QUESTION BANK

POSTGRADUATE ADMISSION EXAMINATION

UNIVERSITY OF ANTIOQUIA

1. It is true about exanthematous diseases:

A. Rubella is characterized by high fever (39.5°C), lymphadenopathy and
exanthem
B. Roseola presents with low fever and rash
C. The rash of Rubella is scaly.
D. Roseola is characterized by high fever that subsides with the onset.
of the Rash

2. It is true, from the infant formulas:

A. Infant formulas have managed to match the characteristics of
digestibility of breast milk
B. The formula for newborns provides 24 kcal per ounce
C. The continuation formulas are formulas for those over 6
months, when they do not consume breast milk
D. The 'anti-reflux' formulas are indicated from the first month of
life, if the newborn starts showing symptoms of regurgitation and vomiting.

3. Male patient, 40 years old, who consults for asthenia.

weakness and petechiae in limbs. Normal physical examination without
splenomegaly, and with laboratories showing mild anemia,
mild thrombocytopenia and mild neutropenia. Anemia is
normocytic, normochromic, the Bisulfite test is (-). The
the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Aplastic Anemia
B. Burkitt Lymphoma
C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
D. Sickle Cell Anemia

4. Carlos is a 5-year-old boy who was vaccinated with

BCG when born, and now is in contact with a patient with active TB,
without treatment. The child is asymptomatic, has a normal chest X-ray and
He has a tuberculin test of 12 mm. The diagnosis is:
A. Latent TB
B. TBC active
C. Progressive TBC
D. The tuberculin test is a false positive
8-year-old school student, with a condition lasting 2 days
consistent with high fever, associated with throat pain, limited cough,
who is found to have pharynx and tonsils during the physical exam
hyperemic, without the presence of exudates, with lymphadenopathy
right submandibular. This condition happens to him frequently. The
the most appropriate management is:
A. Given that it is a viral pharyngotonsillitis, it should only receive
symptomatic treatment
B. Requires a dose of Benzathine Penicillin
C. Requires a culture of the tonsils and pharynx to rule out the
presence of Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
A throat swab for Group Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
A dismisses the presence of this.

6. One of the following is part of late congenital syphilis:

A. Regadies
B. White Pneumonia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Aseptic Meningitis

7. 3-year-old child, who after a viral infection

short, mild, presents generalized edema, marked albuminuria
hypoalbuminemia and hyperlipidemia. Other previous episodes have
given with the use of corticosteroids. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Membranous Glomerulonephritis
B. Focal and Segmental Glomerulonephritis
C. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis
D. Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

8. The most suitable treatment for Bell's palsy is:

A. Eye Protection and Monitoring
B. Thiamine oral and IV
C. Facial mimicry and electrical stimulation
D. Chew gum as much as possible

9. It is false about Meckel's diverticulum

A. It can have 2 or more mucous membranes.
B. It is the most common false diverticulum in adults.
It originates from the lack of obliteration of the ileo-vitelline wall.
It occurs in 2% of the general population.

10. The treatment indicated in Autoimmune Thyroiditis (or

of Hashimoto), is:
A. Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
 B. Total Thyroidectomy
C. Administration of Thyroid Hormone
D. Corticosteroids

11. Of the following, which does not have an etiological relationship with cancer?
Gastric
A. Pernicious Anemia
B. Atrophic Gastritis
C. Gastric Surgery for Benign Disease
D. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

12. It is not the cause of Biliary Colic:

A. Hepatocarcinoma
B. Cholelithiasis
C. Hemobilia
D. Dyskinesia of the Oddi Sphincter

13. Patient with inferior myocardial infarction with A-V block

complete, with heart rate <40 bpm and QRS 120 msec, what is the treatment?
of choice?
A. Atropine IV
B. Transient transvenous pacemaker
C. Aminophylline IV

