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PTS 2026 - Test Code: 311212 - : General Studies Paper - 1

The document is a test booklet for the PTS 2026 General Studies examination, containing instructions and sample questions. It outlines the examination format, including the number of questions, marking scheme, and penalties for incorrect answers. Candidates are instructed to fill out their answer sheets carefully and are provided with contact information for the Forum Learning Centre.

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35 views79 pages

PTS 2026 - Test Code: 311212 - : General Studies Paper - 1

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Vishnu Jha

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PTS 2026 | Test Code : 311212 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS26 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BBOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE
ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without
any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR
Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet
liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only
the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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Page 1 of 18
PTS 2026 | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.1) Which of the following are considered Q.4) A boat is sailing through the Bab-el-Mandeb
evidence supporting the Big Bang Theory of the Strait at night. The navigator uses Polaris (the
origin of the universe? Pole Star) to guide his direction. If the
1. Redshift of distant galaxies. destination is the Kerala coast of India, in which
2. Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation. direction should the boat generally sail?
3. Detection of quasars. a) Towards Polaris
4. Primordial abundance of hydrogen and b) In opposite direction from Polaris
helium. c) Keeping Polaris to the left
5. Steady State Theory. d) Keeping Polaris to the right
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Q.5) Consider the following statements
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only regarding the regulation of interest rates
b) 2 and 4 only charged by banks in India:
c) 1, 3 and 5 only 1. As per Banking Regulation Act, 1949, courts in
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 India can not question the interest rates
charged by the banks from its debtors, if
Q.2) With reference to Dark Matter in the such rates are in accordance with RBI's
universe, consider the following statements: directives.
1. It accounts for approximately half of all 2. As per the recent RBI guidelines, there is a
matter-energy composition in the universe. cap of 30 percent per annum on the interest
2. It does not interact with electromagnetic rate that a bank can charge on credit cards in
radiation. India.
3. It is evenly distributed throughout the Which of the statements given above is/are
universe. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only
correct? b) 2 only
a) 1 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.6) With reference to the difference between
inner and outer planets in the solar system,
Q.3) Consider the following stages in the life consider the following statements:
cycle of a star: 1. The inner planets rotate on their axis slower
1. Planetary Nebula than the outer planets.
2. Protostar 2. The inner planets are smaller and denser
3. T Tauri Star than the outer planets.
4. Red Giant 3. The inner planets have higher surface gravity
Which of the following is the correct than the outer planets.
chronological sequence in which above given Which of the statements given above are
stages occur during the life cycle of a star? correct?
a) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 c) 1 and 2 only
d) 4 - 3 - 1 - 2 d) 1 and 3 only

Q.7) Consider the following statements 2. Daudhan Dam, which is being constructed as
regarding the planets in our solar system: a part of this project, is expected to
1. Venus and Uranus are the only planets that submerge parts of Panna Tiger reserve.
rotate in a clockwise (retrograde) direction. 3. Both the Ken and Betwa rivers are tributaries
2. Uranus takes the maximum time to complete of the Yamuna River.
one revolution around the Sun. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Earth is the densest planet in the solar correct?
system. a) 2 only
4. Mercury and Venus are the only planets b) 2 and 3 only
without any moons. c) 1 and 3 only
How many of the statements given above are d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
a) Only one Q.11) In the context of astronomical techniques,
b) Only two the “parallax method” is primarily used to:
c) Only three a) Determine the size and scale of extremely
d) All four distant galaxies by analyzing their angular
diameters from Earth-based observations.
Q.8) Which one of the following planets is b) Estimate the mass of planets in the Solar
System by observing their gravitational
described by the statements given below?
influence on surrounding celestial bodies.
1. It has a thick atmosphere rich in carbon
c) Identify the elemental composition of stars
dioxide.
through the study of absorption lines in their
2. It is the hottest planet in the Solar System.
electromagnetic spectra.
3. It is the brightest planet as seen from Earth.
d) Measure the distances to relatively nearby
Select the correct answer from the options
stars based on the apparent shift in their
given below:
position against Earth’s orbital movement.
a) Mars
b) Mercury
Q.12) Consider the following pairs:
c) Venus
Discontinuity in Description
d) Jupiter
Earth’s interior
1. Conrad Separates the upper
Q.9) With reference to the solar system,
discontinuity crust and lower crust
consider the following statements regarding the
of Earth
Kuiper belt:
2. Mohorovičić Separates the crust
1. The Kuiper Belt is a region of the solar
discontinuity and the mantle of
system located beyond the orbit of Neptune.
Earth
2. It is a major source of short-period comets,
3. Repetti Separates the mantle
asteroids, and other icy bodies.
discontinuity and the outer core of
3. Dwarf planets like Haumea and Makemake
Earth
are located in the Kuiper Belt.
4. Gutenberg Separates the upper
Which of the statements given above are
discontinuity mantle and lower
correct?
mantle of Earth
a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above given pairs are correctly
b) 2 and 3 only
matched?
c) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.10) Consider the following statements d) All four
regarding the Ken-Betwa Link Project:
1. The project aims to transfer water from the
Betwa River to the Ken River to address
water scarcity in the Bundelkhand region.

Q.13) With reference to the Earth’s crust, Which of the statements given above are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. The Earth’s crust constitutes about 13% of a) 1 and 2 only
the total volume of the Earth. b) 2 and 3 only
2. Oxygen is the most abundant element in the c) 1 and 3 only
Earth’s crust. d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Carbon constitutes nearly 3% of the Earth’s
crust in the form of minerals. Q.17) Which of the following statements best
Which of the statements given above is/are describes the Earth’s bow shock?
correct? a) The region where the Earth's magnetic field
a) 1 and 2 only meets the ocean currents
b) 2 only b) The area where the solar wind encounters
c) 3 only Earth’s magnetic field
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) The zone where tectonic plates collide deep
inside the Earth
Q.14) With reference to the core of the Earth, d) The boundary between the troposphere and
consider the following statements: the stratosphere
1. The outer core is in a liquid state, while the
inner core is solid. Q.18) Consider the following characteristics of a
2. Convection currents and the Coriolis effect geological formation:
in the outer core generate the Earth’s 1. It is a large, saucer-shaped igneous intrusion
magnetic field. that is concave upwards.
3. The inner core rotates at exactly the same 2. It usually forms when magma intrudes
speed as the Earth’s surface. between horizontal sedimentary layers and
Which of the statements given above are then subsides in the center under its own
correct? weight.
a) 1, 2 and 3 3. It is commonly composed of mafic rocks such
b) 2 and 3 only as gabbro or basalt.
c) 1 and 3 only The above given characteristics best describe
d) 1 and 2 only which of the following geological features?
a) Batholith
Q.15) In the context of fighter jets, which of the b) Laccolith
following best describes the term "generation" of c) Lopolith
an aircraft? d) Phacolith
a) The size and weight of the aircraft
b) The year of manufacture of the aircraft Q.19) “Diastrophism is a process of reshaping the
c) The level of technological advancements and Earth's surface”. In this context, which of the
capabilities of the aircraft following are examples of Diastrophism?
d) The quality of the fuel used in the aircraft 1. Earthquakes
2. Tectonic plate movements
Q.16) With reference to P-waves (primary waves) 3. Orogenic processes
in earthquakes, consider the following 4. Epeirogenic processes
statements: 5. Volcanic eruptions
1. P-waves are longitudinal waves that travel by Select the correct answer using the code given
compressing and expanding material. below:
2. These waves are the first to arrive at the a) 1 and 5 only
surface among all earthquake waves. b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. These waves travel with the same speed in all c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
types of mediums. d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.20) Which of the following monetary policy Q.24) According to Alfred Wegener's theory of
tools is most effective for the Reserve Bank of continental drift, which of the following were
India (RBI) to control inflation? proposed as forces responsible for the drifting
a) Reducing the Repo Rate of continents?
b) Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) 1. Tidal currents generated by the moon
c) Reducing the Reverse Repo Rate 2. Earth’s gravity acting on continental masses
d) Increasing the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 3. Centrifugal force caused by the Earth's
rotation
Q.21) Consider the following statements 4. Magnetic force from the Earth's core
regarding acidic and basic lava: 5. Convection currents in Earth’s mantle
1. Acidic lava has higher silica content Select the correct answer using the codes given
compared to basic lava, making it more below:
viscous. a) 1 and 3 only
2. Acidic lava eruptions are generally more b) 1, 2 and 4 only
explosive than those of basic lava. c) 2, 3 and 5 only
Which of the statements given above is/are d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
correct?
a) 1 only Q.25) Which one of the following best describes
b) 2 only the term ‘Kessler Syndrome’, sometimes seen in
c) Both 1 and 2 news?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Short-lived bursts of high energy caused by
the death of a massive star.
Q.22) Consider the following statements: b) Apparent shift in the position of celestial
Statement-I: The carbonation process speeds bodies due to the combined effect of the
up with a decrease in temperature. Earth's motion and the speed of light.
Statement-II: Colder water holds more c) Ocular and brain structural changes that
dissolved carbon dioxide gas. occur to astronauts due to spaceflight.
Which one of the following is correct in respect d) Phenomenon of space debris causing a chain
of the above statements? reaction in space, making the use of space for
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are humans nearly impossible.
correct, and Statement II explains
Statement I Q.26) Which of the following are the evidence of
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are the phenomenon of “Continental Drift theory “?
correct, but Statement II does not explain 1. Similar fossils of plants and animals have
Statement I been found on continents now separated by
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is vast oceans.
incorrect 2. The shorelines of Africa and South America
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is facing each other have a remarkable match.
correct 3. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast
matches with those from Western Africa.
Q.23) When rock minerals take up water, the 4. The presence of similar climate patterns on
increased volume creates physical stresses all continents today.
within the rock, leading to its disintegration. 5. Evidence of glacial deposits found in
This process is known as- present-day tropical regions of Africa, India,
a) Hydrolysis and South America.
b) Solution Weathering Which of the statements given are correct ?
c) Oxidation a) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) Hydration b) 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

Q.27) Consider the following statements about a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
the Sea Floor Spreading : correct and Statement II explains
1. Sea floor spreading contributes to the Statement I.
destruction of oceanic crust at divergent b) Both Statement -Iand Statement II are
plate boundaries. correct but Statement II does not explain
2. Magnetic stripes on the ocean floor are Statement I.
symmetrical on both sides of mid-ocean c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
ridges due to periodic reversals of Earth’s incorrect.
magnetic field. d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct.
correct ?
a) 1 only Q.30) Which among the following set of
b) 2 only countries share borders with Syria?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Jordon, Turkey, Saudi Arabia, Israel
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Turkey, Lebanon, Iraq, Israel
c) Israel, Armenia, Turkey, Iraq
Q.28) With reference to Minor plates Earth's d) Saudi Arabia, Lebanon, Jordon, Kuwait
Lithosphere and their location,consider the
following Q.31) Consider the following landforms :
pairs: 1. Volcanoes
2. Oceanic Trenches
Minor Plate Location
3. Fold Mountains
1. Nazca Plate Between South American 4. Island arcs
plate And Pacific plate 5. Rift valley
How many of above mentioned landforms are
2. Cocos plate North -East of Australia generally found at Continent-Ocean (C-O)
Convergence?
3. Fuji Plate Between Central America a) Only two
and the Pacific plate. b) Only three
c) Only four
4. Philippine Plate Between Asiatic and d) All five
Pacific plate

How many of the pairs given above are correctly Q.32) Which of the following are the depositional
matched? desert landforms?
a) Only one 1. Sand Dunes
b) Only two 2. Loess
c) Only three 3. Barchans
d) All four 4. Hoodoos
5. Mesas
Q.29) With reference to the movement of Select the correct answer from the code given
tectonic plates, consider the following below:
statements : a) 1 and 2 only
Statement -I: No earthquakes occur along the b) 1, 2 and 3 only
transform plate boundaries. c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Statement-II: At transform plate boundaries d) 3, 4 and 5 only
there is no creation or destruction of landform.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements ?

Q.33) With reference to glacial landforms, d) Neither 1 nor 2

consider the following pairs:
Landform Feature Q.36) Consider the following mountain ranges:
1. Arête Hollow basin cut into a 1. Sierra Nevada Mountains
mountain ridge with a 2. Andes Mountains
flat bottom and steep 3. Appalachian Mountains
sides 4. Ural Mountains
2. Cirque/Corrie Steep-sided, sharp- 5. Vosges Mountains
tipped summit with the How many of the above are examples of fold
glacial activity cutting mountains?
into it from two sides a) Only two
3. Drumlin Inverted boat-shaped b) Only three
deposition in a till plain c) Only four
4. Kettle Holes Basins formed due to d) All five
local depression of till
plain material Q.37) Consider the following lakes:
How many of the pairs given above are correctly 1. Lake Baikal
matched? 2. Lake Tanganyika
a) Only one 3. Lake Superior
b) Only two What is the common feature among the above
c) Only three given lakes?
d) All four a) All are freshwater rift valley lakes.
b) All are glacial lakes formed during the Ice
Q.34) In geological terminology, what does the Age.
term “suture zone” refer to? c) All are crater lakes formed by volcanic
a) A linear rift where new oceanic crust forms activity.
between diverging plates d) All are saltwater lakes with no outlet.
b) A deep fold valley formed due to erosion
between mountain chains Q.38) Consider the following statements with
c) A collision boundary where distinct tectonic reference to geothermal features of Hot Springs
plates have welded together and Geysers:
d) A depression formed by the subsidence of I. Hot springs usually emerge onto the Earth's
sediments between adjacent sedimentary surface without violent eruption as heated
basins groundwater while geysers erupt periodically
and forcefully due to the buildup of pressure
Q.35) Consider the following statements in underground chambers.
regarding the legal framework related to the II. Geysers are more commonly found in
offence of bribery in India: tectonically active zones with high volcanic
1. In India, the mere act of offering a bribe is activity, whereas hot springs have a wider
punishable, even if the bribe is not accepted. global distribution.
2. There is a minimum ten years punishment, Which of the statements given above is/are
prescribed for individuals who abet offenses correct?:
related to bribery in India. a) I only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) II only
correct? c) Both I and II
a) 1 only d) Neither I nor II
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2

Q.39) Consider the following rocks: c) I and III only

I. Granite d) I, II and III
II. Slate
III. Basalt Q.42) With reference to the stages of a river
IV. Marble system development, consider the following
V. Sandstone landforms:
How many of the above are examples of 1. Gorge
Metamorphic rocks? 2. Meander
a) Only one 3. Floodplain
b) Only two 4. Delta
c) Only three 5. Levee
d) Only four How many of the above landforms are formed
during the mature or old stage of a river?
Q.40) Consider the following statements a) Only two
regarding Norovirus: b) Only three
1. It is a highly contagious virus that causes c) Only four
gastroenteritis. d) All five
2. Alcohol based hand sanitizers are considered
the most effective preventive measure Q.43) With reference to the formation of Karst
against Norovirus infection. topography, consider the following conditions:
3. Currently, there is no vaccine available 1. Heavy rainfall
against Norovirus. 2. Absence of surface Drainage
Which of the statements given above are 3. Presence of impermeable rocks
correct? 4. Well-developed joints and cracks in the rocks
a) 1 and 2 only 5. Presence of soluble rocks like limestone
b) 1 and 3 only How many of the above conditions are
c) 2 and 3 only favourable for the development of Karst
d) 1, 2 and 3 topography?
a) Only two
Q.41) Consider the following statements b) Only three
regarding the sedimentary rocks: c) Only four
I. Sedimentary rocks form by lithification d) All five
through compaction and cementation of
sediments like sandstone, shale, and Q.44) Which of the following best describes
conglomerate. "playas" in the context of desert landforms?
II. Fossils are found in sedimentary rocks a) Elevated tablelands formed by wind erosion
because they form in depositional b) Crescent-shaped sand dunes formed by wind
environments such as lakes, oceans, and action
rivers. c) Shallow, temporary lakes found in desert
III. Features like stratification and cross-bedding basins that often leave behind salt deposits
in sedimentary rocks reveal past depositional d) Underground aquifers found in arid region
environments and paleocurrents.
Which of the above given statements are
correct?
a) I and II only
b) II and III only

Q.45) Consider the following statements about Which one of the following is correct in respect
Nafithromycin: of the above statements?
1. It is India’s first indigenous anti-biotic that a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
targets drug-resistant bacteria. correct and Statement-II explains
2. It has been developed by Serum Institute of Statement-I
India. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct, but Statement-II does not explain
incorrect? Statement-I
a) 1 only c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
b) 2 only incorrect
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct

Q.46) With reference to recent volcanic activity Q.49) Consider the following statements
reported in the news, consider the following regarding the International Date Line (IDL):
pairs: 1. The International Date Line is an imaginary
line roughly following the Greenwich
Volcano Country Meridian.
2. A traveller crossing the IDL from east to west
1. Mount Lewotobi Indonesia
gains a day, while crossing from west to east
loses a day.
2. Mount Etna Italy
3. The IDL significantly deviates from its
3. Mount Ibu Japan straight line path near the Bering Sea, Fiji,
and Tonga.
4.Kīlauea United States Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.50) Consider the following statements about
Q.47) Which of the following best describes a
the Proba 3 Mission:
fjord landform formed in Highland glaciation ?
1. It will enable scientists to observe the Sun's
a) A bowl-shaped depression formed at the
corona, a region typically obscured by the
head of a glacier
intense brightness of the Sun.
b) A ridge-like accumulation of debris deposited
2. It was launched through the Ariane 5
by a glacier
launcher from Kourou, French Guiana.
c) A steep-sided, deep U-shaped valley
3. The mission uses two satellites each powered
submerged by seawater along high-latitude
by hydrogen fuel cells.
coasts
Which of the statements given above is/are
d) A winding ridge of sand and gravel formed by
correct?
meltwater streams beneath a glacier
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
Q.48) Consider the following statements: c) 2 and 3 only
Statement - I: Earth’s gravitational force is d) 3 only
stronger at the poles and weaker at the equator.
Statement - II: Earth’s shape, is slightly
flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator.

Q.51) Consider the following statements 3. Water vapor concentration decreases rapidly
regarding the effects, if Earth stops rotating on with altitude.
its axis: Which of the statements given above are
1. The duration of the days and nights would correct?
become equal everywhere on the planet. a) 1 and 3 only
2. One side of the Earth would experience b) 1 and 2 only
continuous daylight, and the other side c) 2 and 3 only
continuous darkness. d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Seasons will not occur.
4. The Coriolis effect would disappear. Q.54) With reference to the atmosphere of the
Which of the statements given above are Earth, consider the following statements about
correct? troposphere:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere is
b) 2 and 4 only greater at the equator compared to the poles.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only Statement-II: The heat is transported to greater
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 heights at equator than poles due to strong
convectional currents at the equator.
Q.52) Consider the following statements Which one of the following is correct in respect
regarding the Winter Solstice in the Southern of the above statements?
Hemisphere: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. The Winter Solstice in the Southern correct and Statement-II explains
Hemisphere occurs in the second half of Statement-I
December, typically around the 21st or 22nd b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
December. correct, but Statement-II does not explain
2. During this time, the Southern Hemisphere Statement-I
experiences its shortest day and longest c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
night of the year. incorrect
3. On the same day, the Arctic Circle d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
experiences 24 hours of daylight, while the correct
Antarctic Circle experiences 24 hours of
darkness. Q.55) MuleHunter.ai, recently launched Artificial
Which of the statements given above are Intelligence (AI) tool to combat financial fraud, is
correct? an initiative of which of the following?
a) 1 and 3 only a) National Payments Corporation of India
b) 1 and 2 only (NPCI)
c) 2 and 3 only b) Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
d) State Bank of India (SBI)
Q.53) Consider the following statements
regarding water vapour distribution in the
atmosphere:
1. The concentration of water vapour is higher
over the polar regions than over the equator
and tropics.
2. Water vapour plays a crucial role in
absorbing insolation from the Sun.

