06-11-2024

7102CMD3031MIN24007 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Shown in the figure is a circular loop of radius r and resistance R. A variable magnetic field of
induction B = B0e–t is established inside the coil. If the key (K) is closed, the electrical power
developed right after closing the switch is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A loss free transformer has 500 turns on its primary winding and 2500 in secondary. The meters
of the secondary indicate 200 volts at 8 amperes under these conditions. The voltage and current in
the primary is :-

(1) 100 V, 16 A
(2) 40 V, 40 A
(3) 160 V, 10 A
(4) 80 V, 20 A

3) A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The
magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced currnet in wires AB and CD

are :

(1) B to A and D to C
(2) A to B and C to D
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D
4) A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field directed
into the paper. AO = l and OC = 3l. Then :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The current flows in a circuit as shown below. If a second circuit is brought near the first circuit

then the current in the second circuit will be :-

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) Depending on the value of RG
(4) None of the above

6) Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current i each circulating in the same direction. If the
loops approach each other

(1) the current in each will decrease

(2) the current in each will increase
(3) the current in each will remain the same
(4) the current in one will increase and in other will decrease

7) In the circuit shown in figure what is the value of I1 just after pressing the key K ?

(1)
A

(2)
A
(3) 1A
(4) None of the above

8) In an A.C. sub-circuit as shown in figure, the resistance R = 0.2 Ω. At a certain instant VA– VB =
0.5 V, I = 0.5 A, and current is increasing at the rate of = 8 A/s. The inductance of the coil is

(1) 0.01 H
(2) 0.02 H
(3) 0.05 H
(4) 0.5 H

9) Two solenoids have identical geometrical construction and same number of truns but one is made
of thick wire and other of thin wire. Which of the following quantities are different for two
solenoids:-
(a) Self inductance.
(b) Rate of joule heating if the same current goes through them.
(c) Magnetic potential energy if the same current goes through them .
(d) Time constant.

(1) b, d
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) All above

10) A semicircular conducting ring is placed in yz plane in a uniform magnetic field directed along
positive z-direction. An induced emf will be developed in the ring if it is moved along:

(1) positive x direction

(2) positive y direction
(3) positive z direction
(4) none of these

11) A coil has an area of 0.05 m2 and it has 800 turns. It is placed perpendicularly in a magnetic field
of strength 4 × 10–5 Wb/m2, it is rotated through 90° in 0.1 second. The average emf induced in the
coil is :

(1) 0.056 V
(2) 0.046 V
(3) 0.026 V
(4) 0.016 V

12) Flux ϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in sec) according to
the equation . What is the magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25 s ?

(1) 1.2 A
(2) 1.8 A
(3) 0.6 S
(4) 0.2 A

13) A magnet is dropped down an infinitely long vertical copper tube. Then :-

(1) The magnet moves with continuously decreasing velocity and ultimately comes to rest.
The magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity and ultimately aquires a terminal
(2)
velocity.
(3) Magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity and acceleration.
(4) Magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity but with constant acceleration.

14) In figure (a) and figure (b) two air–cored solenoids P and Q have been shown. They are placed
near each other. In figure (a), when IP, the current in P, changes at the rate of 5 As–1, an emf of 2 mV
is induced in Q. The current in P is then switched off, and a current changing at 2 A s–1 is fed through

Q as shown in diagram. What emf will be induced in P:-

(1) 8 × 10–4 V
(2) 2 × 10–8 V
(3) 5 × 10–3 V
(4) 8 × 10–2 V

15) A charge particle moves along the line AB, which lies in the same plane of a circular loop of

conducting wire as shown in the fig. Then :-

(1) No current will be induced in the loop

(2) The current induced in the loop will change its direction as the charged particle passes by
(3) The current induced will be anticlockwise
(4) The current induced, will be clockwise

16) Consider a conducting circular loop placed in a magnetic field as shown in figure. When

magnetic field changes with time, magnetic flux also changes and emf is induced.
 If resistance of loop is R then induced current is . For current, charges
must have non–zero average velocity. Magnetic force cannot make the stationary charges to move.
Actually there is an induced electric field in the conductor caused by changing magnetic flux, which

makes the charges to move, . This induced electric field is non conservative by
nature.
A cylindrical space of radius R is filled with a uniform magnetic induction B parallel to the axis of

the cylinder. If = constant, the graph, showing the variation of induced electric field with

distance r from the axis of cylinder, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v
perpendicular to one of its sides. A magnetic induction B constant in time and space, pointing
perpendicular and into the plane at the loop exists everywhere with half the loop outside the field, as

shown in figure. The induced emf is :

(1) zero
(2) RvB
(3)

(4) vBL

18)

In the branch AB of a circuit, as shown in the figure, a current I = (t + 2) A is flowing, where t is the
time in second. At t = 0, the value of (VA–VB) will be :-

(1) 1V
(2) –1V
(3) 3V
(4) –3V

19) The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is :

(1) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays

(2) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(3) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
(4) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays

20) The charging current for a capacitor is 0.2 A, Find displacement current.

(1) 0.2A
(2) 0.4A
(3) 0.3A
(4) A

21) The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by

E = 50 sin (ct – x) N/m

Find the energy contained in a cylinder of cross-section 10 cm2 and length 50 cm along the x axis

(1) 1.1 × 10–8 J

(2) 5.0 × 1010 J
(3) 5 × 104 J
(4) 5.5 × 10–12 J

22) An electromagnetic wave is propagating along x-axis. At x = 1m and t = 10 sec its electric

vector = 6 (v/m) than the magnitude of its magnetic vector is :

(1) 2 × 10–8 T
(2) 3 × 10–7 T
(3) 6 × 10–8 T
(4) 5 × 10–7 T

23) If an electromagnetic wave propagating through vacuum is described by

Ey = E0 sin (kx – ωt), Bz = B0 sin (kx – ωt)
Then :-

(1) E0k = B0ω

(2) E0B0 = ωk
(3) E0ω = B0k
E0B0 =
(4)

24) If and are the electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic waves then the
direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along the direction of –

(1)
(2)

