(3) Length, mass and time
(4) None of these

28) As increases from 0o to 90o, the value of cos :-

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant
(4) First decreases then increases.

29) The greatest value of the function is

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 17

30) Which of the following is not a unit of time?

(1) Microsecond
(2) Leap year
(3) Lunar month
(4) Light year

31) Unit of energy in SI system is:-

(1) erg
(2) calorie
(3) joule
(4) electron volt

32) The velocity v (in cm/sec) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in sec) by the equation:

The dimensions of a, b and c are

a b c

(1) [L2] [T] [LT2]

(2) [LT2] [LT] [L]

(3) [LT–2] [L] [T]

(4) [L] [LT] [T2]

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) The velocity of a freely falling body changes as gphq where g is acceleration due to gravity and h
is the height. The values of p and q are–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1, 1
34) If and are maximum absolute errors in Z, A and B respectively, then
the maximum relative error in X is given by:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A dimensionless quantity:

(1) never has a unit

(2) always has a unit
(3) may have a unit
(4) does not exist

36) If dimensions of P and Q are different, then which of the following operation is valid?

(1)

(2)

(3) P-Q
(4) P+Q

37) If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in terms of significant figures is :-

(1) 38.4
(2) 38.3937
(3) 38.394
(4) 38.39

38) Which of the following has four significant figures?

(1) 12435 kg
(2) 1.02300 kg
(3) 0.02345 meter
(4) 0.23450 meter

39) If L = 3.331 cm, B = 3.1 cm, then L + B

(1) 6.431 cm
(2) 6.43 cm
(3) 6.4 cm
(4) 6 cm
40) Order of magnitude in 6.67 × 10–11Nm2/Kg2

(1) –11
(2) –10
(3) –12
(4) +10

41) On measuring the period of oscillation of a simple pendulum. In successive measurements, the
readings turn out to be 2.63 s, 2.56 s, 2.42 s, 2.71s and 2.80 s. Then more correct way of writting
time period will be:-

(1) T = 2.62 ± 0.11

(2) T = 2.72 ± 0.22
(3) T = 2.72 ± 0.11
(4) T = 2.62 ± 0.22

42)

A student measure quantities a,b and c and then calculates S by the formula S = ab2/c3.
If the errors in a,b,c are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, the maximum error in S can be:-

(1) 13%
(2) 7%
(3) 4%
(4) 1%

43) If percentage increase in radius of solid sphere is 3%, then find percentage increase in its
volume

(1) 3%
(2) 6%
(3) 9%
(4) 12%

44) The dimensions of pressure are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The number of circular division on the shown screw gauge is 100. It moves 1 mm on main scale
for one complete rotation and main scale has 1 mm marks. The diameter of the ball is :-
(1) 2.25 mm
(2) 2.20 mm
(3) 1.20 mm
(4) 1.25 mm

CHEMISTRY

1) How much oxygen is required for complete combustion of 560 g of ethene (C2H4) :-

(1) 1.92 g
(2) 1920 g
(3) 19.2 g
(4) 9.6 kg

2) Which contains maximum no of atoms :-

(1) 16 g 'O'
(2) 16 g 'O2'
(3) 16 g 'O3'
(4) All will have same number of atoms

3) Number of electrons present in 4.2 g of N–3 ion:-

(1) 22 NA
(2) 3 NA
(3) 30 NA
(4) None of these

4) Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1g cm–3) is :-

(1) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3

(2) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3
(4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3

5) Equal mass of O2, H2 and CH4 are taken in a container in identical conditions. What is the ratio of
their moles :-

(1) 1 : 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 8 : 1 : 8
(4) 16 : 1 : 8

6) 50g sample of CaCO3 on dissociation produces 2.24 L CO2 at STP, find percentage purity of CaCO3
in sample :-

(1) 50%
(2) 20%
(3) 10%
(4) 100%

7) Find Molarity(M) of a solution that contains 4g of NaOH in 500 mL solution :-

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.5 M
(4) 1 M

8) Two flasks A and B of equal volume contain SO2 and CH4 gas respectively under similar
conditions, find ratio of atoms present in A and B flask :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 4
(3) 3 : 5
(4) 2 : 1

9) 9 g of Al will react, with

(1) 6 g O2
(2) 8 g O2
(3) 9 g O2
(4) 4 g O2

10) A chemical equation is balanced according to the law of-

(1) Multiple proportions

(2) Constant proportions
(3) Gaseous volumes
(4) Conservation of mass

11) The percentage value of nitrogen in urea is about :

(H2NCONH2 urea formula)

(1) 46.6
(2) 85
(3) 18
(4) 28

12) Number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) NA

(4)

13) Which of the following pairs of compounds illustrates the law of multiple proportions?

