MEGA TEST

MCAT-02
Date: 03RD AUGUST 2025
 The Spark Institute of Language & Science
BIOLOGY
(Prof. Adeeb Rattar)

1. The main function of carbohydrates in the body is:

(a) Enzyme production (b) Long-term energy storage
(c) Immediate energy source (d) Genetic material synthesis

2. Cellulose is made up of:

(a) α-glucose units (b) β-glucose units
(c) Fructose units (d) Galactose units

3. A change in temperature or pH can denature a protein, meaning it:

(a) Becomes a carbohydrate (b) Breaks down into glucose
(c) Loses its shape and function (d) Increases its activity

4. Which of the following is a fatty acid?

(a) Triacontanol (b) Lemonene
(c) Phytol (d) Geranoil
(e) Stearic acid

5. Which lipid acts as a precursor for steroid hormones?

(a) Triglyceride (b) Lecithin
(c) Cholesterol (d) Wax

6. The specific sequence of three bases on tRNA that pairs with mRNA is called:
(a) Codon (b) Anticodon (c) Intron (d) Promoter

7. Which part of the tRNA molecule binds to an amino acid?

(a) Anticodon loop (b) D-loop
(c) TψC -loop (d) 5' CCA end
(e) 3' CCA end

8. What is the function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?

(a) Join specific amino acids to their specific tRNAs
(b) Join amino acids with each other to form polypeptide chain (proteins)
(c) Join nucleotides to from tRNA
(d) All of these

9. Dengue, polio, HAV, HCV are the viruses belonging to:

(a) ssDNA (b)dsRNA
(c) positive sense ssRNA (d) negative sense ssRNA

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10. Colorado tick fever is cause by the virus belonging to:
(a) ssDNA (b)dsRNA
(c) positive sense ssRNA (d) negative sense ssRNA

11. All of the following are the negative sense ssRNA viruses EXCEPT:
(a) Rabies virus (b) Measles virus
(c) Influenza viruses (d) TMV
(e) None of these

12. Find the single stranded DNA viruses in the following.

(a) REO viruses (b) Parvo virus (c) HBV (d) HIV

13. HIV capsid contains:

(a) P6 and P24 protein (b) P7 and P9 protein
(c) GP 120 and GP 41 (d) P 17 protein

14. In size the largest of all virus is the:

(a) Ebola (b) TMV
(c) Bacteriophage (d) Small pox

15. All of the following are viral diseases EXCEPT:

(a) Syphilis (b) Chikungunya
(c) Rabies (d) Pneumonia
(e) None of these

16. The maximum amount of ATPs is produced during:

(a) ETS (b) Acetyl-Co-A formation
(c) Krebs cycle (d) Glycolysis

17. Substrate level phosphorylation occurs during.

(a) Glycolysis (b) TCA cycle
(c) ETS (d) Both a and b
(e) All a, b and c

18. Decarboxylation occurs during:

(a) Glycolysis (b) Acetyl-Co-A formation
(c) Krebs cycle (d) Both a and b
(e) Both b and c

19. Which of the following is not a product of aerobic cellular respiration?

(a) ATP (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Oxygen (d) Water

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20. The term "oxidative phosphorylation" is associated with:
(a) Glycolysis (b) Krebs cycle
(c) Electron transport chain (d) Alcoholic fermentation

21. What is the correct order of protein transport through organelles?

(a) Ribosome → ER → Golgi apparatus → Plasma membrane
(b) Nucleus → Golgi apparatus → Ribosome
(c) Golgi → ER → Ribosome
(d) ER → Ribosome → Golgi

22. The point where two sister chromatids are joined is called the:
(a) Centrosome (b) Centriole
(c) Centromere (d) Chromatin

23. Which statement is false about enzyme specificity?

(a) Enzymes act on specific substrates
(b) One enzyme can catalyze many unrelated reactions
(c) Enzymes are reusable
(d) The shape of the active site determines specificity

24. What happens to the enzyme after the reaction is complete?

(a) It is used up (b) It breaks down
(c) It becomes a product (d) It remains unchanged and can be reused

25. An enzyme-substrate complex is:

(a) The final product of enzyme action
(b) A temporary molecule formed during the reaction
(c) A denatured enzyme
(d) A by-product of metabolism

26. Competitive inhibitors slow enzyme activity by:

(a) Breaking the enzyme (b) Binding to the allosteric site
(c) Blocking the active site (d) Increasing the temperature

27. Feedback inhibition in enzyme action occurs when:

(a) The product of a reaction enhances the enzyme
(b) The enzyme permanently binds to the substrate
(c) The product of the reaction inhibits the enzyme
(d) The enzyme synthesizes itself