(3) ×

(4) none of these

25) In an electromagnetic wave the energy density associated with magnetic field will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) An inductor and a capacitor are joined in series to an AC source. The frequency of the AC is
gradually increased. The phase difference φ between the emf and the current is plotted against the
angular frequency ω. Which of the following best represents the resulting curve ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27) Current in the LCR circuit becomes extremely large when :-

(1) Frequency of AC supply is increased

(2) Frequency of AC supply is decreased
(3) Inductive reactance becomes equal to capacitive reactance
(4) Inductance becomes equal to capacitance

28) In the circuit shown in figure, the a.c. source gives a voltage V = 20 cos(2000 t). The reading of

voltmeter and ammeter will be

(1) 0V, 0.47

(2) 5.6V, 1.4A
(3) 0V, 1.4A
(4) 1.68V, 0.47A

29) The power factor of the circuit shown in the figure is:

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.8
(4) 0.6

30) A coil of resistance 300 ohm and self inductance 1.5 henry is connected to an A.C. source of
frequency 100/π hertz. The phase difference between voltage and current is

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

31) In the circuit shown below, what will be the readings of the voltmeter and ammeter ?
(1) 800 V, 2A
(2) 300 V, 2A
(3) 220 V, 2.2 A
(4) 100 V, 2A

32) R.M.S. value of current, i=3sinωt + 4 cosωt, is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The rms voltage of the wave from shown is :-

(1) 10V
(2) 7V
(3) 6.37V
(4) 0

34) The average power dissipated in a pure inductor of inductance L when an AC current i passes
through it is :-

(1)
Li2

(2)
Li2
(3) 2Li2
(4) Zero

35) In an LCR circuit R = 100Ω. When C is removed, current lags voltage by π/3 and when L is
removed current leads voltage by π/3. Then impedance is :-

(1) 50Ω
(2) 100Ω
(3) 20Ω
(4) 400Ω

SECTION-B

1) In the circuit shown, rms current is 11 A. Then voltage across the inductor is :-

(1) 220 V
(2) 0 V
(3) 300 V
(4) 200 V

2) The impedance of the given circuit is :-

(1) 200Ω
(2) 100Ω
(3) 300Ω
(4) 500Ω

3) In the given circuit, let i1 be the current drawn from battery at time t = 0 and i2 be steady current
at t = ∞ then the ratio is :

(1) 1.0
(2) 0.8
(3) 1.2
(4) 1.5

4) Correct variation of resistance in an A.C. resistive circuit as a function of applied a.c. frequency is
best represented by the graph :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) When an AC source of emf E with frequency ω = 100 Hz is connected across a circuit, the phase
difference between E and current I in the circuit is observed to be π/4 as shown in the figure. If the

circuit consists of only RC or RL in series, then

(1) R = 1 kΩ, C = 5 μF
(2) R = 1 kΩ, L = 10 H
(3) R = 1 kΩ, L = 1 H
(4) R = 1 kΩ, C = 10 μF

6) Current flowing through resistor R varies as i = kt, where k is constant. Find average value of
current for first 2 seconds.

(1) k/2
(2) k
(3) 4k
(4) 2k

7) In the LCR-circuit shown below, if readings of the voltmeters V1 and V2 are the same, then

(1)

(2) Reading of the voltmeter V is 50 v

(3) Reading of the ammeter A is 5 A
(4) All of these

8) An ac source is connected in the given circuit. The value of ϕ will be :

(1) 60°
(2) 90°
(3) 30°
(4) 45°
9) If Z1 and Z2 are the impedances of the given circuits (a) and (b) as shown in figures, then choose

the correct option

(1) Z1 < Z2
(2) Z1 + Z2 = 20 Ω
(3) Z1 = Z2
(4) Z1 > Z2

10) In general in an alternating current circuit

(1) The average value of current is zero

(2) The average value of square of the current is zero
(3) Average power dissipation is zero
(4) The phase difference between voltage and current

11) At resonance frequency the impedance in series LCR circuit is

(1) Maximum
(2) Minimum
(3) Zero
(4) Infinity

12) The equation of alternative current if the frequency is 75Hz and rms value is 20 Amp.–

(1) I = 20 sin (150πt)

(2) I = 20√2 sin (150πt)
(3) I = 20/√2 sin (150πt)
(4) I = 20√2 sin (75πt)

13) Instantaneous value of current in circuit is I = 2 cos (ωt + ϕ) Amp. find the ms value of current
in amp.

(1) 2
(2) √2
(3) 2√2
(4) zero

14) An alternating voltage V=30 sin 50t + 40cos 50t is applied to a resistor of resistance 10Ω. The
rms value of current through resistor is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 7A

15) In a AC circuit if L = 0.5H and C = 8μF than for maximum current the value of angular
frequency

(1) 500 radian/sec.

(2) 25 radian/sec.
(3) 150 radian/sec.
(4) 100 radian/sec

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1)

Which of the following react most readily with AgNO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which of the following is the strongest base :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Bond X is made by the overlap of which type of hybridized orbitals ?

(1) sp and sp3

(2) sp and sp2
(3) sp2 and sp3
(4) none of these

4) Which compound is anti aromatic

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Correct order of –I effect is :-

(1) –F > –Cl > –Br

(2) –NO2 > –F > –OH
(3) –OR > – OH > –NH2
(4) All are correct

6) The correct order/s for the given pair of isomers is

(1) >
(Melting point)

(2) <
(Dipole moment)

(3)
>
(Boiling point)

(4)
(Water solubility)

7)

In which of the following cases lone-pair is not involved in resonance :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8)

Acetic acid is considered as resonance hybrid of

Which of the following order is correct for the stability of four contributing structure :

(1) I > II > IV > III

(2) I > III > II > IV
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > II > III > IV

9)

Which of the following species is most stable?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which is antiaromatic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All
11)
A and B are respectively :-

(1) CH3–CN, CH3–NC

(2) CH3–NC, CH3–CN
(3) CH3–CH2CN, CH3CH2NC
(4) CH3–CH2NC, CH3–CH2–CN

12) Which π bond is maximum stable

(1) CH2 = CH2

(2) CH3 – CH = CH2
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(4) (CH3)2C = CH – CH3

