OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

1. The marked price of a mobile phone is Rs 5000 which is sold at Rs 3740 after two successive
discounts. If the second rate of discount is 15%, then what was the first rate of discount?
(a) 12 (b) 10% (c) 14% (d) 16%
2. The average age of 41 students of a class and their teacher is 24 years. When the teacher’s age
is excluded the average age is reduced by 1 year. What is the age of the teacher?
(a) 50 years (b) 55 years (c) 60 years (d) 65 years
3. Paras can complete 1/18th of a task in three days. Manasvi can do 1/3rd of the same task in 9
days. If they start doing the task together and after completion of 50% of the task, only Paras
completes the remaining task alone, then what would be the total number of days taken to
complete the task?
(a) 27 days (b) 11 days (c) 36 days (d) none of these
4. Ranjit sells a house worth Rs 3,25,000 to Manikaran Kumar at a profit of 6%. Ranjit again
purchases the same house from Manikaran at a loss of 4%. How much does Ranjit gain or lose
from the entire transaction?
(a) 22,560 Loss (b) 19,500 Gain (c) 23,984 Loss (d) none of these
5. A class comprises of 40 students. The average of percentage marks obtained by 28 students of
the class is 55%. When the marks of rest of the students are added to the previous total marks,
the average of the percentage marks of the class becomes 62.5%. What is the average score of
the students whose marks were added later?
(a) 75% (b) 15% (c) 80% (d) 12.5%
6. A shopkeeper marks up his goods by 20% and then gives a discount of 20%. Besides he cheats
both this suppliers and customer by 100 gm per kg i.e he takes 1100 g from his supplier and
sells only 900 g to his customer. What is his net profit percentage?
(a) 17.5% (b) 16.66% (c) 18.22% (d) 17.33%
7. Kaustav has a square farm whose side is 5 m. He has tied four cows at four cows at four corners
of the farm. The length of the ropes in order is 3m, 1m, 2m and 1m. What percentage of the
farm cannot be grazed by the cows?
(a) 52.9% (b) 47.1% (c) 55.3% (d) 44.7%
8. If a sum is deposited at simple interest of 15% pa , then the total interest on it for 6 years is still
less than the sum deposited, by Rs 72000. What was the amount of the sum deposited?
(a) Rs 480000 (b) Rs 600000 (c) Rs 540000 (d) Rs 720000
9. In a class test, Ritesh scored 182 marks , which is 58 marks less than the passing marks. Sanya
scored 60% marks which is 120 more than the passing mars. What is the minimum passing
percentage in the class test?
(a) 35 (b) 45 (c) 50 (d) 40
10. The difference between the amounts obtained after second and third year, compounding at
interest rate of 7% was Rs 40071.50. Find on the principal amount.
(a) Rs 360000 (b) Rs 420000 (c) Rs 500000 (d) Rs 60000
11. Two train of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same directions at 64 km/hr and
54km/hr. The faster trains pass the slower train in 18 seconds. The length of each train is:
(a) 36 m (b) 42 m (c) 25 m (d) 64 m
12. A and B starts a business and invests Rs 20,000 and Rs 30,000 respectively. B is an active
partner and he gets 25% of the profit separately. If their business yields them a total of Rs
30,000 as profit, what is the share of B at the end of a year.
(a) Rs 18,000 (b) Rs 13,500 (c) Rs 11,500 (d) Rs 21,000
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