28. Identify functions of the lymphatic system.

(a) Absorption of fats, acid-base balance and defense against disease
(b) Fluid balance, absorption of amino acids and defense against disease
(c) Fluid balance, absorption of fats and defense against disease
(d) Transport of nutrients, acid-base balance and fluid balance
(e) None of these

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29. Lymphatic fluid is ultimately drained into:
(a) Arteries (b) Blood capillaries
(c) Tissue fluid (d) Veins
(e) All of these

30. Describe the flow of lymph beginning with lymph formation

(a) lymphatic capillaries – tissue fluid – lymphatic ducts – lymphatic vessels - veins
(b) tissue fluid - lymphatic capillaries – lymphatic vessels – veins
(c) tissue fluid – lymphatic capillaries –lymphatic veins - veins
(d) lymphatic capillaries – veins – tissue fluid –lymphatic veins

31. B lymphocytes are produced in the ______ and mature in the ______.
(a) bone marrow; bone marrow (b) bone marrow; thymus gland
(c) lymph nodes; thymus gland (d) thymus gland; spleen

32. The process of heating a liquid to kill much of the bacteria in milk and other
liquids is called __________:
(a) vaccination (b) inflammation
(c) immunization (d) pasteurization
(e) None of these

33. Some antibodies stay on duty in blood, and more are produced rapidly if the
pathogen enters your body again, this is:
(a) passive immunity (b) inflammation
(c) first-line defenses (d) active immunity

34. Forms of antigens that give you active immunity to a disease without getting the
disease first are called __________.
(a) antibodies (b) vaccines
(c) viruses (d) fevers

35. Redness, swelling, and pain are all signs of what?

(a) specific defenses (b) passive immunity
(c) inflammation (d) active immunity
(e) None of these

36. Which one of the following could be described as a minute piece of genetic
material that multiplies in host cells?
(a) A bacterium (b) A fungus
(c) A protozoa (d) A virus

37. Which one of the following is a viral sexually transmitted disease?

(a) Gonorrhea (b) Syphilis
(c) Genital herpes (d) Poliomyelitis

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38. Which one of the following is a characteristic of passive immunity?
(a) Results from antibodies made by your body (b) Does not last long
(c) Caused by pathogens (d) is produced by vaccines

39. Which of the following is a defense against pathogens that are used by your
digestive system?
(a) White blood cells (b) Sweating
(c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Fever

40. In order to react to pathogens and remove worn-out red blood cells, the spleen
has an abundance of:
(a) basophils and lymphocytes (b) lymphocytes and macrophage
(c) macrophage and red blood cells (d) red blood cells and platelets

41. Place the events of inflammation in chronological order.

i. Clotting and swelling walls off the injured area from the rest of the body.
ii. Fluid and clotting factors escape into tissues.
iii. Release of histamine leads to dilation of blood vessels.
iv. Macrophage phagocytize pathogens and stimulate immune responses.
v. Monocytes and neutrophils migrate into injured tissue
(a) i, ii, iii, iv, v (b) i, iii, ii, iv, v
(c) iii, ii, i, v, iv (d) iii, ii, i, iv, v

42. The development of holes in bacterial plasma membranes is caused by:

(a) antibodies (b) Perforins
(c) histamine (d) interferon

43. The chemical produced by injured cells and mast cells that promotes
inflammation is
(a) Lysozyme (b) Perforins
(c) histamine (d) interferon

44. When an antigen-presenting cell (APC) presents an antigen to a T cell, it must

(a) link to a B cell first
(b) join with an antibody
(c) join with complement
(d) link to a major histocompatibility complex protein on the cell membrane.

45. Cytotoxic T calls are also called _____ leukocytes and helper T cells are also
called _____ leukocytes
(a) CD4; CD8 (b) CD4; NK
(c) CD8; CD4 (d) NK; CD8

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46. Maternal antibodies crossing the placenta to the fetus is an example of:
(a) artificial active immunity (b) artificial passive immunity
(c) natural active immunity (d) natural passive immunity

47. Identify the E, F, G and H cells in the diagram.

(a) E (memory cells), F (TH cells), G (TC cells), H (plasma cells)

(b) E (TH cells), F (memory cells), G (TC cells), H (plasma cells)
(c) E (memory cells), F (TH cells), G (plasma cells), H (TC cells)
(d) E (memory cells), F (plasma cells), G (TH cells), H (TC cells)