13) Maximum stable carbanion is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which of the following pair has resonance :-

(1) CH2 = CH–OH ; CH3CHO

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Decreaseing order of acid strength for the following :-

(1) IV > III > I > II
(2) II > IV > III > I
(3) III > IV > II > I
(4) IV > III > II > I

16) Consider the following compounds :

Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of their basic strength :

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(2) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4
(3) 3 > 4 > 1 > 2
(4) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3

17) Which of the following is most reactive halide for the SN1 reaction:-

(1) C6H5–CH2–Br
(2) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
(3) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
(4) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br

18) The correct statement regarding electrophile is :-

Electrophile is a negatively charged speices and can form a bond by accepting a pair of
(1)
electrons from another electrophile
Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
(2)
from a nucleophile
Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by
(3)
accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
 Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of
(4)
electrons from a nucleophile

19) Arrange following anions in order of their leaving group tendency :

(I) (II)
(III) (IV)

(1) III > I > II > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) II > I > III > IV

20) In which of the following compounds hydroxylic proton is the most acidic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Consider the following carbanions -

a b c

Correct order of stability of these carbanions in decreasing order is -

(1) a > b > c
(2) b > a > c
(3) c > b > a
(4) c > a > b

22) , and respectively are :-

(1) Electrophile, nucleophile, nucleophile

(2) Electrophile, nucleophile, electrophile
(3) Nucleophile, nucleophile, nucleophile
(4) Electrophile, electrophile, electrophile

23) In which of the following compounds electrophile will attack at meta position ?
(1) II, III
(2) II, III, IV, V
(3) II, III, IV
(4) II, IV

24) The correct stability order for the following carbocation is :-

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) IV > I > III > II

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > III > IV > II

25) Order of C–O bond length in the following molecule is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Correct order of stability of carbocation is :-

(1) I > III > II

(2) I > II > III
(3) II > III > I
(4) II > I > III

27) Which of the following anions is most stabilised?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All have same stability

28) Arrange the stability at these carbanion in decreasing order :-

(I)

(II)

(III)

(IV)

(1) II > IV > I > III

(2) III > I > IV > II
(3) IV > II > I > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

29) Correct order of base strength of the following

CH3–CH2–NH2 (C2H5)2NH (C2H5)3N
 (i) (ii) (iii)

(1) i > iii > ii

(2) ii > iii > i
(3) ii > i > iii
(4) iii > ii > i

30) Select the correct statement about this compound.

(1) All three C–N bond length are same.

(2) C1-N and C3 - N bonds length are same but shorter than C5-N bond length.
(3) C1-N and C5-N bonds length are same but longer than C3-N bond length.
(4) C1-N and C3-N bonds length are different but both are longer than C5-N bond length.

31) Identify most stable resonating structure ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) Correct order of bond length (C–O) in following compound :-

(1) d > a > b > c

(2) d > b > a > c
(3) d > b > c > d
(4) d > c > b > a

33) Which does not show resonance effect?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) Match List I with List II :

List - I List - II
Mechanism steps Effect

(A) (I) – E effect

(B) (II) – R effect

(C) (III) + E effect

(D) (IV) + R effect

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) In which of the following compounds — CH3 shows –I effect ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3 — Mg — Br
(4) CH3 — CH3
 SECTION-B

1) Arrange the following in correct order of nucleophilicity :-

(I) CH3–O–CH2–O⊖ (II) Ph–CH2–O⊖
(III) CH3–O⊖ (IV) CH3CH2–S⊖

(1) IV > III > II > I

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > IV > II > I
(4) II > I > IV > III

2) Correct order of reactivity towards SN1 is

(1) i > ii > iv > iii

(2) iii > iv > ii > i
(3) iv > ii > i > iii
(4) ii > iv > iii > i

3) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Benzene is more stable than hypothetical cyclohexatriene.
Reason R : The delocalized π electron cloud is attracted more strongly by nuclei of carbon atoms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A is true but R is false.

(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

4) SN1 reaction on optically active substrates mainly gives

(1) Retention in configuration

(2) Inversion in configuration
(3) Racemised product
(4) No product

5) Arrange the following compound in their order of reactivity toward SN2 reaction :-
CH3–F CH3–Cl CH3–Br CH3–I
I II III IV

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > IV > I > II
(4) II > III > IV > I

6) Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of SN2 reactivity?

(1) R–CH2–X > R3CX > R2CHX

(2) R–CH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
(3) R3CX > R2CHX > R–CH2X
(4) R2CHX > R3CX > R–CH2X

7) Which of the following alkyl halide undergoes rearrangement in SN1 reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

8) Which halide ion is the best nucleophile in DMF -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) In SN1 the first step involves the formation of

(1) Free radical

(2) Carbanion
(3) Carbocation
(4) Final product

10) Match the column-I & column-II :-

 Column-I Column-II
(Reaction) (Type of reaction)

(a) (p) Free radical substitution reaction

(b) (q) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

Ph–CH2–CH=CH2

(c) (r) Free radical addition reaction

(d) (s) Electrophilic addition reaction

(1) a – q, b – r, c – s, d – p
(2) a – s, b – q, c – p, d – r
(3) a – r, b – s, c – q, d – p
(4) a – s, b – r, c – q, d – p

11) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion : Alkyl chlorides are best prepared from alcohols by reaction of SOCl2.
Reason : The other two products are easily escapable. So reaction gives pure Alkyl chlorides.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

12) When alkyl magnesium halide reacts with R'-NH2, the product is

(1) R–R
(2) R–H
(3) R2NH
(4) R–X

13) Which is minimum reactive towards hydrolysis ?

(1)
(2)

(3) (CH3)3C—Cl

(4)

14)
What is correct about product ?

(1) Diastereomeric pair

(2) Enantiomeric pair
(3) Single stereoisomer
(4) Meso form of compound

15) Arrange the following group in order of their nucleophilic strength:-

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) D > B > C > A
(3) B > A > D > C
(4) A > B > D > C

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) In sigmoid growth curve, the exponential phase slows down leading to a stationary phase due to :-
(1) Toxic effect of some plant hormones
(2) Genetic nature
(3) Limited nutrient supply
(4) Absence of differentiation.