14. The physiological position for immobilizing the hand is:

A. Neutral position doll, MF in flexion, IF in extension and
thumb in abduction and opposition
B. Doll in flexion, MF in extension, IF in flexion and thumb in
abduction and opposition
C. Wrist in flexion, MF in flexion, IF in extension and thumb in
abduction and opposition
D. Wrist in extension, MF in flexion, IF in extension and thumb in
abduction and opposition

15. Patient with wound from a stabbing weapon in the middle third
of the right arm, who has a limitation for flexion of
1st, 2nd, and 3rd fingers, which nerve(s) are compromised?
A. N. Medium and Radial
B. N. Cubital and Median
C. N. Radial
D. N. Mediano

16. 35-year-old woman, who consults for pain and paresthesias in

hands of two years of evolution, who expresses
 intensification of symptoms 3 months ago. The
EMG confirms moderate CTS. The management is more
appropriate is:
A. Tunnel infiltration with corticosteroids
B. Surgery for carpal tunnel decompression
C. Observation for 2 months
D. Repeat electromyography test

17. They are prognostic factors in Perthes disease.

except
A. Age
B. Degree of Necrosis of the Femoral Epiphysis
C. Decrease of Joint Space
D. Alteration of Femoral Epiphysis Column

18. Woman, 25 years old, who is consulting for pain on the outer side of
knees, which is accentuated when getting up, climbing stairs, and being
more than 2 hours sitting. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Patellofemoral Syndrome
B. Incipient osteoarthritis
C. Oligoarticular rheumatoid arthritis
D. Discoid meniscus

19. Patient who, after rotational trauma to the knee, presents

joint edema – hemarthrosis, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Lateral Meniscus Tear with Bucket Handle
B. Anterior Cruciate Ligament Tear

20. Male patient, 13 years old, who presents with pain.

and prominence on the anterior face of the knee, which worsens with
exercise and the forced extension, it is most likely a matter of

A. Osteochondritis
B. Osteochondrosis of the anterior tibial plateau

21. The cause of perforating plantar ulcer is:

A. Vasculitis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Peripheral Venous Disease

22. The most common benign tumor of the middle ear is:
A. Ceruminoma
B. Cholesteatoma
C. Neurinoma
23. If a patient does not perceive the sweet taste on the tip of the tongue.
tongue, has lesion of:
A. Facial nerve
B. Maxillary branch of the Trigeminal
Hypoglossal Nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal Nerve

24. The most important part in the management of Allergic Rhinitis

A. Corticosteroids
B. Antihistamines
C. Hyposensitization
D. Environmental Management

25. The most common germs in Otitis Externa are:

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae and E. coli
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus and E. coli

26. The pharyngeal tonsils begin their involution:

A. After 6 years
B. After 8 years
C. In adolescence
D. After 4 years

27. If a child presents with leukocoria, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Congenital cataract
B. Retinal Detachment
C. Uveitis
D. Retinoblastoma

28. Arterial Gases are taken with the following report: PaO2
45, PaCO2 75, pH 7.2, D A-A O2 10, Bicarbonate 28, the
the most appropriate treatment would be:
A. IV Bicarbonate
B. Oxygen by Ventura at 50%
C. Mechanical Ventilation
D. Aminophylline IV

29. If an adult patient consults for a condition lasting several days

of evolution of testicular pain associated with dysuria, the most common diagnosis
it is probable:
 A. Orchi-epididymitis
B. Testicular torsion
C. Torsion of Hydatids
Testicular Cancer

30. The most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in adults

A. Membranous Nephritis
B. Focal and Segmental Glomerulonephritis
C. Minimal Change Disease

31. 25-year-old student, who says that others know it

what he thinks and what they send him electric charges, with orientation
normal, suffers from:
A. Obsession
B. Dissociative Disorder
C. Paranoid schizophrenia

32. The problem with Panic Disorder is:

A. They think they are being chased.
They have an intense fear of dying

33. It is not a pathophysiological characteristic of Depression:

A. Decreased action of acetylcholine
B. Increase of Serotonergic Production
C. Alteration of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis

34. The drug of choice for type II leprosy is:

A. Dapsona
B. Thalidomide
C. Clofazidime

35. The incubation period of syphilis is:

A. < 5 days
B. 5-10 days
C. 3 weeks
D. 3 months

36. It is not a diagnostic criterion for SLE:

A. Malar erythema
B. Raynaud's Syndrome
C. Anticardiolipin antibodies
D. Proteinuria >500 mg/24h
37. It is false about Pemphigus:
A. Requires high doses of corticosteroids
B. Foliaceus pemphigus does not affect oral mucosa
C. Nikolsky's sign (+)
D. It occurs due to deposits in the inner dermis

38. Anticoagulation is not indicated in:

A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Infectious Endocarditis
C. Deep Venous Thrombosis
D. Severe dilated cardiomyopathy

39. 34-year-old woman, in gestation of 41 weeks, in

second stage of labor, with only abnormality, fetus with
presentation of the face, mento-posterior variety, the treatment

A. Cesarean
B. Kristeller maneuver
C. Forceps

40. There is dynamic dystocia in nulliparous women in the active phase of labor.
labor, when:
A. There is suture overlap
B. There is molding of the fetal head
C. Goes from 8 to 10 of dilation in 3 hours
D. Has contractions with a frequency of 2 in 10 minutes, of 20
seconds of duration and low intensity

41. 16-year-old girl, with delayed puberty and absence of

secondary sexual characteristics, with a bone age of 12 years, height
1.44 m and indeterminate FSH, the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Kallmann syndrome
B. Functional Hypothalamic Dysfunction

42. Woman with 39 weeks of gestation, who consults for

fever and vaginal discharge, has a physical examination temperature of 38.5°C
maternal tachycardia and discharge of foul yellowish liquid, cervix
with a dilation of 2 cm, erased and with station -1, without
decelerations, the proper management is:
A. Antibiotic
B. Induction, hydration, and antibiotic
C. Antibiotic, hydration and emergency cesarean
43. The antidote of choice for scopolamine poisoning,
with supraventricular tachycardia, it is:
A. Physostigmine
B. Amiodarone

44. The treatment of choice for poisoning by

ecstasy-type amphetamines are:
A. Physostigmine
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Phenothiazines
D. Naloxone

45. 54-year-old woman who is consulting for frequent bleeding

5 months ago. In menopause for 4 years, without therapy.
hormonal supplementation, has uterine fibroid and endometrium of 7 mm,
the most appropriate treatment is:
A. Administration of estrogens
B. Curettage-biopsy

46. 32-year-old woman G0P0A0, with cycles 120/10, manifests

frequent moderate bleeding, associated with mucosal paleness
cutaneous, and is found on physical examination: Weight: 80 kg HR:
106 x', pale mucous membranes, the most appropriate treatment is:
A. Curettage
B. Estrogens IV
C. Pharmacological curettage with Provera

47. It is not part of the membranous labyrinth.

A. Modiolo
B. Utricle
C. Semicircular canals
D. Sáculo

48. It's true, in Family Planning:

A. The mini-pill (0.03 mg progesterone) is suitable for the
control of the regularity of the cycle
B. The injection can be used during breastfeeding.
C. Depo-Provera can be used in endometrial hyperplasia.

49. If the intestinal loops do not return to the abdominal cavity

before week 12, it originates:
A. Omphalocele
B. Gastroschisis
C. Meckel's diverticulum
50. Patient who consults for abdominal pain and a mass that does not
reduction in the right inguinal region, has a history of
inguinal hernia repair 5 years ago, with appearance of mass in
this region four years ago, the appropriate management is:
A. Antibiotic and Urgent Surgery
B. Analgesia, sedation, hospitalization and surgery within 48 hours
C. Analgesia and Deferred Surgery
D. Relaxation and reduction

51. From Infantile Cerebral Palsy, it is true:

A. Everyone has intellectual disability
B. Muscle relaxants are contraindicated in the form
spastic
A brother has a high risk of suffering from cerebral palsy
D. Most have strabismus