Q.56) With reference to layers of Earth's Statement-I: Dust particles are found in higher
atmosphere, consider the following information: concentration in subtropical and temperate
Layer of Nature of Significance regions in comparison to equatorial and polar
atmosphere temperature regions.
variation Statement-II: Subtropical and temperate
1. Mesosphere Temperature Burning up of regions experience more dry winds than
increases meteors in equatorial and polar regions.
with altitude this layer Which one of the following is correct in respect
2. Strato- Temperature Protection of of the above statements?
sphere decreases Earth from a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
with altitude Sun’s correct, and Statement II is the correct
Ultraviolet explanation for Statement I
(UV) radiation b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. Thermo- Temperature Occurrence correct and Statement II is not the correct
sphere increases of aurora explanation for Statement I
with altitude borealis and c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
aurora incorrect
australis d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
In how many of the above rows is the given correct
information correctly matched?
a) Only one Q.60) Consider the following statements
b) Only two regarding Foreign Currency Non-Resident
c) All three (Banks) [FCNR(B)] deposits:
d) None 1. These are primarily term deposits held in
foreign currencies by Non-Resident Indians
Q.57) With reference to Indian climate, a local (NRIs) in Indian banks.
wind named “Loo” is formed primarily due to- 2. The interest earned on these deposits are
a) Advection exempt from income tax in India..
b) Convection Which of the statements given above are
c) Conduction correct?
d) Terrestrial Radiation a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q.58) With reference to global climate system,
d) Neither 1 nor 2
consider the following factors:
1. Latitudes
Q.61) Consider the following tree species:
2. Longitudes
3. Distance between Sun and Earth 1. Ebony
4. Presence of ocean currents 2. Mahogany
5. Circulation of air-mass 3. Sal
How many of the above given factors 4. Rosewood
significantly affect the distribution of 5. Teak
temperature at different places on the earth? How many of the above tree species are
a) Only two primarily found in Tropical Evergreen Forests?
b) Only three a) Only two
c) Only four b) Only three
d) All five c) Only four
d) All five
Q.59) With reference to distribution of dust
particles in the atmosphere, consider the
following statements:

Q.62) With reference to adaptations of desert Q.65) Consider the following pairs regarding the
plants (xerophytes), which of the following militant groups often mentioned in news and
features enable their survival in arid their associated countries:
environments? Militant Group Country/Primary Base
1. Thick cuticles 1. Hamas Lebanon
2. Hard seeds with impermeable coatings 2. Houthi Yemen
3. Succulent stems 3. Hezbollah Palestine
4. C3 photosynthesis pathway Which of the pairs above are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given a) 1 and 2
below: b) 2 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only d) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.66) With reference to the characteristics of
vegetation in the Savannah region, consider the
Q.63) With reference to global grassland following statements:
ecosystems, consider the following grasslands: 1. Vegetation in the Savannah consists of a mix
1. Pampas of grasses and scattered trees.
2. Velds 2. The dominant trees in the Savannah have
3. Prairies umbrella-shaped canopies and thick bark to
4. Llanos resist heat and fire.
5. Downs 3. Grasses in this region are generally tall,
6. Campos coarse, and have deep roots to survive dry
How many of the above are classified as seasons.
temperate grasslands? Which of the statements given above are
a) Only three correct?
b) Only four a) 1 and 3 only
c) Only five b) 1 and 2 only
d) All six c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.64) With reference to Taiga or Boreal forests,
consider the following statements: Q.67) Arrange the following surfaces in
1. Taiga is the largest terrestrial biome on decreasing order of albedo:
Earth. 1. Open Ocean
2. These forests are dominated by coniferous 2. Desert Sand
tree species like spruce, fir and pine. 3. Deciduous trees
3. The soils in taiga regions are typically rich in Select the correct answer using the code given
nutrients due to slow decomposition rates below:
and thick humus layers. a) 1 - 2 - 3
Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 - 1 - 3
correct? c) 2 - 3 - 1
a) 1 and 3 only d) 3 - 2 - 1
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.68) Arrange the following straits in the correct cable networks and digital infrastructure in
order from west to east: the Indo-Pacific region,
1. Gibraltar Strait
2. Dover Strait Q.71) Consider the following factors:
3. Dardanelles Strait 1. Uneven heating of Earth's surface by solar
4. Bosporus Strait radiation
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. Prevailing winds blowing over the ocean
below: surface
a) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 3. Gravitational forces acting on water masses
b) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 4. Coriolis force due to Earth's rotation
c) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 How many of the above factors influence the
d) 1 – 2 – 4– 3 direction and velocity of ocean currents ?
a) Only one
Q.69) Consider the following statements: b) Only two
Statement-I: The diurnal temperature range c) Only three
over oceans is significantly lower than over d) All four
landmasses.
Statement-II: Water has higher specific heat Q.72) Where is the continental rise located in
capacity and there is vertical mixing of water, relation to other ocean floor features?
which moderates temperature variations. a) Between the abyssal plain and an oceanic
Which one of the following is correct with trench
respect to the above statements? b) Between the continental shelf and the
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are continental slope
correct, and Statement II is the correct c) Between the continental slope and the
explanation of Statement I abyssal plain
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are d) Between a mid-ocean ridge and the
correct, but Statement II is not the correct continental slope
explanation of Statement I
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is Q.73) With reference to Ocean Waves ,consider
incorrect the following statements:
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is 1. Ocean waves primarily involve the transfer of
correct energy through the water, with minimal net
horizontal movement of water particles.
Q.70) Which of the following statements about 2. The formation and characteristics of waves
the “Free and Open Indo-Pacific (FOIP) Strategy” depend on factors such as wind speed, wind
often seen in news, is incorrect? duration, and the distance over which wind
a) It is a diplomatic initiative launched by India blows.
in 2016, aiming to promote peace and 3. The salinity of seawater significantly alters
stability in the Indo-Pacific region. the amplitude and wavelength of surface
b) Enhancing connectivity and strengthening waves under normal oceanic conditions.
economic partnerships through agreements Which of the above statements are correct?
like Economic Partnership Agreements (EPA) a) 1 and 2 only
among Indo Pacific countries is one of the b) 2 and 3 only
pillars of the initiative. c) 1 and 3 only
c) It aims at deepening the security d) 1, 2 and 3
partnerships with like-minded countries
such as Australia, South Korea, and other
South and Southeast Asian nations.
d) The FOIP strategy promotes digital
connectivity through investing in submarine

Q.74) With reference to ocean currents,

2. Mississippi Gulf of Mexico
Consider the following information:

Ocean Current Type Location 3. Danube Adriatic Sea

1. Alaska Current Cold North 4. Volga Black Sea

Pacific Which of the pairs given above are correctly
Ocean matched?
a) 1 and 2
2. Benguela Current Cold South b) 1 and 3
Atlantic c) 2 and 4
Ocean d) 1 and 4

3. West Wind Drift Warm Southern

Q.77) Consider the following description:
Ocean
1. Cold, snowy winters and warm summers
4. Kuroshio Current Warm North 2. Rain fall occurs throughout the year with a
Pacific maximum rainfall in summers.
Ocean 3. It has features of both maritime and
continental climates.
In how many of the above rows is the given
What is this type of climate?
information correctly matched?
a) China Type Climate
a) Only one
b) Laurentian Type Climate
b) Only two
c) Steppe Climate
c) Only three
d) Monsoon Type Climate
d) All four

Q.78) With reference to the distribution of

Q.75) Consider the following statements with
Temperature in Oceans, consider the following
respect to Mullaperiyar Dam recently seen in
statements:
news:
1. The thermocline boundary generally begins
1. The dam is located in Tamil Nadu state but is
at 1000 m depth and extends up to 5,000 m
maintained and operated by Kerala state.
depth.
2. It is located on the confluence of Periyar and
2. The thermocline is more prominent and
Muthirapuzha rivers.
well-developed in the polar regions than in
Which of the statements given above is/are
tropical regions.
incorrect?
3. At the equator, the thermocline is absent.
a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are
b) 2 only
incorrect?
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.76) With reference to major rivers of the
d) 1, 2 and 3
world, consider the following pairs:

River Drains into

1. Nile Mediterranean Sea

Q.79) With reference to the horizontal a) Only one

distribution of salinity in the oceans, consider b) Only two
the following statements: c) All three
1. The North Sea records low salinity due to its d) None
location in higher latitudes.
2. Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of Q.83) We do not experience strong upward
river waters. winds in the lower atmosphere mainly because:
3. The Arabian Sea has higher salinity than the a) the horizontal pressure gradient is stronger
Bay of Bengal. than the vertical pressure gradient.
Which of the statements given above are b) the vertical pressure gradient force is
correct? balanced by the gravitational force of earth.
a) 1 and 3 only c) strong horizontal winds prevent vertical
b) 1 and 2 only movement of winds.
c) 2 and 3 only d) the rate of air pressure decrease with height
d) 1, 2 and 3 is negligible.

Q.80) Consider the following countries: Q.84) Consider the following forces:
1. Azerbaijan 1. Pressure gradient force
2. Armenia 2. Frictional force
3. Iran 3. Coriolis force
4. Uzbekistan 4. Electromagnetic forces
5. Russia How many of the above significantly affect the
Which of the above countries borders the velocity and direction of horizontal surface
Caspian Sea? winds?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only a) Only one
b) 1, 3 and 5 only b) Only two
c) 2, 4 and 5 only c) Only three
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 d) All four

Q.81) Which of the following statements is/are Q.85) Consider the following statements
correct regarding the behavior of isotherms in regarding the International Court of Justice
the Northern Hemisphere during the month of (ICJ):
January? 1. The ICJ is the only principal organ of the
1. Over the oceans, isotherms tend to bend United Nations that is headquartered outside
northwards due to the moderating effect of New York.
water. 2. The United Nations General Assembly and
2. The presence of warm ocean currents causes Security Council may request advisory
the isotherms in the North Atlantic to deviate opinions from ICJ on “any legal question” but
southward. the advisory given by ICJ is not binding on
Select the correct answer using the code given the General Assembly or the Security
below: Council.
a) 1 only 3. The ICJ has jurisdiction to hear cases
b) 2 only involving individuals or private entities.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above are
d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.82) Consider the following factors: b) 2 and 3 only
1. Cloudy nights c) 1 and 3 only
2. Calm winds d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Long nights
How many of the above factors are conducive
for temperature inversion near the ground?

Q.86) Consider the following pressure belts : Which of the above given statements are
1. Equatorial Low -Pressure Belt correct?
2. Subtropical -High Pressure Belts a) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Subpolar Low -Pressure Belts b) 1, 2, 3, 4
4. Polar High -Pressure Belts c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the above are dynamically induced d) 1, 3 and 4 only
pressure belts?
a) 1 and 4 Q.90) Consider the following pairs:
b) 3 and 4 Name of the Bird IUCN Status
c) 2 and 3
1. Red-breasted Least Concern
d) 1 and 2
Flycatcher

Q.87) These clouds are formed along advancing 2. Laysan Albatross Vulnerable
cold fronts due to intense upward movement of 3. Malayan Night Heron Critically endangered
air. Their base appears flat and often supports a
How many of the above given pairs are correctly
dark, wall-like structure. They are the only
matched?
clouds capable of generating hailstorms,
a) Only one
lightning, and thunder.
b) Only two
Which of the following types of cloud is
c) All three
described in the above paragraph?
d) None
a) Cumulonimbus
b) Nimbostratus
Q.91) With reference to Local Winds and Its
c) Stratocumulus
Location , consider the following pairs:
d) Cirrostratus
Local Wind Location
Q.88) Westerlies emerge from which of the
following pressure belts? 1. Sirocco Sahara Desert
a) Equatorial low-pressure belt
2. Bora Japan
b) Subtropical high-pressure belt
c) Subpolar low-pressure belt 3. Harmattan Siberia,Canada
d) Polar high-pressure belt
4. Foehn Switzerland
Q.89) Consider the following statements
regarding El Niño: 5. Chinnok United States of America
1`. El Niño is associated with the warming of sea How many of the above pairs are correctly
surface temperatures in the central and matched ?
eastern Pacific Ocean. a) Only two
2. It leads to heavy rainfall in India due to b) Only three
increased cloud formation. c) Only four
3. El Niño causes disruption of the upwelling of d) All five
cold, nutrient-rich water along the coast of
South America.
4. It can lead to drought conditions in Australia
and Indonesia.

Q.92) Consider the following statements: c) All three

Statement-I: Katabatic winds typically occur d) None
during the night.
Statement-II: The ground surface cools rapidly Q.95) Removal of the windfall gains tax on oil
after sunset, causing the overlying air to become production and fuel exports by the Indian
denser and flow downslope under gravity. government would likely lead to which of the
Which of the following is correct in respect of following?
the above statements? 1. Increased profitability for Indian oil
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are producers and exporters.
correct and Statement II explains Statement I 2. Loss of revenue for the government of India.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are 3. Reduced fuel export competitiveness of
correct but Statement II does not explain Indian exporters in international markets.
Statement I Select the correct answer using the codes given
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not below:
correct a) 2 and 3 only
d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is b) 1, 2, and 3
correct c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Q.93) Consider the following statements
regarding Air Masses: Q.96) Which of the following is not a condition
1. Air masses are large bodies of air with favourable for the formation of tropical
relatively uniform temperature, humidity, cyclones?
and pressure over a vast horizontal extent. a) Sea surface temperature above 27°C
2. They always form over equatorial regions, extending to a depth of at least 60–70 metres
where intense solar heating leads to air mass b) Presence of Coriolis force at a location close
development. to the equator (within 2° latitude)
3. The interaction of contrasting air masses c) A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or
often leads to the formation of fronts and atmospheric disturbance
associated weather disturbances. d) Weak vertical wind shear in the troposphere
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Q.97) Consider the following statements
a) 1 and 3 only regarding the occurrence and mechanism of
b) 1 and 2 only tornadoes:
c) 2 and 3 only 1. Tornadoes typically form in regions where
d) 1, 2 and 3 warm, moist air meets cold, dry air, creating
atmospheric instability.
Q.94) Consider the following statements 2. The rotating updraft within a thunderstorm,
regarding Extra-Tropical Cyclones: called mesocyclone, is a key precursor to
1. Extra-tropical cyclones are typically most tornado development.
associated with fronts and form along the 3. Tornadoes are most commonly associated
polar front zone in mid-latitudes. with anticyclonic weather systems due to
2. Unlike tropical cyclones, they usually do not descending air currents.
develop a distinct eye. Which of the above given statements are
3. The central region of an extra-tropical correct?
cyclone is characterized by calm weather and a) 1, 2 and 3
clear skies. b) 1 and 3 only
How many of the statements given above are c) 1 and 2 only
correct? d) 2 and 3 only
a) Only one
b) Only two

Q.98) Why does a lunar eclipse not occur on

every full moon day?
a) Because the Moon’s tilted orbit doesn't align
with Earth’s shadow.
b) Because the Sun’s gravity misaligns the
Moon’s path slightly.
c) Because the Moon’s elliptical orbit doesn't lie
in the exact shadow zone of earth.
d) Because Earth’s rotation misaligns the
Moon’s position needed for an eclipse.

Q.99) Consider the following gases:

1. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
2. Methane (CH₄)
3. Argon (Ar)
4. Neon (Ne)
Which of the following is the correct descending
order of above given gases as per their
proportion in the Earth's atmosphere?
a) 3-1-4-2
b) 1-3-2-4
c) 2-4-1-3
d) 3-2-1-4

Q.100) Consider the following pairs:

Author Related Works
1. Dr. BR Ambedkar The Untouchables:
Who were they and
why they became
Untouchables
2. Mahatma Gandhi Gulamgiri
3. Jyotiba Phule Harijan
How many of the pairs given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.1)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Big Bang Theory proposes that the universe began around 13.8 billion years ago from an extremely hot and dense
singularity, which expanded rapidly. As the universe expanded, it cooled, leading to the formation of atoms, stars, and
galaxies. Several scientific observations strongly support this theory.
Option 1 is correct: The redshift of distant galaxies, as observed by Edwin Hubble, indicates that galaxies are moving
away from us, suggesting an expanding universe. This is one of the most direct pieces of evidence for the Big Bang.
Option 2 is correct: The Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) is the faint glow of leftover heat from the Big
Bang. Detected in 1964, it matches theoretical predictions and confirms the universe’s origin from a hot, dense state.
Option 3 is correct: Quasars, extremely energetic and distant objects with high redshifts, provide insights into the early
universe. Their observation helps trace the universe’s evolution and supports the Big Bang model through “look-back
time.”
Option 4 is correct: The primordial abundance of hydrogen and helium (about 76% hydrogen and 24% helium by mass)
matches predictions from the Big Bang nucleosynthesis. This precise ratio is hard to explain without the Big Bang
framework.
Option 5 is incorrect: The Steady State Theory was a competing model that proposed continuous creation of matter to
explain expansion without a beginning. It has been discredited because it cannot explain Cosmic Microwave Background
Radiation (CMBR) or elemental abundance.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/38624/1/Unit-4.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.2)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Dark matter is a mysterious form of matter that does not emit or absorb light but exerts gravitational influence on visible
matter in the universe. It is crucial in explaining phenomena such as galaxy rotation curves and the structure of galaxy
clusters.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dark matter makes up about 27% of the universe, while ordinary (visible) matter accounts for
only about 5%. Thus, dark matter outweighs visible matter by roughly six to one, but it does not constitute half of the
total matter-energy content of the universe. Dark energy composes roughly 68% of the universe.
Statement 2 is correct: Dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic radiation—it does not emit, absorb, or
reflect light. This property makes it invisible and detectable only through its gravitational effects.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is dark energy, not dark matter, that is believed to be evenly distributed throughout the
universe.
1. Dark matter is clumpy and tends to gather in haloes around galaxies and clusters.These clumps help provide the
gravitational glue that holds galaxies together despite their high rotation speeds.
Source: https://science.nasa.gov/universe/overview/building-blocks/
https://www.home.cern/science/physics/dark-matter
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.3)
Ans) a

[1]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

The life cycle of a star is a well-defined sequence of stages driven by gravitational collapse and nuclear fusion. A star’s
mass determines its evolution and fate. For average stars like the Sun, the cycle progresses through defined stages such
as Protostar, Red Giant, and ends as a white dwarf surrounded by a planetary nebula.
2. A star begins its life as a protostar, formed from the gravitational collapse of a region within a giant gas cloud (nebula).
● In this phase, the temperature rises as the gas condenses, but nuclear fusion has not yet begun.
3. When the infall of material slows down and the protostar becomes visible, it enters the T Tauri phase.
● This is a pre-main sequence phase characterised by strong stellar winds and magnetic activity, but the star still hasn’t
reached the core temperature needed for fusion.
4. After spending most of its life in the main sequence phase (not mentioned in the question), the star exhausts its
hydrogen fuel and expands to become a red giant.
● The core contracts while the outer layers expand and cool, giving it a reddish appearance.
1. In the final stages, the outer layers of the red giant are shed into space, creating a planetary nebula, while the core
remains as a white dwarf.
● The nebula glows due to the ionising radiation from the hot central remnant.
Source: https://imagine.gsfc.nasa.gov/science/objects/stars1.html
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.4)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Polaris (the Pole Star) is nearly fixed in the northern sky and serves as a natural compass pointing true north. Bab-el-
Mandeb Strait lies at the southern entrance to the Red Sea.To reach the Kerala coast (south-western India), a ship must
sail southeast across the Arabian Sea.Therefore, the navigator should keep Polaris to the left while heading east-
southeast.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/fecu112.pdf
Oxford Student Atlas
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.5)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
The regulation of interest rates charged by banks in India involves a framework established by the Banking Regulation Act,
1949, directives from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and judicial interpretations by courts, including the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct. Section 21A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, stipulates that a transaction between a
banking company and its debtor cannot be re-opened by any court on the grounds that the rate of interest charged is
excessive, provided the interest rate is in line with the RBI's directives. This provision aims to ensure that interest rates
determined by banks, under RBI's regulatory framework, are not subjected to judicial scrutiny on the grounds of being
excessive or unreasonable.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The RBI does not prescribe a specific cap on the interest rates that banks can charge on
credit card dues. Instead, it mandates that interest rates should be determined by the banks' boards and should be
justifiable, transparent, and communicated clearly to customers. The RBI advises banks to ensure that interest rates are
not usurious but does not set a fixed upper limit

[2]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/why-credit-card-holders-cannot-challenge-
excessive-interest-rates-in-consumer-court-9745770/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
Subtopic:)

Q.6)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars) generally rotate slower than the outer planets
(Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune).
● Jupiter, the largest planet, completes a rotation in under 10 hours, making it the fastest rotating planet in the solar
system.
● In contrast, Venus takes 243 Earth days to rotate once.
Statement 2 is correct: The inner planets are smaller and denser than the outer ones.Inner planets are rocky
(terrestrial) with metallic cores, giving them high density.
● Outer planets are gas or ice giants composed mostly of hydrogen, helium, and ices, which are less dense despite
their size.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The outer planets generally have higher surface gravity due to their massive sizes., Jupiter’s
surface gravity is 2.5 times that of Earth.
● Although the inner planets are denser, they are much smaller in mass, resulting in lower surface gravity.
Source: Class XI Fundamentals of Physical Geography Chapter 2 (Page 16)
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.7)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Solar System consists of the Sun and all celestial bodies bound to it by gravity, including eight planets, their moons,
asteroids, and comets. It spans a region of space extending well beyond the orbit of Pluto into the Kuiper Belt and Oort
Cloud. The Sun accounts for about 99.86% of the total mass of the Solar System.
Statement 1 is correct: Venus and Uranus are indeed the only planets that rotate in a clockwise direction, also known as
retrograde rotation. Most planets, including Earth, rotate counterclockwise (prograde) when viewed from above the
North Pole. Venus rotates very slowly and in the opposite direction compared to most planets, while Uranus is tipped
over so much that its rotation appears retrograde. This makes them unique in their rotational behavior.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The planet that takes the maximum time to complete one revolution around the Sun is
Neptune, not Uranus. Neptune completes one orbit approximately every 165 Earth years, whereas Uranus takes about 84
Earth years. The farther a planet is from the Sun, the longer its orbital period, as per Kepler’s Third Law of planetary
motion. Thus, Neptune, being the farthest known planet in the solar system, has the longest orbital period.
Statement 3 is correct: Earth is the densest planet in the solar system, with an average density of about 5.51 grams per
cubic centimeter. This is due to its metallic core and rocky mantle, which contribute to a high overall mass in a relatively
compact volume. Even though Jupiter is the most massive planet, its average density is much lower because it is primarily
made of gas. Hence, Earth holds the record for highest planetary density.
Statement 4 is correct: Mercury and Venus are the only two planets in the solar system that do not have any natural
satellites (moons). All other planets, including Mars, Jupiter, and even distant Neptune, have at least one moon. This may

[3]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

be due to their proximity to the Sun, which could make it difficult for these planets to capture or retain moons due to
the Sun's strong gravitational influence.
Source: Class 11 NCERT, Fundamentals of Physical Geography:
Chapter 3
https://science.nasa.gov/solar-system/
https://science.nasa.gov/solar-system/moons/
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.8)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Option a is incorrect: Mars has a thin atmosphere, composed mostly of carbon dioxide, but it is nowhere near as dense
as Venus's atmosphere. Its surface temperature is much colder, averaging about −60°C, and it is not the hottest planet.
In terms of brightness, Mars can appear bright during certain oppositions, but it is not the brightest planet in the night
sky. Thus, none of the three statements accurately describes Mars.
Option b is incorrect: Mercury has an extremely thin exosphere instead of a true atmosphere, composed of oxygen,
sodium, and hydrogen in trace amounts. Due to its lack of atmosphere, it cannot retain heat, leading to extreme
temperature fluctuations, with daytime highs near 430°C but nighttime lows around −180°C. Despite being closest to the
Sun, it is not the hottest planet. It also appears less bright than Venus from Earth because of a low albedo of about 0.12.
Therefore, none of the statements apply to Mercury.
Option c is correct: Venus has a very thick atmosphere, composed mainly of carbon dioxide with clouds of sulfuric acid,
creating a runaway greenhouse effect. This traps heat efficiently, making Venus the hottest planet in the solar system,
with surface temperatures reaching about 465°C, even hotter than Mercury. Additionally, Venus is the brightest planet
as seen from Earth due to its high albedo (reflectivity) and its proximity to Earth, making it shine brilliantly as the
“Morning Star” or “Evening Star.” Hence, all three statements correctly describe Venus.
Option d is incorrect: Jupiter is a gas giant with a thick atmosphere, primarily made of hydrogen and helium, but it is not
relevant in the context of terrestrial greenhouse heating like Venus. Its surface temperature is very cold, averaging
around −145°C, far from being the hottest. While Jupiter can be very bright, especially when in opposition, it is still not
brighter than Venus from Earth’s perspective. Hence, only one of the statements (thick atmosphere) loosely fits Jupiter,
but the planet does not satisfy all three conditions.
Knowledge Base: Key distinctions between terrestrial and jovian planets:
Terrestrial Planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars):
1. Solid, Rocky Surface: Terrestrial planets have a hard outer crust made of rock and metal, making them similar in
composition to Earth.
2. Smaller Size and Mass: They are smaller and denser than jovian planets, with thin or no atmospheres (e.g., Mercury has
almost none).
3. Closer to the Sun: Located in the inner solar system, they have shorter orbital periods and experience more solar
radiation.
Jovian Planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune):
1. Gas or Ice Giants: Jovian planets lack solid surfaces and are composed mostly of hydrogen, helium, and other gases
(Jupiter & Saturn) or ices (Uranus & Neptune).
2. Larger Size and Mass: They are massive but less dense, with thick atmospheres, strong magnetic fields, and many
moons and rings.
3. Farther from the Sun: Located in the outer solar system, they have long orbital periods and are much colder due to
their distance from the Sun.