2) Which one of the following is natural auxin :-

(1) Kinetin
(2) IAA
(3) NAA
(4) 2, 4 – D

3) A plant tissue is under going senescence, which PGR mainly would be found in it ?

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinin
(4) ABA

4) Which hormone is used to initiate flowering and synchronising fruit set in Pineapple ?

(1) Ethylene
(2) GA
(3) Auxin
(4) ABA

5) During seed germination its food mobilized by :-

(1) Ethylene
(2) GA
(3) ABA
(4) Auxin

6) Ethephon hastens :-

(1) Fruit ripening

(2) Cell division
(3) Xylem differentiation
(4) Secondary growth

7) Consider the following about 'kinetin' :-

(a) Kinetin does not occurs naturally.
(b) Is a modified form of any purine
(c) Isolated from herring egg DNA
(d) Chemically its benzyl amino purine
How many are incorrect ?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

8)

Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) In plants both growth and differentiation are open

(2) PGRs are intrinsic intercellular type of control of plant growth and development
Plant growth promotes promoters play an important role in plant responses to wounds and
(3)
stresses of biotic and abiotic origin.
(4) Gaseous plant hormone promotes root growth and root hair formation.

9) In plants [choose correct one] :-

(1) growth as well as differentiation is open.

(2) differentiation is open but not the growth.
(3) growth is open but not the differentiation.
(4) neither growth nor differentiation is open

10) Hormone involved in induction of α–amylase in Barley endosperm :

(1) GA
(2) NAA
(3) Ethylene
(4) ABA

11)
Choose the correct option for given figure :-

(1) Relative growth rate of both leaves A and B is same.

(2) Absolute growth rate of leaf B is less than leaf A
(3) Relative growth rate of leaf A is more than leaf B
(4) Absolute growth rate of leaf B is more than leaf A
12)
Above diagram showing the development of embryo from zygote. From the following options choose
the correct match for ‘A’ and ‘B’:-

A - Arithmetic growth
(1)
B - Geometric growth
A - Geometric growth
(2)
B - Arithmetic growth
A - Arithmetic growth
(3)
B - Arithmetic growth
A - Geometric growth
(4)
B - Geometric growth

13) Match the column-I, II & III and choose the option showing correct match :-

Column-II
Column-I Column-III
Chemical
PGR Physiological effect
Nature

(I) Cytokinin (a) Terpenes (i) Speed up malting process

Indole
(II) ABA (b) (ii) Initiate rooting in stem cutting
Compounds

Carotenoid
(III) Auxin (c) (iii) Induce seed dormancy
derivatives

Gibberell Adenine
(IV) (d) (iv) Delay leaf senescence
in derivatives
Options :-
(1) I-a-i, II -b-ii, III-c-iii, IV-d-iv
(2) I-d-i, II -c-ii, III-b-iii, IV-a-iv
(3) I-a-iv, II-b-iii, III-c-ii, IV-d-i
(4) I-d-iv, II-c-iii, III-b-ii, IV-a-i

14)

Select the incorrect statement

(a) Secondary meristems are able to divide & produce cells that once again lose the capacity to
divide but mature to perform specific functions is dedifferentiation
(b) Growth is measured as increase in fresh weight, dry weight, length, area, cell number & density.
(c) In dicot plants & gymnosperms, the lateral meristems, vascular cambium & cork cambium
appear earlier in life.
(d) Inhibitor-B , Abscission II & dormin are chemically identified as ABA
(1) b & c
(2) a, b & c
(3) b, c & d
(4) a, b, c & d

15) Gibberellins are promotery P.G.R. There are more than 100 gibberellins reported from widely
different organisms such as fungi and higher plants. They are denoted as GA1, GA2, GA3,...... GA100.
Which Giberellic acid is most intensively studied ?

(1) GA1
(2) GA2
(3) GA3
(4) GA4

16) Statement-I : Auxin show apical dominance.

Statement-II : Removal of shoot tips usually result in the growth of lateral buds.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

17) Match the column 'A' and column 'B' :

Column-A Column-B

(a) Bakane disease of rice (i) Cytokinin

(b) F. skoog & miller (ii) Ethylene

(c) Inhibitor-B (iii) E. Kurosawa

(d) H.H. cousins (iv) Abscisic acid

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

18) Bolting hormone is :

(1) ABA
(2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Ethylene

19) Plant hormone promoting abscission in senescent parts but preventing this in premature organs
of plant is
(1) Not associated with apical dominance
(2) Not associated with xylem differentiation and cell division
(3) Derivative of indole compounds
(4) Synthesised naturally in shoot apex only

20) Statement-I : Cells of maize root apical meristem may give rise to 17,500 cells per minute.
Statement-II : Increase in fresh weight or dry weight can be considered as growth

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement are incorrect

21) Which one statements are incorrect in given below :

(1) Every plant organism has an optimum temperature range best suited for its growth
(2) Environmental signals such as light and gravity also affect certain stages of growth
(3) Turgidity of cells helps in retrogression growth
(4) Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities in plant

22) Statement - I :- ABA promotes female in cucumers there by increasing the yield.
Statement - II :- Auxin is used to initiate flowering and for synchronising fruit - set in pineapples.
Options :-

(1) Statement - I and Statement - II both are correct

(2) Statement - I and Statement - II both are incorrect.
(3) Only statement - I is correct.
(4) Only statement - II is correct.

23) Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to hormone which shows bolting
effect in many plants with rossette habit ?

(1) It speeds up of the malting process in brewing industry.

(2) Elongate and improve the shape of apple.
(3) Help to increase the length of grape stalk.
(4) Decreases the length of Sugarcane stem.

24) Which of the following can be placed at C in the below flow chart?
(1) Maturation
(2) Differentiation
(3) Senescence
(4) Abscission

25) Which of the conditions are correct for following diagram :

rt
(1) Arithmetic growth rate, W1 = W0e
(2) Geometric growth rate, Lt = L0 + rt
(3) Arithmetic growth rate, Lt = L0 + rt
rt
(4) Geometric growth rate, W1 = W0e

26) Identify the false statement ?

