MCQs on Hazards, Disasters & Tripura Disaster Management
Part A – Types of Hazards & Disasters
1. Which of the following is a natural disaster?
a) Industrial explosion
b) Volcanic eruption
c) Oil spill
d) Nuclear accident
Answer: b) Volcanic eruption
2. Which natural disaster is caused by sudden movement of tectonic plates?
a) Cyclone
b) Earthquake
c) Flood
d) Drought
Answer: b) Earthquake
3. A tsunami is primarily caused by:
a) High wind speed
b) Submarine earthquake
c) Heavy rainfall
d) Landslide in mountains
Answer: b) Submarine earthquake
4. Cyclones in the Indian Ocean are known as:
a) Hurricanes
b) Typhoons
c) Tropical storms
d) Tornadoes
Answer: c) Tropical storms
5. Which disaster is related to long-term water shortage?
a) Flood
b) Drought
c) Landslide
d) Tsunami
Answer: b) Drought
6. A wildfire hazard is most likely in:
a) Snow-covered areas
b) Dry, windy regions
c) Coastal areas
d) Flood plains
Answer: b) Dry, windy regions
7. Landslides are triggered by all except:
a) Heavy rainfall
b) Earthquakes
c) Deforestation
d) Solar eclipse
Answer: d) Solar eclipse
8. Which of the following is a man-made disaster?
a) Flood
b) Nuclear accident
c) Earthquake
d) Tsunami
Answer: b) Nuclear accident
9. The Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of:
a) Biological hazard
b) Industrial hazard
c) Engineering hazard
d) Natural disaster
Answer: b) Industrial hazard
10. The Chernobyl incident in 1986 was a:
a) Chemical disaster
b) Nuclear disaster
c) Engineering disaster
d) Biological disaster
Answer: b) Nuclear disaster
Part B – Disaster Management & Planning
11. The first step in disaster management is:
a) Relief work
b) Preparedness
c) Rehabilitation
d) Reconstruction
Answer: b) Preparedness
12. Which of the following is not a disaster mitigation strategy?
a) Building cyclone shelters
b) Afforestation
c) Ignoring early warnings
d) Flood embankments
Answer: c) Ignoring early warnings
13. Adaptation to hazards means:
a) Eliminating hazards completely
b) Adjusting human activities to reduce damage
c) Waiting for disaster to occur
d) Evacuating permanently
Answer: b) Adjusting human activities to reduce damage
14. Which phase of disaster management includes food, shelter, and medical care?
a) Preparedness
b) Mitigation
c) Relief
d) Adaptation
Answer: c) Relief
15. Rehabilitation after disaster focuses on:
a) Immediate rescue operations
b) Long-term rebuilding and restoring livelihoods
c) Weather forecasting
d) Mitigation
Answer: b) Long-term rebuilding and restoring livelihoods
16. Who among the following plays a crucial role in disaster warning systems?
a) Planners
b) Scientists
c) Volunteers
d) NGOs
Answer: b) Scientists
17. Which organization in India is responsible for disaster response at the national level?
a) NDMA
b) NITI Aayog
c) NSSO
d) ISRO
Answer: a) NDMA
18. Early warning system for cyclones in India is primarily managed by:
a) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
