DGCA Meteorology Mock Test

Total Questions: 80 | Time: Approx. 90 Minutes

Instructions:

Attempt all questions.

Choose the most appropriate option for MCQs.

Show your workings for numerical questions where applicable.

1. The standard pressure at mean sea level is:

a) 1000 hPa

b) 1013.25 hPa

c) 980 hPa

d) 1020 hPa

2. The lapse rate in the troposphere is approximately:

a) 2 ∘C/km

b) 6.5 ∘C/km

c) 5 ∘C/km

d) 10 ∘ C/km

3.The region of the atmosphere where weather phenomena occur is called the:

a) Stratosphere

b) Mesosphere

c) Troposphere

d) Thermosphere
4. The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere is known as:

a) Tropopause

b) Stratopause

c) Mesopause

d) Thermopause

5.Which gas is most abundant in the atmosphere?

a) Oxygen

b) Nitrogen

c) Carbon Dioxide

d) Argon

6.Pressure decreases with height in the atmosphere:

a) Linearly

b) Logarithmically

c) Parabolically

d) Not at all

7. ICAO standard atmosphere assumes a temperature at sea level of:

a) 0 ∘ C

b) 10 ∘C

c) 15 ∘C

d) 20 ∘C
8. The unit "hPa" stands for:

a) HectoPascal

b) Hectogram Pascal

c) Hydro Pascal

d) Humid Pascal

9. What is the approximate height of the tropopause at the equator?

a) 8 km

b) 11 km

c) 16-18 km

d) 25 km

10. Which atmospheric layer contains the ozone layer?

a) Troposphere

b) Stratosphere

c) Mesosphere

d) Thermosphere

11. The height of the tropopause is generally highest at the:

a) Poles

b) Mid-latitudes

c) Equator

d) Varies randomly

12. If the sea level temperature is +20 ∘ C and the average tropospheric lapse rate is
6.5 ∘ C/km, what is the temperature at 5 km?
13.The instrument used to measure pressure is:

a) Barometer

b) Anemometer

c) Thermometer

d) Hygrometer

14. The unit used to measure pressure in aviation is:

a) Newton

b) Bar

c) hPa or mb

d) Joule

15. What does a closely spaced isobar indicate?

a) Calm wind

b) Light breeze

c) Strong wind

d) No wind

16. A low-pressure center is known as a:

a) Ridge

b) Trough

c) Cyclone

d) Anticyclone
17. A high-pressure center is known as a:

a) Cyclone

b) Trough

c) Anticyclone

d) Ridge

18. What is the approximate rate of pressure decrease in the lower atmosphere (up
to 1000 ft)?

a) 1 hPa per 100 ft

b) 1 hPa per 27 ft

c) 1 hPa per 1000 ft

d) 10 hPa per 100 ft

19. What is QNH?

a) Altimeter setting for standard pressure.

b) Altimeter setting for sea level pressure at aerodrome.

c) Altimeter setting for pressure at aerodrome elevation.

d) Altimeter setting for flight level pressure.

20. Which altimeter setting would result in a lower indicated altitude than true altitude
if set incorrectly?

a) Setting a pressure higher than actual QNH.

b) Setting a pressure lower than actual QNH.

c) Setting standard pressure (1013.25 hPa).

d) Setting QFE.
21. Numerical: An aircraft is flying at a constant indicated altitude of 5000 ft with a
QNH of 1013 hPa set. If the actual QNH is 1003 hPa, what is the approximate true
altitude of the aircraft?

22. Temperature is measured using:

a) Hygrometer

b) Barometer

c) Thermometer

d) Altimeter

23. Diurnal temperature variation is maximum in:

a) Coastal areas

b) Desert

c) Equator

d) Poles

24. Cooling of air without exchange of heat is called:

a) Radiative cooling

b) Adiabatic cooling

c) Diabatic cooling

d) Convective cooling

25. What is latent heat?

a) Heat felt by a body

b) Hidden heat required for phase change

c) Cold air mass

d) A temperature reading error

26. Temperature inversion leads to:

a) Turbulence

b) Calm air

c) Unstable air

d) Cold front

27. Air density is directly proportional to:

a) Temperature

b) Humidity

c) Pressure

d) Wind speed

28. Air density is inversely proportional to:

a) Pressure

b) Temperature

c) Wind speed

d) Humidity

29. How does high humidity affect air density?

a) Increases density

b) Decreases density

c) Has no effect on density

d) Only affects density at high altitudes

30. Numerical: An airfield is at 2000 ft AMSL. The QNH is 1013 hPa and the OAT
(Outside Air Temperature) is 30 ∘ C. Calculate the density altitude. (Assume ISA
temperature at 2000 ft is 11.5 ∘ C).
31. Dew point is the temperature at which air becomes:

a) Warm

b) Saturated

c) Dry

d) Moist

32. When RH =100%, the air is said to be:

a) Stable

b) Saturated

c) Dry

d) Moist

33. Relative humidity is expressed as a:

a) Ratio

b) Fraction

c) Percentage

d) Degree

34. Which instrument measures humidity?

a) Aneroid barometer

b) Sling psychrometer

c) Anemometer

d) Altimeter
35. What is the effect of increasing temperature on relative humidity, assuming the
actual water vapor content remains constant?

a) Increases relative humidity

b) Decreases relative humidity

c) No effect on relative humidity

d) Depends on pressure

36. What happens to the dew point as an unsaturated air parcel rises adiabatically?

a) It increases

b) It decreases

c) It remains constant

d) It first increases, then decreases

37. Frost forms when:

a) The temperature is above freezing and dew point is below freezing.

b) The temperature is below freezing and dew point is above freezing.

c) The temperature and dew point are both below freezing.

d) The temperature is below freezing and water vapor turns directly into ice.

38. What type of precipitation forms when raindrops fall through a layer of freezing
air near the surface, causing them to freeze into ice pellets?

a) Hail

b) Freezing rain

c) Sleet (ice pellets)

d) Snow
39. Wind blows from:

a) Low to high pressure

b) High to low pressure

c) North to south

d) East to west

40. The Coriolis force acts to the ______ in the Northern Hemisphere.

a) Left

b) Right

c) Upward

d) Downward

41. A wind that flows parallel to isobars is called:

a) Geostrophic wind

b) Gradient wind

c) Katabatic wind

d) Anabatic wind

42. Geostrophic wind results from a balance between:

a) Pressure gradient and gravity

b) Pressure gradient and Coriolis force

c) Friction and gravity

d) Friction and pressure

43. Friction layer is usually limited up to:

a) 1 km

b) 500 m

c) 5 km

d) 10 km

44. What is the effect of friction on wind direction near the surface in the Northern
Hemisphere?

a) Causes wind to blow perpendicular to isobars.

b) Causes wind to blow more directly towards low pressure.

c) Causes wind to blow more directly towards high pressure.

d) Has no effect on wind direction.

45. Which type of wind is associated with mountainous terrain and flows down a
slope at night due to cooling?

a) Anabatic wind

b) Katabatic wind

c) Sea breeze

d) Land breeze

46. A sudden, drastic change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance is
known as:

a) Turbulence

b) Wind shear

c) Gust

d) Thermal
47. What is the primary cause of the sea breeze during the day?

a) Land cooling faster than water.

b) Water cooling faster than land.

c) Land heating faster than water.

d) Coriolis force.

48. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force acts to the:

a) Left

b) Right

c) Upward

d) Downward

48. Which cloud type resembles a blanket and often covers the entire sky?

a) Cirrus

b) Stratus

c) Cumulus

d) Lenticular

49. Fog is classified as:

a) Precipitation

b) Low stratus cloud

c) Mist

d) High cloud

50. What is the meteorological term for visibility less than 1000 meters?

a) Mist

b) Fog

c) Haze

d) Smoke
51. Which type of fog forms when moist air moves over a colder surface?

a) Radiation fog

b) Advection fog

c) Upslope fog

d) Steam fog

52. Radiation fog typically forms during:

a) Afternoon

b) Clear, calm nights

c) Midday

d) Rainy days

53. What type of fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being forced up a sloping
terrain?

a) Radiation fog

b) Advection fog

c) Upslope fog

d) Steam fog

54. What is the cause of "haze"?

a) Liquid water droplets

b) Ice crystals

c) Dry particulate matter

d) High humidity
55. What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?

a) The distance a pilot can see along the runway from the cockpit during takeoff.

b) The maximum distance at which the runway lights are visible to the pilot.

c) The range of visibility measured along the runway surface.

d) The distance a pilot can see down the runway from a specific point, typically
measured by instruments.