(1) Ethylene induces flowering in mango

(2) Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes & apples
(3) Ethylene promote male flowers in cucumbers there by increase the yield
(4) Ethylene breaks seed & bud demancey
27) Seedless fruits can be induced by :-

(1) ABA and IAA

(2) ABA and zeatin
(3) IAA and GA3
(4) Ethylene and ABA

28)
The above figure shows certain features in pea seedlings growth representing decrease in vertical
growth, increase in horizontal growth and increase in girth. The factor responsible for such effect
must be :-

(1) Light
(2) CO2
(3) Auxin
(4) Ethylene

29) Select the odd one out w.r.t. functions of gibberellin :-

They delay senescence, thus, due to their application the fruits can be left on the tree so as to
(1)
extend the market period.
(2) GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry.
Spraying sugarcane crop with GA increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield by as
(3)
much as 20 tonnes per acre.
Spraying juvinile conifers with GA slows down the maturity period thus leading to delayed seed
(4)
production.

30) They help to prevent fruit and leaf drop of early stages but promote the abscission of older
mature leaves and fruits.
Above statement is related with :-

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Abscisic acid

31) Abscisic acid has role in :-

(1) Seed germination

(2) Seed dormancy
(3) Seed development
(4) Both 2 & 3

32) Read following statements carefully :-

(A) Length of an organ in plant can be calculated as - Lt = Lo + rt
(B) Embryo development follow geometric phase of growth
(C) Intrafascicular cambium is an example of de-differentiated tissue

(1) All A, B and C are correct

(2) Only A is correct
(3) A and C are correct
(4) B and C are correct

33) Which statement is incorrect with respect to the growth from the following ?

(1) In plants the growth is indeterminate type.

In the growth where new cells are added from the activity of meristamatic cells is called open
(2)
type of growth.
Apical meristem is responsible for the primary growth of the plant and it elongate and increases
(3)
the length of the plant.
(4) In plants there is diffusive type of growth while in animals there is localised growth.

34) (i) The cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections. Large conspicuous nuclei.
(ii) Protoplasmic modifications
(iii) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition
Above characteristics represent respectively which phase of growth in plants ?
Choose the correct option from the following-

(1) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Elongation phase (iii) Maturation phase
(2) (i) Maturation phase (ii) Meristematic phase (iii) Elongation phase
(3) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase
(4) (i) Elongation phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Meristematic phase

35) A biennial plant can be changed into annual plant by which of the following treatment ?

(1) Treatment by cytokinin in first season

(2) By growing in green house
(3) Providing red light treatment through out the vegetative phase
(4) Treatment by gibberellin in vegetative stage

SECTION-B
1)
Which one of following is not correct with respect to above diagram :-

(1) Such growth pattern is observe in root apex

(2) Growth rate is constant throughout the time
(3) Growth rate is 1, 2, 3, 4 ........ .
(4) Growth rate is not depend up on the number of cells

2) (I) "Y" hormone induced flowering in mango and also promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation
in deep water rice plants and hence helping leaves or upper part of shoot above water.
(II) "X" hormone promotes root growth and root hair formation.
(III) "Z" hormone inhibits the seed germination, increases the tolerance of plant to various stresses,
play important role in seed development, maturation and dormancy.
Identify the correct names of the hormones :-

(1) Y = ABA; X = Auxin; Z = GA

(2) Z = GA; X = Auxin; Y = C2H4
(3) Y = Auxin; X = C2H4; Z = GAA
(4) Y = C2H4; X = C2H4; Z = ABA

3) Which pair is wrong ?

Hormones Bio-asay
(1) Auxin Avena curvature test
(2) Gibberellin Dwarf maize test
(3) Cytokinin Chlorophyll preservation test
(4) Ethylene Delay in senscence
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Growth of lateral branches can be promoted by which of the following treatments ?

(A) Treatment of BAP
(B) Prunning
(C) Applying antiauxin
(D) Applying antigibberellins

(1) B,C,D
(2) B,C
(3) A,B,C
(4) B,D

5) Choose the correct option for given diagram :-

(1) Experiment used to demonstrate that tip of the coleoptile is the source of Gibbrellin.
(2) Experiment used to demonstrate that movement of Auxin is Acropetal.
(3) Experiment used to demonstrate that tip of the coleoptile is the source at Auxin.
(4) Arrow indicates direction of Air.

6) Cells/tissues arising out of the same meristem have different structures at maturity, this
phenomenon in plants is called :-

(1) Open growth

(2) Open differentiation
(3) Indeterminate growth
(4) Determinate differentiation

7) The factors affecting growth can be

(1) Water, light, gravity but not temperature

(2) Water, temperature, light but not gravity
(3) Water, light but not temperature and Gravity
(4) Water, temperature, light, gravity

8) Slow initial growth is called :-

(1) log phase

(2) lag phase
(3) exponential phase
(4) stationary phase

9) In which of the following, rate of growth gradually slows down and comes to steady stage ?

(1) Lag phase

(2) Log phase
(3) Exponential phase
(4) Stationary phase

10) Typical growth curve in plants is :-

(1) Linear
(2) Stair-steps shaped
(3) Parabolic
(4) Sigmoid

11) Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids ?

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Indole butyric acid
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid
(4) Gibberellic acid

12) Developmental heterophylly occurs in which plant ?

(1) Buttercup
(2) Larkspur
(3) Hydrilla
(4) Castor

13) Which mineral element is necessory for bio-synthesis of auxin ?

(1) Mg++
(2) Fe++
(3) Zn++
(4) Mn++

14) Which one of the following generally act as an antagonists to gibberellins-

(1) Zeatin
(2) Ethylene
(3) ABA
(4) IAA

15) Growth is measured in terms of its length in case of

(1) Apical shoot differentiation

(2) Pollen tube formation
(3) Division of cambium cells
(4) Growth in grith

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Which one of the following is not a function of sertoli cells ?

(1) Phagocytosis of dead sperm cells
(2) It helps in lubrication of penis
(3) It produces inhibin hormone
(4) It stimulate secretion of some factors which help in process of spermiogenesis

2) After the implantation of embryo. The uterine endometrium is called the _____ since it degenerates
after parturition.