(1) H2O, Na2O

(2) MgO, Na2O
(3) Na2O, BaO
(4) SnCl2, SnCl4

14) How many moles of Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms ?

(1) 0.02
(2) 3.125×10–2
(3) 1.25×10–2
(4) 2.5×10–2

15) Which of the following pairs have the same number of atoms?

(1) 16 g of O2 and 4g of H2
(2) 46 g of O2 and 44g of CO2
(3) 28 g of N2 and 32 g of O2
(4) 12 g of C and 46 g of Na

16)

The density of 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is 1.28 g/cm3. The molality of the solution is [Given
that molecular mass of NaOH = 40 g mol-1]
(1) 1.32 m
(2) 1.20 m
(3) 1.56 m
(4) 1.67 m

17) Which of the following has maximum mass :

(1) 0.1 gram atom of carbon

(2) 0.1 mol of ammonia
(3) 6.02 × 1022 molecules of hydrogen
(4) 1120 cc of carbon dioxide at STP

18) Which of the following changes with increase in temperature ?

(1) molality
(2) Mole fraction
(3) Molarity
(4) Weight fraction of solvent

19) The actual weight of a molecule of CH4 is :

(1) 16 g
(2) 26.72 × 10–24 g
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4) 26.72 × 10–24 kg

20) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(A) 0.5 mole SO2 gas (P) 10 moles of proton

(B) 1 mole H2O (Q) 11.2 L at S.T.P.

(C) 96 g of O2 gas (R) 2 moles

(D) 88 g of CO2 gas (S) 6 moles of atoms

(1) (A) – (R), (B) – (P), (C) – (Q), (D) – (S)
(2) (D) – (P), (C) – (Q), (B) – (R), (A) – (S)
(3) (A) – (P), (B) – (Q), (C) – (S), (D) – (R)
(4) (A) – (Q), (B) – (P), (C) – (S), (D) – (R)

21) Assertion : CO2 has more number of molecule in its 88 g than number of molecule of H2O in its
72 g.
Reason : Both have 4 mole of molecules.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.

(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

22) Assertion : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

23) Assertion : Equal moles of C-12 and C-13 will have equal number of atoms.
Reason : Equal moles of C-12 and C-13 will have equal mass.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

24) In a gaseous reaction of the type

,
Which statement is wrong?

(1) a litre of A combines with b litre of B to give C and D

(2) a mole of A combines with b mole of B to give C and D
(3) a g of A combines with b g of B to give C and D
(4) a molecules of A combines with b molecules of B to give C and D

25) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Fe(s) (i) Homogeneous mixture

(b) Water + Alcohol (ii) Pure element

(c) Water + Sand (iii) Pure organic compound

(d) CH4 (iv) Heterogeneous mixture

(1) (a)→(ii); (b)→(i); (c)→(iv); (d)→(iii)
(2) (a)→(iv); (b)→(i); (c)→(iii); (d)→(ii)
(3) (a)→(iii); (b)→(ii); (c)→(i); (d)→(iv)
(4) (a)→(ii); (b)→(i); (c)→(iii); (d)→(iv)

26) Which of the following statements is/are true:

(1) An element of a substance contains only one kind of atoms.

(2) A compound can be decomposed into its components.
(3) All homogeneous mixtures are solutions.
(4) All of these

27) Calculate the number of atoms in 11.2 L of SO2 gas at STP :

(1)

(2)

(3) 3NA
(4) NA

28) The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1 : 3. Their molecular masses are in the
ratio of :-

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

29) A hydrocarbon contain 80% C. The vapour density of compound is 30. Empirical formula of
compound

(1) CH3
(2) C2H6
(3) C4H12
(4) C4H8

30) What quantity of lime stone on heating will give 56 kg of CaO :-

(1) 1000 kg
(2) 56 kg
(3) 44 kg
(4) 100 kg

31) Empirical formula of glucose is-

(1) C6H12O6
(2) C3H6O3
(3) C2H4O2
(4) CH2O

32)

Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

(1) 1.7700
(2) 0.1770
(3) 0.0177
(4) 0.0344

33) Which of the following contains the least number of molecules ?

