SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ KSCL ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG – NĂM HỌC 2022- 2023

THANH HÓA
TRƯỜNG THPT BÁ THƯỚC Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp: 12
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút

SECTION A: LISTENING (10 pts)

I. You will listen a conversation between two friends. As you listen, choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D).
1. Mike often talks about________.
A. his difficulties at his house B. finding a place to live
C. the parties he went to D. his friend’s house
2. Mike wants to move, but he wants to live_________ .
A. alone B. in a quiet place C. near the school D. with his parents
3. How many people live in Tom’s house besides Tom?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
4. The expenses which Tom and his housmates share do not include_______ .
A. food B. rent C. light D. heating
5. If Mike goes to live with Tom, he will likely have_________ .
A. more food B. more expense C. more noise D. more freedom
II. You will hear an interview with Angela Morgan, who has recently flown around the world in a
helicopter. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear.
6. The main reason for Angela’s trip was to ______ .
A. make money for her business B. make money for other people
C. have an exciting adventure D. go on a picnic
7. When Angela had flying lessons ______ .
A. her course lasted five months B. her husband took lessons as well
C. she got to know her teacher well D. she didn’t arrive in time
8. During the trip, Angela and her teacher ______ .
A. did very little sightseeing B. carried all the water they needed
C. had engine problems several times D. stopped going camping
9. What did Angela enjoy most about the trip?
A. flying at night B. walking in the desert
C. watching the changes in the scenery D. taking photos
10. What did Angela miss most while she was away?
A. modern bathrooms B. regular exercise
C. interesting entertainment D. going out to restaurants
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. Write
the answers on your answer sheet.
11. A. associate B. sociable C. ancient D. ancestor
12. A. walked B. threatened C. passed D. forced
13. A. too B. food C. soon D. good
II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question.
Write the answers on your answer sheet.
14. A. ambitious B. memorial C. memory D. mechanic
15. A. remove B. cancel C. copy D. answer
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes.
16. The choir stood in four rows according to their _________ heights.
A. respectable B. respective C. respectful D. respected
17. Mary always takes great care ____ her children.
A. with B. for C. of D. to
18. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun

Page 1 of 27
19. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
20. She has just bought a watch.
A. Swiss beautiful brand-new B. Swiss brand-new beautiful
C. brand-new beautiful Swiss D. beautiful brand-new Swiss
21. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
22. His illness made him_________ of concentration.
A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless
23. Henry was overweight, so he went on strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
24. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.
A. Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First
25. The discovery was a major ______________for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. breakout D. breakup
26. If you hadn’t taken the money, you _____ in prison now.
A. wouldn’t be B. wouldn’t have been C. haven’t been D. hadn’t been.
27. I’m older than you are, ____________?
A. am I B. isn’t it C. aren’t I D. aren’t you
28. Oh, I’m always forgetting _______ these medicines. Is that before or after meal, Ron?
A. when to take B. what I will take with
C. on which I should take D. when I take
29. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field and possibly
lead to a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
30. I can’t remember his name, but it’s on the tip of my __________.
A. tongue B. mouth C. figure D. head
31. Will it make any _______ to them if we deliver their equipment tomorrow?
A. displeasure B. alteration C. difference D. conflict
32. I’m going to stay here for___________few days.
A. another B. other C. others D. the other
33. There was hardly ___ money left in my bank account.
A. more B. no C. some D. any
34. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
35. _________ passenger pigeon, one of several species of extinct birds, was hunted to extinction over
_________ few decades.
A. The / Ø B. Ø / the C. The / a D. A / the
36. There are a lot of _________ buildings in the centre of Sydney.
A. many-floored B. multi-storey C. multi-storied D. many-story
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
37. For a decade, Barzilai has studied centenarians, looking for genes that contribute to longervity.
A. who are vegetarians B. who want to be fruitarians
C. who are extraordinary D. who live to be 100 or older
38. While Tom Spinkler was travelling along Wagon Wheel Road in Big Cypress Swamp in South Florida, he
came across a young snake.
A. run up B. run down C. run into D. run out
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
39. He was once a benevolent man who gave a lot of his money to local charities.
A. generous B. selfish C. innocent D. bossy
40. It's not beyond the realm of possibility that some schools may have to cut sport altogether.

Page 2 of 27
A. possible B. impossible C. unlikely D. certain
IV. Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
41. Tom: “Would you take this along to the office for me?” – Jerry: “___________”.
A. Never mind B. Not at all C. Yes, that’s right D. Yes, with pleasure
42. Hoa is talking to Lan:
Hoa: What do you think is the most useful invention in medicine?
Lan: _____________________.
A. I don’t think it is useful B. This is because people use a lot of penicillin
C. Perhaps it is the discovery of penicillin D. Just by chance
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
43. When I kept getting unwanted calls, I called the phone company and had my phone number change.
A. kept B. called C. had D. change
44. While the teacher was explaining the sum on the blackboard, the children threw paper aeroplanes around
the classroom.
A. While B. was explaining C. sum D. threw
45. When an university formulates new regulations, it must relay its decision to the students and faculty.
A. an B. regulations C. to D. the
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION 25 pts)
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.
Stressful situations that (46)________ almost everyday in life seem to be unavoidable. However, we can do
little sometimes to avoid a misfortune or an unpleasant occurrence which may (47)________ us unexpectedly
as only it can. At such a moment, one may hit the (48)_______, give in to the helplessness of the situation or,
ideally, put a brave face on it trying to (49)_________ the burden.
Can you (50)_________ in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do you light
one cigarette after another? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other neurotics? Or do you take
a different (51)________ and make good use of the time drawing up a schedule for the days to come? To
withstand the stressful moment you can also do a crossword puzzle, listen to your favorite music or even
compose a menu for your Sunday dinner.
In fact, whatever way you (52)________ to the annoying situation, you can exert no impact on it as the
traffic jam will only reduce in due (53)_________. Nevertheless, your reaction might considerably influence
your mood for the rest of the day. The inability to confront a stressful occurrence like that with a deal of
composure and sensibility adds much more strain to your life and in this way puts your well – being in
(54)_________. Surprisingly, it is seemingly negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run double the risk
of developing serious health disorders rather than our isolated tragedies however painful they may be.
(55)_______that so many of those wretched stresses and inducing troubles affect us in a day, we should, at
best, try to avoid them or possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.
46. A. devise B. create C. originate D. emerge
47. A. arise B. happen C. befall D. occur
48. A. post B. roof C. bottom D. wall
49. A. subsist B. remain C. cow D. bear
50. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. image
51. A. manner B. stance C. practice D. mode
52. A. strike B. deal C. respond D. challenge
53. A. term B. course C. timing D. period
54. A. risk B. weakness C. insecurity D. jeopardy
55. A. Providing B. Given C. Hence D. As much
II. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the following questions.
Language diversity has always been part of the national demographic landscape of the United States. At the
time of the first census in 1790, about 25% of the population spoke languages other than English (Lepore,
2002). Thus, there was a diverse pool of native speakers of other languages at the time of the founding of the
republic. Today, nationwide, school districts have reported more than 400 languages spoken by language-
minority students classified as limited English proficient (LEP) students (Kindler, 2002). Between 1991 and
2002, total K-12 student enrollment rose only 12%, whereas LEP student enrollment increased 95% during
this same time period (National Clearinghouse for English Language Acquisition, 2002b). This rapid increase