[4]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Source: Class 11 NCERT, Fundamentals of Physical Geography:
Chapter 3
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.9)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Kuiper Belt is a crucial region of the solar system that helps in understanding the distribution of celestial bodies
beyond Neptune, including dwarf planets and short-period comets.
Statement 1 is correct: The Kuiper Belt is a donut-shaped region located beyond the orbit of Neptune, typically starting
around 30 astronomical units (AU) from the Sun and extending to about 50 AU. It is somewhat similar to the asteroid belt
but is much larger and composed mainly of icy bodies and remnants from the early solar system. This location makes it
a trans-Neptunian region, beyond the eighth planet.
Statement 2 is correct: The Kuiper Belt is believed to be the primary source of short-period comets (those that take less
than 200 years to orbit the Sun) , icy bodies and asteroids. Short period comets originate from the outer icy regions and
are sometimes nudged inward by gravitational interactions, especially with Neptune. This is in contrast to long-period
comets, which are thought to originate in the Oort Cloud, a much more distant region.
Statement 3 is correct: Several known dwarf planets, including Pluto, Haumea, and Makemake, are part of the Kuiper
Belt. These objects are known as Kuiper Belt Objects (KBOs) and share characteristics such as being icy, rocky bodies
with irregular orbits. The recognition of Pluto as a dwarf planet in 2006 by the IAU was largely due to its similarities with
other large KBOs discovered in the same region.
Knowledge Base: Comparison between the Kuiper Belt, Oort Cloud, and Asteroid Belt (between Mars and Jupiter) -
Asteroid Belt:
1. Located between Mars and Jupiter (approx. 2.1–3.3 AU from the Sun).
2. Composed mainly of rocky and metallic objects; the largest is Ceres.
3. Believed to be failed planetary material; not a major source of comets.
Kuiper Belt (Beyond Neptune):
1. Lies beyond Neptune’s orbit (approx. 30–50 AU).
2. Contains icy bodies, including dwarf planets like Pluto, Haumea, and Makemake.
3. Source of short-period comets; disc-shaped and aligned with planetary orbits.
Oort Cloud (Farthest Region)
1. Hypothetical spherical shell surrounding the solar system (2,000–100,000+ AU).
2. Composed of icy objects; origin of long-period comets.
3. Still not directly observed; existence inferred from comet paths.
Source: https://science.nasa.gov/learn/basics-of-space-flight/chapter1-3/
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.10)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
The Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) is India's first river interlinking initiative under the National Perspective Plan for
interlinking of rivers, which was prepared in 1980, aiming to address water scarcity and enhance irrigation in the
drought-prone Bundelkhand region, spanning parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

[5]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ken-Betwa Link Project is designed to transfer surplus water from the Ken River to the
Betwa River, not the other way around. The objective is to utilize the excess water from the Ken River to alleviate water
scarcity in the Betwa basin, thereby benefiting the Bundelkhand region.
Statement 2 is correct. The Ken-Betwa Link Project includes the construction of the Daudhan Dam on the Ken River.
The dam's reservoir, which is inside the Panna Tiger Reserve, is expected to submerge a part of the Panna Tiger Reserve,
raising concerns about the potential impact on the local ecosystem and wildlife, including tigers.
Statement 3 is correct. Both the Ken and Betwa rivers are indeed tributaries of the Yamuna River. The Ken River
originates in the Kaimur Range of Madhya Pradesh, while the Betwa River originates in the Vindhya Range in Madhya
Pradesh. Both rivers flow northward to join the Yamuna River.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/pm-modi-foundation-ken-betwa-linking-project-9743602/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Ken-Betwa River Linking Project
Subtopic:)

Q.11)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer
When an object is viewed from two different positions, its direction changes with respect to the background. This
phenomenon is called “parallax”. It is measured by the angle between the two directions of observation.
Option d is correct: The parallax method is primarily used in astronomy to measure the distances of nearby stars from
Earth. This method relies on the apparent shift in the position of a nearby star against the background of much more
distant stars when observed from two different positions of the Earth in its orbit around the Sun typically six months
apart. This apparent shift is called parallax, and the angle it subtends at the star is known as the parallax angle. Since the
actual diameter of Earth's orbit is known (used as the baseline), simple trigonometry is used to calculate the distance of
the nearby stars from Earth. The smaller the parallax angle, the farther the star is.
Option a is incorrect: The size of distant galaxies cannot be measured through parallax due to their enormous distances,
which make any angular shift imperceptible; instead, astronomers use angular size and redshift-based techniques
Option b is incorrect: Mass of planets is not determined using the parallax method but rather through the application of
Newton’s law of universal gravitation and Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. By carefully observing the motion of a planet's
natural satellites or the trajectory of nearby spacecraft, astronomers can calculate the gravitational force exerted by the
planet.
Option c is incorrect: The chemical composition of stars is deduced through spectroscopy, where the light from a star is
analyzed for characteristic absorption and emission lines of various elements and not by parallax.
Knowledge Base: Parallax, due to limitations in observational precision, this method is effective only for relatively nearby
stars—usually within a few hundred light-years from Earth.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Physics (Chapter 8 – Gravitation)
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.12)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer
The Earth's interior is composed of several layers that differ in composition, physical state, and seismic properties. These
layers are separated by boundaries known as discontinuities, where there is an abrupt change in material characteristics,
such as density or seismic wave velocity. Studying these discontinuities helps scientists understand the structure and
dynamics of our planet beneath the surface.

[6]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Conrad discontinuity is correctly described as the boundary between the upper crust
and the lower crust. This discontinuity is observed primarily in continental crust and represents a change in rock
composition and seismic velocity, marking a division between the less dense upper crust and the denser lower crust.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Mohorovičić discontinuity, commonly known as the Moho, is also correctly matched. It
forms the boundary between the Earth’s crust and the underlying mantle. The Moho is characterized by a sudden
increase in the velocity of seismic waves due to the transition from lighter crustal rocks to denser mantle rocks.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Repetti discontinuity does not separate the mantle and the outer core; instead, it is
believed to lie within the mantle, marking the division between the upper mantle and the lower mantle.the Repetti
discontinuity represents changes in mineral composition or seismic properties inside the mantle.
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: The Gutenberg discontinuity marks the boundary between the mantle and the outer core,
situated at a depth of approximately 2,900 kilometers. It is distinguished by a sharp decrease in seismic P-wave velocity
and the disappearance of S-waves, since S-waves cannot travel through the liquid outer core.
Source: NCERT Class 11 Geography – Physical Geography (chapter: Earth’s Interior)
NCERT Class 12 Geography – Fundamentals of Physical Geography- Chapter 2
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.13)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Earth’s crust is about 25 miles (40 km) deep and consists of solid rocks and minerals that cooled and solidified when
the planet was young.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The crust is the outermost layer of the Earth, accounting for only about 1% of the Earth’s
volume. It forms a thin, solid shell over the deeper layers of the mantle, outer core, and inner core.
Statement 2 is correct: Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust, making up about 46% by weight. It is
also crucial for life, comprising two-thirds of the human body’s components and making up 21% of the atmosphere and
90% of the mass of water.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The earth’s crust contains only 0.02% carbon in the form of minerals such as carbonates,
hydrogen carbonates, coal, and petroleum. The atmosphere has just 0.03% of carbon dioxide.
Knowledge Base:

[7]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

The crust contains a wide variety of elements, but ten are the most abundant (by percentage of weight):
● Oxygen – 46.1%
● Silicon – 28.2%
● Aluminum – 8.23%
● Iron – 5.63%
● Calcium – 4.15%
● Sodium – 2.36%
● Magnesium – 2.33%
● Potassium – 2.09%
● Titanium – 0.565%
● Hydrogen – 0.140%
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/jesc104.pdf https://www.worldatlas.com/environment/the-most-
abundant-elements-in-the-earth-s-crust.html
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.14)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The core-mantle boundary is found at a depth of 2,900 km beneath the Earth's surface. Earth’s inner core, which is a
solid iron-nickel sphere about the size of Pluto and floats in the liquid outer core, does rotate independently of the
planet’s surface.
Statement 1 is correct: The outer core exists in a liquid state, while the inner core is solid. The core itself is composed
mainly of very heavy elements, predominantly nickel and iron, which is why it is sometimes called the NiFe layer.
Statement 2 is correct: The Earth's magnetic field is produced by a geodynamo process that operates in the outer core.
Here, convection currents of molten iron and nickel, along with the Coriolis effect from the Earth's rotation, work
together to create a self-sustaining system that generates and maintains the planet’s magnetic field.
Statement 3 is incorrect: For decades, scientists believed the inner core was rotating slightly faster than the Earth’s
surface (a phenomenon known as super-rotation). However, recent seismic data analysis suggests that the inner core
has slowed down, and may even be rotating more slowly than the Earth’s surface, possibly “lagging” behind it for the
first time in decades.

[8]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Source: https://education.nationalgeographic.org/resource/core/#:~:text=the%20Bullen%20discontinuity.-
,Outer%20Core,the%20surface%20of%20the%20sun.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/earths-inner-core-rotating-slower-than-surface-study-
suggests/article66432473.ece
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.15)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The term "generation" in the context of fighter jets refers to a classification system that categorizes aircraft based on
the technological advancements and capabilities present at the time of their development. Each generation signifies a
significant leap in areas such as speed, avionics, weaponry, stealth, and overall performance. As of now, there are five
recognized generations of fighter jets, with the sixth generation under development.
● First Generation (1940s-1950s): Early subsonic jet fighters developed during and after World War II, featuring
basic avionics and weaponry.
● Second Generation (1950s-1960s): Introduction of supersonic speeds, improved aerodynamics, and early guided
missiles.
● Third Generation (1960s-1970s): Enhanced maneuverability, advanced radar systems, and the ability to engage in
both air-to-air and air-to-ground missions.
● Fourth Generation (1970s-1990s): Incorporation of fly-by-wire controls, composite materials, and multifunctional
avionics, emphasizing versatility and multirole capabilities.
● Fifth Generation (2000s-present): Stealth technology, advanced integrated avionics, supercruise capabilities, and
network-centric warfare features.
● Sixth Generation (under development): Expected to include features like artificial intelligence, enhanced stealth,
hypersonic speeds, and potential unmanned operation.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/fighter-jets-generation-9749116/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Fighter jets
Subtopic:)

Q.16)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
P-waves, also known as primary waves, are a type of body wave generated during earthquakes. They are the fastest
seismic waves and are the first to be recorded by a seismograph after an earthquake occurs. P-waves move through the
lithosphere, which is the outer layer of the Earth up to a depth of about 200 km.
Statement 1 is correct: P-wave is a type of longitudinal seismic wave in which the direction of wave propagation is
parallel to the direction of vibration of the particles in the medium.
Statement 2 is correct: P-waves move fastest; they are the first seismic signal to reach any given location after an
earthquake. It originates at the earthquake focus and travels in all directions through the body of the Earth.
Statement 3 is incorrect: These waves are similar to sound waves in nature and can travel through solids, liquids, and
gases. Their velocity increases in materials of higher density, and as they encounter materials of different densities,
their direction changes due to reflection and refraction.

[9]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Source: https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/earth-and-planetary-sciences/longitudinal-wave
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy203.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.17)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Earth’s bow shock forms where the supersonic solar wind charged particles streaming from the Sun collide with the
Earth’s magnetic field. This collision creates a shock front, similar to a bow wave in water, that protects our planet by
slowing, compressing, and heating the incoming plasma. Downstream of this bow shock lies the magnetosheath, a
turbulent, chaotic region where the solar wind’s energy is dissipated and the flow is diverted around the Earth.

Source: https://www.esa.int/ESA_Multimedia/Images/2015/01/Earth_s_bow_shock_and_magnetosphere
https://communities.springernature.com/posts/how-the-solar-wind-slips-through-earth-s-bow-shock
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

[10]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.18)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Geological formations like batholiths, laccoliths, lopoliths, and phacoliths are all types of igneous intrusions, meaning they
form when magma cools and solidifies beneath the Earth's surface. These intrusions differ based on their shape, size,
depth of formation, and the direction in which they deform surrounding rock strata.
Option a is incorrect: Batholiths are massive, irregularly shaped intrusive bodies that often form the core of mountain
ranges. They are convex upward and do not intrude in a layered or saucer-shaped fashion. Batholiths are typically
composed of felsic rocks like granite, not mafic rocks. Hence, the description in the question does not fit a batholith.
Option b is incorrect: Laccoliths are lens-shaped intrusions that cause the overlying strata to bulge upward, giving a
convex upper surface. They are usually small to medium in size, and do not subside in the center. Also, they are often
felsic to intermediate in composition. The concave structure described in the question contradicts the basic nature of a
laccolith.
Option c is correct: Lopoliths are large, saucer-shaped igneous intrusions that are concave upwards, just as described.
They are formed when magma intrudes between horizontal sedimentary layers and the central part sinks under gravity,
giving them a bowl-like shape. Lopoliths are usually mafic in composition, commonly made of gabbro or basalt.
Therefore, all three statements correctly describe a lopolith.
Option d is incorrect: Phacoliths are lens-shaped intrusions that typically form along the crests of anticlines or troughs
of synclines, aligning with the folding of sedimentary rocks. They do not have a saucer shape and are usually much
smaller than lopoliths. Their formation is associated more with folded mountain belts than large-scale magma
subsidence.
Source: NCERT – Class XI, Geography: "Fundamentals of Physical Geography"
Chapter 3: Interior of the Earth, Page: 27-28
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.19)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Diastrophism refers to all the processes that deform the Earth’s crust, resulting in its uplift, subsidence, folding, faulting,
and horizontal movement. These processes are driven by internal forces and play a crucial role in shaping the Earth's
surface features such as mountains, plateaus, rift valleys, and faults. Diastrophic forces are generally slow but powerful,
acting over long periods.
Option 1 is correct: Earthquakes are sudden movements of the Earth's crust due to the release of energy built up by
tectonic forces. They are a direct result of diastrophic activity.
Option 2 is correct: Tectonic Plate Movements are large-scale movements of the Earth's lithospheric plates. They are the
root cause of most diastrophic phenomena and are central to theories like plate tectonics.
Option 3 is correct: Orogenic Processes involve intense folding, faulting, and crustal compression, leading to the
formation of mountains. This is a classic example of diastrophism.
Option 4 is correct: Epeirogenic processes refer to the gentle, broad vertical movements of the Earth's crust, leading to
the uplift or subsidence of large landmasses without much deformation. This is also a type of diastrophic movement.
Option 5 is incorrect: Volcanic Eruptions are igneous processes involving the movement of magma from beneath the
Earth's crust to the surface. While related to tectonics, volcanic activity is not classified under diastrophism because it
involves extrusion rather than deformation of crustal rock.
Source: FUNDAMENTALS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY Pg 46
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weathering, Mass movements and Groundwater
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

[11]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.20)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Inflation control is one of the primary objectives of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI uses monetary policy tools
such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) to influence the
money supply and demand in the economy.
Option a is incorrect. Reducing the Repo Rate makes borrowing cheaper for banks, encouraging them to lend more.
This increases the money supply in the economy, which could worsen inflation instead of controlling it.
Option b is correct. The most effective monetary policy tool for controlling inflation is increasing the Cash Reserve
Ratio (CRR), as it directly reduces the money supply in the economy, thereby curbing inflationary pressures. Increasing
the CRR requires banks to hold a larger percentage of their deposits as reserves with the RBI. This reduces the funds
available for lending, leading to a contraction in the money supply. As a result, consumer spending and demand decrease,
helping to control inflation effectively.
Option c is incorrect. Reducing the Reverse Repo Rate makes it less attractive for banks to park their excess funds
with the RBI. This injects more liquidity into the economy, potentially increasing inflation rather than controlling it.
Option d is incorrect. While increasing the SLR (requiring banks to hold more liquid assets like government securities)
can help reduce liquidity in the economy, its impact is not as direct or significant in controlling inflation as increasing
the CRR.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/rbi-mpc-cuts-crr-repo-rate-unchanged-
analysis-9709647/
Indian Economy Red Book by Forum IAS – Monetary Policy – Page 30
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Monetary Policy
Subtopic:)

Q.21)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Lava, the molten rock that erupts from volcanoes, can be broadly classified into acidic and basic types based on its silica
content. These two types differ significantly in terms of viscosity, flow behavior, and eruptive violence, and their nature
influences the shape and explosiveness of volcanic landforms.
Statement 1 is correct: Acidic lava contains a high percentage of silica, usually more than 63%, which makes it thicker
and more viscous. This high viscosity prevents the lava from flowing easily, causing it to solidify quickly and build steep
volcanic cones. In contrast, basic lava has lower silica content (about 45–52%) and flows more readily.
Due to its low silica content and low viscosity, basic lava is highly fluid and can travel over large distances before
cooling and solidifying. This leads to the formation of broad, gently sloping shield volcanoes, like those in Hawaii. Basic
lava flows are typically less dangerous in terms of explosiveness but can cause widespread coverage.
Statement 2 is correct: Because of its high viscosity, acidic lava traps gases more easily within the magma chamber.
When pressure builds up, the resulting eruption is often violent and explosive. These eruptions throw out pyroclastic
materials, ash, and volcanic bombs, making them far more destructive than the effusive eruptions of basic lava.
Knowledge Base: Volcanoes are primarily classified based on shape, eruption style, and the type of
lava they emit. The major types include:
1. Shield Volcanoes:
● Lava type: Basic (Basaltic) – low in silica, highly fluid
● Shape: Broad, gently sloping dome-like structure
● Eruption style: Quiet, non-explosive, long-lasting lava flows
● Size: Among the largest in the world

[12]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
● Examples: Mauna Loa and Mauna Kea in Hawaii
2. Composite Volcanoes (Stratovolcanoes):
● Lava type: Intermediate (Andesitic) – moderate silica, more viscous
● Shape: Tall, conical, with alternating layers of lava and pyroclastic materials
● Eruption style: Explosive and periodic due to trapped gases
● Hazards: Associated with pyroclastic flows, ash clouds, and lahars
● Examples: Mount Fuji (Japan), Mount St. Helens (USA), Mount Etna (Italy)
3. Cinder Cone Volcanoes:
● Lava type: Often basaltic but gas-rich, moderately viscous
● Shape: Smallest, steep-sided cones made of ash and cinders
● Eruption style: Short-lived, mildly explosive eruptions
● Features: Found on flanks of larger volcanoes
● Examples: Parícutin (Mexico)
4. Lava Domes (Volcanic Domes):
● Lava type: Acidic (Rhyolitic) – high in silica, very viscous
● Shape: Dome-shaped, steep and unstable
● Eruption style: Highly explosive, due to extreme viscosity
● Hazards: Can collapse and cause pyroclastic flows
● Examples: Novarupta Dome (Alaska), Lassen Peak (USA)
5. Caldera Volcanoes:
● Formation: When a volcanic cone collapses after a massive eruption
● Size: Very large depressions, often filled with water
● Eruption style: Supervolcanic, catastrophic eruptions
● Examples: Yellowstone Caldera (USA), Lake Toba (Indonesia)
Source: NCERT Fundamentals of Physical Geography (Class XI)- Chapter 3
Physical Geography by Savindra Singh- Chapter 7
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.22)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Chemical weathering refers to the decomposition or decay of rocks due to chemical reactions, often involving water and
atmospheric gases. One significant form of chemical weathering is carbonation, where carbon dioxide dissolves in water
to form carbonic acid.
Statement I is correct: Lower temperatures increase the solubility of carbon dioxide in water. More dissolved CO₂ means
more carbonic acid formation, which in turn enhances the carbonation process and accelerates chemical weathering,
especially in cooler, moist climates.
Statement II is correct and explains statement I: Colder water holds more dissolved carbon dioxide gas. Gas solubility in
water generally increases as temperature decreases. That’s why oceans and cold groundwater can hold significant
amounts of CO₂, making chemical reactions like carbonation more effective in cooler environments.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy205.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weathering, Mass movements and Groundwater
Subtopic:)

[13]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.23)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Hydration is the process where minerals absorb water molecules, causing an increase in volume. This volume change
creates internal physical stresses, leading to the mechanical breakdown of the rock.
Option a is incorrect: Hydrolysis is a chemical weathering process in which minerals react with water, causing a
chemical change. For example, feldspar in granite reacts with water to form clay minerals. It alters the chemical
composition of the rock rather than just expanding it.
Option b is incorrect: Solution Weathering is a chemical weathering process where soluble minerals (like halite or
gypsum) dissolve in water and are removed in solution.
Option c is incorrect: Oxidation is a chemical weathering process where minerals (especially those containing iron)
react with oxygen, often producing rust-like oxides. This weakens the rock structure over time.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy205.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weathering, Mass movements and Groundwater
Subtopic:)

Q.24)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist and geophysicist, proposed the theory of continental drift in 1912. According to
this theory, continents were once part of a single supercontinent called Pangaea and have since drifted apart to their
current positions.
Option 1 is correct: Wegener proposed that tidal forces exerted by the Moon generated drag on the continents, slowly
moving them over the Earth's surface. He believed this tidal friction could be a driving mechanism for continental
movement.
Option 2 is incorrect: Wegener did not cite gravity acting on the continents as a force responsible for their drift. Though
gravity plays a role in geophysical processes, it was not part of his original driving force hypothesis.
Option 3 is correct: Wegener also theorized that the centrifugal force due to the Earth's rotation could have contributed
to the displacement of continents from the poles toward the equator.
Option 4 is incorrect: Magnetic force was never suggested by Wegener as a mechanism for continental drift. The concept
of paleomagnetism and its role in plate tectonics came much later.
Option 5 is incorrect: While now accepted as the principal driving force of plate tectonics, mantle convection was not
part of Wegener's theory. It was developed later by Arthur Holmes and others in the mid-20th century.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy205.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.25)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. Gamma Ray Bursts are short-lived bursts of high energy caused by the death of a massive star.
They are the brightest cosmic events since the Big Bang, shining millions of times brighter than the sun.
Option b is incorrect. Aberration of light is the apparent shift in the position of celestial bodies due to the combined
effect of the Earth's motion and the speed of light. This phenomenon causes stars to appear slightly displaced from their
actual positions.