(1) 4.4 g CO2

(2) 3.4 g NH3
(3) 1.6 g CH4
(4) 3.2 g SO2

34)

64 g of CH4 on reaction with 64 g of oxygen gives :

(1) 22 g of CO2
(2) 44 g of CO2
(3) 66 g of CO2
(4) 88 g of CO2

35) For the reaction A + 2B → C, 5 mol of A and 8 mol of B will produce

(1) 5 mole of C
(2) 4 mole of C
(3) 8 mole of C
(4) 13 mole of C

36) The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through
Haber's process is :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

37) In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is

(1) 500 g of solvent

(2) 100 mL of solvent
(3) 1000 g of solvent
(4) 500 mL of solvent

38) Number of HCl molecules present in 10 mL of 0.1 M solution is :

(1) 6.022 1023

(2) 6.023 1022
(3) 6.022 1021
(4) 6.022 1020

39) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP (i) 0.2 moles

12.022 1022 molecules 12.044 1023

(b) (ii)
of H2O molecules

(c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g

(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP

(Given - Molar volume of a gas at STP = 22.4 L)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

40)

Elements A and B form two compounds B2A3 and B2A. 0.05 moles of B2A3 weight 9.0 g and 0.10 mole
of B2A weight 10 g. Calculate the atomic weight of A and B:-

(1) 20 and 30
(2) 30 and 40
(3) 40 and 30
(4) 30 and 20

41) For preparing 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 in one litre, we need H2SO4 :

(1) 0.98 g
(2) 4.9 g
(3) 49.0 g
(4) 9.8 g

42) Number of oxygen atoms in 8 g of ozone is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
43) If 3.01 1020 molecules are removed from 98 mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of H2SO4
left are :-

(1) 0.1 10-3

(2) 0.5 10-3
(3) 1.66 10-3
(4) 9.95 10-2

44) Calculate the number of atoms of chlorine in 2.08 gm of BaCl2. (Atomic weight of Ba = 137, Cl =
35.5)

(1) 2 10-1 NA
(2) 2 NA
(3) 2 10-2 NA
(4) 2 10-3 NA

45) An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives C,
38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be:-

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

BIOLOGY

1) The protein factories of the cell is/are

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Plastids

2) Which of the following statement is false?

(1) Single celled organisms are capable of independent existence

(2) Any structure less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
According to Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist, the body of animals are composed of cells
(3)
and its products
(4) Schledien and Schwann together formulated the cell theory

3) An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm

which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called

(1) Thylakoid
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Plasmalemma
(4) Cytoskeleton

4) The cell wall of plant cell is made up of

(1) Chitin
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Cellulose and pectin
(4) Starch

5)

Regarding differences between animal & plant cells, which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Animal cells contain centrioles & cell wall, plant cells do not
(2) Animal cells contain centrioles & plant cells contain plastids, cell wall and large central vacuole
(3) Animal cells do not contain centrioles plant cells contain
(4) Animal cells contain plastids, while plants cells do not contain

6) Mesosomes are the infoldings of cell membrane, present in

(1) Fungi
(2) Animals
(3) Plants
(4) Bacteria

7) The colourless plastids is

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Chromoplast
(3) Leucoplast
(4) Both (1) & (2)

8) Go through the following statements and then select correct option for prokaryotic cells :-
(I) They are generally smaller than eukaryotic cells.
(II) They multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells.
(III) They are represented by bacteria, BGA, mycoplasma and PPLO (Pleuro Pneumonia like
organism).

(1) All are correct

(2) Only II and III are correct
(3) Only III is correct
(4) Only I and III are correct

9) Cytoplasm of neighbouring plant cells are connected by

(1) Middle lamella
(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Cell wall
(4) ER

10) Which of the following is primary constriction

(1) Satellite
(2) Centromere
(3) Chromatid
(4) NOR

11) The several ribosomes on a single mRNA is called

(1) Polysomes
(2) Flagella
(3) Gas vacuole
(4) Cilia

12) Which one of the following is not a component of endomembrane system : (i) Endoplasmic
reticulum
(ii) Golgi body
(iii) Lysosome
(iv) Vacuole
(v) Nucleus

(1) Both i and iii

(2) Only iii
(3) iv and v both
(4) Only v

13) In Chlamydomonas, the number of chloroplast per cell is :-

(1) 100
(2) 1
(3) 20
(4) 40

14) In Amoeba the contractile vacuole is important for

(1) Osmoregulation and excretion.