Page 3 of 27
and changing demographics has intensified the long debate over the best way to educate language-minority
students.
Historically, many groups attempted to maintain their native languages even as they learned English, and for a
time, some were able to do so with relatively little resistance until a wave of xenophobia swept the country
during World War 1 (Kloss, 1977/1998). Other groups, Africans, and Native Americans encountered
repressive politics much earlier. During the 1960s, a more tolerant policy climate emerged. However, for the
past two decades there has been a steady undertow of resistance to bilingualism and bilingual education. This
article provides historical background and analyzes contemporary trends in language-minority education
within the context of the recent national push for accountability, which typically takes the form of high-stakes
testing.
The origins of persistent themes regarding the popular antagonisms toward bilingual education and the
prescribed panaceas of "English immersion" and high-stakes testing in English need to be scrutinized. As
background to the contemporary context, we briefly discuss the history of language politics in the United
States and the ideological underpinnings of the dominant monolingual English ideology. We analyze the
recent attacks on bilingual education for what this attack represents for educational policy within a
multilingual society such as the United States. We emphasize multilingual because most discussions of
language policy are framed as if monolingualism were part of our heritage from which we are now drifting.
Framing the language policy issues in this way masks both the historical and contemporary reality and
positions non-English language diversity as an abnormality that must be cured. Contrary to the steady flow of
disinformation, we begin with the premise that even as English has historically been the dominant language in
the United States since the colonial era, language diversity has always been a fact of life. Thus, efforts to deny
that reality represent a "malady of mind" (Blaut, 1993) that has resulted in either restrictionist or repressive
language policies for minorities.
As more states ponder imposing restrictions on languages of instruction other than English-as California,
Arizona, and Massachusetts have recently done-it is useful to highlight several questions related to the history
of language politics and language planning in the United States. Educational language planning is frequently
portrayed as an attempt to solve the language problems of the minority. Nevertheless, the historical record
indicates that schools have generally failed to meet the needs of language-minority students (Deschenes,
Cuban, & Tyack, 2001) and that the endeavor to plan language behavior by forcing a rapid shift to English has
often been a source of language problems that has resulted in the denial of language rights and hindered
linguistic access to educational, social, economic, and political benefits even as the promoters of English
immersion claim the opposite.
The dominance of English was established under the British during the colonial period, not by official decree
but through language status achievement, that is, through "the legitimization of a government's decisions
regarding acceptable language for those who are to carry out the political, economic, and social affairs of the
political process" (Heath, 1976, p.51). English achieved dominance as a result of the political and
socioeconomic trade between England and colonial administrators, colonists, and traders. Other languages
coexisted with English in the colonies with notable exceptions. Enslaved Africans were prohibited from using
their native tongues for fear that it would facilitate resistance or rebellion. From the 1740s forward, southern
colonies simultaneously institutionalized "compulsory ignorance" laws that prohibited those enslaved from
acquiring English literacy for similar reasons. These restrictive slave codes were carried forward as the former
southern colonies became states of the newly United States and remained in force until the end of the Civil
War in 1865 (Weinberg, 1977/1995). Thus, the very first formal language policies were restrictive with the
explicit purpose of promoting social control.
56. What is the primary purpose of including the statistic from the 1790 census in the introductory paragraph?
A. To explain how colonizing the US eradicated language diversity
B. To show concrete evidence that language diversity in the US is not a new phenomenon
C. To note that before that time, there was no measure of language diversity in the US
D. To demonstrate that census data can be inaccurate
57. The article compares two sets of statistics from the years 1991-2002, increases in K-12 enrollment and
increases in LEP students, to highlight __________.
A. That the two numbers, while often cited in research, are insignificant
B. That while many people with school-age children immigrated to the US during this time, an equal amount

Page 4 of 27
left the country as well
C. That language diversity had no impact on US student enrollment during this time
D. That while the total amount of students enrolled in US schools may have grown slowly, the amount of
those students who were LEP increased dramatically
58. According to the second paragraph, many groups maintained their native languages without resistance into
the 20th century EXCEPT__________.
A. Native Americans and African Americans
B. Irish Americans and African Americans
C. Mexican Americans and Native Americas
D. Native Americans and Dutch Americans
59. Why is the word "undertow" emphasized in the second paragraph?
A. To explain how certain groups continued to carry their native languages with them despite the opposition
from those against language diversity
B. To show the secretive and sneaky nature of those opposed to language diversity
C. To call attention to the ebb and flow of language resistance during the 20th century, experiencing periods
of both rest and extremism
D. To explain that, while many groups tried to maintain their native languages, many gave in to social and
political pressure to use only English
60. What is the best way to describe the function of the third paragraph in this excerpt?
A. The paragraph provides its primary thesis as well an outline of the article's main points
B. The paragraph is an unnecessary and irrelevant inclusion
C. The paragraph serves to reveal the conclusions of the article before detailing the data
D. The paragraph firmly establishes the article's stance against language diversity
61. Phrases such as "prescribed panaceas" and "malady of the mind" are used in the third paragraph
to__________.
A. Defend the point that the US must standardize its language education or there will be severe results
B. Point out that language is as much a physical process as an intellectual one
C. Illustrate how certain opponents of language diversity equate multilingual education with a kind of national
disease
D. Demonstrate how the stress of learning multiple languages can make students ill
62. According to the fourth paragraph, all of the following are potential negatives of rapid English immersion
EXCEPT__________.
A. It can lead to a denial of language rights for particular groups
B. Students become more familiar with conversational expressions and dialect
C. It can prevent access to certain benefits that are always available to fluent speakers
D. It can promote feelings of alienation among groups that are already in a minority status
III. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the following questions.
"The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written, "is the history of the rise and
development of the capitalistic system". The colonists of the eighteenth century pushed forward what those of
Page 5 of 27
the seventeenth century have begun: the expansion and elaboration of an economy born in the great age of
capitalist expansion.
Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant capital to increase our
growth. Capital includes the tools - such as: machines, vehicles, and buildings - that makes the outputs of
labor and resources more valuable. But it also includes the funds necessary to buy those tools. If a society had
to consume everything it produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future productions.
But if a farmer can grow more corn than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed to increase the
next crop, or to feed workers who build tractors. This process of capital accumulation was aided in the
American economy by our cultural heritage. Saving played an important role in the European tradition. It
contributed to American’s motivation to put something aside today for the tools to buy tomorrow.
The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from what was consumed, was
derived either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some manufacturing existed, its role in the
accumulation of capital was negligible. A merchant class of opulent proportions was already visible in the
seaboard cities, its wealth as the obvious consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying
trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia and the rice coast of South Carolina finally depended for
their genteel way of life upon the ships and merchants who sold their tobacco and rice in the markets of
Europe. As colonial production rose and trade expanded, a business community emerged in the colonies,
linking the provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest.
63. With what subject is this passage mainly concerned?
A. Geography B. Finance C. Economics D. Culture
64. The phrase ‘paved the way’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.
A. paid for B. supported C. accumulated D. resembled
65. It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans __.
A. sent many tools to America B. taught their skills to their offspring
C. were accustomed to saving D. were good farmers
66. The word ‘funds’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.
A. money B. resource C. labor D. capital
67. According to the passage, which of the following would lead to accumulating capital?
A. Training workers who produce goods. B. Studying the culture history of the country
C. Consuming what is produced D. Planting more of a crop than what is needed
68. The word ‘it’ in the third sentence of paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. growth B. resource C. labor D. capital
69. According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A. factories B. tractors C. money D. workers
70. According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was a result of ____.
A. efficient saving B. the immigration
C. the success of production and trade D. the existence of manufacturing
SECTION E: WRITING (30 pts)

Page 6 of 27
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer sheet.
71. Everyone was surprised that the singer had very little money when he died.