[14]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Option c is incorrect. Spaceflight Associated Neuro-ocular Syndrome (SANS) is the ocular and brain structural changes
that occur to astronauts due to spaceflight. The exact cause of SANS is not fully understood, but it's thought to be related
to the redistribution of fluid from the lower extremities to the head caused by microgravity.
Option d is correct. Kessler Syndrome refers to the phenomenon of space debris causing a chain reaction in space,
making the use of space near impossible. The term was proposed in 1978 by NASA scientist Donald J. Kessler. The
syndrome occurs when the density of objects in Low Earth Orbit becomes so high that collisions between objects create
more debris, which in turn creates more collisions. This chain reaction continues until the entire orbital space is covered
with space junk.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/us-news/what-is-kessler-syndrome-the-growing-threat-of-
space-junk-and-collisions-101735332962921.html
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/what-is-kessler-syndrome-and-why-it-could-lead-to-a-
potential-space-disaster/articleshow/116740695.cms
https://edition.cnn.com/2024/12/27/science/space-junk-earth-kessler-syndrome/index.html
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Kessler Syndrome
Subtopic:)

Q.26)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The continental drift theory, proposed by Alfred Wegener, suggests that the Earth's continents were once joined together
in a supercontinent called Pangaea and have since drifted apart.
Statement 1 is correct. Fossil evidence is strong support for continental drift theory. Fossils of the extinct reptile such as
Mesosaurus have been found in both Iraver formations South America and Southern Cape province of South Africa, which
are now separated by the Atlantic Ocean. It is highly unlikely that such a species could have swum across the vast ocean,
implying that the continents were once connected.
Statement 2 is correct. One of the earliest observations made by Alfred Wegener was that he noticed that the east coast
of South America and the west coast of Africa appeared to fit together remarkably well, suggesting that the continents
were once joined. This geometric fit is a major piece of geographical evidence supporting the idea that the continents
were once part of a supercontinent (Pangaea) and later drifted apart.
Statement 3 is correct.The radiometric dating methods developed in recent periods have facilitated correlating the rock
formation from different continents across the vast ocean. So it was found that the belt of ancient rocks Brazil coast
matches with those from western Africa.The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of South America and Africa are
of the Jurassic age .
Statement 4 is incorrect .This statement is not evidence of continental drift. While climate patterns are important in
Earth science, current climate similarities do not prove that continents were once connected. In fact, one of Wegener’s
pieces of evidence was that past climate indicators, like glacial deposits found in now-tropical regions, showed that
continents had moved. Modern climate patterns are more influenced by current ocean currents and atmospheric
circulation, not ancient continental positions.
Statement 5 is correct. There is strong paleoclimatic evidence for continental drift. Glacial till and striations (scratches in
bedrock from glaciers) have been found in places that are now tropical or near the equator. This suggests that these
landmasses were once located closer to the South Pole, consistent with the movement of continents over time.
Source: Class 11 NCERT : FUNDAMENTAL OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY.Chapter DItribution Of Ocean And Continents
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

[15]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.27)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The theory of seafloor spreading was proposed by American geophysicist Harry H. Hess in the 1960s. Seafloor spreading is
a geological process where tectonic plates pull apart, causing magma from the Earth's mantle to rise and solidify, creating
a new oceanic crust. This process occurs at mid-ocean ridges, and the newly formed crust then moves away from the
ridge, pushing the older crust outward.
Statement 1 is incorrect. At divergent boundaries (such as mid-ocean ridges), tectonic plates move away from each other,
and a new oceanic crust is created by magma rising and solidifying.
Sea floor spreading adds new crust; it does not destroy it.The destruction of oceanic crust occurs at convergent
boundaries where one plate subducts beneath another, melting into the mantle.
So, sea floor spreading is a constructive process, while crust destruction happens elsewhere.
Statement 2 is correct: As magma rises at mid-ocean ridges and solidifies to form new oceanic crust, iron-rich minerals
within the magma align with Earth’s magnetic field.Over millions of years, Earth’s magnetic field has flipped polarity many
times (known as geomagnetic reversals).These reversals get "recorded" in the newly formed crust, creating a pattern of
magnetic stripes.Because new crust forms equally on both sides of the ridge, these magnetic stripes are symmetrical,
serving as a "tape recorder" of Earth’s magnetic history.This symmetry was one of the key pieces of evidence Alfred
Wegener's theory of continental drift was missing, and it strongly supports the theory of sea floor spreading
Source: Physical Geography by Savindra Singh.Chapter Origin of Continents And Ocean Basins.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.28)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Minor plates are tectonic plates that are smaller in area than the major plates, typically ranging from 1 million to 20
million square kilometers.
Pair 1 is correct .The Nazca plate is named after the region of southern Peru, is an oceanic tectonic plate. It lies between
South America and the Pacific plate.
Pair 2 is incorrect. The Cocos plate is a young oceanic tectonic plate ,off the west coast of Central America , named for
Cocos island. It lies between Central America and the Pacific Plate .
Pair 3 is incorrect. The Fuji plate lies in the North -East of Australia.
Pair 4 is correct The.Philippine plate is a tectonic plate that lies beneath the Philippine Sea, to the east of the
Philippines.The location of this plate is Between Asiatic and Pacific plate .
Knowledge Base: Other Important Minor Plates and There locations

Sr No Minor Plate Location

`1 `Juan de Fuca plate `Pacific plate and North American Plate

2 Arabian Plate African And Eurasian plate

3 Caribbean Plate North American Plate and South American Plate

Source: NCERT ,Fundamentals Of Physical Geography ,Ch Distribution of Oceans and Continents
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

[16]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.29)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Plate boundaries are the edges where tectonic plates meet. These boundaries are where most geological activity, like
earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, occurs. There are three main types: convergent, where plates collide; divergent,
where they move apart; and transform, where they slide past each other.Transform plate boundaries, also known as
transform faults, are where two tectonic plates slide past each other horizontally
Statement I is incorrect. Earthquakes frequently occur along transform boundaries. These boundaries are where
tectonic plates slide past each other horizontally. The friction between the plates can cause them to get stuck, building up
stress until it's suddenly released in the form of an earthquake .The San Andreas Fault in California is an example.
Statement II is correct . At Transform boundaries two plates either pass or slide past one another along transform faults
and thus landform is neither created nor destroyed .
Knowledge Base: Other Types of Plate Boundaries
1.Divergent Boundaries: Divergent boundaries are tectonic plate boundaries where two plates move away from each
other. This movement creates a gap that is filled by magma rising from the Earth's mantle, which then cools and solidifies
to form a new crust. These boundaries are also known as constructive or spreading boundaries. Example: Mid Oceanic
Ridge.
2. Convergent Boundaries: A convergent boundary, also known as a destructive boundary, is where two or more tectonic
plates move towards each other. This collision can lead to one plate subducting (sliding) beneath the other, or both plates
pushing upwards to form mountains. The process of subduction often creates deep ocean trenches and volcanic arcs.
Source: Physical Geography Savindra Singh .Chapter Origin of Continents and Ocean Basins.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.30)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Recently Syrian Rebel Fighters led by Hayat Tahrir al-Sham (HTS) overthrew President Bashar al-Assad's government and
seized Damascus.
Syria is a West Asian country located in the eastern Mediterranean Levant region. With Damascus as its capital, other
major cities include Aleppo, Darra, Homs and Sweida. This country faced a decade long civil war which erupted after Arab
Spring 2010 which saw uprisings across the Middle East and North Africa against long-standing authoritarian
governments. In Syria, protests emerged against President Bashar al-Assad, who was in power since 2000. The Syrian
government responded to the protest by killing hundreds of protesters and imprisoned thousands. Foreign backing and
open intervention by other state actors played key roles in the Syrian civil war. Now the latest fall of the Assad
government has added new ripples in already turbulent West Asian politics.
Syria’s bordering countries include- Jordan, Lebanon, Israel, Iraq, Turkey.

[17]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Source: https://indianexpress.com/photos/world-news/storm-darragh-emergency-alerts-approaches-uk-9712258/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) International Relations -Syria
Subtopic:)

Q.31)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Continent-ocean convergence, also known as oceanic-continental convergence, is a type of plate tectonic boundary
where a denser oceanic plate subducts, or slides beneath, a less dense continental plate. This process leads to the
formation of various geological features like volcanic arcs, deep ocean trenches, and mountain ranges.
Option 1 is correct. As the oceanic plate subducts beneath the continental plate, it sinks into the mantle and begins to
melt due to high temperature and pressure. This melting generates magma, which rises through the continental crust and
erupts as volcanoes. Example, the Andes mountain.
Option 2 is correct. At the subduction zone, the oceanic plate bends and creates a deep depression in the ocean floor
called an oceanic trench. This is typically the first surface feature seen at a convergent margin.Example, Peru-Chile
Trench.
Option 3 is correct. The sediments on the ocean floor and along the continental margin get scraped off and compressed
during subduction, forming folded mountain ranges. These are not just volcanic peaks but large uplifts of deformed
rock.Example ,The Andes Mountains are a combination of fold mountains and volcanic peaks created by this compressive
force.
Option 4 is correct .When two oceanic plates collide, one can be subducted beneath the other, leading to the formation of
a chain of volcanic islands called an island arc. For example , The Aleutian Islands in Alaska were formed by the subduction
of the Pacific Plate beneath the North American Plate.
Option 5 is incorrect. Rift valleys are formed due to divergent plate boundaries, where two plates move away from each
other, causing the crust to thin and sink. Example: East African Rift Valley.
Source: NCERT Fundamental Of Physical Geography Ch Distribution of Oceans and Continents .
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth's crust
Subtopic:)

Q.32)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
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[18]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Desert landforms are primarily shaped by wind (aeolian) action, resulting in erosional or depositional features. While
erosional forms arise from the removal of surface material, depositional features are formed where the wind slows down
and drops its load of sand, silt, and clay. Understanding the nature of each landform helps classify it correctly.
Option 1 is correct: Sand Dunes are classic depositional features of deserts. They are formed when wind-blown sand
accumulates in mounds or ridges due to obstacles or loss of wind velocity. Their shape and size vary depending on wind
direction and sand availability.
Option 2 is correct: Loess is a fine-grained, wind-deposited sediment, typically composed of silt and clay. It forms thick
blankets over large areas, especially at the desert margins and is highly fertile. Its formation directly results from
deposition by wind.
Option 3 is correct: Barchans – A specific type of crescent-shaped sand dune, formed under unidirectional wind
conditions and limited sand supply. Barchans are common in many desert environments and are unmistakably
depositional in nature.
Option 4 is incorrect: Hoodoos are tall, pillar-like rock formations created by erosion, not deposition. They form in
badlands and desert regions where softer rock erodes away faster than the harder caprock on top.
Option 5 is incorrect: Mesas are flat-topped tablelands formed by erosion of horizontal rock layers. They result from
weathering and erosion of plateaus, not from any depositional process.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy206.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Desert Landforms
Subtopic:)

Q.33)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Glacial landforms are created by the movement and melting of glaciers. These can be either erosional (formed by the
removal of material) or depositional (formed by deposition of glacial debris). Features like cirques, arêtes, drumlins, and
kettle holes offer key evidence of glaciation in different regions of the world.
Option 1 is incorrect: An Arête is a narrow, knife-edged ridge formed due to erosion from two adjacent cirques on either
side of a mountain.
Option 2 is incorrect: A Cirque (or Corrie) is a bowl-shaped depression with steep walls on three sides and a flat base. It
forms at the head of a glacier due to erosion.
Option 3 is correct: A Drumlin is a smooth, oval-shaped depositional hill composed of glacial till. It has a steep slope on
one side(stoss) and a gentle slope on the other (lee), shaped by the direction of glacial movement. It is a depositional
feature.
Option 4 is correct: Kettle Holes form when blocks of glacial ice get buried in outwash plain sediments and then melt,
leaving basins or depressions. These may later fill with water to form kettle lakes.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy206.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Glacial Landforms
Subtopic:)

Q.34)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A suture zone is a distinct linear belt of geological deformation that marks the boundary where two tectonic plates or
continental landmasses have collided and permanently fused together. It is essentially the scar of a continental collision,
where an ancient ocean that once separated the two plates has completely subducted and disappeared.

[19]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Key Characteristics of a Suture Zone:
● Represents the closure of an ocean basin: As oceanic crust is consumed by subduction, continents move toward
each other. The suture zone represents the location where they ultimately collide.
● Contains ophiolites: Fragments of oceanic crust and upper mantle that have been thrust onto the edge of a
continental plate. These are key indicators of an ancient ocean that once existed between the colliding blocks.
● Displays intense deformation: Includes faulting, folding, and metamorphism due to the tremendous pressure of
continental collision.
● Associated with mountain building (orogeny): Many major mountain ranges have formed along suture zones due
to crustal shortening and uplift.
● Can include mélange zones: Chaotic rock assemblages, including blocks of different origins, often found in
subduction zones and suture belts.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/83719/1/Unit-17.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Earth’s Crust
Subtopic:)

Q.35)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
The Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA), 1988, is India's primary law addressing corruption and bribery. The Act
underwent significant amendments in 2018, strengthening its provisions to deter both public officials and private
individuals from engaging in corrupt practices.
Statement 1 is correct. The 2018 amendment to The Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA), explicitly criminalized the act
of offering a bribe, irrespective of whether the public official accepts it or not. This change aimed to close loopholes in
the earlier framework and to deter individuals from initiating corrupt practices.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 12 of the PCA provides punishment for individuals who abet offenses under the Act.
Section 12 of the PCA (both pre- and post-2018) states, “whoever abets any offence punishable under this Act, whether or
not that offence is committed in consequence of that abetment, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which shall be not less than three years, but which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/crime-bribe-offer-not-accepted-sc-9756962/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) The Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA)
Subtopic:)

Q.36)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Fold mountains form when tectonic plates collide, compressing and folding the Earth’s crust. These mountains are either
young and rugged or old and eroded. Classic fold mountains include the Andes and Himalayas, while the Appalachians
and Urals represent ancient folded ranges that have withstood millions of years of erosion.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Sierra Nevada Mountains, located in the western United States, are primarily fault-block
mountains, formed when large blocks of the Earth’s crust were uplifted and tilted along faults. Their origin is linked to
tectonic tension rather than compression and folding.
Option 2 is correct: The Andes Mountains, stretching along the western coast of South America, are one of the most
prominent examples of young fold mountains. They were formed by the subduction of the oceanic Nazca Plate beneath
the continental South American Plate, leading to intense folding and uplift.

[20]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Option 3 is correct: The Appalachian Mountains, found in eastern North America, are ancient fold mountains formed
over 300 million years ago during the collision of the North American and African plates in the formation of the
supercontinent Pangaea. Though now eroded, their folded structure is well-documented.
Option 4 is correct: The Ural Mountains, forming a natural boundary between Europe and Asia in Russia, are also old,
folded mountains, created by the collision of the Eurasian and Siberian plates about 250–300 million years ago. Their
present structure still shows folded rock layers.
Option 5 is incorrect: The Vosges Mountains, located in eastern France near the Rhine valley, are block mountains. They
were formed by the uplift of land between faults (horsts), associated with the formation of the Rhine Rift Valley. Their
structure lacks the extensive folding characteristic of fold mountains.
Knowledge Base: Types of Mountains Based on Formation
Mountains are classified into five major types depending on the geological processes that form them. These include fold,
volcanic, fault-block, dome, and plateau mountains. Below is a structured explanation:
1. Fold Mountains
● Formation: Created by the compression and folding of the Earth’s crust due to plate tectonics.
● Characteristics: Crumpled and buckled rock layers; found along continental margins.
● Examples: Himalayas, Andes, Alps.
2. Volcanic Mountains
● Formation: Built by volcanic activity—either surface lava eruptions or underground magma accumulation.
● Characteristics: Can form in a single or series of eruptions.
● Examples: Mount Fuji (Japan), Mount Kilimanjaro (Tanzania).
3. Fault-Block Mountains
● Formation: Formed when large blocks of crust move along faults—one block uplifts while the other subsides.
● Characteristics: Steep, rugged terrain.
● Examples: Sierra Nevada (USA), Vosges (France).
4. Dome Mountains
● Formation: Result from magma pushing the crust upward without erupting.
● Characteristics: Rounded, dome-shaped uplifted land.
● Example: Black Hills (South Dakota, USA).
5. Plateau Mountains
● Formation: Raised flat land uplifted by tectonic forces and later shaped by erosion.
● Characteristics: Flat-topped highlands with steep edges.
● Examples: Colorado Plateau (USA), Tibetan Plateau (Asia).
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/101153/1/Unit-1.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.37)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: Lake Baikal (Russia) lies in the Baikal Rift Zone, a tectonic rift where the Earth’s crust is pulling apart.
It is the deepest and oldest freshwater lake in the world, formed by active continental rifting.
● Lake Tanganyika (East Africa) lies within the East African Rift System, one of the most active rift zones on Earth. Its
elongated shape and great depth are typical of rift valley lakes formed by tectonic divergence.
● Lake Superior (North America), although shaped by glaciers, lies atop the ancient Midcontinent Rift, a failed rift
system that split the North American continent over a billion years ago. While no longer active, its origin links it to
paleo-rift valley processes.
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[21]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Knowledge Base: Types of Lakes Based on Origin

1. Tectonic Lakes
● Formed by: Warping, subsidence, or fracturing of the Earth’s crust
● Characteristics: Very large and deep
● Examples: Caspian Sea, Lake Titicaca
2. Rift Valley Lakes
● Formed by: Down-faulting between two tectonic plates creating elongated depressions
● Characteristics: Long, narrow, deep; often below sea level
● Examples: Lake Tanganyika, Lake Malawi, Dead Sea
3. Glacial Lakes
● Types:
o Cirque/Tarn Lakes: Form in bowl-shaped depressions at mountain tops
o Rock-Hollow Lakes: Ice scours depressions in rock surfaces
o Morainic Lakes: Formed when glacial debris dams valleys
● Examples: Lakes in Scandinavia, Canada, and Finland
4. Volcanic Lakes
● Types:
o Crater Lakes: Rainwater fills volcanic craters
o Caldera Lakes: Larger depressions formed after volcanic collapse
● Examples: Lonar Lake (India), Crater Lake (USA), Lake Toba (Indonesia)
5. Erosional Lakes
● Karst Lakes: Formed in limestone regions due to chemical weathering
● Wind-deflated Lakes: Created by wind erosion in deserts
● Examples: Karst lakes in limestone regions, playas in Utah
6. Depositional Lakes
● River Deposits: Ox-bow lakes formed on river floodplains
● Marine Deposits: Lagoons separated by coastal bars
● Examples: Lake Chilka, ox-bow lakes in Ganga basin
7. Barrier/Dammed Lakes
● Natural Dams: Landslides or avalanches block rivers
● Artificial Dams: Human-made reservoirs for irrigation/power
● Examples: Lake Mead (USA), Dehradun region (ancient duns)
Source: Gc Leong Chapter 9 Lakes
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Landforms: Lakes
Subtopic:)

Q.38)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Geothermal features like hot springs and geysers are natural outlets through which the Earth releases internal heat.
These features form when groundwater percolates deep into the Earth's crust, gets heated by geothermal gradients or
volcanic activity, and returns to the surface. Their occurrence and nature depend on the subsurface geological
conditions, particularly volcanism, tectonic activity, and hydrothermal circulation systems.
Statement I is correct: Hot springs are formed when groundwater, heated by Earth's internal heat, rises to the surface
gently. These springs do not erupt violently but instead allow warm water to flow continuously or seep out quietly. In