(1) Decidua
(2) Decidual plate
(3) Uterine lumen
(4) Chorion Frondosum

3)

Read the following statements and choose the correct option

Statement A: A pair of functional mammary gland is characteristic of all mammals.
Statement B: Each ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

4) Assertion : Although rete testis and vas efferens are male sex accessory ducts yet they are not
considered to be secondary reproductive organs in male.
Reason : They are responsible for maturation and static nature of sperm.

(1) Assertion is correct Reason is correct & correct explanation of Assertion.

(2) Assertion is correct Reason is correct but not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is incorrect.

5) The method in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum is

(1) GIFT
(2) ICSI
(3) IUI
(4) AI

6) Match the column–I with column–II :-

Column-I Column-II

Copper
(A) (i) Inhibit ovulation
releasing IUDs
 Suppress sperms
(B) Oral pills (ii)
motility

Make the uterus

Sterilisation
(C) (iii) unsuitable for
methods
implantation

Hormonal Block gametes

(D) (iv)
releasing IUDs transport
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

7) What is true about "Saheli"?

I. Developed at CDRI, Lucknow.
II. Contains a steroidal preparation.
III. Once-a-week' pill.
IV. Many side effects
V. High contraceptive value.
VI. Very few side effect.
VII.Low contraceptive value.

(1) I, II, III, V and VI

(2) I, III, V and VI
(3) I, III, IV and V
(4) I, II, IV and V

8) Match list-I with list-II :-

List-I List-II

Hormone
(a) Lippes loop (i)
releasing IUDs

(b) Multiload 375 (ii) Stainless steel

Cu-releasing
(c) LNG-20 (iii)
IUDs

(d) Vault (iv) Rubber

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

9) Which of the following is protozoan STD.

(1) Syphilis
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) Trichomoniasis
(4) Genital herpes

10) Which part(s) of sperm contain(s) axonema ?

(1) Head
(2) Middle piece
(3) Tail
(4) Both (2) & (3)

11)

Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) Process of formation of mature female gamete is called oogenesis.
(B) No oogonia are formed or added after birth.
(C) Gamete formation occurs in female after puberty
(D) Duration of spermatogenesis is 64-74 months in human.
How many of above statements are correct

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

12) Refer to the given figure showing diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule. In the
figure, some parts are labelled as A, B, C and D. Identify the part which gets activated by FSH.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C

13)

Refer to the given flowchart, in which three parts are labelled as A, B and C. Identify them and the
correct option from the codes given below.
 A B C

(1) Increase Increase Estrogens

(2) Decrease Increase Estrogens

(3) Decrease Decrease Testosterone

(4) Increase Decrease TSH

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

14) Which one of the following is incorrect matching pair :

(1) Development of corpus luteum- In secretory phase

(2) Menstrual flow - Break down of myometrium
(3) Ovulation - LH and FSH attain peak level
(4) Proliferative phase - maturation of graffian follicle

15) Semen is a type of .....(a)..... germinal fluid that contains seminal plasma. It is maximally
contributed by .....(b)..... and has several clotting enzyme as product of .....(c)......

(1) a – alkaline; b – prostate; c – seminal vesicles

(2) a – acidic; b – prostate; c – seminal vesicles
(3) a – alkaline; b – seminal vesicles; c – prostate
(4) a – alkaline; b – seminal vesicles; c – cowper’s gland

16) Tertiary follicle characterised by a fluid filled cavity called :

(1) Zona follicle

(2) Antrum
(3) Discus prolizerous
(4) Cumulus oophoricus

17) Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian tube to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into
the uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development
Which two of the above statements are correct?

(1) a and d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

18) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: India initiated 'family planning' programmes in 1951 to attain total reproductive health
as a social goal.
Statement II: The 'Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes' do not focus on creating
awareness among people about various reproduction-related aspects. In the light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

19) Consider the following statements.

(a) ‘One child norm’ is a threat to population growth rate of India.
(b) Statutory raising of marriageable age of males and females check the population growth rate.
Select the correct option.

(1) a is true, b is false

(2) Both a and b are true
(3) a is false, b is true
(4) Both a and b are false

20) Why in ART procedures sometimes involve the use of donor eggs or donor sperms ?

(1) A woman can not produce ovum.

(2) When the woman or man has a genetic disease.
(3) Problem in coitus
(4) Both 1 and 2

21) Which of the following should not be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

(1) Sex of foetus

(2) Jaundice
(3) Metabolic disorder
(4) Down syndrome

22) If a female is already having 3 children and all are absolutely normal. Now she wants to use
sterilisation method. Which of the following method will be most suitable for this female?

(1) Oral contraceptive pill

(2) I.U.D.
(3) Tubectomy
(4) Hysterectomy

23)

Which of the following pair is correct :-

Fertilisation ART
ZIFT
a In vitro IUT
1 ICSI
GIFT
b In vivo
AI
ZIFT
a In vivo IUT
2 ICSI
GIFT
b In vitro
AI
GIFT
a In vitro IUT
3 ICS
IUT
b In vivo
AI
ZIFT
a In vivo IUT
4 ICSI
IUT
b In vitro
Al
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) If the vas-deferens of a man are surgically cut or blocked.

(1) Semen will be without sperms

(2) Spermatogenesis will not take place
(3) Testosterone will disappear from blood
(4) Sperms in the semen become nonmotile
25)
In the given figure A, B, C, D represent different phases during menstrual cycle. Indentify A, B, C, D
from the given options –

(1) A–Follicular phase, B–Luteal phase, C–Menstruation, D–Next cycle begins

(2) A–Luteal phase, B–follicular phase, C–Menstruation, D–Next cycle begins
(3) A–Proliferative phase, B–Secretory phase, C–Menstruation, D–next cycle begins
(4) A–Proliferative phase, B–Luteal phase, C–Secretory phase, D–Next cycle begins

26)

Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-
a. Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair.
b. The labia minora are fleshy folds of tissue, which extend down from the mons pubis and surround
the vaginal opening.
c. The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called hymen.
d. The clitoris lies at the upper junction of two labia majora above the urethral opening.

e. The presence or absence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience.

(1) b, d and e
(2) b, c and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, c, and e

27) If a menstrual cycle is of 32 days, then which will be the day of ovulation ?