(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Digestion of food
(4) Movement

15) The site of aerobic respiration is

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Lysosome

16) Match the column-I with column-II and choose correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
A Golgi body i Protein synthesis
B Mitochondria ii Ribosomal RNA synthesis
C Ribosome iii ATP production
Glycolipid and glycoprotein
D Nucleolus iv
formation
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

17) Choose the correct statements

(I) The stroma of chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of sugars
(II) Mitochondria is an power-house of cell as it produces most of the cellular ATP
(III) Mitochondria and chloroplast are found in plant cells
(IV) Lysosomes are the sites of anaerobic respiration
(V) The stroma of mitochondria posses a single linear DNA, many RNA molecules, 80S ribosomes

(1) IV and V
(2) II, IV and V
(3) I, II, III
(4) III and V

18) In which of the following chromosome the centromere is located slightly towards one arm?

(1) Metacentric
(2) Telocentric
(3) Sub metacentric
(4) Acrocentric

19) Match the column A with column B and select the correct option from given below.

Column–A Column–B

a Cilia and flagella i 9+0

b Axoneme ii Centriole like structure

c Centriole iii Core of cilia and flagella

d Basal body iv 9+2

(1) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, – d – ii
(2) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, – d – iv
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, – d – i
(4) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, – d – ii

20) Statement I: Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are structurally similar.

Statement II: Cilia are longer than flagella.

(1) Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

21) Select wrong pair–

Scientist Discovery

(A) Robert Hook Cell

Fluid mosaic
(B) Singer & Nicolson
model

(C) Robert Brown Cell wall

(D) Flemming Chromatin

(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C)
(4) (D)

22) Which option is incorrect?

(1) Nucleolus is non-membrane bound structure.

(2) Human cell has two meter long thread of DNA
(3) Telocentric chromosome has middle centromere
(4) Secondary constriction are non-staining and found at a constant location

23) Assertion : Ribosomes are made up of rRNA and proteins.

Reason : Ribosomes occur freely in cytoplasm or are associated with ER.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

24) Omnis cellula-e-cellula is given by

(1) Robert Brown

(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) A.V. Leeuwen hoek

25) Assertion :- The cell membrane is selectively permeable.

Reason :- Many molecules can move across the membrane with out any requirement of energy.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

26) The plasma membrane is made up of

(1) Phospholipids
(2) Proteins
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) All of the above

27) The membrane of the vacuole is called

(1) Cristae
(2) Grana
(3) Tonoplast
(4) Nuclear membrane

28) Given below are two statements

Statement - I : Cytoskeleton are lipid like structures.
Statement - II : Sedimentation coefficient is directly a measurement of size.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I & II are correct
(4) Both Statement I & II are incorrect

29) Chromatin consists of

(1) DNA only

(2) Histone proteins and DNA only
(3) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
(4) RNA and DNA only

30) Name the scientist who first saw and described a living cell :-

(1) Robert Hook

(2) Robert Brown
(3) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(4) Rudolf Virchow

31) Identify the A, B, C, D and E ?

A B C D E

Inter
Central Radial Central Peripheral
(1) doublet
microtubles spoke sheath microtubules
bridge

Central Interdoublet Central Radial Peripheral

(2)
sheath bridge sheath spoke microtubules

Central Radial Central Interdoublet Peripheral

(3)
sheath spoke microtuble bridge microtubules

Central Radial Central Peripheral Interdoublet

(4)
microtubules spoke sheath bridge bridge
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Chlorophyll pigments are present in :-

(1) Inner membrane of chloroplast

(2) Outer membrane of chloroplast
(3) Stroma
(4) Thylakoid membrane

33) How many of the following cell organelle are bounded by single membrane

Mitochondria, Lysosome, Golgi body, Nucleus, ER, Ribosomes,

Centriole
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

34)
Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is

(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Plastid

35) Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II

a. SER i. Lipid modification

Protein folding
b. Golgi apparatus ii.
and secretion

c. Lysosomes iii. Lipid synthesis

Proteases and
d. RER iv.
nucleases
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

36) Refer the given statements, statements, stating them true (T) of false (F) and select the correct
option.
A. The vacuole stores food
B. Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and purple and green photosynthetic bacteria
C. Centrioles are present in all plant cells.
D. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are made of two subunits 50 S and 40 S.