52. For the diagnosis of PE, the following is required:

A. Chest X-ray with interstitial infiltrates and pulmonary gammagraphy with

alteration in perfusion with adequate ventilation

53. Anemia in Rheumatoid Arthritis:

A. It is megaloblastic
B. Improvement with iron intake
C. It is immuno-hemolytic
D. It has altered iron release to the reticulo-
endothelial

54. Which of the following is not a risk factor for

open-angle glaucoma?
A. Black Raza
age
C. Hyperopia
D. Genetics

55. In which poisoning should the urine be acidified?

A. Phenobarbital
B. Acetaminophen

56. They are causes of exudates, except for

A. Pulmonary Infarction
B. Tuberculosis
C. Nephrotic Syndrome
57. Ketamine is contraindicated in:
A. Pregnancy
B. Full stomach
C. Intracranial hypertension
D. Asma

58. The rheumatoid factor at high titers, in the patient

asymptomatic, indicates:
A. Dx of Rheumatoid Arthritis
B. It is common in ankylosing spondylitis.
C. It is a worthless finding
D. Indicates that it may develop rheumatoid arthritis

59. About Gota, it is false

A. Crises are caused by crystals
B. Uric acid during the crises is greater than 10
C. It can be associated with Septic Arthritis.
D. Tophi appear in pressure sites, tendons, and viscera.

60. 4-year-old child with recurrent UTI with positive urinalysis

Who is given an ultrasound that shows hydronephrosis, what is the
next step in the diagnosis
A. TAC
B. Gamagraphy
C. Micturition cystography
D. Cystoscopy

Which of the following statements is true:

. The syphilitic chancre is painful.
. Soft chancre is usually singular.
. Chancroid is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
. The diagnosis of hard chancre is made using dark field microscopy.

2. 50-year-old patient, who is found to have an antigen.

prostate-specific antigen at 5 mg/dl during a check-up, is asymptomatic and upon
rectal examination reveals grade I prostate, adenomatous to
palpation. The appropriate course of action is:
. Take Prostatic Ultrasound
. Take the free fraction of prostate-specific Ag
. Nothing, as it is within the normal range.

3. Female patient, 44 years old, who is found

right cervical adenopathy, with normal thyroid on palpation,
 Thyroid tests and normal chest X-ray. If BACAF is taken, the most likely diagnosis is
it would be probable:
. Thyroid papillary cancer
. Thyroid follicular cancer
. Thyroid anaplastic carcinoma
. Thyroid medullary carcinoma.

4. The immune reaction involved in allergic urticaria is:

. Type III
. Type I
. Type IV
. Type II

5. The pyogenic granuloma is:

. A fungal infection
. A bacterial infection
. A vascular extension
. A foreign body that becomes superinfected

6. A 12-year-old male patient who consults for

unilateral limp, knee pain for 3 months of evolution. To
physical examination there is pain upon hip movement, there is no pain
the knee examination. The most likely diagnosis is:
. Perthes disease
. Epiphyseal slippage of the femoral head
. Hip Dysplasia
. Knee Osteoarthritis

7. A patient in tonic-clonic status is at risk of dying due to

the following, except:
. Hyperthermia
. Dehydration
. Arrhythmias
. Transforaminal herniation

8. Ketamine is contraindicated in:

. Schizophrenia
. Hypotension
. Asma
. Diabetes

9. 40-year-old woman with lumbosacral pain of 1 month duration

that does not improve with rest and NSAIDs. Upon physical examination, it is
 find ipsilateral Aquilian areflexia. The appropriate behavior
es:
. Refer to the physiatrist
. Perform EMG
. Perform Column Scanning
. Give stronger NSAIDs

10. 52-year-old female patient who reports absence

menstruation for two years, consulting about waves of
heat, which interrupts his sleep. About the treatment is
true
. TSH is indicated to reduce the risk of osteoporosis
. TSH reduces cardiovascular risk
. TSH is the only option for the treatment of this patient.
. TSH should be given at the lowest dose and for the shortest time.
possible