[22]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
contrast, geysers are a rarer form of geothermal activity. They occur in places where water is trapped in underground
chambers and heated beyond its boiling point due to high pressure. This leads to periodic, forceful eruptions of water and
steam when the pressure is released. This mechanism is highly dependent on the presence of a unique subsurface
plumbing system and intense geothermal heat, typically near volcanic zones.
Statement II is correct: Geysers are geographically restricted and typically found in tectonically and volcanically active
regions such as Yellowstone in the USA, Iceland, New Zealand, and parts of Russia. These areas provide the necessary
conditions of heat, water, and rock formations as Geysers need a combination of intense subterranean heat, typically
from active or recent volcanic activity, a continuous supply of groundwater, and a specialized underground plumbing
system. In contrast, hot springs are more widespread globally and do not necessarily require active volcanism. They occur
in many parts of the world, including non-volcanic regions, as long as the geothermal gradient is sufficient to heat the
water. For instance, India has several hot springs like Manikaran, Tattapani, and Surajkund, even though it lacks any active
geysers.
Source: NCERT Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical Geography-Chapter 3: Interior of the Earth
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.39)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Metamorphic rocks form when existing rocks are changed by heat, pressure, or chemical processes without melting. This
transformation alters their texture and mineral content. Examples include slate and marble. These rocks reveal
information about the Earth's internal processes.
Statement I is incorrect:Granite is an igneous rock that forms deep underground when magma cools slowly over
thousands or even millions of years. This slow cooling allows large crystals to develop, giving granite its characteristic
coarse-grained texture. Because it forms directly from molten rock and has not been subjected to significant heat or
pressure changes after solidification, it is not classified as a metamorphic rock.
Statement II is correct:Slate is a metamorphic rock created when shale or mudstone is subjected to relatively low
temperatures and pressures, typically during mountain-building processes. This causes the minerals to realign and form
fine layers or foliation, which gives slate its smooth, flat surfaces. Slate’s durability and ability to be split into thin sheets
make it valuable for roofing tiles and flooring.
Statement III is incorrect: Basalt is another igneous rock, but unlike granite, it forms at or near the Earth’s surface from
rapidly cooling lava. This quick cooling leads to a fine-grained texture, with crystals too small to see with the naked eye.
Basalt is commonly found in volcanic regions and oceanic crust. Since it cools and solidifies from lava without further
alteration, it is not metamorphic.
Statement IV is correct: Marble is a metamorphic rock that originates from the metamorphism of limestone or dolomite.
Under heat and pressure, the calcite or dolomite minerals recrystallize, resulting in a denser rock with a distinctive
crystalline texture. Marble’s aesthetic appeal and workability make it a favored material for sculpture and architecture.
Statement V is incorrect:Sandstone is a sedimentary rock made of sand-sized mineral grains, mainly quartz and feldspar.
It forms when layers of sand are compressed (compaction) and glued together by minerals like silica or calcium carbonate
(cementation). Commonly found in rivers, beaches, deserts, and shallow seas, sandstone often serves as a reservoir for
groundwater, oil, and gas. Its composition and texture help reveal past environmental conditions.
Hence only statements II and IV are correct.
Knowledge Base:
Different types of metamorphism and their features:
● regional metamorphism occurs over large areas during mountain-building events and produces foliated rocks like
slate, schist, and gneiss; contact metamorphism happens near magma intrusions and results in non-foliated rocks
such as marble and quartzite.
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[23]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
● Hydrothermal metamorphism involves chemical changes caused by hot mineral-rich water, often near volcanic
zones. Common examples of metamorphic rocks include slate, formed from shale; marble, derived from limestone;
and quartzite, originating from sandstone.
● These rocks often show features like foliation, recrystallization, and texture changes depending on the degree of
metamorphism.
● Metamorphic rocks not only provide important clues about geological processes within the Earth’s crust but also have
significant economic value—for instance, marble is widely used in construction and sculpture, while slate is used for
roofing.
● India’s Himalayas are rich in regionally metamorphosed rocks, making this topic highly relevant for understanding
both Earth sciences and regional geology.
Source: NCERT Class XI Geography textbook "Fundamentals of Physical Geography"- Chapter 2, 3
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Earth’s Crust
Subtopic:)

Q.40)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Norovirus is a highly contagious virus that is also sometimes referred to as the ‘winter vomiting bug’. It can be
transmitted through contaminated food, water, and surfaces. The primary route is oral-faecal.
Statement 1 is correct. Norovirus causes inflammation of the stomach and intestines, leading to symptoms such as
vomiting, diarrhea, nausea, and stomach cramps. Its contagious nature makes it a significant public health concern,
particularly in closed or crowded environments.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are less effective against Norovirus because the virus lacks a
lipid envelope, which sanitizers typically target. Proper handwashing with soap and water is recommended as the most
effective measure to prevent Norovirus infection.
Statement 3 is correct. As of now, there are no licensed vaccines available for Norovirus. Research is ongoing to
develop a vaccine, but none have been approved for public use.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/norovirus-surge-us-spread-precautions-
9753532/
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/does-hand-sanitizer-kill-norovirus-heres-
what-really-works/articleshow/117274671.cms
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Norovirus
Subtopic:)

Q.41)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Sedimentary rocks form from the accumulation and compression of sediments in environments like rivers and oceans.
They often contain fossils and show layers called stratification. Examples include sandstone, shale, and limestone. These
rocks help reveal Earth’s past environments and life.
Statement I is correct: Lithification is the natural process that transforms loose sediments into solid rock. It involves two
main steps: compaction, where the weight of overlying sediments compresses the deeper layers, reducing the pore spaces
between particles; and cementation, where minerals precipitate from groundwater and act as a glue, binding the
sediment grains together. Sandstone, shale, and conglomerate are well-known sedimentary rocks formed by this process.
Statement II is correct: Fossils remains or traces of ancient organisms are predominantly preserved in sedimentary
rocks because these rocks form in environments that allow for the gradual accumulation of sediments. Lakes, oceans,
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[24]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
riverbeds, and deltas are typical depositional environments where organisms can be rapidly buried by sediments,
protecting their remains from decay and scavengers. Over time, these sediments lithify into rock, preserving the
biological material as fossils.
Statement III is correct: Stratification, or layering, is a fundamental characteristic of sedimentary rocks, formed due to
successive deposition of sediments over time. Each layer may differ in composition, grain size, or fossil content, reflecting
changing environmental conditions. Cross-bedding is a sedimentary structure formed by the migration of ripples or
dunes under the influence of wind or water currents. By studying these features, geologists can infer the nature of the
depositional environment and understand ancient sediment transport processes.
Source: Class XI Geography: Fundamentals of Physical Geography- Chapter 3, 4
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Earth’s Crust
Subtopic:)

Q.42)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect: A gorge is a deep, narrow valley with steep sides, typically formed in the upper course of a river
due to vertical erosion. Here, the river flows rapidly down steep gradients, cutting deeply into the bedrock. Gorges
indicate a youthful river stage, where downcutting is dominant over lateral erosion.
Option 2 is correct: Meanders are sweeping bends or loops in a river, typically found in the middle course. As the river
gradient becomes gentler, lateral erosion increases and vertical erosion decreases. The river starts curving to either side,
forming meanders, a key feature of the mature stage.
Option 3 is correct:Floodplains are wide, flat areas along the riverbanks formed by repeated flooding and deposition.
These occur in the lower course of the river where velocity decreases and the river spreads out. The extensive
deposition leads to the creation of fertile plains, marking the old stage.
Option 4 is correct:A delta forms at the river mouth where it meets a sea or lake. As the river slows down, it deposits its
load, building up land over time. This feature is characteristic of a very old or mature river, representing the final stage
of river evolution.
Option 5 is correct:Levees are natural embankments built up over time through repeated flooding and deposition along
the edges of floodplains. As rivers overflow, coarser materials are deposited first, gradually building raised banks. This
feature forms in the old stage of a river.
Course of river and associated Landforms:

Upper or Mountain The Middle or Valley Course The Lower or Plain Course
Course(Youthful Stage)

1.River capture 1.Meanders 1.Flood plain

2.Rapids, cataracts and 2.River cliffs and slip-off 2.Ox-bow lakes

waterfall slopes

3.Gorge and canyon 3.Interlocking spurs 3.Delta

Source: Certificate Physical and Human Geography >G.C.Leong>Pg.No.41

Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Running Water Landforms
Subtopic:)

[25]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.43)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct:Heavy rainfall is a favourable condition for Karst topography because it provides ample water to
percolate into the ground. This water, often slightly acidic due to dissolved carbon dioxide, chemically reacts with soluble
rocks like limestone, gradually dissolving them and forming Karst features such as caves, sinkholes, and underground
rivers.
Option 2 is correct:In Karst regions, due to the permeability of the rocks, surface streams are rare. Water rapidly
infiltrates into the ground through cracks and joints, feeding underground drainage systems instead. The absence of
surface drainage is both a result and a cause of Karst development, facilitating the deepening of underground features like
caverns and conduits.
Option 3 is incorrect: Impermeable rocks like granite or shale do not allow water to percolate, preventing the
underground chemical weathering and dissolution needed to create Karst features. Karst topography requires permeable
and soluble rocks, such as limestone or gypsum, to develop its characteristic landforms.
Option 4 is correct:Joints and cracks in rocks provide pathways for water infiltration. These openings enhance the flow of
water, allowing it to reach greater depths and dissolve the rock more efficiently, thereby accelerating the formation of
features like sinkholes, dolines, and underground caverns.
Option 5 is correct: Karst landforms form almost exclusively in soluble rocks such as limestone, dolomite, or gypsum,
which dissolve in slightly acidic water over long periods.
Source: Certificate Physical and Human Geography (G.C.Leong)>Chapter 8 >Limestone and Chalk Landform>Pg.No.63
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=6-16 Landforms and their evolution > Pg.no.52.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Landforms
Subtopic:)

Q.44)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Playas are characteristic landforms found in desert basins surrounded by hills or mountains. Due to internal drainage,
water from surrounding slopes flows toward the basin center, where a nearly level plain is formed by the gradual
deposition of sediments. During periods of sufficient rainfall, this central depression temporarily holds shallow water,
forming a playa. However, due to the arid climate and high evaporation rates, the water does not last long. As it
evaporates, it often leaves behind concentrated salts, leading to the formation of alkali flats or salt pans. These features
are important both scientifically (for studying past climates and sedimentary processes) and economically (as sources of
minerals and salts).
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=6-16 LANDFORMS AND THEIR EVOLUTION > Pg.no.60.
Certificate Physical and Human Geography (G.C.Leong)>Arid and Desert Landforms> Pg.no.61.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Desert Landforms
Subtopic:)

Q.45)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Nafithromycin has been launched recently.
Statement 1 is correct. It is India’s first indigenous anti-biotic that targets drug-resistant bacteria. It will be used in the
treatment of drug-resistant community-acquired bacterial pneumonia (CABP) in adults.

[26]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Statement 2 is incorrect. Nafithromycin has been developed by Wockhardt with support from the Biotechnology
Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC). BIRAC is a not-for-profit Section 8, Schedule B, Public Sector Enterprise,
set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India as an Interface Agency to strengthen and empower
the emerging Biotech enterprise to undertake strategic research and innovation, addressing nationally relevant product
development needs.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2081506
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Nafithromycin
Subtopic:)

Q.46)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct:Mount Lewotobi (Laki-Laki) is a twin volcano located on Flores Island, Indonesia. It gained international
attention in 2025 due to several strong eruptions, particularly in June and July, sending ash plumes up to 18 km high. The
eruptions led to evacuations, flight disruptions (especially near Bali), and raised alert levels. It is a classic stratovolcano in
the Pacific Ring of Fire.
Pair 2 is correct:Mount Etna is Europe’s most active volcano, located on the island of Sicily, Italy. In June 2025, it
erupted again, throwing ash, lava, and smoke into the sky, briefly affecting air traffic and tourism in the region. Etna is
known for both effusive and explosive eruptions and is closely monitored due to its proximity to populated areas.
Pair 3 is incorrect:Mount Ibu is actually located in Indonesia, not Japan. It is situated on the island of Halmahera in the
North Maluku province. In January 2025, it was reported to have erupted over 1,000 times in one week, sending ash
plumes up to 4 km high. The alert level was raised due to sustained volcanic activity.
Pair 4 is correct:Kīlauea is an active shield volcano located on the Big Island of Hawaii, United States. It has had episodic
eruptions since late 2024, continuing into 2025 with lava fountains, summit inflation, and crater activity. Kīlauea is one of
the most studied volcanoes in the world and plays a key role in understanding basaltic eruptions.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/europe/in-photos-eruption-on-mount-etna-sends-massive-toxic-
ash-into-sky-volcanic-eruption-mount-etna/photostory/121576642.cms?utm_source=chatgpt.com
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/watch-mount-lewotobi-erupts-in-indonesia-sends-ashes-
10kms-in-the-sky/articleshow/121922713.cms?utm_source=chatgpt.com
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Vulcanism and Earthquakes
Subtopic:)

Q.47)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A fjord is a landform created by highland glaciation, where a glacier carves a deep U-shaped valley into mountainous
coastal terrain. When the glacier retreats and melts, the sea floods the valley, creating a narrow, steep-sided inlet with
great depth. Fjords are typically found in high-latitude regions such as Norway, Alaska, New Zealand, and Canada.
Option a is incorrect :Cirque – A bowl-shaped depression at the origin of a glacier.
Option b is incorrect: Moraine – Accumulated glacial debris/ridge left behind by a glacier.
Option d is incorrect: Esker – A winding ridge of stratified sand and gravel from subglacial streams.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=6-16 LANDFORMS AND THEIR EVOLUTION> Pg.no.55
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Coastal Landforms
Subtopic:)

[27]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.48)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Earth’s gravitational force varies slightly depending on location. One of the key reasons behind this variation is the shape
of the Earth. Although often modeled as a perfect sphere, Earth is actually an oblate spheroid — flattened at the poles and
bulging at the equator. This physical characteristic affects how gravity is experienced at different latitudes.
Statement I is correct. Gravity varies slightly across the Earth's surface due to the planet's rotation and its oblate
shape. At the equator, the centrifugal force caused by Earth’s rotation counteracts the pull of gravity more than it does at
the poles. Moreover, the equatorial bulge places points at the equator farther from the Earth's center, slightly weakening
gravitational pull there. At the poles, however, there is no centrifugal force acting outward due to rotation, and the
distance to the center is shorter, resulting in a stronger gravitational force.
Statement II is correct and explains statement I. Due to the Earth's rotation, centrifugal force causes the equator to
bulge outward. This results in a shape known as an oblate spheroid, where the polar diameter is shorter than the
equatorial diameter. This deformation in shape results in a stronger gravitational force at poles compared to the equator.
Source: G.C. Leong chapter 1
https://sathee.iitk.ac.in/article/physics/gravitation-gravitational-force-and-newton-slaw-of-gravitation/
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Earth’s Crust
Subtopic:)

Q.49)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The IDL is an imaginary line used for distinguishing calendar days across the globe. It generally
follows the 180° meridian of longitude, which lies opposite the Greenwich Meridian or Prime Meridian (0°) on the globe.
Statement 2 is incorrect. When a traveller crosses the IDL from west to east, they gain a day — meaning the same
calendar date is repeated. Conversely, crossing from east to west, they lose a day — skipping a calendar date ahead. This
adjustment keeps global time and date consistent across time zones.
Statement 3 is correct. While the IDL roughly follows the 180° longitude, it takes deliberate zigzag deviations in certain
regions. Near the Bering Sea, it shifts eastward to keep Russia's Chukotka Peninsula and Alaska on separate days,
aligning with their respective countries' time zones. Near Fiji and Tonga, the IDL bends eastward so that these island
nations are on the same calendar day as New Zealand and Australia.
Source: G.C. Leong chapter 1, page 10
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) International Date Line
Subtopic:)

Q.50)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Proba 3 Mission, which stands for Project for Onboard Autonomy, was recently launched.
PROBA-3 is the ESA’s first mission dedicated to precision formation flying. “In this mission, two satellites will operate
together in a coordinated manner, maintaining a set distance and alignment in space as if they were part of a single, large
structure. The goal is to test, and demonstrate, advanced technologies for formation flying and conduct experiments
related to spacecraft rendezvous the meeting, or docking, of two spacecraft.
The mission will showcase formation flying as part of a major scientific experiment. The two satellites will work together
as a single unit to carry out the experiment, demonstrating how closely coordinated satellite systems can function in

[28]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
space. Both the satellites will combine to create a 144-metre-long solar coronagraph, a special tool designed to study the
Sun’s faint outer atmosphere, or the corona. A solar coronagraph works by blocking out the bright light from the Sun’s
surface, creating an artificial eclipse.
Statement 1 is correct. Proba 3 is a European Space Agency mission to assess the economic and technological risks of
space weather. It will observe the sun by creating an artificial eclipse via precisely coordinating two independent
satellites. This capability will enable scientists to observe the Sun's corona, a region typically obscured by the intense
brightness of the Sun. This corona is responsible for the coronal mass ejections which affect space weather.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Proba 3 was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) through the PSLV-C59
launcher from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Proba 3 mission uses two satellites , each powered by Highly efficient Solar Panels.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/isro-pslv-successfully-two-european-satellites-orbit-proba-3-
9708437/
https://www.theweek.in/news/sci-tech/2024/10/16/why-isros-involvement-in-esas-proba-3-mission-is-a-
milestone.html
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Probe 3 Mission
Subtopic:)

Q.51)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option 1 is incorrect. Currently, the rotation of the Earth causes the cycle of day and night across different parts of the
globe. If the Earth stops rotating, one side of the planet would continuously face the Sun, experiencing perpetual
daylight, while the opposite side would be in eternal darkness. Therefore, there does not arise the question of equal day
and night at all places on earth.
Option 2 is correct. Without rotation, the Earth would not turn on its axis to bring different regions into and out of
sunlight. This means the side facing the Sun would remain in constant daylight, leading to extreme heat, while the dark
side would cool drastically, potentially becoming uninhabitable.
Option 3 is incorrect. Seasons are caused by the tilt of the Earth's axis (approximately 23.5°) and its revolution around
the Sun. If Earth stops rotating but continues revolving around the Sun with its axial tilt intact, seasons would still
occur.
Option 4 is correct. The Coriolis effect is a result of Earth’s rotation and is responsible for the deflection of wind and
ocean currents to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. If the Earth stops
rotating, this effect would cease to exist, leading to major disruptions in atmospheric circulation, ocean currents, and
global weather systems.
Source: https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/7900/1/Unit-12.pdf
G.C. Leong chapter 1, page 4 to 7
https://www.space.com/what-would-happen-if-earth-stopped-spinning
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.52)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Winter Solstice is a significant astronomical event that marks the shortest day and longest night of the year for one
hemisphere. It occurs due to the tilt of the Earth's axis (approximately 23.5°) as the planet revolves around the Sun.

[29]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Statement 1 is incorrect. December 21st or 22nd marks the Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, not the
Southern Hemisphere. In the Southern Hemisphere, the Winter Solstice falls around June 21st or 22nd, when the South
Pole is tilted away from the Sun.
Statement 2 is correct. On this day, due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis, the Sun’s rays strike the Southern Hemisphere at a
lower angle and for a shorter duration, resulting in minimal daylight and maximum night-time hours — defining
characteristics of winter solstice.
Statement 3 is correct. During the Southern Hemisphere’s Winter Solstice (around June 21), the Arctic Circle (in the
Northern Hemisphere) experiences 24 hours of daylight (Midnight Sun). Whereas, the Antarctic Circle (in the Southern
Hemisphere) experiences 24 hours of darkness (Polar Night).
Source: G.C. Leong chapter 1, page 6
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.53)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Water vapour is one of the key variable gases in the atmosphere. Unlike permanent gases such as nitrogen or oxygen, its
concentration varies widely depending on location, altitude, temperature, and moisture availability. It plays a crucial role
in the Earth's heat budget, weather systems, and climate stability.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Water vapour is highest in the warm and wet tropics, where it can make up as much as 4% of
the atmosphere by volume. This is because higher temperatures enhance evaporation, especially over oceans and
rainforests. In contrast, the polar regions are cold and dry, with water vapour content less than 1%, due to minimal
evaporation and the atmosphere’s limited ability to hold moisture. Hence, water vapour decreases from the equator
toward the poles.
Statement 2 is correct. Water vapour absorbs parts of the insolation (incoming solar radiation) and works as a natural
greenhouse gas.
Statement 3 is correct. Water vapour is most abundant in the lower layers of the atmosphere, especially in the
troposphere, where evaporation from oceans, lakes, and vegetation occurs. As we move upward into the atmosphere,
temperature decreases, and air becomes thinner and drier. Consequently, water vapour content drops sharply with
altitude, and the stratosphere and beyond contain negligible amounts.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=7-16
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.54)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The atmosphere is made up of gases, water vapor, and dust particles. The troposphere, being the lowest layer, lies closest
to the Earth's surface and contains the highest density of these components.
Statement I is correct: The troposphere, the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere, has an average height of about 13 km,
but its thickness varies with latitude. It is thickest at the equator, where it extends up to approximately 18 km, and
thinnest near the poles, where it reaches only about 8 km.
Statement II is correct: The equator receives intense solar radiation, leading to strong convectional currents. These
currents lift warm air to higher altitudes, thereby increasing the thickness of the troposphere. Hence, Both Statement-I
and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
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[30]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy207.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.55)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
MuleHunter.ai is an AI-powered tool launched by the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) a wholly owned subsidiary
of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to enhance the detection and prevention of financial fraud. Its primary function is to
identify and flag mule accounts, which are used for laundering money in fraudulent activities. The tool employs advanced
machine learning algorithms to analyze transaction patterns, helping financial institutions mitigate risks and enhance
security in digital transactions.
Knowledge Base:
Additional Information:
● MuleHunter.AI is designed to detect mule accounts, which are bank accounts used by fraudsters for illegal money
transfers.
● It aims to strengthen digital banking security by flagging suspicious accounts and preventing their misuse in
financial fraud.
● The tool employs Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) algorithms.
● It analyzes transaction patterns, user behavior, and other metadata to identify anomalies associated with mule
activities.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/personal-finance/explained-rbi-has-a-new-ai-tool-mulehunter-
ai-to-reduce-digital-frauds-124120900250_1.html
https://forumias.com/blog/mulehunter-ai-rbis-ai-powered-tool-to-combat-financial-fraud/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) MuleHunter.ai of Reserve Bank of India
Subtopic:)

Q.56)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The atmosphere is composed of several layers, each characterized by distinct variations in temperature and density.
Based on temperature patterns, it is divided into five major layers: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere,
and exosphere.
Row 1 is incorrect: The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere and extends up to around 80 km in altitude. In this layer,
temperature decreases (not increases) with increasing altitude, reaching as low as –100°C near the mesopause, its
upper boundary. Most meteors burn up in this layer and Sounding rockets and rocket-powered aircraft can reach the
mesosphere.
Row 2 is incorrect: The stratosphere is located above the tropopause and extends up to about 50 km in which
temperature increases (not decreases) with altitude. A key feature of this layer is the presence of the ozone layer, which
absorbs harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun, thereby protecting life on Earth. It’s also the highest part of the
atmosphere that jet planes can reach.
Row 3 is correct: The thermosphere, which includes the ionosphere, extends roughly from 80 km to 400 km above the
mesopause. This layer contains electrically charged particles (ions) and plays a crucial role in reflecting radio waves.
Here, temperature increases with altitude due to absorption of high-energy solar radiation. It is also the region where

[31]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

aurora borealis and aurora australis (northern and southern lights) are observed, and where the International Space
Station orbits the earth.
Knowledge Base:
Other layers of the atmosphere:
Troposphere: The lowest and most important layer of the atmosphere, extending up to about 8 km at the poles and 18 km
at the equator. It contains most of the atmospheric mass, including water vapor and dust, making it the site of all weather
and climate changes. Temperature decreases with height at an average rate of 1°C per 165 meters. Strong convectional
currents at the equator make it the thickest here. Most biological activity and aviation occur in this layer.
Exosphere: The outermost layer of the atmosphere, extending from around 700 km to 10,000 km above Earth’s surface.
Gases here are extremely rarefied, and particles can escape into space. There’s no weather in this layer, though the lower
part may occasionally display auroras. The exosphere merges gradually with outer space and is where most satellites

orbit.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy207.pdf
https://science.nasa.gov/earth/earth-atmosphere/earths-atmosphere-a-multi-layered-cake/
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.57)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Loo is a local, hot, and dry wind that blows over northern India during the summer season. It is primarily formed due to
advection, which is the transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air.