 That _______________________________________________ .

72. I don’t really like her even though I admire her achievement.

 Much ______________________________________________.
73. When they told the Minister about the strike, he was very angry.
 On ________________________________________________.
74. The patient recovered more rapidly than expected.
 The patient __________________________________________.

75. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your driving test.

 As long as___________________________________________.
II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form of the given word. Write the
answers on your answer sheet.
76. He deals calmly with everything. (STRIDE)
____________________________________________________.
77. Many companies were immediately affected by the new regulations. (EFFECT)
 ___________________________________________________.
78. Being her only niece, Mary is very precious to her. (APPLE)
____________________________________________________.
79. I used to be familiar with every corner of this school. (HAND)
____________________________________________________.
80. John and she arrived in Ho Chi Minh City at the same time. (COINCIDED)
____________________________________________________.
III. Essay writing
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
Online learning is the only solution that can be applied to help students study in the time of social distance.
Use specific reasons and details to support your answer.
You should write about 250 words.

- - - THE END - - -
ĐÁP ÁN KSCL HSG 2021 – 2022
I. SECTION A: LISTENING (10pts)
I. You will listen a conversation between two friends. As you listen , choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D).
(5pts)

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D

II. You will hear an interview with Angela Morgan, who has recently flown around the world in a
helicopter. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. (5 pts)

6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. B

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. Write
the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)
11. D 12.B 13.D
II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question.
Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)
Page 7 of 27
 14. C 15.A

SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCAB (30 pts)

I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (21pts)
16. B 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. A

27. C 28. A 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. B

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions. (2pts)
37. D 38. C
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions. (2pts)
39. B 40. A
IV. Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges. (2pts)
41. D 42. C
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions. (3pts)
43. D 44. D 45. A

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (10 pts)
46. D 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. A
51. B 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. B
II. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the following questions. (7 pts)
56. B 57. D 58. A 59. C 60. A 61. C 62. B

III. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the following questions. (8 pts)

63. C 64. B 65. C 66. A 67. D 68. D 69. D 70. C

SECTION E: WRITING (30 pts)

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
71. That the singer had little money (left) when he died surprised everybody.
72. Much as I admire her achievement, I don’t really like her.
73. On being told about the strike, the Minister was very angry.
74. The patient made a more rapid recovery than expected.
75. As long as you keep calm, you’ll pass the driving test.
II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
76. He takes everything in his stride.
77. The new regulations had an immediate effect on many companies.
78. Being her only niece, Mary is the apple of her eye.
79. I used to know this school like the back of my hand.
80. John’s arrival in Ho Chi Minh City coincided with hers.
III. Essay writing
The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria:
1. Content: (10 points)
Page 8 of 27
 - Providing all main ideas and details as required
- Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Language: (5 points)
- Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students
- Good use and control of grammatical structures
- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
- Legible handwriting
3. Organization & Presentation: (5 points)
- Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
- The essay is well-structured

TRƯỜNG THPT HÀM RỒNG ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG CẤP TỈNH
TỔ TIẾNG ANH NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - THPT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 29/9/2022
Đề thi có 09 trang

Họ tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………………… SBD: ……………

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (70 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 20 giây, mở đầu
và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài sau khi kết
thúc 2 phần nghe.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

LISTENING PART 1
PART I. You will hear an interview with an IT consultant called Paul about how he started his
own business. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to
what you hear. (5pts)
Question 1. What does Paul say about the first years of the working life?
A. He got a teaching post in the university where he had studied.
Page 9 of 27
B. His first job began to feel rather monotonous as time went by.
C. The kind of tasks he was instructed to do gradually changed.
D. The work became less enjoyable when some colleagues moved away.
Question 2. What does Paul say made him decide to start his own consultancy business?
A. He was persuaded to do so by some friends.
B. He read a book which inspired him to take action.
C. He talked he could take advantage of a growing trend.
D. He realized he had the skills to make a success of his own company.
Question 3. What does Paul suggest is his favorite type of client?
A. people he knew when he was a student. B. people were recommended by agents
C. people he met at conferences D. people he has worked with previously
Question 4. What does Paul say about the way he uses a business mentor?
A. He uses his mentor differently from the way others use theirs.
B. He finds his mentor often comes up with fresh ideas for his business.
C. He gets information about the latest business theories from his mentor.
D. He likes to get his mentor’s reactions to plans that he is considering.
Question 5. Paul explains that in the coming year he is going to
A. employ some new consultants. B. have more variety in his work.
C. move to a more convenient office D. learn some additional skills.
PART II. You will hear a woman called Sally Batting talking about her experiences in the
Antarctic. For questions 6-10, choose (A, B, C, or D). (5pts)
Question 6. Who inspired Sally to go to the Antarctic?
A. her favorite TV presenter B. her uncle C. an Arctic explorer D. nobody
Question 7. On her first visit to Antarctic Sally travelled mainly on ______
A. a bike B. snow shoes C. a sled D. two wheels
Question 8. It was the ______ that first struck Sally about the Antarctic.
A. brightness B. snow C. daylight D. cold
Question 9. What did Sally find the hardest thing to deal with in the Antarctic?
A. isolation B. physical exertion C. pitching the camp D. wind
Question 10. What Sally missed most on her long cycle trip was ______.
A. a cup of coffee B. her own comfy bed C. hot bath D. delicious cappuccino

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 11 to
13.
Question 11: A. lightened B. surprised C. privileged D. increased
Question 12: A. application B. combustion C. navigation D.recognition
Question 13: A. admiration B. advocate C. adventitious D. administer

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 14 to 23.
Prime Minister Phạm Minh Chính on Thursday asked ministries, agencies and localities to pay
more (14)________ and spend more resources to build and improve institutions, saying that
“investment in institutional improvement is investment in (15)________ development.”
“Legislation building and institutional improvement are for the sake of the nation and people.
This important work must go in (16)_______ with the fight against corruption and interest groups,”
he said.

Page 10 of 27
 PM Chính chaired a national online meeting on institutional building and improvement
yesterday, asking for recommendations to solve (17)________ problems relating to institutions,
particularly those related to the socialist-oriented market economy and international integration.
At the meeting, Chính highlighted detailed requirements and tasks relating to institution
building in which measures are (18) ________ to make institutions become a momentum and
leverage for social development in which human resources, natural resources and cultural values are
promoted to the (19)________. In addition, shortcomings of the current legal framework and
institution shall be detected and amended properly so that people and enterprises must be at the centre
of all policies and legislation. Law enforcement must be supervised (20)________.
Finally, decentralisation must be (21)________ and go along with effective supervising
tools/measures, improved (22)________ and administrative procedure simplification.
Minister, Chairman of the Government Office Trần Văn Sơn said that it was necessary to have
detailed regulations (23)________ the coordination among agencies in legislation building as well as
sanctions for individuals, especially heads of the agencies which failed to complete their assigned
tasks.
(https://vietnamnews.vn/politics-laws/1032866)
Question 14. A. attraction B. attention C. attendance D. compliment
Question 15. A. sustainable B. lifelong C. endurable D. lifespan
Question 16. A. band B. row C. line D. course
Question 17. A. pending B. upcoming C. half-done D. incomplete
Question 18. A. made B. sought C. raise D. found
Question 19. A. fullest B. best C. most D. highest
Question 20. A. accurately B. closely C. seriously D. intimately
Question 21. A. grown B. accelerated C. strengthened D. stimulated
Question 22. A. responsibilities B. liabilities C. faults D. accountabilities
Question 23. A. in B. of C. from D. on

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 24 to 44.
Question 24: Come by to my place so that we can have a chat about that, ______?
A. will you B. shall we C. aren’t you D. can’t we
Question 25: When my parents traveled to Singapore, they bought me a ______ piano on my
birthday.
A. precious grand ancient wooden B. precious grand wooden ancient
C. wooden grand ancient precious D. ancient grand precious wooden
Question 26: ______ for director must have surprised you.
A. Your nominating B. You nominated C. You’re being nominatedD. Your being nominated
Question 27: This is the latest news from earthquake site. Two-thirds of the city ______ in a fire.
A. were destroyed B. have been destroyed C. was destroyed D. has been destroyed
Question 28: ______, the more we allow for destructive habits that negatively impact the
environment.
A. The more sustainably we travel B. The less sustainable we travel
C. The less sustainably we travel D. The more sustainable we travel
Question 29: Although I graduated from economic university, I ______ my pride to work as a waiter
to earn for living for a year till I found a new job.
A. digested B. chewed C. swallowed D. took
Question 30: ______ ASEAN is becoming more integrated, investors should be aware of local
preferences and cultural sensitivities.