b) National Highway Authority
c) Geological Survey of India
d) DRDO
Answer: a) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
19. The main role of NGOs in disaster management is:
a) Policy-making
b) Ground-level relief and rehabilitation work
c) Issuing weather bulletins
d) Conducting elections
Answer: b) Ground-level relief and rehabilitation work
20. Mitigation strategy for earthquakes includes:
a) Dams
b) Cyclone shelters
c) Earthquake-resistant buildings
d) Afforestation
Answer: c) Earthquake-resistant buildings
Part C – Hazards & Disasters in Tripura
21. North East India falls under which seismic zone mostly?
a) Zone II
b) Zone III
c) Zone IV & V
d) Zone VI
Answer: c) Zone IV & V
22. Tripura is highly vulnerable to earthquakes due to:
a) Proximity to Himalayan fault lines
b) Coastal erosion
c) Volcanic activity
d) Industrialization
Answer: a) Proximity to Himalayan fault lines
23. Flood hazards in Tripura are mostly caused by:
a) Heavy monsoon rainfall
b) Tsunami waves
c) Cyclonic winds only
d) Melting glaciers
Answer: a) Heavy monsoon rainfall
24. Major rivers causing floods in Tripura include:
a) Ganga and Yamuna
b) Haora and Manu
c) Narmada and Tapti
d) Kosi and Gandak
Answer: b) Haora and Manu
25. River bank erosion in Tripura is common in:
a) West Tripura
b) Gomati River areas
c) Himalayan foothills
d) Desert regions
Answer: b) Gomati River areas
26. Tropical storms in Tripura are linked to:
a) Bay of Bengal cyclonic activity
b) Arabian Sea
c) Pacific Ocean
d) Himalayan glaciers
Answer: a) Bay of Bengal cyclonic activity
27. A major flood in Tripura in 2018 was caused by:
a) Dam failure
b) Excessive rainfall and river overflow
c) Earthquake-triggered landslide
d) Sea-level rise
Answer: b) Excessive rainfall and river overflow
28. The 1897 Assam earthquake affected Tripura with magnitude:
a) 6.5
b) 7.0
c) 8.7
d) 9.2
Answer: c) 8.7
29. The major landslide-prone district in Tripura is:
a) Dhalai
b) West Tripura
c) South Tripura
d) Sepahijala
Answer: a) Dhalai
30. Which river forms the international boundary between Tripura and Bangladesh in
some stretches?
a) Khowai
b) Feni
c) Gomati
d) Manu
Answer: b) Feni
Part D – Role of Govt. & NGOs in Tripura Disaster Management
31. Which state authority in Tripura coordinates disaster response?
a) Tripura Disaster Management Authority (TDMA)
b) Tripura Election Commission
c) Tripura Tourism Board
d) Tripura Rural Development Department
Answer: a) Tripura Disaster Management Authority (TDMA)
32. Tripura’s State Disaster Management Plan is prepared under which Act?
a) Disaster Management Act, 2005
b) Environmental Protection Act, 1986
c) Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897
d) NDMA Act, 2008
Answer: a) Disaster Management Act, 2005
33. Which government agency helps in flood forecasting in Tripura?
a) CWC (Central Water Commission)
b) NHAI
c) BARC
d) CSIR
Answer: a) CWC (Central Water Commission)