[32]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
In the atmosphere, horizontal air movement is often more significant than vertical movement, especially in determining
regional weather patterns. In tropical regions, particularly northern India, the Loo develops as hot air from arid regions
like Rajasthan is carried eastward by strong, dry winds. This process leads to extreme daytime heating and is a clear
example of the advection process influencing local climate.
Knowledge Base:
Conduction: It is the process of heat transfer through direct contact between two substances of unequal temperature.
After the Earth’s surface is heated by insolation (incoming solar radiation), it transfers heat to the air in immediate contact
with it. This transfer occurs in the form of long-wave radiation. The heat continues to flow from the warmer surface to
the cooler air until both reach thermal equilibrium or contact is broken.
Convection: It is the vertical transfer of heat in the atmosphere. When the air in contact with the heated Earth’s surface
warms up, it rises in the form of currents, carrying heat upward. This rising warm air is replaced by cooler air, creating a
convective cycle.
Terrestrial radiation: It is the process by which the Earth, after being heated by solar radiation, emits energy in the form
of long-wave radiation. This outgoing energy is absorbed by atmospheric gases and warms the atmosphere from below.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy208.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.58)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Temperature reflects the intensity of heat resulting from the interaction of insolation with the Earth's surface and
atmosphere. While heat denotes the total energy of molecular motion, temperature measures how hot or cold a place is.
Key factors influencing distribution of temperature on earth include latitude, altitude, distance from the sea, air mass
circulation, ocean currents, and local geographical features.
Option 1 is correct: The temperature of a place is largely determined by the amount of insolation it receives, which
varies with latitude. Since different latitudes receive varying intensities of solar radiation, temperature also changes
accordingly.
Option 2 is incorrect: Longitude of the earth determines the east–west position of a place and influences time zones, not
temperature.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Earth’s distance from the Sun varies slightly due to its elliptical orbit. The Earth is closest to
the Sun then this situation is called perihelion and when the earth is farthest from the sun then this situation is called
aphelion. However, this variation is not significant enough to cause major changes in global temperature distribution.
Option 4 is correct: An ocean current is a continuous, directed movement of seawater. The temperature in the coastal
areas is influenced by ocean currents. The coastal region with warm ocean currents tend to experience higher
temperatures compared to those along coasts affected by cold currents.
Option 5 is correct: Air masses are large bodies of air with uniform temperature and humidity characteristics, originating
from specific source regions. The movement of these air masses influences local temperatures. The regions under the
influence of warm air masses experience a rise in temperature, while those affected by cold air masses tend to become
cooler.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy208.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weather
Subtopic:)

[33]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.59)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Dust particles are tiny solid particles suspended in the atmosphere, originating from various natural and human-made
sources such as sea salts, fine soil, smoke, soot, volcanic ash, pollen, and even disintegrated meteor fragments. The
atmosphere has the capacity to hold and transport these particles over long distances.
Statement I is correct: Dust particles are primarily concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere, although they
can be carried to higher altitudes by convectional air currents. Their distribution varies regionally, with subtropical and
temperate regions showing higher concentrations than equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II is correct: Subtropical and temperate regions are dominated by dry, subsiding air masses, especially in
subtropical high-pressure belts. The dry winds prevent precipitation and allow dust to remain suspended in the
atmosphere.
Dust particles are highly concentrated in subtropical and temperate regions than equatorial and polar regions due to dry
winds. Hence option a is correct: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct
explanation for Statement I
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy207.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.60)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Banks) [FCNR(B)] deposits are an important financial instrument for Non-Resident
Indians (NRIs) to deposit their foreign earnings in Indian banks while maintaining the deposits in foreign currencies.
Statement 1 is correct: FCNR(B) deposits are term deposits held in foreign currencies by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in
Indian banks. These deposits are insulated from exchange rate fluctuations, making them a safe option for NRIs.
Statement 2 is correct: The interest earned on FCNR(B) deposits is exempt from income tax in India, which enhances its
attractiveness for NRIs seeking tax-free returns. Additionally, the principal and interest are fully repatriable, meaning they
can be transferred abroad without restrictions.
Knowledge Base:
1. FCNR(B) deposits typically have a minimum tenure of 1 year and a maximum tenure of 5 years.
2. FCNR(B) deposits are considered a crucial tool to attract foreign exchange inflows into India, particularly during times
of external currency challenges.
Source:) https://forumias.com/blog/foreign-currency-non-resident-banks-deposits/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Banking
Subtopic:)

Q.61)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Tropical evergreen forests are home to broad-leaved, hardwood trees that thrive in hot, humid climates with rainfall
exceeding 200 cm and no distinct dry season. These forests support dense, multi-layered canopies with species that
remain green throughout the year. Typical trees include valuable timber species such as ebony, mahogany, and rosewood,
adapted to thrive in moist and shaded environments.

[34]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Statement 1 is correct: Ebony is a dense, dark hardwood tree primarily found in tropical evergreen forests. It requires a
hot and humid climate and grows best in moist, lowland tropical regions like parts of southern India and Sri Lanka.
The wood is highly valued for its fine texture and durability, making it ideal for decorative carving and fine furniture. Its
presence is a clear ecological marker of evergreen forest conditions, especially where consistent moisture and canopy
density prevail.
Statement 2 is correct: Mahogany trees are native to tropical regions of Central and South America, but also found in
parts of India's tropical evergreen zones. They are large, hardwood trees requiring abundant rainfall and humid climate,
making them ideally suited to tropical evergreen forests. Mahogany is known for its reddish-brown timber, prized in
furniture making and shipbuilding. Its growth in areas with dense canopy, poor sunlight penetration, and rich biodiversity
aligns well with evergreen forest conditions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sal is a deciduous tree, not typically found in tropical evergreen forests. It thrives in moist
deciduous forests, where rainfall ranges between 100–200 cm and there is a distinct dry season. Sal trees are
commonly found in central and eastern India, especially in Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and parts of UP and MP.
These forests shed leaves seasonally and do not maintain the evergreen canopy year-round. Hence, Sal is not a
characteristic species of evergreen forests.
Statement 4 is correct: Rosewood is a classic hardwood tree of tropical evergreen forests, especially in the Western
Ghats and northeastern India. It flourishes in warm, wet climates and requires deep, fertile soils and consistent rainfall.
Known for its fragrant, dark-colored wood, rosewood is widely used in musical instruments, fine furniture, and
carvings. The tree’s size, dense foliage, and requirement for canopy moisture and humidity make it an ideal species of
evergreen forests.
Statement 5 is incorrect: Teak is a tropical deciduous tree, primarily found in areas with moderate to high rainfall
(100–200 cm) and a pronounced dry season. It grows extensively in central and southern India, particularly in MP,
Maharashtra, Kerala, and Karnataka. Teak sheds its leaves in the dry season, which is not a trait of evergreen forest
species. Though valuable and robust, teak is ecologically suited to monsoonal, not evergreen, forest conditions.
Knowledge Base:
Different types of forests and typical tree species found in them -
1. Tropical Evergreen Forests - Key Traits: Dense canopy, high rainfall (>200 cm), no dry season
Examples of Trees:
● Ebony (Diospyros spp.)
● Mahogany (Swietenia spp.)
● Rosewood (Dalbergia latifolia)
2. Tropical Deciduous Forests (Monsoon Forests) - Key Traits: Seasonal shedding, rainfall 100–200 cm
Examples of Trees:
● Sal (Shorea robusta)
● Teak (Tectona grandis)
● Bamboo (various species)
3. Montane Forests - Key Traits: Found along altitudinal gradients in the Himalayas
Examples of Trees:
● Deodar (Cedrus deodara)
● Pine (Pinus roxburghii)
● Fir (Abies pindrow)
4. Thorn and Scrub Forests - Key Traits: Arid and semi-arid regions; rainfall <75 cm
Examples of Trees:
● Acacia (Acacia nilotica)
● Babul (Vachellia nilotica)
● Cactus (various species)
Source: NCERT Geography Class XI – India: Physical Environment
Chapter 5: Natural Vegetation
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

[35]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy105.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.62)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Desert plants, also known as xerophytes, have evolved remarkable adaptations to survive in extreme arid conditions where
water is scarce, temperatures are high, and evaporation is rapid. These adaptations occur at morphological, anatomical,
and physiological levels to conserve water, reduce transpiration, and ensure reproduction even under stress.
Option 1 is correct. One of the primary adaptations in xerophytes is the presence of a thick waxy cuticle on the surface
of leaves and stems. This thick waxy layer of cutin reduces the loss of water by evaporation.
Option 2 is correct. Desert plants often produce seeds with tough, impermeable seed coats that can remain dormant for
long periods during dry spells. These coatings prevent premature germination and protect the seed's internal tissues from
desiccation. When there is sufficient rainfall, the outer layer softens, triggering germination.
Option 3 is correct. Succulence is one of the most visually recognizable traits in desert plants. Many xerophytes, like
cacti, Euphorbia, and Aloe vera, have swollen, fleshy stems that can store large amounts of water.
Option 4 is incorrect. While C3 photosynthesis is the most common pathway in plants globally, it is not typically
advantageous in desert conditions. C3 plants tend to lose more water through transpiration because their stomata
remain open during the day. In contrast, many desert plants use CAM (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism), which is more
water-efficient. CAM plants, such as agaves and cacti, open their stomata at night to minimize water loss.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/68183/1/Unit-8.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.63)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Grasslands are terrestrial biomes dominated by grasses, occurring in both tropical and temperate regions of the world.
These ecosystems are classified based on climatic conditions into tropical (savanna) and temperate grasslands.
Option 1 is correct. The Pampas are extensive fertile lowlands in Argentina, Uruguay, and parts of Brazil. These are
classic examples of temperate grasslands with moderate rainfall and a relatively mild climate. The region supports
grazing and is highly productive for agriculture, especially wheat.
Option 2 is correct. Velds are found mainly in South Africa, the Velds are temperate grasslands, which experience cool
winters and warm summers. The climate is relatively mild with rainfall occurring in the summer months. The Velds
support mixed farming and livestock rearing.
Option 3 is correct. Prairies are located in North America, particularly in the USA and Canada, Prairies are expansive
temperate grasslands. They experience cold winters, hot summers, and moderate rainfall. They support large-scale grain
farming, especially wheat and corn.
Option 4 is incorrect. The Llanos are found in Venezuela and Colombia and represent tropical grasslands. These
savanna-type grasslands experience a tropical climate with a distinct wet and dry season.
Option 5 is correct. The Downs of Australia are temperate grasslands. These grasslands experience mild winters and
warm summers, with seasonal rainfall and fertile soil, and are used for sheep grazing and grain farming.

[36]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Option 6 is incorrect. The Campos are found in Brazil, Paraguay, and Uruguay and are characterized as tropical and
subtropical grasslands. They have seasonal rainfall and warm temperatures throughout the year. These grasslands are
similar to the Llanos in terms of ecological characteristics.
Source: GC Leong- chapter 17- The Savannah or Sudan Climate, chapter 20- The Temperate
Continental Steppe Climate.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.64)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Taiga, also known as the Boreal forest, is a biome characterized by its cold climate, coniferous vegetation, and vast
expanse across the high northern latitudes. Stretching across Canada, Alaska, Scandinavia, and Russia, this biome is
ecologically significant yet often harsh due to prolonged winters and short growing seasons
Statement 1 is correct. The Taiga is indeed the largest land biome in terms of continuous stretch and area coverage. It
spans approximately 17 million square kilometers, covering a large portion of Canada, Russia, Scandinavia, and parts of
the northern United States and Mongolia. The biome forms a nearly unbroken ring of forest around the northern
hemisphere, making it larger than any other biome.
Statement 2 is correct. The dominant vegetation in the taiga is composed of evergreen coniferous trees, particularly
spruce, fir, pine, and larch. These trees are well-adapted to the cold, with needle-like leaves that reduce water loss and
conical shapes that allow snow to shed easily. The coniferous nature helps the trees conserve energy during long, cold
winters when sunlight is scarce.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The soils in taiga forests, known as podzols, are generally poor in nutrients and highly acidic.
Due to the cold temperatures, organic matter decomposes very slowly, which results in a thin humus layer rather than
a thick one.
Source: GC Leong- chapter 23- The Cool Temperate Continental Siberian Climate
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.65)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Hamas is a Palestinian Sunni-Islamic militant and political organization based in the
Gaza Strip and West Bank. It is not based in Lebanon.While Hamas and Hezbollah share ideological alignments and some
cooperation, their geographic bases differ significantly.Hamas is primarily engaged in the Israel-Palestine conflict and
governs Gaza.

[37]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Houthi movement, also known as Ansar Allah, is a Zaidi Shia rebel group based in
Yemen. The group has been at the center of the Yemeni civil war since 2014, fighting against the Yemeni government and
its allies.The Houthis are supported by Iran and oppose the Saudi-led coalition in the region.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Hezbollah is a Shia Islamist militant and political organization based in Lebanon.It was
founded with support from Iran to resist Israeli occupation in Lebanon and has since expanded its influence in regional
politics and conflicts.Hezbollah operates primarily in Lebanon and southern Syria, not Palestine.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/timeline-syria-govt-assad-fall-9715307/
https://www.state.gov/reports/2022-report-on-international-religious-freedom/israel-west-bank-and-gaza/west-
bank-and-gaza/
https://www.bbc.com/news/world-middle-east-67614911
https://www.bbc.com/news/world-middle-east-67307858
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Places in News
Subtopic:)

Q.66)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

[38]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

The Savannah biome is a grassland ecosystem located mainly between tropical rainforests and desert regions. It is
commonly found in Africa (e.g., East Africa), South America, Australia. Savannahs are characterized by seasonal rainfall,
prolonged dry periods, and fire-prone conditions, which influence the unique nature of their vegetation.
Statement 1 is correct. Savannahs are known for their open canopy structure, where grasses dominate the ground layer,
and scattered trees or shrubs are interspersed. The balance between grass and trees is maintained by seasonal droughts,
grazing by herbivores, and regular wildfires.
Statement 2 is correct. Trees in the Savannah have evolved to withstand intense sunlight, high temperatures, and
frequent fires. Species like Acacia have umbrella-shaped canopies that reduce transpiration and provide shade to their
root systems. Thick bark and deep roots help trees resist fire damage and survive long dry spells.
Statement 3 is correct. Savannah grasses such as elephant grass are typically tall and rough in texture, which makes
them resistant to grazing and fire. Their deep root systems allow them to tap into groundwater reserves during the dry
season, and they regenerate quickly after fires. These adaptations are crucial in regions where rainfall is seasonal and
inconsistent, and surface water is often unavailable.
Source: GC Leong- chapter 17- The Savannah or Sudan Climate
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Different forms of Vegetation (World)
Subtopic:)

Q.67)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Surface albedo is a measure of how much incoming solar radiation is reflected by the Earth's surface. It ranges from 0
(total absorption) to 1 (total reflection). Surfaces with higher albedo reflect more sunlight and remain cooler, while those
with lower albedo absorb more energy and tend to warm faster.
The correct decreasing order of albedo is- 2-3-1.
Option 2. Desert sand, being light-colored and dry, reflects a significant amount of solar radiation. This makes it one of
the highest albedo natural surfaces around 0.3 to 0.4
Statement 3. Forests, especially with dense green foliage, absorb a lot of radiation. Deciduous trees have a lower
reflectivity than sand or soil due to their darker leaves and canopy structure that traps sunlight. The albedo of forest is
0.15 of 0.18
Option 1. The ocean is dark and absorbs most sunlight, reflecting very little, especially when the sun is overhead. Its
albedo can vary slightly based on wave angle and cloud cover but remains consistently low. The albedo of open oceans is
around 0.06
Source: https://solargis.com/resources/blog/product-updates/surface-albedo-most-frequent-questions
NcERT – class 11- World Physical geography- Chapter- SOLAR RADIATION, HEAT BALANCE AND TEMPERATURE
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology
Subtopic:)

Q.68)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A strait is a naturally formed, narrow waterway that connects two larger bodies of water and typically separates two land
masses. Straits play a vital role in international trade, strategic maritime routes, and naval security. They are often of
geopolitical importance, as control over key straits like the Strait of Hormuz, Malacca, or Bosporus can influence global
shipping and energy flows. Understanding their location and significance is essential in both physical geography and
international relations.

[39]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

To arrange the straits from west to east, we begin with the Gibraltar Strait, which lies between Spain and Morocco,
connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea. It is the westernmost among the listed straits and serves as the
main entrance to the Mediterranean from the Atlantic.
Next is the Dover Strait, located between southeastern England and northern France, connecting the English Channel
with the North Sea. Although it is northeast of Gibraltar, it still lies west of the Turkish straits. It is one of the busiest
shipping lanes in the world.
Moving further east, we reach the Dardanelles Strait in northwestern Turkey, which connects the Aegean Sea (an arm of
the Mediterranean) to the Sea of Marmara. It has great historical and strategic importance, especially in naval history.
Finally, east of the Dardanelles is the Bosporus Strait, also in Turkey, separating the European and Asian parts of
Istanbul. It links the Sea of Marmara to the Black Sea and is one of the world’s narrowest and busiest natural straits.
Thus, the correct west-to-east sequence is:
Gibraltar (1) → Dover (2) → Dardanelles (3) → Bosporus (4).
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/erdogan-opens-huge-suspension-bridge-linking-europe-and-asia-
7826266/
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-turkey-closing-waters-russia-navy-impact-war-ukraine-
7796322/#:~:text=Beyond%20being%20an%20important%20global,Bosphorus%20Straits%2C%E2%80%9D%20Hascher
%20explains.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/erdogan-syrias-sharaa-hold-talks-in-istanbul/article69614722.ece

[40]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/black-sea-russia-gateway-global-waters-stanly-
johny/article65538281.ece
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.69)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The diurnal temperature range refers to the difference between the highest and lowest temperatures within a 24-hour
period. This range varies significantly between land and ocean surfaces due to their differing physical properties. While
land heats up and cools down rapidly, water changes temperature much more slowly. As a result, oceans exhibit a much
smaller diurnal temperature range compared to continents. This fundamental difference plays a crucial role in shaping
local and regional climates, especially in coastal vs interior areas.
Statement I is correct: The diurnal temperature range, which is the difference between the maximum daytime
temperature and the minimum nighttime temperature, is considerably smaller over oceans compared to land. This is
because water bodies respond more slowly to temperature changes than land surfaces. As a result, the ocean surface
warms up less during the day and cools down less during the night, leading to a narrower range of temperature
fluctuations. In contrast, land surfaces, due to their lower heat capacity, heat up quickly in the daytime and lose heat
rapidly at night, resulting in a much wider diurnal temperature range. Coastal regions therefore experience more
moderate day-night temperature differences than interior continental regions.
Statement II is correct: Water’s high specific heat capacity means it can absorb and retain more heat energy without
undergoing a rapid change in temperature. In addition to this, the ocean is not a static body; it allows for vertical mixing,
where the heat absorbed by the surface layer can be distributed to deeper layers through convection and currents. This
movement reduces surface temperature extremes. Moreover, processes such as evaporation and the high thermal inertia
of water further help in moderating the temperature. These properties collectively ensure that the ocean’s surface
temperature remains relatively stable over short periods like a day-night cycle.
Hence both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Source: NCERT Class 11 – Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 11
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.70)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The ‘Indo-Pacific’ is the strategic reality of the 21st century. It has increased in significance due to its extensive
geographical spread, its economic contributions and its supporting almost half of the world population. As a result,
various strategies have been propped up to deal effectively with the region.
Statement a is incorrect. The strategy was formulated by Japan to promote rule of law and an inclusive international
order. It was given by Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2016 at the Tokyo International Conference on African
Development.The core objective of FOIP is to promote peace, stability, security, and economic prosperity in the Indo-
Pacific region
Statement b is correct: Japan’s FOIP vision is built on three pillars:
(1) promoting rule of law, freedom of navigation, and free trade;
(2) enhancing connectivity and strengthening economic partnerships through agreements like Economic Partnership
Agreements (EPA), Free Trade Agreements (FTA), and investment treaties; and (3) ensuring commitment to peace and

[41]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
stability, which includes capacity building for maritime law enforcement and cooperation in humanitarian assistance and
disaster relief (HA/DR).
Statement c is correct: Japan’s FPIO strategy is three-pronged: strengthening its defence capabilities and security ties
with the United States (US); deepening its security partnerships with like-minded countries such as Australia, India, South
Korea, and other Southeast Asian nations; and enhancing strategic coordination to support a US-led rules-based
international order
Statement d is correct: The FOIP strategy promotes digital connectivity through investing in submarine cable networks
and digital infrastructure in the Indo-Pacific towards ensuring secure and reliable connectivity for economic
development, e-commerce, and information sharing, while addressing concerns over China’s and Russia’s potential
manipulation of the digital economy.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/navigating-the-maze-of-indo-
pacific-frameworks-and-alliances-9723397/
https://www.mofa.go.jp/files/100477660.pdf
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Free and Open Indo-Pacific (FOIP) Strategy
Subtopic:)

Q.71)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular volume of water in a definite path and
direction.Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces namely: 1.Primary forces that initiate the movement of
water.2 Secondary forces that influence the currents to flow.
Statement 1 is correct. Solar radiation causes temperature differences between the equator and the poles. Warm water
near the equator expands and becomes less dense, while cooler polar water sinks.This leads to pressure gradients and
density-driven movement, helping set large-scale current patterns.
Statement 2 is correct. Surface currents are primarily driven by prevailing winds (e.g., trade winds, westerlies).Wind
transfers momentum to the water surface, setting it in motion and pushing surface currents in specific directions.
Statement 3 is correct. Gravity acts to level out surface elevations caused by uneven heating and wind piling water in
certain regions.It also contributes to thermohaline circulation (deep-ocean currents) as denser water sinks and less dense
water rises.
Statement 4 is correct. Caused by Earth's rotation, the Coriolis effect deflects currents:To the right in the Northern
HemisphereTo the left in the Southern Hemisphere.This creates spiraling patterns in gyres and plays a critical role in the
direction of both surface and deep currents.
Source NCERT Fundamental Of Physical Geography Ch Movements Of Ocean Water
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.72)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement c is correct. The continental rise lies at the base of the continental slope, marking the transition from the
steep slope to the relatively flat abyssal plain.It is composed of thick accumulations of sediments that have cascaded down
from the slope via turbidity currents and underwater landslides. It forms a gentle incline and represents the true edge of
the continental margin.The abyssal plain comes after the continental rise and is one of the flattest, deepest parts of the
ocean floor.