11. The 17 B-hydroxy-progesterone is requested in case of suspicion

from androgenic ovary for:
. Diagnosis of pituitary tumor
. Diagnosis of adrenal hyperplasia
. Polycystic Ovary Diagnosis

12. Patient with 36 weeks of pregnancy, who consults to

emergencies due to clear fluid discharge from genitals. She has an examination.
normal physical exam with FCF 140 x' and evident amniotic fluid. What is the
correct behavior?
. Induction with oxytocin
. Start antibiotics
. Pulmonary maturation with Betamethasone IM
. Expectant management until week 37

13. Which of the following is not used as a chelator or

phosphorus binding in IRC
. of Football
. Magnesium Sulfate
. Calcium Carbonate
. Aluminum Hydroxide

14. What would be the treatment of choice for a patient with grade heart failure?
C, who is consulting for edema.
. Digoxin and diuretic
. ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker
. ACE inhibitor and diuretic
 . ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, spironolactone and diuretic

15. 70-year-old patient who goes into cardiac arrest, is connected to the
cardio and Ventricular Fibrillation is present, the correct action
es:
. Perform while connecting the defibrillator at 150 joules
. Intubate, cannulate vein and start LEV
. Perform CPR while connecting the defibrillator and defibrillating
200, 300 and 360 joules
. Set the defibrillator to synchronous mode and cardiovert at 50.
joules

16. Male patient who had AIT Lipids CT, HDL LDL. The
the course of action to follow is:

. Lifestyle modifications must be initiated

only
. There is no need to undertake hypolipidemic treatment because the figures
they are in the goals
. Start fibrate
. Start statin

17. 54-year-old female patient who has

average of 3 blood pressure measurements at 150/110 over 2 days, The treatment

appropriate is:

18. 4-year-old child with sudden intense cough

19. The tracheobronchial foreign body is considered a
urgency, in pediatric surgery
20. POP Partial gastrectomy Which would not be a cause of SatO2
in 85
21. Trauma 2 years ago with T12 level, with ascent
Syringomyelia
22. Lumbo-sciatic pain with limitation for dorsiflexion of
thick joint
23. 2-year-old girl with UTI
24. The treatment of TB Meningoencephalitis in children includes, except
25. Bitemporal hemianopsia
26. Intense headache with loss of consciousness and
left hemiparesis
27. 40 years old G7P Monochorionic biamniotic twin gestation
28. Patient planning 1.60 with 85 kg with increased hair growth
29. Type 2 diabetes again, BMI 30 Fasting blood glucose
30. It is not an indication of fresh frozen plasma.
31. Which coagulation factor is missing in fresh plasma?
frozen
32. Diagnosis of gastric metaplasia
33. Trauma to the hand with pain upon palpation in the anatomical snuffbox
34. Mass on the anterior surface of the tibia, non-painful
35. 10 years febrile Retropharyngeal abscess
36. Cause of multiple bruises
37. Pain in the spine, paresthesia, and urinary retention
38. It is not an indication for the use of antidepressants.
39. Post-pancreatitis collection
40. Regarding prolonged EDA, it is false. The presentation is more.
factors of extraluminal amebiasis
41. ECV with pure sensitive component
42. Elderly man with pain in the left iliac fossa. Diverticular disease.
43. It is not a cause of lower intestinal obstruction. Diverticula.
44. Ulcer of arteriosclerotic origin
45. Tto in Internal Saphenous Varicose Veins
46. Thyroid nodule
47. Wound with epiplocele
48. Pelvic pain radiating to thigh with Creat 2.8. The
the indicated dx method is
49. Suspicious breast nodule
50. Anterior shoulder dislocation
51. Anterior elbow dislocation
52. Vaccines that are not in the PAI
53. Page: What the regulation provides for the transmission
vertical
54. Malaria and Quinine
55. Phimosis
56. Bimaleolar Luxofracture
57. 8-year-old boy who experienced trauma to the thigh and who
Osteomyelitis
58. Elderly person with a 15-day history of changes.
behavioral and hemiparesis and history of TBI 13 years ago
months