48. Maternal antibodies crossing the placenta to the fetus is an example of:
(a) artificial active immunity (b) artificial passive immunity
(c) natural active immunity (d) natural passive immunity

49. All of the following are antigen presenting cells (APCs) EXCEPT:
(a) B-cells (b) Macrophages
(c) Dendritic cells (d) NK cell (e) None of these

50. Natural killer cells identify the absence of _____ molecules to recognize a cell or
pathogen as the non-self and destroy them.
(a) CD-4 (b) CD-8
(c) MHC-II (d) Interleukon-2 (e) MHC-I

51. Which of the following a broadest term that includes ALL.

(a) Interferons (IFNs) (b) Interleukins (ILs)
(c) Cytokines (d) Tumor necrosis factor (TNFs)
(e) None

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52. Find the correct combinations in the following.
p. Macrophage i- CD-4
q. B-Cells ii- Granzymes and porins
r. TH cells iii- Antibodies
s. TC cells iv- CD-8
v- MHC-class II

(a) p (v), q(i), r(iv), s(iii) (b) p (i), q(ii), r(iii), s(iv)
(c) p (v), q(i), r(iii), s(ii and iv) (d) p (v), q(iii), r(i), s(ii and iv)
(e) none of these

53. All of the following are correct for B-lymphocytes EXCEPT:

(a) Antigen presenting cells (b) Antibodies
(c) Memory cells (d) MHC-class II
(e) None of these

54. Find the correct sequence for fever in human body.

i. Hypothalamus secrete prostaglandins
ii. Endogenous pyrogens
iii. Exogenous pyrogens
iv. Shivering and vasoconstriction
v. Disturbance of set point in hypothalamus
vi. Fever

(a) i, ii, iii, iv, v and vi (b) iii, ii, v, i, iv and vi

(c) iii, ii, iv, i, v and vi (d) None of these

55. Find the correct combinations in the following.

P. TH cells I- Secrete interleukins-2
Q. Fever II- Secrete histamine
R. Basophils III- Prostaglandins
S. Dendritic cells IV- APCs

(a) p (i), q(ii), r(iii), s(iv) (b) p (i), q(iii), r(ii), s(iv)
(c) p (i), q(iv), r(iii), s(ii) (d) none of these

56. Which blood cell does not recognize, engulf and digest non-self-particles?
(a) Macrophages (b) Natural killer cells
(c) Neutrophils (d) Dendritic cells
(e) none of these

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57. Rabies is a viral disease which can be spread to human by a bite from infected
animals. One method of treatment is to inject the patient with antibodies.
Which of the following is correct for such treatment?
(a) The patient will have natural passive immunity
(b) The patient will have natural active immunity
(c) The patient will have artificial active immunity
(d) The patient will have artificial passive immunity

58. These two cells destroy an infected cell by releasing chemicals that cause
apoptosis.
(a) Plasma cells and NK cells (b) Macrophages and dendritic cells
(c) Neutrophils and basophils (c) TH cells and TC cells
(e) TC cells and NK cells

59. These chemicals are released by virally infected cells to decrease the spread of
viruses to nearby cells.
(a) Interferons (b) Interleukins
(c) Tumor necrosis factor (c) Complement proteins
(e) None of these

60. Identify B and D in the following process.

(a) B- memory cell and TH cell (b) Plasma cell and TH cell
(c) B- memory cell and TC cells (c) Plasma cells and TC cells
(e) none

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61. Identify the X, Y and Z in the following process.

(a) X (antibodies), Y (perforins and granzymes), Z (more helper cells)

(b) X (more helper cells), Y (perforins and granzymes), Z (antibodies)
(c) X (Ts cells), Y (perforins and granzymes), Z (antibodies)
(d) None of these

62. Find the incorrect in the following:

(a) Atrial systole = 0.1 seconds (b) Atrial diastole = 0.4 seconds
(c) Ventricular systole = 0.3 seconds (d) Ventricular diastole = 0.5 seconds
(e) Joint diastole = 0.4 seconds

63. Which blood vessel has the thickest muscular walls?

(a) Capillary (b) Vein (c) Artery (d) Venule

64. Veins differ from arteries because they:

(a) Carry oxygenated blood (b) Have thick elastic walls
(c) Have valves to prevent backflow (d) Do not transport blood

65. Which part of the brain controls the rate of breathing?

(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Thalamus

66. Which structure prevents the collapse of the trachea during breathing?
(a) Smooth muscle rings (b) Bone plates
(c) Cartilaginous rings (d) Elastic fibers