(1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F

(2) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
(4) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T

37) Identify the structure "X" :-

(1) Kinetochore
(2) Satellite
(3) N.O.R.
(4) Centriole
38) Which of the following is present in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell both ?
(A) ds DNA (B) Plasma membrane
(C) Flagella (D) Pili

(1) All four

(2) Only A & B
(3) B & C Only
(4) A, B & C only

39) Which of the given plastids store proteins?

(1) Amyloplast
(2) Elaioplast
(3) Aleuroplast
(4) Chromoplast

40) In which of the given chromosomes, centromere is present at the centre?

(1) Metacentric
(2) Sub-metacentric
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Telocentric

41) Which of the given are formed by the process of packaging in the Golgi apparatus?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Centrioles
(4) Chloroplast

42) In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte has approximately __A__ percent proteins
and __B__ percent lipids.

(1) A - 60, B - 40
(2) A - 52, B - 40
(3) A - 40, B - 52
(4) A - 40, B - 60

43) According to the size of the organism, which sequence is not correct :

(1) Eukaryotic cell > Prokaryotic cell > PPLO > Virus
(2) Virus < PPLO < Prokaryotic cell < Eukaryotic cell
(3) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Prokaryotic cell > Virus
(4) PPLO < Prokaryotic cell < Eukaryotic cell < Tissue

44) Assertion : Peripheral proteins are partially or totally buried in the membrane.
Reason : Integral proteins lie on the surface of membrane.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) It both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

45) Assertion :- Enzyme of lysosomes are called acid hydrolases.

Reason :- Hydrolytic enzymes of lysosome more actively work at acidic pH.
Select the correct option :

(1) A & R both true, R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A & R both true, R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

46) Match the following columns and choose the correct answer from the following given options :

Column - I Column - II

Simple
A squamous i Alveoli
epithelium

Simple cuboidal
B ii Ducts of glands
epithelium

Simple cuboidal
C brush border iii PCT of nephron
epithelium

Simple columnar
D ciliated iv Fallopian tubes
epithelium

A B C D

1 i ii iii iv

2 i ii iv iii

3 i iv ii iii

4 i iii iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
47) Identify A, B and C above figures of simple epithelium tissue

A B C

(1) Cuboidal columnar squamous

(2) Squamous cuboidal columnar

(3) Squamous columnar cuboidal

(4) Cuboidal squamous columnar

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location

(1) Skeletal muscle, shows striations and closely attached with the bones of the limbs
(2) Smooth muscles, show branching, found in the walls of the heart
(3) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in the walls of the heart
(4) Striated muscles, tapering at both ends, attached with the bones of the limbs

49) Assertion : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
Reason : Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements

50) All the listed glands pour their secretions into ducts except

(1) Salivary gland

(2) Digestive gland
(3) Pineal gland
(4) Mammary gland

51) Assertion: Squamous epithelium helps in the diffusion of gases in lungs.

Reason: Squamous epithelium bears microvilli.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

52) Which type of muscle fiber is multinucleated?

(1) Skeletal muscle

(2) Smooth muscle
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) All muscles

53) Which of the following is not the secretion of exocrine glands?

(1) Mucus
(2) Milk
(3) Ear wax
(4) Hormones

54) Which of the following is not true with respect to epithelium?

(1) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular space

(2) It is highly vascularised
(3) It forms covering or lining of external and internal surfaces
(4) It helps in protection, secretion and absorption

55) ______ epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.

(1) Columnar
(2) Cuboidal
(3) Squamous
(4) Ciliated

56) Identify the heterocrine glands among the following set of glands
(1) Thyroid, Ovary, Pancreas
(2) Testis, Pancreas, Ovary
(3) Pancreas, Ovary, Adrenal
(4) Ovary, Thymus, Testis

57) The muscles that are attached to bones and help in body movement are:

(1) Involuntary and non-striated

(2) Voluntary and striated
(3) Involuntary and striated
(4) Voluntary and non-striated

58) The most widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals is

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Skeletal muscle tissue
(4) Connective tissue

59) What is true with regard to following structures?

(a)

(b)

(1) Both the diagrams represent dense connective tissue with collagen fibres in it
(2) a - Dense connective tissue, b-Areolar tissue
(3) a-Areolar tissue, b - Muscle tissue
(4) a-Dense regular tissue, b - Dense irregular tissue

60) What is the cartilage present in the intervertebral disc ?