34. Which NGO is known for community disaster preparedness in Tripura?
a) SEWA
b) Ramakrishna Mission
c) Greenpeace
d) CRY
Answer: b) Ramakrishna Mission
35. NGOs play a key role in:
a) Setting seismic zones
b) Immediate relief distribution
c) Weather satellite launches
d) Enacting disaster laws
Answer: b) Immediate relief distribution
36. The Tripura government uses which system for cyclone warnings?
a) SMS alerts & radio broadcasts
b) Only newspaper notices
c) Public rallies
d) Door-to-door personal visits only
Answer: a) SMS alerts & radio broadcasts
37. Which of the following is part of disaster preparedness in Tripura schools?
a) Earthquake drills
b) Cooking competitions
c) Sports tournaments
d) Cultural shows
Answer: a) Earthquake drills
38. Which national force assists Tripura in major disasters?
a) CRPF
b) NDRF
c) BSF
d) ITBP
Answer: b) NDRF
39. The early warning system for floods in Tripura is based on:
a) River gauge readings & rainfall data
b) Horoscope predictions
c) Sea wave heights
d) Lunar cycles
Answer: a) River gauge readings & rainfall data
40. Role of scientists in Tripura’s disaster management includes:
a) Conducting rescue missions
b) Forecasting hazards and advising mitigation measures
c) Distributing relief materials
d) Law enforcement
Answer: b) Forecasting hazards and advising mitigation measures
Part E – Miscellaneous
41. A tropical storm becomes a cyclone when wind speed exceeds:
a) 33 knots
b) 44 knots
c) 50 knots
d) 60 knots
Answer: a) 33 knots
42. Disaster mitigation for floods in Tripura includes:
a) Embankment construction
b) Dam removal
c) Deforestation
d) River narrowing
Answer: a) Embankment construction
43. Which is the most earthquake-prone district in Tripura?
a) North Tripura
b) West Tripura
c) Gomati
d) Dhalai
Answer: d) Dhalai
44. Which year saw a major earthquake in Tripura measuring 6.7 magnitude?
a) 2008
b) 2011
c) 2016
d) 2019
Answer: c) 2016
45. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 mandates:
a) Compulsory disaster plans for all districts
b) Cyclone shelters in all states
c) Only earthquake drills
d) Free insurance for all citizens
Answer: a) Compulsory disaster plans for all districts
46. A major drought impact in Tripura is:
a) River overflow
b) Agricultural crop failure
c) Glacier melting
d) Fishing ban
Answer: b) Agricultural crop failure
47. Man-made engineering hazard examples include:
a) Bridge collapse
b) Landslide
c) Earthquake
d) Tsunami
Answer: a) Bridge collapse
48. Which Tripura river frequently changes its course causing erosion?
a) Manu
b) Gomati
c) Haora
d) Feni
Answer: b) Gomati
49. Which is a biological disaster?
a) Bird flu outbreak
b) Flood
c) Earthquake
d) Cyclone
Answer: a) Bird flu outbreak
50. The role of planners in Tripura’s disaster management includes:
a) Designing hazard-resistant infrastructure
b) Operating rescue boats
c) Delivering relief by hand
d) Conducting medical surgeries
Answer: a) Designing hazard-resistant infrastructure
Everyday Science & Technology – 50 MCQs with Answers
Part A – Cell
1. The basic structural and functional unit of life is:
a) Tissue
b) Cell
c) Organ
d) System
Answer: b) Cell
2. Which type of cell lacks a true nucleus?
a) Eukaryotic cell
b) Prokaryotic cell
c) Fungal cell
d) Plant cell
Answer: b) Prokaryotic cell
3. An example of a unicellular organism is:
a) Amoeba
b) Fish
c) Mango tree
d) Earthworm
Answer: a) Amoeba
4. Which organelle is known as the "powerhouse of the cell"?
a) Ribosome
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria
d) Golgi body
Answer: c) Mitochondria
5. Plant cells differ from animal cells in having:
a) Cell wall and chloroplast
b) Lysosomes
c) Centrioles
d) Mitochondria
Answer: a) Cell wall and chloroplast
Part B – Human Nutrition
6. Which nutrient is the main source of energy for the body?
a) Proteins
b) Vitamins
c) Carbohydrates
d) Minerals
Answer: c) Carbohydrates
7. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin C
Answer: c) Vitamin K
8. Dietary fibres are important because they:
a) Provide energy
b) Aid digestion and prevent constipation
c) Build muscles
d) Increase cholesterol
Answer: b) Aid digestion and prevent constipation
9. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of:
a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin C
Answer: b) Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
10. The most common nutritional disorder in India is:
a) Scurvy
b) Anaemia
c) Beriberi
d) Goitre
Answer: b) Anaemia
Part C – Plant Nutrition & Food Production