67. The main stimulus for increased breathing rate is:

(a) Low O₂ concentration (b) High CO₂ concentration
(c) Low blood pressure (d) High glucose concentration

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68. Respiration generally requires?
(a) Respiratory system (b) Muscular system
(c) Nervous system (d) All a, b and c

69. Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood:

(a) Dissolved within the plasma as CO2 (b) In association with haemoglobin
(c) As bicarbonate ions (d) In combination with oxygen
(e) None

70. All of the following are accurate statement about haemoglobin EXCEPT:
(a) Haemoglobin carries oxygen on the Fe ions.
(b) Haemoglobin carries CO2 on the amino acids .
(c) Haemoglobin carries very small amount of the total CO2 (less than 25%).
(d) Haemoglobin releasing oxygen at cellular leveal and making it more saturated

71. Pericardial cavity is located between:

(a) Fibrous pericardium and parietal serous layer of pericardium
(b) Parietal visceral serous layers of pericardium
(c) Visceral serous layers of pericardium and myocardium
(d) Epicardium and myocardium

72. All of the following occurs when the ventricle contracts EXCEPT:
(a) Closure of AV valves
(b) Opening of semilunar valves at the base of aorta and pulmonary trunk
(c) Blood is ejected into the aorta
(d) Blood from pulmonary trunk inters into the atria.
(e) none of these

73. Sphincters in circulatory system are mainly found at:

(a) Base of coronary artery (b) Base of aorta
(c) Base of pulmonary trunk (d) Pre-capillary
(e) Post capillary

74. Velocity of blood flow is slowest at:

(a) Large arteries (b) Small arteries
(c) Large veins (d) Small veins
(e) Capillaries

75. In respiratory tubes cartilages are found in:

(a) Pharynx and larynx (b) Larynx and trachea
(c) Trachea and bronchi (d) both a and b
(e) Both b and c

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76. Which type of cartilage is found in respiratory tubes? ( follow the actual concept
rather any of the text books)
(a) Hyaline cartilage (b) Fibro cartilage
(c) Elastic cartilage (d) All are found
(e) None of these

77. What is the correct term for throat?

(a) Larynx (b) Esophagus
(c) Pharynx (d) Trachea
(e) None of these

78. During surgery if a surgeon cuts down the chest what will correct sequence of
structures from skin to lungs?
(a) Skin - External ICM – Internal ICM – Visceral Pleura- Pleural Cavity- Parietal
Pleura - Lungs
(b) Skin - External ICM – Internal ICM – Parietal Pleura- Pleural Cavity- Visceral
Pleura - Lungs
(c) Skin - External ICM – Internal ICM – Parietal Pleura- Visceral Pleura - Pleural
Cavity- Lungs
(d) Skin - Internal ICM – External ICM – Parietal Pleura- Pleural Cavity- Visceral
Pleura - Lungs

79. All of the following are correct statements regarding effects of the smoking on
lungs EXCEPT:
(a) May cause lungs cancer (b) May cause emphysema
(c) May cause lungs TB (d) Reduces lungs capacity
(e) None of these

80. All of the following are correct for the effect of nicotine EXCEPT:
(a) Reduce fatigue and cause alertness
(b) Increase breath rate and heart beat
(c) Mimics acetylcholine in muscles
(d) Result in dopamine and serotonin release from brain
(e) Decrease blood pressure and blood glucose

81. Which of the following has the highest value in all?

(a) Inspiratory reserved volume (b) Tidal volume
(c) Expiratory reserve volume (d) Residual volume

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CHEMISTRY
(Sir Jai Parkash)

82. The oxygen molecule is paramagnetic. It can be explained by:

(a) Resonance (b) Hybridization
(c) VBT (d) Molecular orbital theory

83. Bond angle of 120° is found in

(a) PH3 (b) NCl3 (c) ClF3 (d) BCl3

84. The oxidation state of each Cl in CaOCl2 is

(a) 0 (b) +1 (c) -1 (d) +1, -1

85. When zinc is added to CuSO4 solution, copper is precipitated, it is so because of

(a) Reduction of Zn (b) Reduction of Cu2+
(c) Hydrolysis of CuSO4 (d) Reduction SO 24

86. In Galvanic cell electrons flow from anode to cathode through

(a) External electric circuit (b) Salt bridge
(c) Movement of ions (d) All of the above

87. The minimum energy a molecule should possess in order to enter into a fruitful
collision is known as
(a) Reaction energy (b) Collision energy
(c) Internal energy (d) Threshold energy
1
What is the order of a reaction which has a rate expression rate  K[ A] [B]
3/2
88.
(a) 3/2 (b) ½ (c) 0 (d) None of these