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage
(3) White fibrous cartilage
(4) Both (1) and (2)

61) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(i) They have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(ii) They support and protect softer tissues and organs.
(iii) It's cells are present in the spaces called lacunae.
(iv) They interact with skeletal muscles attached to them to bring about movements.
Which of the following type of tissue is being described by the above statements ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Blood
(4) Neurons

62) Which of the following is correct w.r.t cardiac muscles ?

(1) Cardiac muscle tissue is a non-contractile tissue present only in the heart
Communication junctions (intercalated discs) at some fusion points do not allow these cells to
(2)
contract as a unit
(3) They show the absence of alternate light and dark bands
(4) Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells.

63) Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest control over the body's responsiveness to
changing conditions?

(1) Neural tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

64) Statement I : When neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated

Statement II : Electrical disturbance once generated in the neuron it swiftly travels along its
plasma membrane

(1) Both I and II statements are correct

(2) Both I and II statements are incorrect
(3) Statements I is correct but statements II is incorrect
(4) Statements II is correct but statements I is incorrect

65) Which of the following is not the component of blood?

(1) Collagen fibres

(2) Plasma
(3) RBCs
(4) WBCs

66) In our body neuroglia constitute

(1) 30% of the neural tissue

(2) 10% of the neural tissue
(3) More than one half of the volume of neural tissue
(4) 90% of the neural tissue

67) Cardiac muscles are unique because they have:

(1) No striations and multiple nuclei

(2) Striations and intercalated discs
(3) Voluntary control and single nucleus
(4) Smooth surface and rapid fatigue

68) Basement membrane is secreted by

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Both (1) and (3)

69) Which of the following statement is true about compound epithelial tissue?

(1) It has a limited role in secretion and absorption

(2) It is vascular tissue
(3) Cells are loosely packed with more intercellular matrix
(4) It is found in the lining of stomach and intestine

70) The heparin, histamine and serotonin are secreted by

(1) Lymphoid cells

(2) Mast cells
(3) Fibroblasts
(4) Macrophages

71) Fibres present in connective tissue are

(1) Reticular
(2) Elastic
(3) Collagen
(4) All of these

72) Unstriated muscles are also known as:

(1) Voluntary muscles

(2) Skeletal muscles
(3) Smooth muscles
(4) Cardiac muscles

73) Epithelial cells involved in the process of absorption of digested food have on their surface
(1) Cilia
(2) Microvilli
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Flagella

74) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the diagram given below?

(1) Nuclei are present at the base of the cells

(2) Cilia are present at the free surface of the cells
(3) Cilia move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium
(4) They are not present in the fallopian tube

75) Epithelial tissue originated from

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Endoderm
(3) Mesoderm
(4) All of the above

76) In the given diagram identify a, b and c

(1) Macrophage, Fibroblast, Mast cell respectively

(2) Mast cell, Fibroblast, Macrophage respectively
(3) Macrophage, Collagen fibre, Fibroblast respectively
(4) Macrophage, Collagen fibre, Mast cell respectively

77) If the cuboidal epithelium turns out to have microvilli on it, what will it be called?

(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium

(2) Pseudo ciliated epithelium
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Brush bordered epithelium
78) Minimum regeneration power is present in

(1) Nervous tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

79) If nasal septum gets damaged its recovery requires cartilage called

(1) Fibrous cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Both (1) and (2)

80) Identify the given below tissue with its type and select the right option for the two together

Options:

Tissue Type

(1) Cartilage Specialised connective tissue

(2) Bone Dense irregular connective tissue

(3) Ligament Dense regular connective tissue

(4) Bone Specialised connective tissue

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Read the following (A - D) statements

(A) Areolar tissue present beneath the skin
(B) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective tissue
(C)Tendons attach one bone to another
(D) Ligaments attach skeletal muscles to bones How many of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One
82) Identify the glands (A) and (B) shown below and select the right option for location and function

Gland Location Function

Secrete
(1) A Unicellular Gland Alveoli
Saliva

Secrete
(2) B Unicellular gland Oesophagus
enzyme

Secrete
(3) A Multicellular gland Alimentary canal
Mucous

Secrete
(4) B Multicellular gland Buccal Cavity
Saliva
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) How many of the following substances are secreted by exocrine glands?

mucus, thyroxine, saliva, earwax, noradrenaline, oil, milk, digestive

enzymes and adrenaline
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

84) The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes and bronchioles are
known as

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium

85) Tendon and ligaments are example of

(1) Dense regular connective tissue.

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Loose connective tissue.
(4) Specialised connective tissue.