Page 11 of 27
A. Because B. Therefore C. Although D. However
Question 31: The man ______ of the murder hasn’t been brought to trial yet.
A. suspecting B. having suspected C. suspected D. suspect
Question 32: ______ is a belief generally held by people who live in colder climates.
A. A person’s mood is affected by weather B. That weather affects a person’s mood
C. Although a person’s mood is affected by weather D. Weather affects a person’s mood
Question 33: When I stopped talking, Sam finished my sentence for me as though he ______ my
mind.
A. can read B. would read C. reads D. had read
Question 34: I felt a bit ______ and seemed to have more aches and pains than usual.
A. under the gun B. over the worst C. out of sorts D. on the mend
Question 35: We finally managed to ______ our way through the crowd and reach the exit.
A. force B. lead C. move D. create
Question 36: As a ______, politician and other public figures should avoid making direct statements
that could be used against them.
A. change of heart B. rule of thumb C. words of mouth D. show of hands
Question 37: He was trying to sell me a new laptop which I suspect fell off the back of a ______.
A. train B. truck C. rail D. lorry
Question 38: His father doesn’t allow him to use his car because in the hand of a reckless driver like
him, a car becomes a ______ weapon.
A. lethal B. venal C. fatal D. mortal
Question 39: Any information you provide during the interview will remain ______ confidential.
A. personally B. desperately C. severely D. strictly
Question 40: In ______ as well as in sciences, students use computers or equivalent devices to do
research and write papers.
A. humanity B. humans C. humanities D. humankind
Question 41: Successful athletes cannot afford to be ______, they need to say cool and focused.
A. highly-strung B. highly-paid C. highly-motivated D. highly-trained
Question 42: Besides receiving the title of Miss Grand International 2021 and the ______ from her
predecessor – Evelyn Abena Appiah of the US, Nguyễn Phúc Thùy Tiên also received a cash prize of
US $40,000.
A. laurel B. crown C. garland D. trophy
Question 43: We put his rude manner _______ ignorance of our British customs.
A. up with B. off at C. down to D. up to
Question 44: I utterly ______ your argument. In my opinion, you have distorted the facts.
A. refute B. dispute C. confound D. object

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 45 to 46.
Question 45: A. official B. westernize C. division D. employment
Question 46: A. secretary B. legendary C. accuracy D. perfunctory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 47 to 48.
Question 47: Manuel Diaz, a coffee consultant from Mexico, said that if Robusta beans were
carefully selected at harvest and meticulously processed at the mill, it would have as many market
opportunities as Arabica.
A. accurately B. abnormally C. carelessly D. precautiously

Page 12 of 27
Question 48: The headmaster gives the go-ahead for his students to launch a campaign which raises
awareness of people about the importance of Green Movement.
A. encourages B. discourages C. prohibits D. allows

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 49 to 50.
Question 49: During the Covid-19 pandemic, the government has warned against panic buying and
has taken action against businesses engaged in price gouging.
A. alleviation B. mitigation C. augmentation D. reduction
Question 50: That morning, I spent maybe 40 minutes poring over the horror of shooting and a
million other things the newspapers had to tell me.
A. examining B. remembering C. forgetting D. finding

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 58.
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They
represent how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many
positive things come from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss and
present data on the implications of urbanization on the physical health of humans living in these large
urban areas.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health
effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country
experiencing these problems is China. China is a country that is the past 30-40 years went from
being an agrarian based society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in
effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living
spaces within a close proximity. This is what is known as urbanization. In most recent decades, since
China’s change to being more of an industrial based economy, the country has experienced record
high numbers of people migrating within its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000
people has more than doubled. These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China
moving to the new urban areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are many
possibilities for health challenges among these people.
One every common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air
pollution. Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This could
include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or
chemicals like CO2 or Methane (which are also products of plants and refineries as well as cars and
other modes of transportation). Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air
pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems
such as: asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease, and different types of cancer (most commonly
lung cancer). When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time, one can experience
even more detrimental health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health,
being more susceptible to respiratory diseases, and s shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For
instance, urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy ways to get food. This food is
also more than likely not as high quality as well contains a large amount of sodium and sugar.
Because this food is so accesible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low
quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, obesity, or many other health
conditions.
(Adapted from http://medium.com)

Page 13 of 27
Question 51: Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urban cities – The new opportunity for community development.
B. Urbanization – Pros and cons
C. Urbanization – How people’s health is impacted?
D. Developing countries – The fastest urbanization.
Question 52: What does the phrase “these problems” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. industrialized countries B. negative physical health effects
C. immigrants D. lots of jobs and living spaces
Question 53: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is TRUE about China?
A. Because of urbanization, more immigrants find their ways to this country.
B. Most of the new urban areas’ populations are the emigrants from remote places.
C. This is a developed country in the past 30-40 years.
D. The population of cities now more than doubles that in the past.
Question 54: The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. contaminated B. overcrowded C. fresh D. sparse
Question 55: The word “susceptible” in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. applicable B. acceptable C. receptive D. vulnerable
Question 56: The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT
______.
A. refineries waste B. sewage C. chemicals D. industrial factories
Question 57: Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last
paragraph?
A. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
B. Because of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
C. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
D. Because of the change in people’s diet.
Question 58: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized countries.
B. Living in urban areas for a long time will make the life expectance of inhabitants shorten.
C. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to people in
urban cities.
D. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than those in
developing nations.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 59 to 61.
Question 59: There has been an appreciative drop in the number of the unemployed since the new
government came to power.
A. appreciative B. unemployed C. came to power D. the number
Question 60: So far this term, the students in the writing class have learned how to write thesis
statements, organize their materials, and summarizing their conclusions.
A. summarizing B. to write C. the students D. have learned
Question 61: Alternative therapies often dismiss by orthodox medicine because they are administered
by people with no formal medical training.
A. Alternative B. medical training C. often dismiss D. administered

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 62 to 68.