13. Anita goes to college at 20 km/h and reaches college 4 minutes late. Next time she goes at 25
km/h and reaches the college 2 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. What is the distance
of her school?
(a) 16 km (b) 12 km (c) 15 km (d) 10 km
14. A man rows to a place 48 km distant and comeback in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 4 km
with the stream in the same time as 3 km against the stream. The rate of the stream is :
(a) 1 km/hr (b) 1.5 km/hr (c) 2 km/hr (d) 2.5 km/r
15. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the
probability that the committee has atleast one woman?
(a) 1/10 (b) 9/20 (c) 9/10 (d) 1/20
16. 15 litres of a mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 1 : 4. If 3 litres of water is mixed in
it, the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture will be
(a) 15 (b) 50/3 (c) 17 (d) 37/2
17. A vessel contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1 . When 80l mixture is taken out and
completely replaced by milk, then milk becomes 700% of the water in the vessel . Find original
quantity of the vessel.
(a) 280 lt (b) 320 lt (c) 200 lt (d) 160 lt
18. A train is moving at a speed of 132 km/hr . If the length of the train is 110 metres , how long
will it take to cross a railway platform 165 metres long?
(a) 5 seconds (b) 7.5 second (c) 10 second (d) 15 second
19. There was one mess for 30 boarders in a certain hostel. If the number of boarders were
increased by 10, the expenses of the mess would increase by Rs 40 per month, while the
average expenditure per head diminish by Rs 2. Find the original monthly expenses.
(a) Rs 390 (b) Rs 360 (c) Rs 410 (d) Rs 480
20. Average of present age of A and C is 29 years and C is 8 years younger than B. Ratio of present
age of A to present age of B?
(a) 32 years (b) 36 years (c) 28 years (d) 30 years
21. The manufacturer of an article makes a profit of 5% , the wholesale dealer makes a profit of
10% , and the retailer makes a profit of 15%. Find the manufacturing price of the article if the
retailer sold it for Rs 5313.
(a) Rs 4000 (b) Rs 4500 (c) Rs 5000 (d) Rs 4950
22. Out of the total number of students in a college 12% are interested in sports. ¾ of the
remaining number of students are interested in dancing 10% of the total number of students
are interested in singing and the remaining 15 students are not interested in any of the
activities. What is the total number of students in the college?
(a) 115 (b) 120 (c) 125 (d) 150
23. The average marks in English of a class of 24 students is 56. If the marks of three students were
misread as 44, 45 and 61 in lieu of the actual marks 48, 59 and 67 respectively, then what
would be the correct average?
(a) 59 (b) 57.5 (c) 58 (d) none of these
24. The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs 1920 is equal to the percent loss
incurred by selling the same article for Rs 1280. At what price should the article be sold to
make 25% profit?
(a) Rs 2000 (b) Rs 2200 (c) Rs 2400 (d) none of these
25. The difference between the simple interest received from two different sources on Rs 1500 for
3 years is Rs 13.50 . The difference between their rates of interest is
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.2% (c) 0.3% (d) 0.4%
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

26. 5 Bells begin to toll together at the intervals of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 seconds, respectively. Ow
many times will they toll together in one hour excluding the one at the start?
(a) 10 times (b) 12 times (c) 6 times (d) 8 times
27. A cylinder circumscribes a sphere. Find the ratio of the volume of cylinder to that of sphere:
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 7 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 3 : 2
28. The total surface area of a cuboid is 846 cm2. Find the volume if the dimensions are
proportional to 5 : 4 : 3:
(a) 1400 cm3 (b) 1500 cm3 (c) 1620 cm3 (d) 1780 cm3
29. The radii of the base of a cylinder and a cone are in the ratio 3 : 4 and their height are in the
ratio 2 : 3. Then, find their ratio of volumes?
(a) 7 : 6 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 8 : 7 (d) 9 : 8
30. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is revolved about its side 3 cm. Find the volume
of the cone so formed.
(a) 16 πcm 3 (b) 8 πcm 3 (c) 12πcm3 (d) 20 πcm 3
Directions (31 – 35) : Study the following table carefully to answer the questions given below it.
Department Manager Officer
Total number Male : female Total number Male : Female
Operations 1200 13 : 11 1800 7 : 11
Public relations 800 9:7 1500 7:8
Finance 1500 17 : 13 2200 9 : 13
Advertising 900 4:5 600 7:5
Sales 1400 4:3 1600 17 : 15
Procurement 700 18 : 17 1200 9 : 11
31. What is the difference between total number of males officers in advertising and public
relations departments and the total number of female managers in these two departments?
(a) 110 (b) 150 (c) 200 (d) 180
32. What is the respective ratio between total number of female managers from operations and
finance departments and the total number of male officers from these two departments ?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 2 : 7
33. Total number of female employees (managers and officers) in procurement department is by
what percent more than their male counter part?
(a) 8% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 11%
34. What is the ratio between total number of managers in public relation , finance, sales and
operation departments and the total number of officers in finance, advertising sales and
procurement departments respectively?
(a) 7 : 8 (b) 10 : 13 (c) 9 : 11 (d) 8 : 7
35. Total number o female managers in finance department is what percent of the total number of
male employees in sales department?
(a) 42.5 (b) 39.4 (c) 33.2 (d) 40.15
Directions (36 – 40) : The bar graph shows the sales of six different car manufacturers in 2015 (in
thousands of units) in India. The pie chart shows the break up of sales and Brand TATA in 2013 in
different states of India.
Note : All manufactured cars are sold in these given 7 states.
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

70
58
60
48
50

40
32
28
30
21
20
12
10

0
Audi Acura Toyota Tata Hyundai Ferrari

Others
10% Punjab
14% Maharashtra
Karnataka
10%
15%
Goa West
9% Bengal
MP 20%
22%