89. For a reaction 2 NO(g)  Cl2 (g) ⇌ 2 NOCl(g) . When concentration of Cl2 is doubled, the
rate of reaction becomes two times of the original. When the concentration of NO
is doubled the rate becomes four times. What is the order of the reaction
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

90. In the decomposition of H2O2, glycerin is a:

(a) Positive catalyst (b) Negative catalyst
(c) Auto catalyst (d) Bio catalyst

91. Hydrolysis of ter –butyl bromide is :

(a) 1st order reaction (b) 2nd order reaction
(c) 3rd order reaction (d) Zero order reaction

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92. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not allowed?
(a) n = 3, l = 1, m = -1, s = + ½ (b) n = 2, l = l, m = 0, s = + ½
(c) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + ½ (d) n = 2, l = 2, m = -1, s = - ½

93. H2SO4 acts as a strong oxidising agent. In which of the reaction, is it not acting as
an oxidising agent?
(a) C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
(b) CaF2 + 2H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
(c) S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + H2O
(d) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

94. A bulb containing dry ammonia and the other containing dry hydrogen chloride
are connected the through a long tube. The stoppers of both the bulbs are opened
simultaneously. The white fumes of ammonium chloride formed will be:
(a) Near the ammonia bulb (b) Near the hydrogen chloride bulb
(c) At the center of the tube (d) Throughout the length of the tube

95. Which of the following has net dipole moment is zero?

(a) NH3 & SO3 (b) H2O & H2S (c) CO2 & SO2 (d) CO2 & C2H2

96. The standard electrode potential of the half cells are given below.
Zn  Zn 2  2e ; E o  0.76 V Fe  Fe 2  2e ; E o  0.44 V
2 2
The e.m.f given below Fe  Zn  Zn  Fe is
(a) -0.32 V (b) + 0.32 V (c) + 1.20 V (d) -1.20

97. Enthalpy of formation of two compounds x and y are – 84 kJ and – 156 kJ

respectively. Which of the following statements is correct
(a) x is more stable than y (b) x is less stable than y
(c) Both x and y are unstable (d) x and y are endothermic compounds

98. The enthalpy of formation for an element in its normal state will be:
(a) Zero (b) Always positive
(c) Always negative (d) May be positive or negative

99. What is correct expression for heat of reaction?

H o   H of PROPDUCTS   H of REACTANTS
(a)
H o   H of REACTANTS   H of PROPDUCTS
(b)
H o   H of PROPDUCTS   H of REACTANTS
(c)
H o   H of PROPDUCTS   H of REACTANTS
(d)

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100. When a sample of gas at 10 atm is expanded from 50dm3 to 75 dm3, then find the
work done?
(a) -250 J (b) -250 atm. dm3
(c) -25 J (d) -2.5 atm. dm3

101. Fine H for the reaction : 2C8 H18  25O2 

o 16CO2  18H 2O While H f of o

C8 H18 , O2 , CO2 & H 2O are -269KJ/mol, 0KJ/mol, -349KJ/mol & -286KJ/mol

respectively.
(a) -540 KJ/mol (b) -9012 KJ/mol
(c) -10902.4 KJ/mol (d) -1143 KJ/mol

102. The volume occupied by a gas at 1 atm and 0oC is V ml. The volume of the gas at
273oC will be :
(a) V ml (b) V/2 ml (c) 2V ml (d) V/4 ml

103. Total number of atoms in 44 g of CO2 is

(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 1024
(c) 1.806 × 1024 (d) 18.06 × 1022

104. The volume of hydrogen gas produced by treating 1 mole of Mg with excess of
HCl, is treated with 44.8L of ethylene at STP. Which reactant remains unused
after the completion of reacton?
(a) H2 (b) Ethylene
(c) No reactant left after the completion of reaction (d) Both a & b

105. 5.6 dm3 of unknown gas has mass 8g the molar mass of gas will be:
(a) 8g (b) 16g (c) 32g (d) 64g

CO( g )  2H 2 ( g )
106. For the reaction ⇌ CH 3OH ( g ) , what is correct about this reaction?
(a) K P  K C (b) K P  K C
(c) K P  K C (d) K C  0 but K P  0

107. If K SP  M  X  , the chemical formula of the compound is :

3 2 2 3

(a) M 2 X 3 (b) M2 X (c) M3X2 (d) None of these

108. In the two gaseous reactions (I) and (II), at 25°C

1
NO( g )  O2( g )
(i) 2 (ii) 2 NO2( g ) ⇌ 2NO( g )  O2( g ) K2
⇌ NO2( g ) K1
The equlilibrium constant K1 & K2 are related as:
1 1
K2  K2 
K1 K2 
(a) K1 (b) 2 (c) ( K1 ) 2 (d) K 2  (K1 ) 2