Page 14 of 27
 Reality Or Virtual Reality
To know where information technology is taking us is impossible. The law of unintended
consequences governs all technological revolutions. In 1438, Johanne Gutenberg wanted a cheaper
way to produce Kand-written Bibles. His movable type fostered a spread in literacy, an advance in
scientific knowledge and the emergence of the industrial revolution.
Although no one can predict the full effect of the current information revolution, we can see
changes in our daily lives. Look in any classroom. Today’s teachers know they have to make lessons
fast-moving and entertaining for children raised on television and computer games.
Often the changes that accompany new information technology are so subtle that we barely
notice them. Before the written word, people relied on their memories. Before telephones, more
people knew the pleasure of writing and receiving letters. Before television and computers, people
had a stronger sense of community, a greater attachment to neighborhoods and families. Television
has glued us to our homes, isolating us from other human beings. Only one-quarter of all Americans
know their next-door neighbors. Our communities will become less intimate and more isolated as we
earn degrees, begin romances and gossip on the Internet, a world-wide system that allows computers
to communicate with one another. The age of software will offer more games, home banking,
electronic shopping, video on demand and a host of other services that unplug us from physical
contact.
Is meeting face-to-face more valuable than corresponding electronically? Some neighbors still
stop by when a family crisis occurs, but other people will offer condolences via e-mail. Whichever we
prefer, the electronic seems to represent the future. Television teaches many of us to favor the image
over the actual. The Internet pushes life beyond the old physical barriers of time and space. Here you
can roam around the world without leaving home, make new friends, exchange the results of
laboratory experiments with a colleague overseas, read stock prices, buy clothes, stay out of the
office, conducting business via a computer that becomes your virtual office. Virtual community.
Virtual travel. Virtual love. A new reality. William Gibson, whose 1984 novel, “Neuromancer”,
pioneered the notion of virtual living, now says that electronic communication provides a “sensory
expansion for the species by allowing people to experience an extraordinary array of things while
staying geographically in the same spot.” Gibson warns, however, that the virtual can only augment
our physical reality, never replace it. He applauds the countermove toward what has been called
“skin” – shorthand for contact with other humans.
The desire for skin can be seen in shopping centres – people want human contact even when
they could buy things via television or the telephone. Although computers and fax machines make it
easier to work at home, business areas continue to grow. More people than ever are crowding into
major cities, in large part because companies that provide goods and services benefit from being near
one another. Employees also seek the relationships that come only from being together on a personal
level with other people.
Need for skin does not negate the electronic screen’s power to mesmerize. No brain scan or
biochemical study has identified a physical basis for our seemingly insatiable hunger for electronic
stimulation. Computers are often more alluring than television, which already has a grip-on us.
Young people today spend about as much time in front of a television as in a classroom.
Technology promises more and more information for less and less effort. As we hear these
promises, we must balance faith in technology with faith in ourselves. Wisdom and insight often
come not from keeping up-to-date with technology or compiling facts but from quiet reflection. What
we hold most valuable – things like morality and compassion – can be found only within us. While
embracing the future, we can remain loyal to our unchanging humanity.

Page 15 of 27
Question 62: What does the writer say about technological revolutions in the first paragraph?
A. It’s not easy to foster them. B. They are followed by unforeseen results.
C. Industrial revolution will follow them. D. They help the spread of literacy.
Question 63: What was one of the unplanned benefits of Gutenberg’s invention?
A. the fact that movable type became available
B. the fact that more people learned to read and write
C. the spread of industry
D. an increase in scientific experiments
Question 64: What, until recently, characterized people before television and computers?
A. They had more direct contact with the people around them.
B. They knew other human beings in the street.
C. They had better memories.
D. They were very attached to writing letters.
Question 65: Gibson believes that _____________.
A. Electronic communication will contribute to the expansion of the species
B. the Internet corresponds with our idea of what the real world is like
C. electronic communication should replace direct contact with other people
D. the Internet is merely a supplement to the real world
Question 66: What social trend demonstrates that humans will seek out other humans?
A. the rise of good employee relationships
B. the development of business areas and cities
C. the spread of technology to the home
D. the provision of services by companies
Question 67: According to the writer, the electron screen has the ability to ______.
A. hold our attention completely B. facilitate the need for electronic stimulation
C. make us watch too much television D. make us desire human contact
Question 68: In the writer’s view, whilst willingly accepting the future we should ______.
A. keep up to date with the latest technology and information
B. not lose sight of the importance of our own mental abilities and moral values
C. try not to change humanity
D. always have faith in technology

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges from 69 to 70.
Question 69. The teacher is talking to Laura about her presentation in class today.
Teacher: “Your speech this morning was beyond my expectations.”
Laura: “______.”
A. Are you kidding me? It’s terrible B. Thanks, without your help, I couldn’t have
C. No worry, that’s nothing D. It’s OK. It was the least I could do
Question 70. Nick and his friend, Tom, are talking about their weekend plan:
Nick: “Why don’t we go for a picnic this weekend”?
Tom: ‘That’s what I was just about to suggest. Great minds _______.”
A. meet each other B. think alike C. meet likewise D. think the same

Page 16 of 27
SECTION B: WRITING (30 points)
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
Question 71. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
--> Urgent __________________________________________________________________
Question 72 Just thinking about his face at the moment makes me laugh.
--> The very ________________________________________________________________
Question 73: The boy does whatever his father wants in an obedient way.
--> The boy dances ___________________________________________________________
Question 74: I simply fail to understand some of my colleague’s attitudes to work.
-->I have some colleagues ______________________________________________________
Question 75: Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems.
-->Mass tourism is ____________________________________________________________
Part 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form of the
given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
Question 76: Getting food and water to the flood victims must be dealt with before other matters.
=> _________________________________________________________ (PRIORITY)
Question 77: The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present situation.
=> _________________________________________________________ (BOILS)
Question 78: Winning the prize has made him very conceited.
=> __________________________________________________________ (HEAD)
Question 79: She was very relieved. She realized that her bag hadn’t been stolen.
=> __________________________________________________________ (BREATHED)
Question 80: Hoa’s teacher is very happy with her at the moment.
=> __________________________________________________________ (BOOKS)

Part 3. Essay writing (20 points)

Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic:
A large number of high schools in other countries have included voluntary work in their syllabus and
regarded it as a criterion in personality assessment. Should this policy be adopted in Vietnamese high
schools in forthcoming years?
Give reasons and specific examples to support your opinion(s).

Page 17 of 27
 –THE END –

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12

MÔN TIẾNG ANH - NĂM HỌC 2022-2023

SECTION A – MUTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS KEYS QUESTIONS KEYS

1 B 36 B
2 C 37 D
3 D 38 A
4 D 39 D
5 B 40 C
6 A 41 A
7 B 42 B
8 A 43 C
9 D 44 A
10 C 45 B
11 D 46 D
12 B 47 C
13 D 48 C
14 B 49 C
15 A 50 A
16 C 51 C
17 A 52 B
18 B 53 B
19 A 54 B
20 B 55 D
21 C 56 B
22 D 57 B
23 D 58 D
24 A 59 A
25 A 60 A
26 D 61 C
27 D 62 B
28 C 63 B
29 C 64 A
30 C 65 D
31 C 66 B
32 B 67 A
33 D 68 B