[42]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Knowledge Base: Ocean relief features, also known as submarine relief, encompass the diverse topography found on the
ocean floor. These features include continental shelves, slopes, rises, abyssal plains, trenches, and mid-ocean ridges, all
shaped by tectonic activity, volcanic eruptions, and sedimentation.
1. Continental Shelf: This is the shallow, gently sloping submerged edge of a continent. It's typically covered in sediments
and can be rich in marine life.
2. Continental Slope: A steeper descent marking the boundary between the continental shelf and the deep ocean floor. It
often features canyons and valleys.
3. Continental Rise: A gently sloping area at the base of the continental slope, formed by sediment accumulation.
4. Abyssal Plains: Vast, flat, and featureless expanses of the deep ocean floor, often covered in fine sediments.
5. Trenches: Deep, narrow depressions in the ocean floor, formed where one tectonic plate subducts (slides) beneath
another.
6. Mid-Ocean Ridges: Underwater mountain ranges formed by volcanic activity where tectonic plates are diverging.
7. Seamounts and Guyots: Underwater mountains, with seamounts being cone-shaped and guyots being flat-topped due
to erosion.
8. Hydrothermal Vents: Openings in the ocean floor that release geothermally heated water, supporting unique
ecosystems.
Source: Physical Geography Savindra Singh .Ch: Reliefs Of Ocean Basins.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.73)
Ans) a
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Ocean waves are rhythmic disturbances on the surface of the ocean, primarily caused by wind transferring energy to the
water. These waves can vary in size and intensity, with some being small ripples and others large enough to cause coastal
erosion. They are a significant force in shaping coastlines and play a crucial role in marine ecosystems and weather
patterns.
Statement 1 is correct.Ocean surface waves are caused by the transfer of wind energy to the water. Although it appears
that water is moving forward with the wave, water particles actually move in nearly circular orbits, resulting in little to no
net horizontal transport — this is characteristic of orbital wave motion in deep water.

[43]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Statement 2 is correct.Wave formation is governed by wind speed, duration (how long the wind blows), and fetch (the
uninterrupted distance over which the wind blows). These factors collectively determine the energy input into the wave
system, affecting wave height, wavelength, and period.
Statement 3 is incorrect.While salinity does influence water density, its impact on wave characteristics like amplitude and
wavelength is negligible in comparison to wind-related factors. Under normal ocean conditions, changes in salinity are
not significant enough to noticeably affect wave dynamics.
Source: NCERT Fundamentals Of Physical Geography .Ch ,Movements Ocean Water
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.74)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect: The Alaska Current is a warm ocean current that flows northward along the western coast of North
America in the North Pacific Ocean. It brings relatively warm water toward Alaska and moderates the coastal climate.
Pair 2 is correct:The Benguela Current is a cold current that flows northward along the southwestern coast of Africa in
the South Atlantic Ocean. It is part of the South Atlantic gyre and plays a crucial role in bringing nutrient-rich cold
waters to the surface (upwelling), supporting rich marine biodiversity.
Pair 3 is incorrect:The West Wind Drift, also known as the Antarctic Circumpolar Current, is a cold ocean current that
flows from west to east around Antarctica in the Southern Ocean. It is the largest ocean current in terms of volume .
Pair 4 is correct: The Kuroshio Current is a warm ocean current flowing northeastward along the eastern coast of Japan
in the North Pacific Ocean. It is similar to the Gulf Stream in the Atlantic and contributes to the temperate climate of
nearby coastal areas like Japan and Taiwan.

[44]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=13-16 MOVEMENTS OF OCEAN WATER> Pg.no.112
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.75)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Supreme Court admitted the petition seeking to bring down the permissible water level of Mullaperiyar Dam from 142
ft to 120 ft to obviate the possibility of a dam breach.
Mullaperiyar dam is a masonry gravity dam situated in Idukki district of Indian state of Kerala. It is located on the
Cardamom Hills of the Western Ghats. It was constructed between 1887 and 1895 in the princely state of Travancore
(present-day Kerala) and given to the British-ruled Madras Presidency on a 999-year lease in 1886.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The dam, though situated in Kerala state, is owned, operated and maintained by Tamil Nadu
for various purposes, including irrigation, drinking water supply and hydro-power generation. It distributes water to
various regions in Tamil Nadu, facilitating irrigation across five districts. It was according to the above-mentioned
999-year lease agreement made during British rule, that the operational rights were handed over to Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The dam is built at the confluence of the Mullayar (Not Muthirapuzha river) and Periyar rivers.
The Periyar National Park is also located around the dam's reservoir.
Source: https://www.keralatourism.org/periyar/mullaperiyar-dam.php
https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/kerala/2024/Dec/18/mullaperiyar-dam-water-level-will-be-raised-to-
152ft-says-tn-minister-periyasamy
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Mullaperiyar dam
Subtopic:)

Q.76)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct:The Nile originates from two major tributaries — the White Nile (Lake Victoria in East Africa) and the
Blue Nile (Lake Tana in Ethiopia). It is the longest river in Africa. The Nile flows northward across northeastern Africa
through Sudan and Egypt. It empties into the Mediterranean Sea via a broad delta in northern Egypt.
Pair 2 is correct: The Mississippi River originates at Lake Itasca in the state of Minnesota, USA.It is one of the longest
rivers in North America, flowing southward through the central United States. It has a vast drainage basin that covers
around 40% of the continental U.S.It flows into the Gulf of Mexico, forming a massive delta in the state of Louisiana.
Pair 3 is incorrect: The Danube originates in the Black Forest region of Germany, from the confluence of the Brigach
and Breg rivers. It flows through or forms borders of 10 countries in Central and Eastern Europe, making it the second-
longest river in Europe.It flows into the Black Sea, not the Adriatic Sea.
Pair 4 is incorrect: The Volga river originates in the Valdai Hills northwest of Moscow, Russia. It is the longest river in
Europe, flowing entirely within Russia. It is central to Russian culture and economy, supporting navigation, irrigation, and
hydroelectric power.The Volga flows into the Caspian Sea.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/top-10-listing/top-10-longest-rivers-in-the-world-9327929/
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Running Water
Subtopic:)

[45]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.77)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Laurentian type climate, also known as the cool temperate eastern margin climate, is typically found on the eastern
coasts of continents in higher mid-latitudes, such as eastern Canada, northeastern USA, and parts of northeastern
Asia.
It is characterized by cold, snowy winters and warm summers, showing the influence of continentality.
Due to the proximity to the ocean and moist easterly or maritime winds, it receives moderate to high rainfall
throughout the year, with a distinct summer maximum.
This climate type exhibits both continental and maritime features — strong temperature contrasts (continental trait) and
year-round precipitation (maritime trait), making it a hybrid climatic zone.
Source: Certificate Physical and human Geography G.C.Leong> Cool temperate eastern margin climate> Pg.no.176.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology
Subtopic:)

Q.78)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect:Thermocline is a middle layer in the ocean where temperature drops rapidly with depth. It
typically lies between 500 and 1,000 meters, although its upper boundary may begin as shallow as 100–400 m depending
on the region. This zone separates the warm upper layer from the cold deep layer, playing a key role in oceanic heat
distribution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In polar regions, the ocean temperature is uniformly cold from the surface to the bottom, so
no sharp temperature gradient forms, and the thermocline is absent or very weak. In contrast, in tropical regions, the
surface waters are much warmer, and the temperature drops sharply with depth, making the thermocline very
prominent there.
Statement 3 is incorrect: At the equator, the thermocline is very well-developed, not absent. This is because the surface
water is warm year-round, but below a few hundred meters, the temperature rapidly decreases. Therefore, the
equatorial region has one of the most distinct thermoclines.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=12-16 > WATER (OCEANS)> Pg no.103
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.79)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect:Although the North Sea is located in higher latitudes, it records higher salinity. This is because
of the influx of more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift, a warm ocean current.
Statement 2 is correct:The Baltic Sea has low salinity levels, primarily because of the enormous volume of freshwater
contributed by numerous rivers draining into it. The limited connection with the open ocean further restricts saline
water mixing.
Statement 3 is correct:The Arabian Sea shows higher salinity because it receives less freshwater from rivers and has
higher evaporation rates. In contrast, the Bay of Bengal receives heavy river runoff from rivers like the Ganga and
Brahmaputra, reducing its salinity.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=12-16 WATER (OCEANS)>Pg.no.105.
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9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

[46]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.80)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Caspian Sea is the largest inland body of water in the world by surface area. It is located between Europe and Asia– to the
east of Caucasus and west of the broad steppe of Central Asia. It is primarily watered by three major rivers: Volga, Ural
and Terek River. It has fresh water in its northern parts and saline water in its southern parts. It has a mean salinity of
about a third of the salinity of average seawater. Russia, Azerbaijan, Iran, Turkmenistan, and Kazakhstan border the
Caspian Sea. Thus, Option 1, 3 and 5 are correct.

Source: https://forumias.com/blog/caspian-sea/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Caspian Sea
Subtopic:)

Q.81)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Isotherms are lines on a map that join places with equal temperature. Generally, isotherms run parallel to latitude,
reflecting the influence of latitude on temperature distribution.
Statement 1 is correct: In January, isotherms tend to bend northward over oceans and southward over continents.

[47]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Statement 2 is incorrect: Over the North Atlantic Ocean, where warm currents like the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic
Drift keep ocean temperatures higher, causing the isotherms to curve north.

Knowledge Base:
● Over land in Europe and the Siberian plain, temperatures drop sharply, leading isotherms to bend south. For
example, along 60° E longitude, the mean January temperature is -20°C at both 80°N and 50°N.
● January temperatures are highest (over 27°C) in the equatorial oceans, over 24°C in the tropics, 2°C to 0°C in middle
latitudes, and fall to -18°C to -48°C in the Eurasian continental interior.
● In the southern hemisphere, the influence of the oceans keeps temperature variations more gradual, and the
isotherms remain almost parallel to latitudes, with 20°C, 10°C, and 0°C isotherms running parallel to 35°S, 45°S, and
60°S respectively.
● In July, the isotherms mostly run parallel to the latitudes, showing a regular pattern. Equatorial oceans experience
warmer temperatures, exceeding 27°C.
o On land, temperatures rise above 30°C in the subtropical continental region of Asia, especially along 30°N
latitude.
o The 10°C isotherm passes along 40°N in the northern hemisphere and also along 40°S in the southern
hemisphere.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=8-16
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.82)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
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[48]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Inversion of Temperature occurs when the normal decrease of temperature with altitude, known as the normal lapse
rate, is reversed, and temperature increases with height. This phenomenon is called temperature inversion and, though
usually of short duration, it is quite common.
Option 1 is incorrect: Cloud cover tends to trap heat, leading to warmer nights and making it more difficult for the
ground to cool and create an inversion.
Option 2 and 3 are correct: The ideal conditions for inversion are long winter nights with clear skies and still air/calm
winds, which allow the ground to lose heat rapidly through radiation, making the surface cooler than the air above by
early morning.
Knowledge Base:
● Over polar regions, temperature inversion can persist year-round.
● Surface inversion enhances atmospheric stability in the lower layers, causing smoke and dust to get trapped below
the inversion layer and spread horizontally, often leading to dense morning fog in winter. Typically, this inversion
lasts until sunrise, when solar heating warms the surface.
● In hilly and mountainous regions, inversion can occur due to air drainage: during the night, cold, dense air flows
downhill and settles in valleys, while warmer air remains above. This process, called air drainage, can protect valley
plants from frost damage.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=8-16
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.83)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The vertical pressure gradient force (the force causing air to move upwards due to pressure differences with height) is
much larger than the horizontal pressure gradient (which drives winds along the Earth's surface). However, the vertical
pressure gradient is almost exactly balanced by the gravitational force pulling air downward, resulting in a state of
hydrostatic equilibrium. As a result, we do not experience strong upward winds in the lower atmosphere.
Knowledge Base:
● In the lower atmosphere, air pressure decreases rapidly with height. On average, there is a drop of about 1 millibar
(mb) for every 10 meters of elevation gained.
● However, this rate is not constant and can vary with altitude.
● For example, at sea level, the standard pressure is 1,013.25 mb and temperature is 15.2°C; at 1 km, pressure drops to
898.76 mb and temperature to 8.7°C; at 5 km, pressure falls to 540.48 mb and temperature to –17.3°C; at 10 km,
pressure is 265.00 mb and temperature is –49.7°C.
Source - https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=9-16
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.84)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The velocity of wind is determined by several key factors acting together.
Option 1 is correct: The pressure gradient force is the primary driver, with air moving from regions of high pressure to
low pressure; the greater the difference (or gradient) in pressure, the stronger the wind.

[49]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Option 2 is correct: Another important influence is frictional force, which is most pronounced at the Earth's surface,
where it slows down the wind, especially up to an elevation of about 1–3 kilometers. Over the ocean surface, friction is
much less compared to land.
Option 3 is correct: The Coriolis force, which arises from the rotation of the Earth, affects the direction of the wind,
causing it to be deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere; this
deflection is stronger when wind speed is higher and is absent at the equator.
● The Coriolis force always acts at right angles to the direction of wind and is proportional to the wind's velocity
and the sine of the latitude.
Option 4 is incorrect: Electromagnetic forces generally do not significantly influence the velocity or direction of surface
winds. While electromagnetic fields exist in the atmosphere, they do not exert a substantial force on the large-scale
movements of air that we perceive as wind.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=9-16
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.85)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The International Court of Justice (ICJ), established in 1945 under the UN Charter, is the principal judicial organ of the
United Nations. Headquartered at the Peace Palace in The Hague, it settles legal disputes between States and provides
advisory opinions on international legal questions referred by authorized UN bodies and agencies.
Statement 1 is correct: The ICJ is headquartered at the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands, making it the only
principal organ of the United Nations not located in New York.All other principal UN organs, including the General
Assembly, Security Council, International Court of Justice, Economic and Social Council, Trusteeship Council, and
Secretariat, are based in New York.
Statement 2 is correct: Advisory proceedings before the Court are only open to five organs of the United Nations and 16
specialized agencies of the United Nations family or affiliated organizations.
The United Nations General Assembly and Security Council may request advisory opinions on “any legal question”. Other
United Nations organs and specialized agencies which have been authorized to seek advisory opinions can only do so with
respect to “legal questions arising within the scope of their activities”.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The ICJ does not have jurisdiction over cases involving individuals, NGOs, or private entities. Its
jurisdiction is limited to:
•Contentious cases between States.Contentious cases involve legal disputes between sovereign states under international
law. Only states can be parties to these cases; individuals or organizations cannot approach the ICJ. The court’s decisions
in these cases are binding on the parties involved.
•Advisory opinions on legal questions referred by authorized international organizations.Advisory opinions are non-
binding legal advice provided by the ICJ at the request of authorized international organizations or UN organs. These
opinions help clarify international legal issues but do not resolve disputes between states.
Cases involving individuals or private entities fall under the jurisdiction of the International Criminal Court (ICC)or other
tribunals, not the ICJ.
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) International Court of Justice (ICJ)
Subtopic:)

Q.86)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
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[50]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Dynamically induced pressure belts are regions of the Earth's atmosphere where air pressure is primarily influenced by
the movement and interaction of air masses and the Earth's rotation (Coriolis effect), rather than solely by temperature
variations (which causes the Thermally Induced Pressure Belts) . They are distinct from thermally induced pressure
belts, which are directly driven by temperature differences caused by solar radiation.
Statement 1 is incorrect.Equatorial Low Pressure Belt is thermally induced pressure belt. Due to intense solar radiation
near the equator heats the surface. Thus hot air rises, creating a low-pressure zone known as the Inter Tropical
Convergence Zone (ITCZ). This rising air is a result of temperature, not large-scale dynamic air movement.
Statement 2 is correct. Sub Tropical -High Pressure Belts are dynamically induced pressure belts. As air rises at the
equator (Hadley Cell) cools and sinks around 30° latitude, forming a high-pressure zone.This pressure zone is not due to
direct temperature, but the dynamic downward movement of air.
Statement 3 is correct. Sub Polar Low Pressure belts are dynamically induced in nature. Around 60° latitude, cold polar
easterlies meet warmer westerlies at the Polar Front. The warmer air rises over the denser cold air, creating a low-
pressure zone.This is due to air movement (convergence and uplift), not surface temperature.
Statement 4 is incorrect.Polar High Pressure Belts are thermally induced .Near the poles (~90°), extreme cold leads to
very dense, cold air sinking to the surface.This creates high-pressure zones.Since the cause is cooling of air due to low
temperatures, this is a thermally induced belt.
Knowledge Base:
How Dynamically Pressure belts are induced by Earth's rotation and atmospheric circulation
● Coriolis Effect: The Earth's rotation deflects moving air, influencing its direction. This deflection contributes to
the establishment of high-pressure areas in the subtropics and low-pressure areas in the subpolar regions.
● Hadley and Ferrel Cells: Global atmospheric circulation cells, like the Hadley and Ferrel cells, are driven by both
thermal and dynamic factors. Air rising in the Hadley cell eventually descends in the subtropics, contributing to
the subtropical high-pressure belts. The interaction between air masses in the Ferrel cell and polar cell
contributes to the formation of the subpolar low-pressure belts.
Source: Physical Geography by Savindra Singh ,Ch Air Pressure And Atmospheric Circulation
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.87)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: Cumulonimbus clouds form due to forced convection and are commonly found along cold fronts.
They have a dark, flat base and a towering vertical structure, often with a wall-like appearance. These clouds are unique
in their ability to produce hail, thunder, and lightning, making them the only cloud type associated with such intense
weather phenomena.
Option b is incorrect: Nimbostratus clouds are thick, dark, low-level clouds that typically result in continuous, steady
precipitation like drizzle or light rain. However, they lack vertical development and are not capable of generating
thunder or lightning.
Option c is incorrect: Stratocumulus clouds are low-lying, patchy, and lumpy. While they may bring some light drizzle,
they are generally non-violent in nature and do not produce thunderstorms, hail, or lightning.
Option d is incorrect: Cirrostratus clouds are high-altitude, thin, and wispy. They often create halos around the sun or
moon due to their ice crystal composition. They are entirely non-precipitating and not associated with storm activity.
Knowledge Base: High-Level Clouds
(Above 20,000 feet / 6,000 m)
1. Cirrus (Ci)
● Wispy, hair-like, fibrous clouds

[51]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

● Composed of ice crystals

● Appear bright white; may cause halos around the sun/moon
● Indicate fair weather or change in weather
2. Cirrostratus (Cs)
● Thin, veil-like, transparent cloud layer
● Often covers entire sky; causes halo phenomena
● Sunlight and moonlight pass through easily
3. Cirrocumulus (Cc)
● Small, rippled patches like grains or fish scales (“mackerel sky”)
● Made of ice crystals, no shadows
● Often short-lived and merge with cirrus or cirrostratus
Mid-Level Clouds
(6,500 to 20,000 feet / 2,000–6,000 m)
4. Altostratus (As)
● Grey/blue sheet; covers the sky partially or completely
● Sun appears as a dim disk through it
● May produce light rain or virga, no halo
5. Altocumulus (Ac)
● White/grey layers with patches or rolls
● Can appear at multiple levels
● Corona may form around sun/moon
6. Nimbostratus (Ns)
● Thick, dark grey cloud layer
● Produces continuous rain/snow
● Can cover sun completely, extends from mid to low levels
Low-Level Clouds
(Surface to 6,500 feet / 0–2,000 m)
7. Stratus (St)
● Uniform, grey sheet with a flat base
● May cause drizzle or snow grains
● Sun visible as a diffuse glow, no halo
8. Stratocumulus (Sc)
● Grey/white clouds in rounded masses or rolls
● Often form a honeycomb pattern
● Rarely bring rain, but may precede storms
9. Cumulus (Cu)
● Fluffy, cotton-like clouds with flat base
● Formed due to convection
● Mostly indicate fair weather, but can grow
10. Cumulonimbus (Cb)
● Towering thunderclouds, reach upper levels
● Flat, anvil-shaped top, dark base
● Cause thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, and heavy rain
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/cncl/resources/continuing_education/ncert/flood_18141.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Climatic Phenomenon
Subtopic:)
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9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