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109. Using the information given in the reaction equations below, calculate the heat of
formation for 1 mole of carbon monoxide.
2C (S) + 2O2  2CO2 ΔH = -787 kJ
2CO + O2  2CO2 ΔH = -566 kJ
(a) -221 kJ/mol (b) -110 kJ/mol
(c) 110 kJ/mol (d) 221 kJ/mol

110. A reaction is A + B ⇌ C + D. Initially we start with equal concentrations of A and

B. At equilibrium we find that the moles of C is two times of A. What is the
equilibrium constant of the reaction?
(a) ¼ (b) ½ (c) 4 (d) 2

111. Hexagonal system has axes:

(a) a = b = c (b) a ≠b = c (c) a ≠ b ≠ c (d) a = b ≠ c
(e) None of the above

112. In multistep reaction:

(a) Fast step is rate determining step
(b) Slowest step israte determining step
(c) Rate of reaction is inversely proportional to order of reaction
(d) None of these

113. The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 300. If the volume of reaction flask is
tripled the equilibrium constant is
(a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 900 (d) 100

114. 10g 80% pure sample of CaCO3 on complete decomposition will give ________of
CO2
(a) 3.75 g (b) 4.4 g (c) 3.52 g (d) None of the above

115. If Kp and Kc are in equilibrium constants in terms of partial pressure and

concentration
(a) Kp = Kc/RT (b) Kp = KcRT
Δn
(c) Kp = Kc/(RT) (d) Kp = Kc(RT) Δn

116. A mixture contains equal masses of O2 & H2 at constant temperature. The ratio
of their partial pressures will be:
(a) 8:1 (b) 8:2 (c) 16:1 (d) 1:4

117. 3 moles of He and 4 moles of Ar are enclosed in a vessel under same conditions of
temperature & pressure. The partial pressure of “He” is :
3 4
(a) 4 of the total pressure (b) 3 of the total pressure
4 3
(c) 7 of the total pressure (d) 7 of the total pressure
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118. Which of the following is Vander Waal’s equation?
an 2
(P  )(v  nb)  nRT
(a) PV  nRT (b) v2
2
an an 2
(P  )(v  nb)  nRT (P  )(v  nb) 2  nRT
(c) v2 (d) v2

119. All of the following statements underlie the kinetic molecular theory of gases
EXCEPT:
(a) Gas molecules have no intermolecular forces.
(b) Gas particles are in random motion.
(c) The collisions between gas particles are elastic.
(d) The average kinetic energy is proportional to the temperature (°C) of the gas.

120. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) one mole of ozone contains Avogadro number of atoms of oxygen
(b) mole is S.I unit of amount of substance
(c) one mole of electrons stands for 6.02 x 1023 electrons
(d) mole is related with amount, number of particles and Volume of gases

121. What is mass of SO2 can be made by burning S in 5.0 moles of Oxygen according
to the following equation:
S + O2 SO2
a. 640 g b. 160g c. 320g d. 120g

122. If 20 cm3 of gas at 1atm is expanded to 50 cm3 at constant T, then what is final
pressure?
a. 2.5 atm b. 2 atm c. 0.3 atm d. 0.4 atm

123. rate constant of the reaction depends on

(a) temperature (b) Concentration of reactants
(c) Catalyst (d) a and c

124. Catalyst does not change

(a) rate of reaction (b) rate constant of reaction
(c) activation energy (d) Enthalpy of reaction

125. Standard Electrode potential of A and B element is -2.5V and -1.5 V respectively.
When these are connected in Voltaic cell, electron will flow from
(a) A to B (b) B to A
(c) no flow of electron occur in any direction (d) None

126. Which of the following is reducing agent?

(a) H2S (b) KMnO4 (c) K2Cr2O7 (d) H2SO4

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 The Spark Institute of Language & Science
PHYSICS
(Engr. Harish Kumar)

127. The rectangular components of a vector ⃗𝑨 ̂ are equal

⃗ = 𝑨𝒙 𝒊̂ + 𝑨𝒚 𝒋̂ + 𝑨𝒛 𝒌
then magnitude of vector is
(a) 3 times of either of its component. (b) 2 times of either of its component.
(c) √2 times of either of its component. (d) √3 times of either of its component.