Page 18 of 27
 34 C 69 B
35 A 70 B

SECTION B: WRITING
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning
to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
71. Urgent action must be taken to solve the problem of homelessness.
72. The very thought of his face at the moment makes me laugh.
73. The boy dances attendance on/upon his father.
74. I have some colleagues whose attitudes to work I simply fail to understand.
75. Mass tourism is partly responsible/ to blame for the environmental problems.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form of the given
word. (5pts)
Question 76: Getting food and water to the flood victims must be dealt with before other matters.
=> Getting food and water to the flood victims must take PRIORITY over other matters.
=> Getting food and water to the flood victims must be given PRIORITY over other matters.
(take priority over) = (be given priotity over)
Question 77: The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present situation.
=> The statement BOILS down to making the public aware of the present situation.
(boil down to V.ing)
Question 78: Winning the prize has made him very conceited.
=> Winning the prize has gone to his HEAD.
(go to one’s head)
Question 79: She was very relieved. She realized that her bag hadn’t been stolen.
=> She BREATHED a sigh of relief when she realized that her bag hadn’t been stolen.
(breathed a sigh of relief))
Question 80: Hoa’s teacher is very happy with her at the moment.
=> Hoa is in her teacher’s good BOOKS at the moment.
(in her teacher’s good books)
Question III. Essay writing (20 pts)
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: ( coherence, cohesion , style )
The essay should include 3 parts:
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly
b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic sentence,
reasonings and examples.
c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
Note:
- Students can totally agree/ disagree or partly agree.
- Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his or her own opinion
in the conclusion.
3. Language : (grammatical accuracy , a wide range of vocabulary and structures )
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 100 điểm
- Thang điểm: 20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
Điểm bài thi =
5
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,25

----------------- THE END----------------------

Page 19 of 27
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI KSCL ĐỘI DỰ TUYỂN HSG LẦN 2
KHỐI TRƯỜNG THPT NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
HẬU LỘC 1 – TRIỆU SƠN 5 Môn: Tiếng Anh
LƯƠNG ĐẮC BẰNG Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

ĐÁP ÁN
Phần trác nghiệm:
1 A 11 B 21 B 31 C 41 C 51 A 61 A
2 C 12 D 22 B 32 B 42 C 52 C 62 A
3 B 13 B 23 D 33 C 43 C 53 D 63 B
4 C 14 A 24 C 34 A 44 C 54 D 64 C
5 A 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 D 55 C 65 D
6 B 16 D 26 B 36 B 46 C 56 A 66 D
7 C 17 C 27 A 37 B 47 D 57 C 67 A
8 B 18 C 28 C 38 B 48 D 58 B 68 B
9 D 19 A 29 D 39 D 49 D 59 C 69 A
10 A 20 A 30 B 40 A 50 B 60 C 70 B

Phần tự luận:

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
sentence printed before it.
Question 71. that Maria will have many problems with the administrative side of the job
Question 72. and the short of it is that Joseph’s not up to the job
Question 73. himself up to his full height, he passionately denied any involvement in the affair
Question 74. reply would be greatly/ much appreciated
Question 75 .I can’t make head nor tail of the plot of the book.
Question 76. This kitchen table doubles as the desk where I work.
II. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.
Question 77. Going on safari isn’t a decision you can make on the spur of the moment. You need to plan
things very carefully.
Question 78. Everyone was taken aback that Glen did so well in his Biology exams.
Question 79. You have to learn to take the rough with the smooth.
OR You can’t expect to have a smooth run all the time.
Question 80. There was a public outcry over the proposed change to privacy laws.
III. Essay writing:
The mark given to this part is based on the following criteria:
1. Content: (35% of total mark)
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity
b. The composition is well-structured
3. Language: (30% of total mark)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures
Page 20 of 27
 4. Punctuation, and spelling and handwriting (5% of total mark)
a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
b. Legible handwriting

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI KSCL ĐỘI DỰ TUYỂN HSG LẦN 2
KHỐI TRƯỜNG THPT NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
HẬU LỘC 1 – TRIỆU SƠN 5 Môn: Tiếng Anh
LƯƠNG ĐẮC BẰNG Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề chính thức
Gồm có 07 trang

SECTION A : LISTENING
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 10 giây, mở đầu và kết
thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
Thí sinh có 2 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài..
Part 1: You will hear a radio discussion about writing a novel. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B,
C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (5pts)
Question 1. What does Louise say about Ernest Hemingway’s advice to writers?
A. It is useful to a certain extent.
B. It applies only to inexperienced novelists.
C. It wasn’t intended to be taken seriously.
D. It might confuse some inexperienced novelists.
Question 2. Louise says that you need to get feedback when you
A. have not been able to write anything for some time.
B. are having difficulty organizing your ideas.
C. are having contrasting feelings about what you have written.
D. have finished the book but not shown it to anyone.
Question 3. What does Louise regard as useful feedback?
A. a combination of general observations and detailed comments
B. both identification of problems and suggested solutions
C. comments focusing more on style than on content
D. as many points about strengths as weaknesses
Question 4. What does Louise say about the people she gets feedback from?
A. Some of them are more successful than her.
B. She doesn't only discuss writing with them.
C. She also gives them feedback on their work.
D. It isn’t always easy for her to get together with them.
Question 5. One reaction to feedback that Louise mentions is that
A. it is justified but would require too much effort to act on.
B. it focuses on unimportant details rather than key issues.
C. it has been influenced by reading other people’s novels.
D. it is not suggesting that major changes to the novel are required
Part II: You will hear a university lecturer talk to his students. Listen and circle the appropriate letter.
(5pts)
Question 6. The speaker says students can visit her _______.
A. every morning. B. some mornings.
C. mornings only. D. Friday morning.
Question 7. According to the speaker, a tutorial _______________.
A. is a type of lecture. B. is less important than a lecture.
C. provides a chance to share views. D. provides an alternative to groupwork.
Question 8. When writing essays, the speaker advises the students to _________.
A. research their work well. B. name the books they have read.
C. share work with their friends. D. avoid using other writers’ ideas.
Question 9. The speaker thinks that plagiarism is ________.
A. a common problem. B. an acceptable risk.
Page 21 of 27
 C. a minor concern. D. a serious offence.

Question 10. The speaker’s aims are to _________.

A. introduce students to university expectations.
B. introduce students to the members of staff.
C. warn students about the difficulties of studying.
D. guide students round the university

SECTION B : PHONETICS
I, Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (3pts)
Question 11. A. commercial B. celestial C. presidential D. essential
Question 12. A. message B. privilege C. college D. collage
Question 13. A. admiral B. adventure C. advocate D. advent

II, Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2pts)
Question 14: A. admirable B. advisable C. reliable D. desirable
Question 15: A. dental B. rental C. sandals D. canal

SECTION C : VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I, Choose the word/phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. (21pts)
Question 16 . ‘Which of these two men is Japanese?’ ‘_________ is.’
A. Both of them B. All of them C. Neither of them D. None of them
Question 17. I have never seen _________ before.
A. such good film B. so good film C. so good a film D. such good a film
Question 18 . Since they aren’t answering the phone, they _________ .
A. need have left B. can’t have left C. must have left D. should have left
Question 19. Nebraska has floods in some years, ______.
A. in others drought B. droughts are others
C. while other droughts D. others in drought
Question 20. How did they manage to keep me completely ______ about this for so long?
A. in the dark B. under the shadow C. in the shade D. out of shape
Question 21. The secretary dashed ___________ the weekly report to his director
A. up B. off C. of D. for
Question 22 . I __________ an important deal yesterday and she was so thrilled!
A. came across B. mucked up C. shot down D. gunned for
Question 23. Sending out e-mails that people haven’t asked for to ______addresses is often known.
A. sufficient B. countless C. widespread D. multiple
Question 24. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is ________ the law.
A. beyond B. over C. above D. onto
Question 25. As soon as the bomb was discovered by one of the cleaning staff, the police had the area
___________ off and no-one was allowed within two blocks of the cafe.
A. fenced B. cordoned C. walled D. isolated
Question 26 . Those were the ethnic ___________ we put people in then.
A. dogholes B. pigeonholes C. boltholes D. foxholes
Question 27. I slept badly last night and am feeling particularly ___________ this morning.
A. slow-witted B. far-reaching C. off-hand D. top-heavy
Question 28 . Searching for one man in this city is like looking for a _________.
A. salt of the earth B. sand in the desert
C. needle in a haystack D. drop in the ocean
Question 29. I’d love to live in these ______ surroundings.
A. desolate B. bashful C. gloomy D. serene
Question 30 . Mark Stringly is rarely interviewed as he hates being in the ______.
A. flashlight B. limelight C. headlight D. floodlight