(1) 16th day

(2) 14th day
(3) 18th day
(4) 20th day

28) Not an action of oestrogen on the uterus :-

(1) Myometrium enlarge and its sensitivity to oxytocin increases

(2) Stimulate growth of endometrium of glandular epithelium
(3) Cervical secretion becomes cellular, thick and viscous
(4) Increases motility of cilia in the fallopian tube

29) The urethra originates from the .....a..... and extends through the ...b... to its external opening
called ...c....

(1) a - ureters, b-urinary bladder, c-urethral sphincter

(2) a-urinary bladder, b-testis, c-urethral meatus
(3) a-penis, b urinary bladder, c-urethral meatus
(4) a-urinary bladder, b-penis, c-urethral meatus

30) Arrange following events of female reproductive cycle (in human) sequence :-
(I) Secretion of FSH
(II) Growth of corpus luteum
(III) Growth of follicles
(IV) Ovulation
(V) Sudden increase in level of LH.
(VI) Formation of corpus albicans

(1) III → I → IV → II → VI → V
(2) I → III → V → IV → II → VI
(3) I → IV → III → V → II → VI
(4) II → I → III → IV → VI → V

31) A female of 24 years age attained puberty at the age of 14 years. She has two children born by
normal delivery. How many polar bodies are formed in her body till date (each M.C. is of 30 days) :-

(1) 90
(2) 96
(3) 92
(4) 88

32) During menstrual cycle which hormone attains two peaks ?

(1) Progesterone
(2) Estrogen
(3) FSH
(4) LH

33) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: The edge of the infundibulum possess finger like projections called fimbriae, which
helps in collection of ovum after ovulation.
Statement-II: Uterus is supported by tendons attached to the pelvic wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

34)

How many components are release from seminal vesicle.

Citric acid, Phosphate, Inositol, Citrate, Fibrinogen, Profibrinolysin, Clotting enzymes, Ca++
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

35) Assertion : Our population reached around 1 billion by 2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May
2011.
Reason : There has been a rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR as well as increase in number
of people in reproducible age.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

SECTION-B

1) Assertion : Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.

Reason : Menstruation occurs if the released ovum is not fertilised.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

2) Assertion :- The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called
spermiogenesis.
Reason :- FSH acts on the sertoli cells and stimulates some factors, which helps in the
spermiogenesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Assertion :- Periodic abstinence and coitus interruptus are two natural method of contraception.
Reason :- In natural method of contraceptions are principly worked on avoiding chances of ovum
and sperm meeting.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) Assertion : Oral contraceptive pills contain estrogen and progesterone.

Reason : Oestrogen and progesterone act by inhibiting ovulation and implantation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

5) Assertion : Vasectomy is sterilisation method for female.

Reason : In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is cut and tied.

(1) Assertion & Reason both are correct and Reason is correct explaination of assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason both are correct and Reason is not correct explaination of assertion.
(3) Assertion is false & reason is correct
(4) Assertion & reasons both are incorrect.

6) The mitotic division starts as the Zygote moves through the ___x____ of the oviduct is called
____y____ towards the uterus.

(1) Cervix Cleavage

(2) Isthmus Meiotic division
(3) Isthmus Cleavage
(4) Cervix Meiotic division

7) (i) Testes, seminal vesicle, cervix, prostate gland are part of male reproductive system
(ii) Seminal plasma is rich in sucrose, calcium & certain enzymes.
(iii) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast
(iv) The increased levels of GnRH act at the anterior pituitary gland & stimulate secretion of LH &
FSH Which of the statement is / are correct

(1) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(2) (iii) & (iv)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (ii) & (iv)

8) Select the correct arrangement of female reproductive system from anterior to posterior

(1) Coccyx, Rectum, Vagina, Urethra, Pubic symphysis

(2) Pubic symphysis, Rectum, Urethra, Vagina, Coccyx
(3) Coccys, Rectum, Urethra, Vagina, Pubic symphysis
(4) Pubic symphysis, Urethra, Vagina, Rectum, Coccyx
9) Select the correct order of mammary gland from Posterior to anterior

(1) Alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple
(2) Alveoli → Mammary tubule → Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla → Mammary duct → Nipple
(3) Nipple → Lactiferous ducts → Mammary ampulla → Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → Alveoli
(4) Nipple → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous ducts → Mammary tubule → Alveoli

10) Mons pubis, ovary, uterus, Hymen, Vagina, Clitoris, Cervix, Labia majora, labia minora. Which
are not the external genitalia in female reproductive system.

(1) Mons pubis, Hymen, Vagina, Clitoris, Labia Majora, Labia minora
(2) Ovary, Uterus, Vagina, Cervix
(3) Ovary, Uterus, Cervix
(4) Uterus, Vagina, Ovary, Clitoris, Hymen

11) If a person produced 36 million spermatids, so he had

9 million spermatozoa, 36 million spermatogonia, 18 million primary spermatocyte, 9 million

(1)
secondary sprmatocyte
36 million spermatozoa, 18 million primary spermatocyte, 9 million spermatogonia, 36 million
(2)
secondary spermatocyte
36 million spermatozoa, 9 million primary spermatocytes, 9 million secondary spermatocytes, 9
(3)
million spermatogonia
9 million spermatogonia, 9 million primary spermatocyte, 18 million secondary spermatocyte,
(4)
36 millon spermatozoa.

12) IUD prevent contraception by all of the following, except

(1) By increasing phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus

(2) By preventing ovulation
(3) By suppressing sperm motility
(4) By blocking gamete transport using surgical intervention

13) The ovaries are located one on each side of the …A…… . Each ovary is about 2 – 4 cm in length
connected to the ...B…. wall by …C… . Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium, which encloses
the ovarian stroma. Stroma is divided into two zones ….D…. and …E….
Fill the suitable choices for A – E

(1) A–inner medulla, B–peripheral cortex, C–ligaments, D–pelvic wall, E–lower abdomen
(2) A–lower abdomen B–Pelvic, C–Ligaments, D–peripheral cortex, E–inner medulla
(3) A–pelvic wall, B–lower abdomen, C–ligaments, D–inner medulla, E–peripheral cortex
(4) A–inner medulla, B–peripheral cortex, C–lower abdomen, D–pelvic wall, E–ligaments

14) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus

(1) Pregnancy with genetic abnormality

(2) Ectopic pregnancy
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None

15) Infections transmitted through sexual intercourse cause some complication.