11. Essential plant nutrient not obtained from the soil is:
a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon
c) Phosphorus
d) Potassium
Answer: b) Carbon
12. Urea is a rich source of:
a) Nitrogen
b) Potassium
c) Phosphorus
d) Calcium
Answer: a) Nitrogen
13. Biofertilizers are mainly:
a) Synthetic chemicals
b) Living microorganisms
c) Mineral salts
d) Pesticides
Answer: b) Living microorganisms
14. Vermicompost is produced by the action of:
a) Fungi
b) Earthworms
c) Bacteria
d) Algae
Answer: b) Earthworms
15. Overuse of chemical fertilizers can cause:
a) Soil fertility loss
b) Increase in biodiversity
c) Reduction of crop yield
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Soil fertility loss
Part D – Blood Grouping & Rh Factor
16. The universal donor blood group is:
a) A+
b) B+
c) O–
d) AB+
Answer: c) O–
17. The universal recipient blood group is:
a) AB+
b) O+
c) A–
d) B+
Answer: a) AB+
18. Rh factor is important in pregnancy because:
a) It affects digestion
b) Rh incompatibility may cause haemolytic disease of newborn
c) It causes anaemia
d) It prevents malaria
Answer: b) Rh incompatibility may cause haemolytic disease of newborn
19. Before a blood transfusion, it is necessary to:
a) Warm the blood
b) Match the donor and recipient blood groups
c) Mix blood from different donors
d) Dilute the blood
Answer: b) Match the donor and recipient blood groups
20. A hazard of mismatched blood transfusion is:
a) Increased immunity
b) Haemolysis and kidney failure
c) Better oxygen transport
d) Improved health
Answer: b) Haemolysis and kidney failure
Part E – Health, Hygiene & Diseases
21. A disease always present in a region is called:
a) Epidemic
b) Endemic
c) Pandemic
d) Sporadic
Answer: b) Endemic
22. Malaria is caused by:
a) Virus
b) Protozoa (Plasmodium)
c) Bacteria
d) Fungus
Answer: b) Protozoa (Plasmodium)
23. Tuberculosis is caused by:
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Plasmodium falciparum
c) Candida albicans
d) Vibrio cholerae
Answer: a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
24. Ringworm is caused by:
a) Virus
b) Fungus
c) Bacteria
d) Protozoa
Answer: b) Fungus
25. HIV attacks mainly:
a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells (CD4 T cells)
c) Platelets
d) Liver cells
Answer: b) White blood cells (CD4 T cells)
26. Bird flu is caused by:
a) H5N1 virus
b) Bacteria
c) Protozoa
d) Fungus
Answer: a) H5N1 virus
27. Diabetes is caused due to deficiency of:
a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) Thyroxine
d) Adrenaline
Answer: a) Insulin
28. Smoking is a major cause of:
a) Lung cancer
b) Malaria
c) Ringworm
d) Osteoporosis
Answer: a) Lung cancer
29. Alcohol abuse primarily damages:
a) Liver
b) Heart
c) Kidney
d) Lungs
Answer: a) Liver
30. Chronic kidney disease leads to:
a) High insulin levels
b) Loss of kidney function
c) Increase in bone strength
d) Improved blood clotting
Answer: b) Loss of kidney function
Part F – Immunity & Vaccination
31. Immunity present from birth is called:
a) Acquired immunity
b) Innate immunity
c) Passive immunity
d) Active immunity
Answer: b) Innate immunity
32. Acquired immunity develops:
a) During fetal life only
b) After exposure to pathogens or vaccines
c) Without exposure to any antigen
d) Through genetic inheritance only
Answer: b) After exposure to pathogens or vaccines
33. OPV is a:
a) Live attenuated vaccine
b) Killed vaccine
c) Toxoid
d) Subunit vaccine
Answer: a) Live attenuated vaccine
34. BCG vaccine is given for prevention of:
a) Cholera
b) Tuberculosis
c) Typhoid
d) Measles
Answer: b) Tuberculosis
35. DTP vaccine protects against:
a) Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis
b) Dengue, Typhoid, Plague
c) Diphtheria, Typhoid, Pneumonia
d) Diarrhoea, Tetanus, Plague
Answer: a) Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis
36. Which is a killed vaccine?
a) Typhoid
b) BCG
c) MMR
d) OPV
Answer: a) Typhoid
37. Tetanus vaccine is a:
a) Live attenuated vaccine
b) Toxoid
c) Killed vaccine
d) DNA vaccine
Answer: b) Toxoid
38. Hepatitis B vaccine is:
a) Conjugated vaccine
b) Live attenuated vaccine
c) Toxoid
d) Killed vaccine
Answer: a) Conjugated vaccine
39. MMR vaccine is given to prevent:
a) Measles, Mumps, Rubella
b) Malaria, Measles, Rabies
c) Mumps, Measles, Ringworm
d) Measles, Malaria, Rotavirus
Answer: a) Measles, Mumps, Rubella
40. Which vaccine is given at birth in India?
a) BCG
b) OPV-0
c) Hepatitis B
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Part G – National Health Mission