Page 22 of 27
Question 31 . I tried to push my way through the standing passengers to get to the door and, failing to keep
my __________ about me.
A. head B. soul C. wits D. mind
Question 32. We need a more _______ assessment of the chances of ending this war.
A. moral B. sober C. plain D. vivid
Question 33. The vagrant came out of the shop, ___________ for about 10 paces before falling against a car.
A. stammered B. tripped C. staggered D. skidded
Question 34 . Thick fog across much of the UK has resulted in dozens of flights _______ and many more
delayed.
A. being cancelled B. to be cancelled C. are cancelled D. cancelled
Question 35. He claimed _____ from military service as he was a foreign national.
A. demobilization B. exception C. exemption D. liability
Question 36. Ben’s so unlucky in love. Why does he ______ the type of woman who brings trouble?
A. catch on B. fall for C. put before D. set out

II, Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete
each of the following exchanges. (2pts)
Question 37 . Alex is talking to his teammate, Tim, about aquatic sports.
Alex: “Do you think windsurfing is a dangerous sport?”
Tim: “__________________”
A. You can say that again but it’s still true. B. No, I don’t think so. It’s perfectly safe.
C. You’re right. There’s no doubt about it. D. I see what you mean but that’s a good idea.
Question 38 . Jack accidentally spilt coffee over Jenny’s dress in a buffet.
Jack: “Forgive me. I’m terribly sorry about the dress.”
Janny: “ ”
A. I see what you mean. B. That’s quite all right.
C. You’re welcome. D. Don’t mention it.

III , Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions. (3pts)
Question 39 . Televisions are now an every day feature of most households in the United States, and
television viewing is the number one leisure activity.
A. leisure activity B. television viewing
C. most households D. an every day feature
Question 40 . Sex's education is instituted to help the student understand the process of maturation, to
eliminate anxieties related to development, to learn values, and to prevent disease.
A. Sex’s education B. Understand C. To eliminate anxieties D. Related
Question 41. Excavations in some villages on the east bank of the Euphrates River have revealed an ancient
community that had been laying under later reconstructions of the city of Babylon
A. On the east bank B. Revealed C. Had been laying D. Later
IV, Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions. (2pts)
Question 42. Ha Long Bay has attracted millions of visitors who come to enjoy its breathtaking views and
experience other activities.
A. unbreathable B. heartbreaking C. awe-inspiring D. unforgettable
Question 43: In spite of poverty and dreadful conditions, they still manage to keep their self-respect.
A. self-reliant B. self-restraint C. self-esteem D. self-assured
V, Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions. (2pts)
Question 44 : Her graceful performance of this traditional art form in the evening session was a real source
of pleasure.
A. attractive B. effortless C. inelegant D. sophisticated
Question 45: I think we should tell Peter that the location of the picnic has been changed. Let’s put him in
the picture.
A. explain to him B. take his photo C. show him D. inform him

Page 23 of 27
 SECTION D – READING .

I, Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase for each of the blanks . (10pts)
It only requires the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a whole host of
hereditary diseases to be (46) ______. Originally, it was forecast that the venture would take until the
beginning of the 21st century to be accomplished. At present, it is clear that the task can be finished much
earlier. Hundreds of scholars have gone to (47) ______ to help (48) ______ the mystery of the human genetic
structure with an ardent hope for liberating mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis or arthritis.

The progress in this incredible undertaking is (49 ) ______ by an accurate interpretation of the information
(50) ______ in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the cells in the human body. Locating and
characterizing every single gene may (51) ______ an implausible assignment, but very considerable
(52 ) _______ has already been made. What we know by now is that the hereditary code is assembled in
DNA, some parts of which may be diseased and (53) ______ to the uncontrollable transmission of the
damaged code from parent to their children.

Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last for a few years more, notions like gene
therapy or genetic engineering don’t evoke much surprise any longer. Their potential application has already
been examined in the effective struggle against many viruses or in the genetic treatment of blood disorders.
The hopes are, then, that hundreds of maladies that humanity is (54) ______ with at present might eventually
cause to exist in the not too (55) ______ future.

Question 46. A. terminated B. interfered C. eradicated D. disrupted

Question 47. A. maximum B. utmost C. supreme D. extremes
Question 48. A. dissolve B. interrogate C. respond D. unravel
Question 49. A. dependent B. reliant C. qualified D. conditioned
Question 50. A. associated B. contained C. involved D. derived
Question 51. A. sound B. hear C. voice D. perceive
Question 52. A. headline B. heading C. headway D. headship
Question 53. A. amiable B. conceivable C. evocative D. conducive
Question 54. A. aggravated B. teased C. persecuted D. plagued
Question 55. A. far-away B. outlying C. distant D. imminent

II, Read the following passage and choose the best option for each questions below. (8pts)

The Atlantic Cod Fishery

Off the northeastern shore of North America, from the island of Newfoundland in Canada south to New
England in the United States, there is a series of shallow areas called banks. Several large banks off
Newfoundland are together called Grand Banks, huge shoals on the edge of the North American continental
shelf, where the warm waters of the Gulf Stream meet the cold waters of the Labrador Current. As the currents
brush each other, they stir up minerals from the ocean floor, providing nutrients for plankton and tiny shrimp-
like creatures called krill, which feed on the plankton. Herring and other small fish rise to the surface to eat
the krill. Groundfish, such as the Atlantic cod, live in the ocean’s bottom layer, congregating in the shallow
waters where they prey on krill and small fish. This rich environment has produced cod by the millions and
once had a greater density of cod than anywhere else on Earth.
Beginning in the eleventh century, boats from the ports of northwestern Europe arrived to fish the Grand
Banks. For the next eight centuries, the entire Newfoundland economy was based on Europeans arriving,
catching fish for a few months in the summer, and then taking fish back to European markets. Cod laid out to
dry on wooden “flakes” was a common sight in the fishing villages dotting the coast. Settlers in the region
used to think the only sea creature worth talking about was cod, and in the local speech the word “fish”
became synonymous with cod. Newfoundland’s national dish was a pudding whose main ingredient was cod.
By the nineteenth century, the Newfoundland fishery was largely controlled by merchants based in the
capital at St.John’s. They marketed the catch supplied by the fishers working out of more than 600 villages
around the long coastline. In return, the merchants provided fishing equipment, clothing, and all the food that

Page 24 of 27
could not be grown in the island’s thin, rocky soil. This system kept the fishers in a continuous state of debt
and dependence on the merchants.
Until the twentieth century, fishers believed in the cod’s ability to replenish itself and thought that
overfishing was impossible. However, Newfoundland’s cod fishery began to show signs of trouble during the
1930s, when cod failed to support the fishers and thousands were unemployed. The slump lasted for the next
few decades. Then, when an international agreement in 1977 established the 200-mile offshore fishing limit,
the Canadian government decided to build up the modern Grand Banks fleet and make fishing a viable
economic base for Newfoundland again. All of Newfoundland’s seafood companies were merged into one
conglomerate. By the 1980s, the conglomerate was prospering, and cod were commanding excellent prices in
the market. Consequently, there was a significant increase in the number of fishers and fish-processing plant
workers.
However, while the offshore fishery was prospering, the inshore fishermen found their catches dropping
off. In 1922 the Canadian government responded by closing the Grand Banks to groundfishing.
Newfoundland’s cod fishing and processing industries were shut down in a bid to let the vanishing stocks
recover. The moratorium was extended in 1994, when all of the Atlantic cod fisheries in Canada were closed,
except for one in Nova Scotia, and strict quotas were placed on other species of groundfish. Canada’s cod
fishing industry collapsed, and around 40,000 fishers and other industry workers were put out of work.
Atlantic cod stocks had once been so plentiful that early explorers joked about walking on the backs of
teeming fish. By 2008, cod stocks were still a historically low levels and showed no signs of imminent
recovery, even after drastic conservation measures and severely limited fishing. Some fishermen blamed the
disminished stocks on seals, which prey on cod and other species, but scientists believe that decades of
overfishing are to blame. There have been occasional signs of hope. For example, studies on fish populations
show that cod disappeared from Newfoundland at the same time that stocks started rebuilding in Norway,
raising the possibility that the cod had simply migrated to a different region. Still, in the early twenty-first
century, it remains uncertain whether or when the cod will return to Grand Banks or the moratorium will end.