128. The energy of a wave

(a) is independent of its amplitude.
(b) is inversely proportional to its amplitude
(c) is directly proportional to square of its amplitude.
(d) is inversely proportional to square of its amplitude.

129. If velocity of projection of projectile is doubled then its horizontal range covered is
(a) doubled (b) halved (c) four times (d) remains same

130. The electrical potential energy due to charges +q and -q separated by distance d
is_____.
(a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) infinite

131. If di-electric is inserted between the plates of charged parallel plate capacitor
then energy and charge on capacitor _____ and ____ respectively.
(a) increases, remains same (b) decreases, remains same
(c) remains same, increases (d) remains same, decreases

132. The capacitor is fully charged in

(a) one time constant (b) four time constant
(c) three time constant (d) infinite time

133. One mega electron-volt is equivalent to

(a) 3.6 x 106J (b) 1.6 x 10-13 J
(c) 1.6 x 10-25J (d) 1.6 x10-19J

134. The distance v/s time graph as shown represents;

(a) velocity as positive but acceleration as negative
(b) velocity as negative but acceleration as positive
(c) both velocity and acceleration as negative
(d) both velocity and acceleration as positive

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 The Spark Institute of Language & Science
135. An open organ pipe of length equal to wavelength contains
(a) two nodes (b) three nodes
(c) four nodes (d) one node

136. The speed of sound is more in ___ gas at same temperature.

(a) nitrogen (b) air
(c) carbon dioxide (d) ammonia

137. The car and bicycle are moving with same speed, when same braking force is
applied to both then which is more retarded?
(a) car (b) bicycle
(c) both are retarded at same rate (d) none of these

138. If both mass and kinetic energy of a moving body are doubled then its
momentum will be
(a) doubled (b) halved
(c) four times (d) remains same

139. The speed of sound is independent of pressure as

(a) increasing pressure will decrease density of medium to same extent
(b) increasing pressure will not affect density of medium
(c) increasing pressure will increase the density of medium to same extent
(d) none of these

140. The acceleration produced due to change in direction of velocity

(a) is always constant (b) maybe constant
(c) maybe variable (d) is always variable

141. In projectile motion, the velocity and acceleration are perpendicular at

(a) everywhere (b) point of projection
(c) point of arrival (d) maximum height

142. The temperature coefficient of resistivity for semiconductor is

(a) negative (b) positive
(c) zero (d) none of these

143. Which of the following bulb dissipate less energy?

(a) bulb of 10 ohms (b) bulb of 20 ohms
(c) bulb of 40 ohms (d) all dissipate same energy

144. The rate of change of momentum is equal to

(a) torque (b) impulse (c) force (d) work

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 The Spark Institute of Language & Science
145. The potential gradient is directed
(a) towards increasing potential (b) towards decreasing potential
(c) normal to the electric intensity (d) none of these

146. An open circuit in electricity has

(a) zero resistance (b) maximum but finite resistance
(c) minimum but non-zero (d) infinite resistance

147. The Coulomb’s law resembles to Newton’s _____ .

(a) 1st law of motion (b) 2nd law of motion
(c) 3rd law of motion (d) universal law of gravitation

148. Two charges each of +2µC and -2µC are separated by 2cm, the electric intensity
and electric potential at mid-point of their separation is ____ and ____
respectively.
(a) 0, 0 (b) 0, 3.6 x 106 volts
(c) 3.6 x 108 N/C, 3.6 x 106 volts (d) 3.6 x 108 N/C, 0

149. When wax is added to the prongs of a vibrating tuning fork, the frequency
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged (d) Becomes zero

150. A car is moving with KE of 5 joules, when 10 joules of work is done, the kinetic
energy changes by
(a) 5 joules (b) 15 joules (c) 10 joules (d) zero

151. The continuity equation is based on

(a) conservation of energy (b) conservation of pressure
(c) conservation of mass (d) conservation of momentum

152. For terminal velocity for an object, the fluid must be

(a) none-viscous (b) viscous
(c) ideal and incompressible (d) except b

153. A ball is projected at 30o with energy E from ground, the maximum potential
energy attained will be
(a) E (b) ½ E (c) ¼ E (d) ¾ E

154. When bullet is fired from gun then kinetic energy is maximum for
(a) bullet (b) gun
(c) both have same (d) none of these

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155. If radius is along y-axis, angular velocity is along x-axis then tangential velocity is
along
(a) +ve y axis (b) +ve x-axis (c) -ve z-axis (d) +ve z-axis

156. When an electron is placed in electric field then

(a) it moves along the field due to electric force
(b) it moves opposite the field due to electric force
(c) it will remain stationary
(d) none of these