[52]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Q.88)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The westerlies are one of the major planetary wind systems in Earth's atmosphere. .Westerlies are winds that blow from
the west to the east between 30° and 60° latitudes in both hemispheres.These winds originate from the subtropical
high-pressure belts (around 30° N and S). Air descends here due to global convection currents and creates zones of high
atmospheric pressure.
From there, air flows toward the subpolar low-pressure belts (around 60° N and S), where air tends to rise.
Source: NCERT FUNDAMENTAL OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY Ch Atmospheric Circulation And Weather System
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.89)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
El Niño is a climate pattern that results in warmer-than-average sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern
tropical Pacific Ocean. It's part of the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle, which also includes the opposite phase,
La Niña, and a neutral phase. El Niño events can significantly impact weather patterns worldwide, often leading to
increased rainfall in some regions and drought in others.
Statement 1 is correct: During El Niño, the normally cold waters off the coast of Ecuador and Peru become unusually
warm. This is due to the weakening or reversal of the trade winds, which usually push warm water westward across the
Pacific.
Statement 2 is incorrect: El Niño often weakens the Indian monsoon. It is linked to weaker monsoon winds and less
rainfall, leading to drought conditions in many parts of India.
Statement 3 is correct: In normal conditions, cold water rich in nutrients rises from the deep ocean (upwelling) near the
coasts of Peru and Ecuador. This supports one of the world’s richest fishing zones.
During El Niño the warmer surface water blocks this upwelling, depriving marine life of nutrients, leading to a decline in
fish populations and economic losses for fisheries.
Statement 4 is correct: Normally, trade winds bring moist air to Australia and Indonesia, causing rainfall. But during El
Niño, these winds weaken or reverse, and moisture shifts eastward toward South America.
Knowledge Base: La Niña refers to the cooling of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific
Ocean, which is the opposite of El Niño. This phenomenon is a phase of the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and
typically occurs every 3 to 5 years. La Niña can influence weather patterns globally, including India, where it can lead to
increased rainfall during the monsoon season.
Source: Physical Geography by Savindra Singh
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.90)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Different species of birds exist in different parts of the world and their population and conservation status decides their
IUCN categorization.
Pair 1 is correct. Red-breasted Flycatcher is IUCN Least Concern. It generally migrates from Eastern Europe to avoid the
harsh winters and thrive in South Asia’s moderate climate with abundant food. The bird breeds from spring to summer, in
the deciduous mixed forests of Eastern Europe and across Central Asia.
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[53]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Pair 2 is incorrect. Laysan Albatross is IUCN Near Threatened. Approximately 99.7% of the population nests in
the Northwestern Hawaiian Islands, with Midway Atoll National Wildlife Refuge serving as a critical breeding ground. It is
a medium-sized seabird with a gull-like appearance and long, slender wings for long flights.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Malayan Night Heron is IUCN Least Concern. It has reddish-brown plumage, black underwings, black
crown and crest, stout bill and short neck. It is found in Southern and Eastern Asia, migrating to India during the winter
season. It usually inhabits forests, streams and marshes. It is typically nocturnal but can be active during the day too.
Source: https://forumias.com/blog/red-breasted-flycatcher/
https://forumias.com/blog/laysan-albatross/
https://forumias.com/blog/malayan-night-heron/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Species in news
Subtopic:)

Q.91)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Local winds are winds that blow over a small area and are usually influenced by local geography such as mountains,
deserts, and coastlines. They are short-lived and often occur due to differences in temperature and pressure in nearby
regions.
Pair 1 is correct.The Sirocco is a warm, humid wind that originates over the Sahara Desert and crosses the
Mediterranean Sea, impacting southern Europe.
Pair 2 is incorrect.The bora wind is a strong, cold, northeasterly wind that affects the Adriatic Sea region, particularly
impacting coastal areas of Italy, Slovenia, and Croatia..
Pair 3 is incorrect.The Harmattan is a dry, dusty, northeasterly wind that blows over West Africa, particularly from
December to mid-March.
Pair 4 is correct.A foehn wind is a warm, dry wind that descends the leeward (downwind) side of a mountain
range,impacting Switzerland.
Pair 5 is correct .A Chinook wind is a warm, dry wind that blows down the leeward (eastern) side of mountain ranges,
particularly the Rocky Mountains in the USA.
Source: Physical Geography by Savindra Singh ,Ch: Air Pressure and Atmospheric Circulation
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.92)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Local winds such as anabatic and katabatic winds are driven by diurnal heating and cooling of slopes. Anabatic winds
occur during the day as warm air rises up mountain slopes, while katabatic winds occur at night when cooled, dense air
flows downslope due to gravity. These winds are crucial in microclimate formation and glacier dynamics, especially in
mountainous and polar regions.
Statement I is correct: "Katabatic winds typically occur during the night."
Katabatic winds are downslope winds that form at night when the land surface loses heat rapidly through radiation. This
causes the air in contact with the slopes to cool, become denser, and flow downhill under the influence of gravity. These
winds are common in valleys, glacial regions, and highland terrains, especially under clear, calm conditions. Hence, the
timing of katabatic winds—predominantly during night-time—is accurate and well-established.
Statement II is correct: "This is because the ground surface cools rapidly after sunset, causing the overlying air to
become denser and flow downslope under gravity."
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[54]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
This statement provides the correct physical reasoning behind katabatic wind formation. After sunset, the ground loses
heat rapidly via radiation, especially in dry, clear-sky conditions. As the surface cools, the adjacent air also cools, becomes
heavier (denser), and slides downslope due to gravity. This process is most effective when there is minimal wind or
turbulence, allowing a stable, cold air mass to accumulate and descend. This is the core mechanism behind katabatic
winds. Hence, statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=9-16
G.C. Leong – Certificate Physical and Human Geography
Chapter: Weather and Climate – Local Winds
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.93)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Air masses are large volumes of air that acquire distinctive temperature, humidity, and pressure characteristics from the
surface over which they form, known as source regions. These masses play a crucial role in shaping weather patterns,
especially when they interact with one another to form fronts, which can lead to significant weather events like cyclones
or thunderstorms.
Statement 1 is correct: This is a standard meteorological definition. Air masses can cover thousands of square kilometers,
and they exhibit uniform physical properties in the horizontal direction, especially in terms of temperature and
moisture. These properties are acquired from the source region—typically an area with relatively consistent surface
conditions, such as oceans, deserts, or tundra. Hence, this statement is factually accurate.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While solar heating is indeed intense near the equator, air masses do not typically form there.
Instead, they form best in regions with stable weather conditions, such as subtropical oceans, polar ice sheets, or large
continental interiors—not in the highly dynamic equatorial belt where frequent rising air, convection, and turbulence
prevent the formation of large, uniform air masses. Thus, equatorial regions are not ideal source regions for air mass
development.
Statement 3 is correct: This is a core concept in synoptic meteorology. When air masses with different temperature and
moisture characteristics meet, they do not mix easily, leading to the formation of a front—a boundary zone between
them. These fronts are associated with instability, cloud formation, and precipitation, and are central to the
development of mid-latitude cyclones. Therefore, this statement is also correct.
Knowledge Base:
Characteristics of Air masses:
● Horizontally homogeneous in weather parameters.
● Cover thousands of kilometers.
● Move as cohesive units and influence regional weather.
● Stability depends on the nature of the underlying surface and air mass temperature.
Ideal Conditions for Formation:
● Broad, uniform surface area (land or ocean).
● Stable atmospheric conditions.
● Light winds to allow air to acquire properties of the source region.
Major Source Regions:
● Continental interiors (cold, dry)
● Oceans (moist, can be warm or cold)
● Not ideal in equatorial regions (due to convection) or mid-latitudes (due to high variability)
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=9-16
Subject:) Geography
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

[55]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.94)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Extra-tropical cyclones, also called mid-latitude or temperate cyclones, are large-scale low-pressure systems that form
along the polar front where warm tropical air meets cold polar air. These cyclones play a key role in transferring heat and
moisture from the tropics toward the poles and are common between 30° and 60° latitudes.
Statement 1 is correct: These cyclones originate along the polar front, which is the boundary between warm and cold
air masses. The meeting and interaction of these air masses create warm and cold fronts, which are defining features of
extra-tropical cyclones. They develop mostly in mid-latitude regions (30°–60°) and are governed by upper air
disturbances and jet streams. Thus, this statement accurately reflects the formation zone and frontal nature of these
systems.
Statement 2 is correct: Tropical cyclones are known for their well-defined eye, a calm, clear center surrounded by
intense convection. In contrast, extra-tropical cyclones lack a central eye because they are asymmetrical and frontal
systems. Their structure is more elongated with spiral bands and frontal boundaries rather than a compact, circular core.
Hence, this is a valid distinction between the two types of cyclones.
Statement 3 is incorrect: This description refers to the eye of a tropical cyclone, not to extra-tropical cyclones. In extra-
tropical systems, the central region is usually the zone of lowest pressure, associated with cloudiness, precipitation,
and unsettled weather. There may be cloud clearing after the passage of the cold front, but the central region itself is not
calm or clear. Hence, the statement misrepresents the nature of the cyclone’s center.
Knowledge Base:
Key difference between Tropical and extratropical cyclones:
Tropical Cyclones:
1. Formation Region: Develops over warm tropical oceans, typically between 5° and 20° latitude.
2. Energy Source: Powered by the latent heat of condensation released from warm, moist air over ocean surfaces.
3. Structure: Has a symmetrical circular shape with a well-developed eye at the center.
4. Associated Weather: Bring intense rainfall, strong winds, storm surges, and can cause widespread coastal
damage.
Extra-Tropical Cyclones:
1. Formation Region: Forms in mid- and high-latitudes (30°–60°), often along the polar front where warm and cold
air masses meet.
2. Energy Source: Derive energy from horizontal temperature contrasts (thermal gradients) between different air
masses.
3. Structure: Asymmetrical in shape, characterized by warm and cold fronts, and generally lacks a central eye.
4. Associated Weather: Causes moderate to heavy rainfall, snowfall, thunderstorms, and influences temperate zone
weather systems.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=9-16
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.95)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

[56]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

A windfall tax is a levy imposed by governments on companies earning unexpectedly high profits due to external
factors like geopolitical events or market disruptions. It aims to redistribute super-normal gains for public welfare or
fiscal needs. Commonly applied in sectors like oil, energy, and mining during price surges.
Option 1 is correct: Removing the windfall tax reduces the financial burden on oil companies, improving their profitability.
This incentivizes higher investments and production in the sector, potentially boosting economic activity and exports.
Option 2 is correct: Windfall taxes contribute to government income, especially during periods of high corporate profits.
Removing the tax reduces this revenue, potentially affecting fiscal resources for public welfare programs or other
initiatives.
Option 3 is incorrect: Removing the tax improves export competitiveness by lowering costs for oil producers, as the
cost burden on exporters would be lower, making Indian fuel exports more attractive in the global market.
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Taxation
Subtopic:)

Q.96)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Tropical cyclones are powerful storm systems that originate over warm tropical oceans. They form when a combination of
factors like sufficiently warm sea surface temperatures, Earth's rotation (Coriolis effect), moist air, and favorable wind
patterns create intense low-pressure areas with strong, rotating winds. These storms can grow rapidly and cause
significant impacts through heavy rainfall, strong winds, and coastal flooding.

Option a is correct: Sea surface temperature above 27°C extending to a depth of at least 60–70 metres is a crucial
condition for tropical cyclone formation. Warm ocean water provides the latent heat energy that fuels the cyclone’s
development and intensification. The temperature must be sufficiently high not just at the surface but also to a depth of
around 60–70 metres to sustain the energy supply as the cyclone churns the ocean. Without this warm water, the cyclone
cannot maintain its strength or form effectively.
Option b is incorrect: Presence of Coriolis force at a location close to the equator (within 2° latitude) is not favourable for
cyclone formation. The Coriolis force, which causes the rotation of the cyclone, is negligible near the equator due to

[57]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |
Earth’s rotation dynamics. This means that within approximately 5° latitude of the equator the force is too weak to induce
the necessary spin for cyclone development. Therefore, tropical cyclones rarely form very close to the equator.
Option c is correct: A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or atmospheric disturbance acts as the seed for a tropical
cyclone. Cyclones do not develop spontaneously; they require an initial disturbance that organizes convection and
encourages the convergence of winds near the surface. This low-pressure zone allows thunderstorms to cluster and start
the cyclonic circulation essential for cyclone genesis.
Option d is correct: Weak vertical wind shear in the troposphere is essential for the cyclone’s vertical structure to remain
intact. Strong wind shear disrupts the organization of the cyclone by tilting its core and displacing the warm core
convection. When vertical wind shear is weak, the cyclone’s heat engine remains aligned and can intensify. Thus, low
vertical wind shear creates a favourable environment for cyclone development.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?kegy2=9-16
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.97)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A tornado is a rapidly rotating column of air that extends from the base of a thunderstorm to the ground. These violent
vortices are among the most destructive weather phenomena on Earth, capable of immense damage in a very short time.
Statement 1 is correct: Tornadoes generally develop under conditions of strong atmospheric instability, which often
occur when warm, moist air at the surface encounters a layer of cold, dry air above. This contrast in air masses creates
the ideal environment for the development of intense thunderstorms. As the warm air rises rapidly through the cooler air
above, powerful convection is triggered, which can lead to the formation of severe thunderstorms, including those
capable of spawning tornadoes. Such meteorological setups are commonly seen in regions like the central United States
and parts of the Indo-Gangetic plain during the pre-monsoon season.
Statement 2 is correct: A mesocyclone is a large-scale, vertically rotating updraft that occurs within a supercell
thunderstorm. The formation of a mesocyclone is often a result of vertical wind shear, where wind speed and direction
vary significantly with altitude. This horizontal rotation is tilted into the vertical by the storm’s updraft, creating a
rotating column of air. In favorable conditions, this rotating updraft can intensify and extend downward toward the
ground, forming a tornado. While not all mesocyclones result in tornadoes, nearly all strong and violent tornadoes are
associated with mesocyclones, making them a critical element in the tornado formation process.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tornadoes are almost always associated with cyclonic systems rather than anticyclonic ones.
Cyclonic systems are low-pressure areas that encourage rising air, which is essential for the development of clouds and
thunderstorms. In contrast, anticyclonic systems are high-pressure zones marked by sinking air, which suppresses
cloud formation and inhibits storm development. Tornadoes form from the intense updrafts within severe
thunderstorms, typically supercells, and require conditions that support vertical air movement. Therefore, associating
tornadoes with descending air currents in anticyclones is inaccurate.
Knowledge Base:
Frequent Geographical Occurrence:
● Tornadoes occur worldwide but are most frequent and intense in the central United States, particularly in
“Tornado Alley”—covering parts of Texas, Oklahoma, Kansas, and Nebraska—where warm, moist air from the Gulf
meets cold, dry air from the north. The U.S. sees around 1,000–1,200 tornadoes annually, especially during
spring and early summer. Outside the U.S., Canada, Bangladesh, and eastern India (notably West Bengal and
Odisha) also experience deadly tornadoes, mostly in the pre-monsoon season. Tornadoes also occur, though less
frequently, in Argentina, Australia, Europe, and South Africa, generally in regions where contrasting air masses
create atmospheric instability.

[58]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

● Tornadoes are most frequent in the central United States, particularly in the area known as “Tornado Alley.”

● However, they also occur in parts of India (e.g., Gangetic plains), Bangladesh, and other temperate and tropical
regions.
Source: Class 11 NCERT – Fundamentals of Physical Geography-Chapter 10: Atmospheric Circulation and Weather
Systems
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Climatology: Weather
Subtopic:)

Q.98)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: The Moon’s orbital plane is inclined at about 5 degrees to the Earth’s orbital plane (the ecliptic).
● Due to this tilt, the Moon usually passes above or below Earth’s shadow during a full moon.
● A lunar eclipse only occurs when the Sun, Earth, and Moon align closely and the Moon is near a nodal point—where
its orbit crosses the ecliptic.
● These alignments happen during eclipse seasons, which occur roughly twice a year.
Option b is incorrect: The Sun’s gravity does influence the Moon’s orbit (causing precession), but this does not directly
misalign the Moon during full moons in a way that prevents eclipses on a regular basis.The main reason for the absence
of lunar eclipses every month is the orbital tilt, not solar gravity.
Option c is incorrect: The elliptical shape of the Moon’s orbit affects the apparent size and duration of an eclipse, not
whether it will occur.The position in Earth’s shadow zone is determined by the nodal alignment, not eccentricity of the
orbit.
Option d is incorrect: The Earth’s rotation affects day and night, not the alignment of the Earth, Sun, and Moon.It has no
role in causing or preventing a lunar eclipse.
Knowledge Base: Lunar Eclipse
● A lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon, casting a shadow on the Moon.
● It happens only on a full moon day, but not every full moon leads to an eclipse because the Moon’s orbit is tilted by
about 5° to Earth’s orbital plane (ecliptic).
Earth’s Shadows
● Umbra: The dark, central part of the Earth’s shadow where the Sun is completely blocked.
● Penumbra: The lighter outer part of the shadow where sunlight is partially blocked.

[59]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

Types of Lunar Eclipses

● Total Lunar Eclipse:
The entire Moon passes through the umbra. It appears reddish (called Blood Moon) due to Earth’s atmosphere scattering
blue light and bending red light into the shadow.
● Partial Lunar Eclipse:
Only a portion of the Moon enters the umbra, making part of the Moon look darkened.
● Penumbral Lunar Eclipse:
The Moon passes only through the penumbra. The shading is very faint and hard to notice.
Why the Moon Turns Red
● During a total eclipse, Earth’s atmosphere filters short-wavelength blue light and allows long-wavelength red light
to bend into the umbra.
● The reddish tint depends on the amount of dust, pollution, and moisture in Earth’s atmosphere.
Frequency and Duration
● Around three lunar eclipses occur every year.
● About 29% are total lunar eclipses.
● A lunar eclipse can last several hours, with totality ranging from 30 minutes to over an hour.
● Visible wherever the Moon is above the horizon during the eclipse.
Source:
https://science.nasa.gov/moon/eclipses/#:~:text=Anywhere%20from%20four%20to%20seven,Moon's%20surface%2C
%20lighting%20it%20dimly.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.99)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Earth’s atmosphere is primarily composed of major gases—nitrogen (78%) and oxygen (21%)—which together make up
about 99% of the air by volume. The remaining ~1% is made up of noble gases, greenhouse gases, and trace gases. These
minor constituents, although present in small amounts, have significant impacts on climate, temperature regulation, and
chemical interactions in the atmosphere.
● Argon (Ar) is the most abundant noble gas in the atmosphere, making up about 0.93% (9300 parts per million) of the
air by volume. It is chemically inert and does not participate in atmospheric chemical reactions, but its abundance is
significant. It ranks third in atmospheric concentration after nitrogen and oxygen, and far surpasses the others listed
in this question.
● Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is present at around 0.041% (410 ppm) and is the second-most abundant among the four.
Despite its relatively small volume, CO₂ plays a disproportionately large role in climate regulation as a major
greenhouse gas. It is also vital for photosynthesis in plants. Its levels have risen in recent decades due to human
activity, particularly fossil fuel combustion.
● Neon (Ne), another noble gas, has an atmospheric concentration of about 0.0018% (18 ppm). It is chemically inert like
argon and does not play an active role in climate or biological processes. Though more abundant than some other
trace gases, it is far less prevalent than argon and CO₂.
● Methane (CH₄) is present in very small quantities, around 1.9 ppm, making it the least abundant among the four
listed gases. However, its impact on the climate is substantial because methane is over 25 times more effective than
carbon dioxide at trapping heat over a 100-year period. It is released through natural processes such as wetlands and
also from human activities like agriculture and fossil fuel extraction.
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[60]
PTS 2026 | Solution | Test Code : 311212 |

SO the correct descending order of these gases as per their proportion in the Earth's atmosphere is: Argon-Carbon
dioxide-Neon-Methane i.e. 3-1-4-2
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/gess204.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) The Earth and the Universe
Subtopic:)

Q.100)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Untouchability was a pressing socio-political issue during the freedom struggle and after independence. Various freedom
fighters, leaders and social reformers took various steps to tackle the issue.
Pair 1 is correct. Dr. BR Ambedkar wrote ‘The Untouchables: Who were they and why they became Untouchables’ in
1948. In the book, he throws light on the origin of untouchability in India and how it has negatively affected them.
Pair 2 is incorrect. Mahatma Gandhi published ‘Harijan’ in 1933. It was a weekly newspaper through which Gandhi
offered his take on various social issues, untouchability being the most important amongst them.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Jyotiba Phule wrote ‘Gulamgiri’ in 1873. The American War of Independence had just been fought.
Which led to the end of slavery in India. He wrote this book as a dedication to all those who fought in America for the end
of slavery.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/how-did-untouchability-originate-in-
india-9719273/
https://www.epw.in/journal/2019/40/alternative-standpoint/gandhis-conception-harijan.html
https://indianexpress.com/article/who-is/who-is-jyotirao-phule-today-is-his-death-anniversary-4957999/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) How did untouchability originate in India
Subtopic:)

[61]

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PTS 2026 - Test Code: 311212 - : General Studies Paper - 1

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PTS 2026 | Test Code : 311212 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Q.33) With reference to glacial landforms, d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.39) Consider the following rocks: c) I and III only

Q.74) With reference to ocean currents,

Ocean Current Type Location 3. Danube Adriatic Sea

1. Alaska Current Cold North 4. Volga Black Sea

3. West Wind Drift Warm Southern

Q.78) With reference to the distribution of

River Drains into

1. Nile Mediterranean Sea

Q.79) With reference to the horizontal a) Only one

Q.92) Consider the following statements: c) All three

Q.98) Why does a lunar eclipse not occur on

Q.99) Consider the following gases:

Q.100) Consider the following pairs:

Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Sr No Minor Plate Location

`1 `Juan de Fuca plate `Pacific plate and North American Plate

2 Arabian Plate African And Eurasian plate

3 Caribbean Plate North American Plate and South American Plate

Knowledge Base: Types of Lakes Based on Origin

1.River capture 1.Meanders 1.Flood plain

2.Rapids, cataracts and 2.River cliffs and slip-off 2.Ox-bow lakes

3.Gorge and canyon 3.Interlocking spurs 3.Delta

Source: Certificate Physical and Human Geography >G.C.Leong>Pg.No.41

● Composed of ice crystals

Types of Lunar Eclipses

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