Question 56. The word shoals in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. Shallow B. currents C. mountains D. islands
Question 57. What physical process occurs in the region of the Grand Banks?
A. Underwater hot springs heat the water.
B. Nutrient-rich water flows in from rivers.
C. Warm and cold currents come together.
D. Tides transport plankton and small fish
Question 58. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
paragraph 1? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Millions of cod come to the Grand Banks every year to feed on the abundant supplies of herring
and other small fish.
B. The Grand Banks used to have the world’s largest concentration of cod because of favorable
natural conditions.
C. The Grand Banks is the only place on Earth where cod are known to come together in extremely
large groups.
D. The environmental resources of the Grand Banks have made many people wealthy from cod
fishing.
Question 59. Why does the author mention Newfoundland’s national dish in paragraph 2?
A. To encourage the development of tourism in Newfoundland
B. To describe the daily life of people in Newfoundland
C. To stress the economic and cultural significance of cod
D. To show that Newfoundland used to be a separate country
Question 60 . All of the following statements characterized Newfoundland’s cod fishery in the past EXCEPT:
A. Fishers were dependent on merchants in the capital.
B. Cod were the foundation of the island’s economy.
C. Fishers competed with farmers for natural resources.
D. Cod were placed on wooden “flakes” for drying.
Question 61. What event first signaled the overfishing of the Atlantic cod?
A. The failure of cod to support thousands of fishers in the 1930s
B. The merging of seafood companies into one huge conglomerate
C. An increase in the number of fishers and fish-processing plants

Page 25 of 27
 D. The government moratorium on cod fishing during the 1990s
Question 62. Why did the Canadian government decide to build up the Grand Banks fishing fleet?
A. The 200-mile limit was seen as an economic opportunity.
B. There had not been enough boats to handle all the fish.
C. The shipbuilding sector of the economy was in a slump.
D. Canada faced stiff competition from other fishing nations.
Question 63. It can be inferred from paragraph 6 that the author most likely believes which of the following
about the future of the Atlantic cod fishery?
A. The fishery will improve if the government lifts the fishing ban.
B. It may be a long time before cod stocks recover from overfishing.
C. The center of the Atlantic cod fishery will shift to Norway.
D. The cod will return to the Grand Banks if seal hunting is allowed.

III, Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each for the questions. (7pts)
ACID DUST
“ Calcite- containing dust particles blow into the air and combine with nitric acid in polluted air from
factories to form an entirely new particle – calcium nitrate , ” said Alexander Laskin, a senior research
scientist at the Department of Energy’s Pacific Northwest National Laboratory in Richland,
Washington .These nitrates have optical and chemical properties that are completely different from those of
the originally dry dust particles . Due to this, climate models need to be updated to reflect this chemistry.
Calcite dust is common in arid areas such as Israel, where scientists collected particles for analysis.
Working from a mountaintop, the team collected dust that had blown in from the northern shores of
Egypt, Sinai,and southern Israel. The particles had combined with air containing pollutants that came from
Cairo.They analyzed nearly 2,00 individual particles and observed the physical and chemical changes at the
W.R Wiley Environmental Sciences Laboratory.
A key change in the properties of the newly formed nitrate particles is that they begin to absorb water and
retain the moisture .These wet particles can scatter and absorb sunlight- presenting climate modelers, who
need to know where the energy is going , a new wild card to deal with . Companion studies of dust samples
from the Sahara and the Saudi coast and loess from China show that the higher the calcium in the mineral , the
more reactive they are in with nitric acid .And once the particle is changed , it stays that way.“When dust
storms kick up these particles and they enter polluted areas , the particles change ,” Laskin said . “To what
extent this is happening globally, as more of the world becomes industrialized , we don’t know . But now we
have the laboratory and field evidence that shows it is definitely happening . The story is much more
complicated than anybody thought .”
Question 64 : What is the main idea of the passage ?
A.There is a new particle called calcium nitrate
B. Factories are polluting the environment
C. Climate models have to be updated because of the new particle calcium nitrate.
D. Calcium nitrate has chemical properties different from other dust particles.
Question 65: Why do climate models need to be updated to reflect the chemistry of calcium nitrate ?
A. The new particles can absorb water and retain moisture.
B. The new particles can scatter and absorb sunlight.
C. To stop acid dust.
D. Both A and B.
Question 66: Which of the following may be true ?
A. The change of an ice age is increased. B. We may see more rainbows.
C. The greenhouse effects are increased D. Calcite dust is common in arid areas.
Question 67: Why does the passage begin with a description of the properties of calcium nitrate?
A.To give background information so the reader can understand the topic better.
B. Because calcium nitrate is the main idea.
C. They show how elements combine to create calcium nitrate .
D. To prove the existence of calcium nitrate
Question 68: The word “those ” in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. Nitrates B. Properties C. Particles D. Models
Question 6 9: It can be inferred that the word “retain ” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to____ .
A. hold B. lose C. increase D. need

Page 26 of 27
Question 70: In the third paragraph , what does the term “ wild card ” mean ?
A.An unknown card in a card game. B. An unknown item in the scientists’ calculations
C. A large amount of acid dust. D. A,B and C are incorrect .

SECTION E : WRITING .

I, Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentences printed
before it.
Question 71. Maria shouldn’t have many problems with the administrative side of the job.
 It’s unlikely ________________________________________________________.
Question 72. In a nutshell, Joseph’s not up to the job.
 The long __________________________________________________________.
Question 73. Standing as tall as he could, he passionately denied any involvement in the affair.
 Drawing __________________________________________________________.
Question 74. We would be extremely grateful if you could reply as soon as possible.
 A prompt__________________________________________________________.
Question 75 . I found the plot of the book too complicated to follow.
 I can’t make ____________________________________________________ .

II, For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (5pts.)
Question 76. This kitchen table is also the desk where I work. DOUBLES
___________________________________________________________.
Question 77. You can’t just suddenly decide to go on a safari. You need to plan things very carefully. SPUR
___________________________________________________________.
Question 78. Nobody really expected Glen to do so well in his Biology exams. TAKEN
___________________________________________________________.
Question 79. You can’t expect everything to run on an even keel all the time. SMOOTH
___________________________________________________________.
Question 80. The public were up in arms over the proposed change to privacy law. OUTCRY
___________________________________________________________.
III: ESSAY WRITING . (20pts.)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
The most important aspect of a job is the money a person earns.
In about 200 words, write a composition expressing your point of view. Give reasons for your answer.

…………The End………

Page 27 of 27