41. NHM was launched in:
a) 2000
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2014
Answer: b) 2005
42. Which program under NHM focuses on rural health services?
a) NUHM
b) NRHM
c) ICDS
d) RNTCP
Answer: b) NRHM
43. NUHM under NHM targets:
a) Urban populations
b) Only rural populations
c) Only children
d) Farmers
Answer: a) Urban populations
44. ASHA workers are appointed under:
a) NUHM
b) NRHM
c) ICDS
d) Ayushman Bharat
Answer: b) NRHM
45. Janani Suraksha Yojana promotes:
a) Immunization
b) Institutional deliveries
c) Vaccination against TB
d) Nutrition for children
Answer: b) Institutional deliveries
46. RNTCP deals with:
a) Tuberculosis control
b) Malaria eradication
c) HIV prevention
d) Cancer screening
Answer: a) Tuberculosis control
47. Mission Indradhanush aims to:
a) Promote industrial growth
b) Achieve full immunization coverage
c) Provide free health insurance
d) Eradicate malaria
Answer: b) Achieve full immunization coverage
48. National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) works on:
a) Diabetes prevention
b) Malaria, dengue, chikungunya control
c) HIV/AIDS awareness
d) Tuberculosis treatment
Answer: b) Malaria, dengue, chikungunya control
49. Which NHM program deals with maternal and child health?
a) RMNCH+A
b) RNTCP
c) NVBDCP
d) IDSP
Answer: a) RMNCH+A
50. IDSP under NHM stands for:
a) Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme
b) International Disaster Safety Plan
c) Indian Disease Safety Policy
d) Immunization Development Scheme Programme
Answer: a) Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme
50 MCQs with Answers
Biotechnology
1. Which of the following is a bio-fertilizer?
A) Urea
B) Azolla
C) Superphosphate
D) Ammonium nitrate
Answer: B) Azolla
2. Vermicompost is produced by the action of:
A) Fungi
B) Earthworms
C) Bacteria
D) Algae
Answer: B) Earthworms
3. Which organism is used in the production of bio-pesticide Bt-toxin?
A) Bacillus subtilis
B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Rhizobium
Answer: B) Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Golden rice is genetically modified to be rich in:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Iron
D) Protein
Answer: A) Vitamin A
5. Which genetically modified crop is resistant to bollworm pest?
A) Bt-Brinjal
B) Bt-Cotton
C) Golden Rice
D) Flavr-Savr Tomato
Answer: B) Bt-Cotton
6. A transgenic animal used for production of human insulin is:
A) Cow
B) Pig
C) Goat
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
7. Nano-particles are measured in the range of:
A) 1–100 micrometres
B) 1–100 nanometres
C) 1–100 millimetres
D) 1–100 angstroms
Answer: B) 1–100 nanometres
8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of:
A) DNA replication
B) DNA sequence variation
C) DNA transcription
D) DNA translation
Answer: B) DNA sequence variation
Biomedical Engineering
9. Full form of MRI is:
A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
B) Medical Radiation Imaging
C) Magnetic Radio Imaging
D) Magnetic Resonance Induction
Answer: A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
10. Which imaging technique uses high-frequency sound waves?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) USG
D) PET
Answer: C) USG
11. CT scan uses:
A) Sound waves
B) X-rays
C) Magnetic fields
D) Gamma rays
Answer: B) X-rays
12. ECG records the:
A) Electrical activity of brain
B) Electrical activity of heart
C) Electrical activity of muscles
D) Lung function
Answer: B) Electrical activity of heart
13. EEG is used to record:
A) Muscle activity
B) Brain activity
C) Heart activity
D) Kidney function
Answer: B) Brain activity
14. ELISA is used for:
A) Detecting hormones
B) Detecting antibodies
C) Detecting viruses
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Physics & General Science
15. SI unit of force is:
A) Joule
B) Newton
C) Watt
D) Pascal
Answer: B) Newton
16. Work done =
A) Force × Area
B) Force × Distance
C) Mass × Velocity
D) Energy × Time
Answer: B) Force × Distance
17. Which law states that every action has an equal and opposite reaction?
A) Newton’s First Law
B) Newton’s Second Law
C) Newton’s Third Law
D) Law of Gravitation
Answer: C) Newton’s Third Law
18. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:
A) 3 × 10⁵ m/s
B) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
C) 3 × 10⁷ m/s
D) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Answer: D) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