56. Which fog type is characterized by the appearance of "smoke" rising from water,
especially in cold air over relatively warmer water?

a) Radiation fog

b) Advection fog

c) Upslope fog

d) Steam fog

57. Stable atmosphere resists:

a) Vertical motion

b) Horizontal motion

c) Air convergence

d) Cloud formation

58. An unstable atmosphere favors:

a) Clear skies

b) Vertical currents

c) Low humidity

d) High pressure
59. Temperature inversions are most likely during:

a) Afternoon

b) Night

c) Midday

d) Monsoon

60. Atmospheric stability is influenced by:

a) Wind direction

b) Air temperature and lapse rate

c) Rainfall intensity

d) Cloud shape

61. Clouds are classified based on:

a) Colour and size

b) Height and appearance

c) Rainfall

d) Location

62. Cirrus clouds are:

a) Low level

b) Mid-level

c) High-level

d) All levels
63. Nimbostratus clouds usually bring ______ precipitation.

a) Showery

b) Continuous

c) Intermittent

d) Freezing

64. Which cloud type is associated with thunderstorms?

a) Cumulus humilis

b) Cumulonimbus

c) Stratus

d) Cirrostratus

65. Orographic rainfall is caused due to:

a) Frontal lifting

b) Convection

c) Mountain barriers

d) Cold surface

66. Cloud base is measured using:

a) Ceilometer

b) Barometer

c) Altimeter

d) Hygrometer
67. Which cloud types indicate an unstable atmosphere?

a) Stratus, Nimbostratus

b) Cumulus, Cumulonimbus

c) Cirrus, Cirrostratus

d) Altostratus, Altocumulus

68. The Earth's atmosphere is held in place by:

a) Solar wind

b) Earth's magnetic field

c) Gravity

d) Atmospheric pressure itself

69. What is the average height of the stratosphere?

a) 0-11 km

b) 11-50 km

c) 50-85 km

d) Above 85 km

70. If the altimeter setting is changed from 1013 hPa to 1023 hPa, the indicated
altitude will:

a) Increase

b) Decrease

c) Remain unchanged

d) Fluctuate rapidly
71. A decrease in pressure of 1 hPa corresponds to an increase in altitude of
approximately:

a) 100 feet

b) 27 feet

c) 500 feet

d) 1000 feet

72. What is the primary cause of heating in the stratosphere?

a) Conduction from the troposphere

b) Absorption of infrared radiation

c) Absorption of ultraviolet radiation by ozone

d) Solar flares

73. An air mass moving from a cold land surface to a warmer sea surface will likely
result in:

a) Radiation fog

b) Advection fog

c) Steam fog

d) Upslope fog

74. Which of the following conditions is not conducive to the formation of radiation
fog?

a) Clear skies

b) Light winds

c) High humidity

d) Strong surface heating

75. When temperature and dew point are very close, it indicates:

a) Very dry air

b) High probability of fog or clouds

c) Stable atmospheric conditions

d) Strong winds

76. The primary force that initiates horizontal air movement is the:

a) Coriolis force

b) Friction force

c) Pressure gradient force

d) Centrifugal force

77. A cloud base at 500 feet and a cloud top at 1500 feet would most likely be which
cloud type?

a) Cirrus

b) Cumulus

c) Stratus

d) Altostratus

78. What is the effect of wind shear on aircraft performance, particularly during
takeoff and landing?

a) Always improves performance

b) Can cause sudden changes in airspeed and altitude, requiring immediate pilot
action

c) Has no significant effect

d) Only affects larger aircraft

79 .The process by which water vapor in the atmosphere changes directly into ice
without first becoming liquid water is called:

a) Evaporation

b) Condensation

c) Sublimation

d) Deposition

80. The instrument used to measure wind speed is a/an:

a) Barometer

b) Hygrometer

c) Anemometer

d) Thermometer