A. PID, Still birth, infertility
B. Ectopic pregnancy, abortion, cancer of reproductive tract
C. PID, Ectopic pregnancy
Select the correct one

(1) A, B & C
(2) A & B only
(3) A only
(4) B only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 1 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 4 4 2 1 2 2 4 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 1 1 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 3 4 1 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 4 2 3 4 2 4 4 1 1 2 2 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 4 4 2 4 4 4 2 1 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 4 3 3 3 3 1 4 3 3 1 1 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 1 3 3 2 2 4 1 3 4 1 2 2 3 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 4 1 2 1 1 3 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 4 1 2 3 3 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 4 3 2 3 2 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 2 3 1 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 4 2 3 2 2 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 1 2 4 4 2 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2) ⇒ Vp =

Also ipVp = isVs ⇒ ip = is = 8 × 5 = 40 A

9)

10) and should be mutually perpendicular.

11) e = –

=+

12) By using

14)

In both cases (a) & (b) M is constant

For (a) e2 = M

M= = = 4 × 10–4 H

For (b) e1= M = 4 × 10–4 × 2 = 8 × 10–4 V

16) For r ≤ R : ;

For r ≥ R :

17)
where F' = iLB
W = iLB . v . Δt
Since q = i × Δt
∴ W = LBvq

Alternative Method

or
since half of the loop is inside the magnetic field

So,
∴ e = –BvL

20)

Displacement current = charging current = 0.2A

21) U =

= × 8.85 × 10–12 × 502 × 10 × 10–4 ×.5

= 5.5 × 10–12 J

22) =C

B= = 2 × 10–8 T

23)

⇒ E0K = B0ω
 26) tan ϕ = For R =0, φ = ± .

At low frequencies, > φL, φ = – , At high frequencies, φL > ,φ=

27)

Current in LCR circuit becomes highest at resonance when

X C = XL

38) At t = 0, inductor behave as open circuit so i1 = =1A

At t = ∞ inductor behave as short circuit, so i2 = = A

Hence, = 0.8

40) ω = 100 Hz, ϕ = π/4

As the current is leading by π/4 so the circuit contains resistor and a capacitor. So, the circuit
is RC.

Now,

So,
ω = 100 Hz ; C = 10 μF

CHEMISTRY

51)

In 1st option, molecule gains aromaticity.

55) All are correct according to –I series.

59)

+M of CH3O– Stabilised carbocation

86) Nucleophilicity ∝ e– donating tendency

CH3CH2–S⊖ > CH3–O⊖> Ph–CH2–O⊖> CH3–O–CH2–O⊖

88)
Assertion – A : Benzene is more stable than cyclohexatriene (True)
Reason – R : Delocalised π – e cloud lies B.M.O so more attracted by nuclei of carbon atom.

89)

92)

All will undergo rearrangement and form more stable carbocation.

93)

FΘ > ClΘ > BrΘ >IΘ

If P.A.S. i.e. DMF is given

94) In SN1, the first step involves the formation of carbocation.

95)

96)
 R–OH + SOCl2 → R–Cl + SO2 + HCl
Both are correct & gives correct explanation.

97)

99)

100) (A) Nucleophilicity µ basic strength (for same period)

(B) Nucleophilicity in group ∝

In case of same donor atom
nucleophilicity ∝ Basicity

BOTANY

101) NCERT XI Eng. page # 243 (Middle para)

102) NCERT Pg # 248

103) NCERT XI Pg. # 250

104) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 248

105) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 249

106) NCERT XI, Pg. # 250

107) NCERT Pg.# 249

108) NCERT-XI : Page - 240 (2nd last paragraph), 245 (2nd last paragraph), 247 (1st and 3rd
paragraph), 252 (1st paragraph)

109) NCERT (XI) Page # 245 (2nd Last para)

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 176

111) NCERT Pg # 244 Fig. 15.7

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 242, 243

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 247 (2nd Para), 248 (2nd last Para), 249 (2nd Para), 250 (1st Para & 2nd last
Para) (E)
NCERT-XI, Pg.# 247 (दस ू रा पे राग ाफ), 248 (आिखरी पे राग ाफ), 249 (तीसरा पे राग ाफ), 250 (पहला पे राग ाफ),
251 ( पहला पे राग ाफ) (H)

114)

NCERT Pg. # 248 (15.4.2)

115)

NCERT Page # 249

116) NCERT Pg # 248

117) NCERT-XI, Pg # 248, 15.4.2

118) NCERT-XI, Page No.249

119)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 248

120) NCERT Page No. 241

121) NCERT, Page No. 244

 122) NCERT - XI, Pg - 250 Level E

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. 249

124) NCERT Pg # 246

125) NCERT Pg. No. # 243,Fig.15.5

126) NCERT Pg.#250, para-15.4.3.4

129) Module No-6, P. No # 149

131) NCERT Pg. # 250-251

133) ncert Page # 241

134) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 241 and 242 (Topic = Phases of growth)

137) NCERT-XI Pg.# 250

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 247, Fig. 15.10

142) NCERT XI Pg # 243

143) NCERT XI Pg. # 243

144) NCERT Pg. # 243

ZOOLOGY

153) NCERT, Pg # 28, 31

158) NCERT, Pg. # 60

159) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 63, Para-4.4

160) NCERT (XII) (E) Pg. # 48 Fig. # 3.6

168) Statement I: Correct. India was one of the first countries to initiate 'family planning'
programmes in 1951 with the aim of achieving total reproductive health as a social goal.
Statement II: Incorrect. The 'Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes' indeed
focus on creating awareness among people about various reproduction-related aspects, as well
as providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society.

170)

173) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 64

174) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 46

185)

NCERT Pg No # 59

186) NCERT Pg # 50

187)

NCERT XII, Page # 31

188) NCERT XII, Page # 59-60

189) NCERT Pg # 45

190)

NCERT Pg. # 61