86) In the complex body of multicellular animals -digestion, respiration and reproduction are carried
out by

(1) Different groups of cells in a well organised manner

(2) Similar groups of cells in a well organised manner
(3) Different groups of cells in non-organised manner
(4) Similar groups of cells in non-organised manner

87) The cells of the following tissue are specialized to store fat

(1) Skeletal connective tissue

(2) Fluid connective tissue
(3) Areolar tissue
(4) Adipose tissue

88) Which of the following cells in blood is involved in immunity?

(1) Erythrocytes
(2) Platelets
(3) Leucocytes
(4) Thrombocytes

89) Assertion : Goblet cells of alimentary canal are multicellular glands.

Reason : Some of the squamous or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

90) Animal tissues are broadly classified into four types as

(1) Squamous, columnar, cuboidal and ciliated

(2) Simple, compound, special and glandular
(3) Epithelial, connective, neural and skeletal
(4) Neural, connective, epithelial and muscular
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 1 1 4 4 2 1 4 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 2 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 4 4 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 2 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 1 2 1 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 4 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 4 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 1 1 1 3 2 4 1 2 4 3 2 4 4 1 4 1 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Concept:
Quadrants and Signs: The sine function is positive in the first and second quadrants and
negative in the third and fourth quadrants.
Mathematical Calculation:
1. Locate 300°: An angle of 300° lies in the fourth quadrant.
2. Find the reference angle: The reference angle for 300° is 360° - 300° = 60°.
3. Determine the sign: Since 300° is in the fourth quadrant, where the sine function is
negative, sin(300°) will be negative.
4. Evaluate: We know that sin(60°) = √3/2. Therefore, sin(300°) = sin(360-60°) = -sin(60°)= -
√3/2

The value of sin(300°) is

3)

4)

3x – 2y + 4 = 0 ⇒ 2y = 3x + 4

y= ⇒ y=

slope = +m = & c = +2

5)

7)

y = ee = constant

9) y = x2 + 4x
 = 2x + 4

=0
⇒ 2x + 4 = 0
⇒ 2x = –4
x = –2

∴ x = –2 is a point of minima
y(x = –2) = (–2)2 + 4× (–2) = 4 – 8 = –4

10) 1. Question Explanation :

We need to evaluate the integral :

2. Concept used :
Integration of cosine function :

where α is a constant.

3. Formula Used :

4. Calculation :
Comparing with the standard from :
Here α = 5, b = –3
Applying the formula:

Final Answer :

Option (4) :

12)

13)

15) m =
16) Draw tangent and see change

17)
Sn = 544

18)

Ans.

22)

Lightyear is defined as the distance travelled by light in one year.

24) The physical quantity nu remains same in all systems.

25)

SI system-Kelvin

33)

V ∝ [g]p [h]q
[LT–1] = [LT–2]p [L]q
1 = p + q ........ eq.(1)
–1 = 2p .........eq.(2)

36)

(2) Powers are dimensionless, (3) (4) only same dimensions can add or subtract.

37)

Least no. of significant figure are taken

38) Conceptually explained

39)

Explain : add two measurements, L and B, and express the result with the correct number of
significant figures.
Concept : Significant figures are the digits in a number that are considered reliable and
contribute to the number's precision.
Addition with Significant Figures: When adding or subtracting measurements, the result
should be rounded to the same number of decimal places as the measurement with the least
decimal places.
Formula : L + B = Sum
Calculation : L + B = 3.331 cm + 3.1 cm = 6.431 cm
L has three decimal places.B has one decimal place.
The result should have the same number of decimal places as the measurement with the least
decimal places, which is one.
Round 6.431 cm to one decimal place, which gives 6.4 cm.
Ans (3) 6.4 cm
Difficulty level : easy

40) 6.67 × 10–11

order of magnitude = –11 + 1
= –10
because order is increased by 1 if number is more than 5
Here (6.67 > 5) so order is increased by 1.

41)

T =

= = 2.624 = 2.62
Error in measurements are
2.63 – 2.62 = 0.01 s
2.56 – 2.62 = –0.06 s
2.42 – 2.62 = –0.20 s
2.71 – 2.62 = 0.09 s
2.80 – 2.62 = 0.18 s
Mean absolute error

ΔT mean =s
T = 2.62 ± 0.11 s

43) Concept : Relation between volume and radius of sphere.