157. A wave travels on string having disturbance at instant is given as Y = 10 cos (x -

4t), the speed of wave is ___ units.
(a) 4 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.24 (d) 10

158. A particle of 10g mass is dropped from certain height, the distance covered by it
in first three seconds is equal to last second, the maximum kinetic energy of
particle is
(a) 12.5 J (b) 125 J (c) 1.25 J (d) 250 J

159. The dynamic pressure in fluid is directly proportional to

(a) square of density of fluid (b) square of speed of fluid
(c) area of fluid (d) volume of fluid

160. If electric potential is increasing in the direction of motion of a positive charge

then;
(a) electric field is in direction of motion
(b) electric field is opposite to the motion
(c) no field exists
(d) force acts perpendicular

161. Which configuration produces a uniform electric field?

(a) point charge (b) spherical shell
(c) infinite plane sheet of charge (d) electric dipole

162. According to Newton, the speed of sound in a medium is

(a) isobaric process (b) isothermal process
(c) isochoric process (d) adiabatic process

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 The Spark Institute of Language & Science
ENGLISH
(Prof. GM Jalalani)

163. Fill in the gap with the appropriate preposition:

The painting hanging ___ the wall is a gift from my students.
(a) over (b) on (c) at (d) by

164. Fill in the gap with correct verb/tense:

When I ______ my dinner I went to bed.
(a) had (b) have had (c) had had (d) has had

165. Fill in the gap with correct verb phrase.

The groups of tissues, each with its own function _______ in the human body.
(a) it makes up the organs (b) make up the organs
(c) they make up the organs (d) makes up the organs

166. Which is the correct spelling?

(a) Acommodate (b) Accommodate
(c) Accomodate (d) Acommadate

167. Fill in the gap with appropriate article:

The children found _____ egg in a nest. _____ egg was of a pigeon.
(a) the/the (b) an/an (c) an/the (d) the/ an

168. Find the correctly punctuated sentence.

(a) “I can’t believe,” he whispered, “that it’s really almost impossible”.
(b) “I can’t believe”, he whispered, “that it’s really almost impossible.”
(c) “I can’t believe” he whispered, “that it’s really almost impossible.”
(d) “I can’t believe,” he whispered, “that it’s really almost impossible.”

169. I remember my sister taking me to the hospital. (Change the voice)

(a) I remember I was taken to the hospital by my sister.
(b) I remember being taken to the hospital by my sister.
(c) I remember myself being taken to the hospital by my sister.
(d) I remember taken to the hospital by my sister.

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Spot the error from the given sentences:
170. The flock of geese flew rapidly through the air for miles on end until they
A B C
became fatigued and had to land to rest. No error
D E

171. It is not surprised that the Arabs, who possessed a remarkable gift for astronomy,
A B C
mathematics, and geometry, were also skilful mapmakers. No error
D E

LOGICAL REASONING
(Sir Aamir Soomro)
DIRECTION:
Each question has an underlined word followed by four answer choices. You will
choose the word that is a necessary part of the given word. A good way to approach this
type of question is to use the following sentence: "A could not exist without” Find the
word that names a necessary part of the given word.

172. Book
A. Fiction B. Pages C. Pictures D. Learning

173. School
A. Student B. Report Card C. Test D. Learning

174. Some kings are queens. All queens are beautiful.

Conclusions:
I. All kings are beautiful. II. All queens are kings.
A. Only I B. Only I C. I and II D. I and II are inappropriate
175. Statements:
All hill stations have a sun-set point. X is a hill station.
Conclusions:
I. X has a sun-set point.
II. Places other than hill stations do not have sun-set points.
A. Only I B. Only II C. I and II D. I and II are inappropriate

176. Statements:
All pens are chalks. All chairs are chalks.
Conclusions:
I. Some pens are chairs. II. Some chalks are pens.
A. Only I B. Only II C. I and II D. I and II are inappropriate

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 The Spark Institute of Language & Science
Directions: (Questions 177 to 178): Study the following information and answer the
questions given below it:
There is a group of five students A, B, C, D and E from Spark College. B and E are
good in Dramatics and Computer Science. A and B are good in Computer Science and
Physics.
A, C andD are good in Physics and History. A and C are good in Physics and
Mathematics. D and E are good in History and Dramatics.

177. Who is good in Physics? History and Dramatics?

A. a B. b C. d D. e

178. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics, but not in Computer Science?
A. a. B. b C. c D. d

179. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same
series as established by the five Problem Figures.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

180. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same
series as established by the five Problem Figures.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

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