19. The instrument used to measure temperature is:
A) Hygrometer
B) Thermometer
C) Barometer
D) Anemometer
Answer: B) Thermometer
20. Sound travels fastest in:
A) Air
B) Water
C) Steel
D) Vacuum
Answer: C) Steel
21. The electromagnetic wave with the shortest wavelength is:
A) Radio wave
B) X-ray
C) Gamma ray
D) Infrared
Answer: C) Gamma ray
Chemistry
22. The pH of pure water at 25°C is:
A) 0
B) 7
C) 14
D) 1
Answer: B) 7
23. A solution with pH 2 is:
A) Neutral
B) Acidic
C) Basic
D) Salty
Answer: B) Acidic
24. Which of the following is a common base?
A) NaOH
B) HCl
C) H₂SO₄
D) CH₃COOH
Answer: A) NaOH
25. Common salt is chemically known as:
A) Sodium carbonate
B) Sodium chloride
C) Potassium chloride
D) Calcium chloride
Answer: B) Sodium chloride
Energy Resources
26. Which of the following is a renewable energy source?
A) Coal
B) Petroleum
C) Solar energy
D) Natural gas
Answer: C) Solar energy
27. The main fuel used in nuclear reactors is:
A) Uranium-235
B) Coal
C) Diesel
D) Methane
Answer: A) Uranium-235
28. Bhakra Nangal Dam is associated with:
A) Hydel power
B) Thermal power
C) Nuclear power
D) Solar power
Answer: A) Hydel power
Communication & Space Technology
29. A geostationary satellite completes one revolution in:
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours
Answer: B) 24 hours
30. INSAT is primarily used for:
A) Education
B) Weather forecasting
C) Telecommunication
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
31. The principle of optical fibre communication is based on:
A) Diffraction
B) Total internal reflection
C) Refraction
D) Interference
Answer: B) Total internal reflection
Computer Basics
32. The brain of the computer is:
A) RAM
B) CPU
C) Hard disk
D) Monitor
Answer: B) CPU
33. The binary number system uses base:
A) 2
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16
Answer: A) 2
34. Which of the following is system software?
A) MS Word
B) Windows
C) Photoshop
D) PowerPoint
Answer: B) Windows
35. The process of stealing personal information via fake websites is called:
A) Phishing
B) Hacking
C) Spamming
D) Cracking
Answer: A) Phishing
Scientific Instruments
36. Instrument to measure blood pressure:
A) Hygrometer
B) Sphygmomanometer
C) Anemometer
D) Calorimeter
Answer: B) Sphygmomanometer
37. Instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure:
A) Barometer
B) Hygrometer
C) Manometer
D) Pyrometer
Answer: A) Barometer
38. Instrument to measure earthquake intensity:
A) Seismograph
B) Thermograph
C) Altimeter
D) Lactometer
Answer: A) Seismograph
39. Instrument to measure relative humidity:
A) Barometer
B) Hygrometer
C) Hydrometer
D) Anemometer
Answer: B) Hygrometer
40. Instrument to measure wind speed:
A) Anemometer
B) Lactometer
C) Hydrometer
D) Altimeter
Answer: A) Anemometer
Mixed General Science
41. The largest planet in the Solar System is:
A) Earth
B) Saturn
C) Jupiter
D) Neptune
Answer: C) Jupiter
42. The gas responsible for the greenhouse effect is:
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Helium
Answer: C) Carbon dioxide
43. The most abundant element in the Earth’s crust is:
A) Silicon
B) Oxygen
C) Aluminium
D) Iron
Answer: B) Oxygen
44. The scientist who discovered penicillin was:
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Alexander Fleming
C) Robert Koch
D) Marie Curie
Answer: B) Alexander Fleming
45. The first Indian satellite was:
A) INSAT-1A
B) Aryabhata
C) Bhaskara-I
D) Rohini
Answer: B) Aryabhata
46. The unit of electric current is:
A) Volt
B) Ampere
C) Ohm
D) Watt
Answer: B) Ampere
47. Which gas is filled in electric bulbs?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Argon
D) Helium
Answer: C) Argon
48. The device used to measure the intensity of light is:
A) Lux meter
B) Colorimeter
C) Photometer
D) All of these
Answer: A) Lux meter
49. The hardest natural substance on Earth is:
A) Diamond
B) Quartz
C) Graphite
D) Corundum
Answer: A) Diamond
50. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?
A) Mercury
B) Sodium
C) Aluminium
D) Lead
Answer: A) Mercury