Formula : ν =
Calculation :

% change in volume = 3 × 3%
% change in volume = 9%
CHEMISTRY

46) →
1 mole (28 gr) requires 96 gr of oxygen

47)

No. of atoms = n atomicity NA

48) has 10 electrons & no. of electrons

50) Question Explanation :- To determine ratio of moles of O2, H2 and CH4

Given Data :- Equal mass of O2, H2 and CH4

Calculation :-

Final Answer :- option (2)

Level :- Easy

51)

1. Question Explanation:

A. Determine the percentage purity of a 50g CaCO3 sample that produces 2.24 L of CO2 at STP
upon dissociation.

2. Given Data:

A. Mass of CaCO3 sample: 50 g

B. Volume of CO2 produced at STP: 2.24 L
C. Molar mass of CaCO3: 100.09 g/mol
D. Molar volume of any gas at STP: 22.4 L/mol

3. Concept:

A. Stoichiometry: The quantitative relationship between reactants and products in a chemical

reaction.
B. Mole: A unit of measurement representing a specific number of particles (atoms, molecules,
ions, etc.).
C. Molar Mass: The mass of one mole of a substance.
D. Molar Volume: The volume occupied by one mole of any gas at standard temperature and
pressure (STP).
 4. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Calculate moles of CO2 produced:

A. Moles of CO2 = Volume of CO2 / Molar volume at STP
B. Moles of CO2 = 2.24 L / 22.4 L/mol = 0.1 mol
B. Determine moles of CaCO3 reacted:
A. From the balanced equation: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
B. 1 mole of CaCO3 produces 1 mole of CO2
C. Therefore, moles of CaCO3 reacted = moles of CO2 = 0.1 mol
C. Calculate mass of CaCO3 reacted:
A. Mass of CaCO3 reacted = Moles of CaCO3 reacted * Molar mass of CaCO3
B. Mass of CaCO3 reacted = 0.1 mol * 100.09 g/mol = 10.01 g
D. Calculate percentage purity of CaCO3:
A. Percentage purity = (Mass of CaCO3 reacted / Mass of sample) * 100
B. Percentage purity = (10.01 g / 50 g) * 100 = 20.02%

5. Final Answer:

A. The percentage purity of CaCO3 in the sample is 20.02%.

52)

54) 9 gr Al means 0.33 mole & use limiting reagent concept

55) Module

56)

% of N [Urea has 2 N & molar mass is 60 g]

57)

No. of atoms =

62)

0.1 gram atom means 0.1 mole of C

68)

mass = mole atomic mass & No. of atoms = n atomicity NA

BIOLOGY
91) NCERT : 127/129

94)

NCERT XI Pg. # 88

98) NCERT page no.127

99)

101) NCERT Pg. - 129

103) NCERT, Pg. # 98

104) NCERT Pg. No. 95, 96

109) NCERT Pg. # 137, 138

110) NCERT page no. 99

112) NCERT XI Page # 138; Para 8.5.10

113) NCERT Pg # 136

116)

NCERT Page No. 91,94

117)

NCERT – 96

119)

NCERT XI, Page # 101,127

122) NCERT XI, Page # 98

127) NCERT Pg. # 101

135) NCERT, Pg. # 96

136) NCERT page no.101

137) NCERT page no.101

138) NCERT Page no 108

139)

NCERT Page no 102

140) NCERT page no.102

141) NCERT page no.101

142) NCERT page no.103

143) NCERT page no.103

144)

Allen module 66

145)

NCERT page no.102

146)

Allen Module 76

147)

NCERT page no.102

148)

NCERT page no.102

149)

NCERT page no.103

150)

Allen Module 81

151)

NCERT page no.104

152)

NCERT page no.105

153)

NCERT page no.105

154)

NCERT page no.105,106

155)

NCERT page no.105

156)

NCERT page no.105

157)

NCERT page no.104

158)

Allen module 66

159)

Allen module 73

160)

Allen module 77

161)
Allen module 77

162)

Allen module 72

163)

Allen module 71

164)

NCERT page no.103

165)

Allen module 67

166)

NCERT page no.103

167)

Allen module 71

168)

NCERT page no.66

169)

Allen module 81

170)

NCERT page no.104

171)

Only (A) is the correct statement.

NCERT page no.103

172)
NCERT page no.102

173) NCERT page no.102

mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes are secreted by exocrine glands

174)

NCERT page no.101

175)

NCERT page no.103

176)

NCERT page no.100

177)

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178)

NCERT page no.103

179) NCERT Page No.102

180)

NCERT page no.100