36. What is the difference between the sales of Tata in West Bengal and that in Goa?
(a) 50600 (b) 6380 (c) 6567 (d) 6220
37. By what percent should the sales of brand Tata is increases so that it sales volume in Punjab
becomes 15000, while the volumes of sales in all other state remains the some (approximately
(a) 10% (b) 9% (c) 7% (d) none of these
38. If in 2016, the total sale of brand Tata increase by 12% , while its sale in Maharashtra is
increased by 34% and MP by 22% , what is the approximate sales increase in the rest of the
states?
(a) 7000 (b) 6500 (c) 2200 (d) 10,000
39. Total sale of Audi, Acura and Toyota in 2015 is what percent of the total sales of tata in all
states together in that year, 2015 (approximately)(
(a) 100% (b) 113% (c) 190% (d) 175%
40. If total sale of all brands together increases by 20% in 2016 and sale of Tata in West Bengal
increase by 10% keeping percentage distribution of Tata in these seven states same as
previously then, what is the total sale of all cars in 2016 of all brands except brand tata.
(a) 1,75,000 (b) 1,50,000 (c) 2,00,000 (d) 1,00,000
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Directions (41 – 45) : Stud the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Total number of children in 6 different schools and the percentage of girls in them.

Series 1
3500
3000

Number of childrens
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
P Q R S T U
Schools

50
45
40
Percentage of girls

35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
P Q R S T U

41. What is the total percentage of boys in schools R and U together ? (Rounded off to two digits
after decimal)
(a) 78.55 (b) 72.45 (c) 76.28 (d) 74.16
42. What is the total number of boys in school T?
(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 750 (d) 850
43. The total number of students in school R, is approximately what percent of the total number of
students in school S?
(a) 89 (b) 75 (c) 78 (d) 82
44. What is the average number of boys in schools P and Q together ?
(a) 1425 (b) 1575 (c) 1450 (d) 1625
45. What is the respective ratio of the number of girls in school P to the number of girls in school
Q?
(a) 27 : 20 (b) 17 : 21 (c) 20 : 27 (d) 21 : 17
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Directions (46 – 50) : These questions based on the following graphs:

Classification of appeared candidates in a competitive test from different state and qualified
candidates from these states
Appeared candidates = 45000

G A
22% 15% B
11%
F C
18% 8%
D
E
17%
9%

Qualified candidates = 9000

G A
20% 17%
F B
10% 15%

E C
13% D 6%
19%

46. What is the ratio of the number of appeared candidates from states C and E together to that of
the appeared candidates from states A and F together ?
(a) 17 : 33 (b) 11 : 13 (c) 13 : 27 (d) 17 : 27
47. In which state, the percentage of qualifies candidates with respect to that of appeared
candidates is
(a) F (b) D (c) E (d) G
48. What is the difference between the number of qualified candidates of states D and those of G.
(a) 690 (b) 670 (c) 780 (d) 90
49. What is the percentage of qualified candidates with respect to appeared candidates from
states B and C taken together ? (rounded to two decimal places)
(a) 23.11 (b) 22.10 (c) 21.24 (d) 23
50. What is the ratio between the number of candidate qualified from states B and D together to
the number of candidates appeared from state C respectively?
(a) 8 : 37 (b) 11 : 12 (c) 17 : 20 (d) 7 : 37
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Directions (51 – 55) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these question.
profit earned
%profit =  100
total investment
Profit earned = total income – total investment in the year
100 90 90
80 80
80 70
65
55 75
60 70
60 Company A
55 55
40 50
45 Company B
20

0
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

Percent profit earned by two companies producing electronic goods over the years
51. If the profit earned in 2006 by company B was Rs 8,12,500 , what was the total income of the
company in that year?
(a) Rs 20,62, 500 (b) Rs 16,50,000 (c) Rs 18,25,000 (d) None of these
52. If the amount invested by the two companies in 2005 was equal, what was the ratio of the total
income of the company A to that of B in 2005?
(a) 33 : 31 (b) 34 : 31 (c) 14 : 11 (d) None of these
53. If the amount of profit earned by company A in 2006 was Rs 10.15 lakhs, what was the total
investment ?
(a) Rs 14.9 lakhs (b) Rs 5.4 lakhs (c) Rs 14.2 lakhs (d) none of these
54. If the amount invested by company B in 2004 is Rs 12 lakhs and the income of 2004 is equal to
the investment in 2005, what is the amount of profit earned in 2005 by company B?
(a) Rs 18.6 lakhs (b) Rs 10.23 lakhs (c) Rs 9.6 lakhs (d) None of these
55. If each of the companies A and B invested Rs 25 lakhs in 2010, what was the average profit
earned by the two companies?
(a) Rs 22.5 lakhs (b) Rs 17.5 lakhs (c) Rs 20 lakhs (d) none of these
Directions (56 – 60) : The following line hart gives the ratio of the amounts of imports by a
company to the amount of exports from that company over the period from 1995 to 2001.
Answer the following questions based on following line graph.
Ratio of value of imports to exports.
1.8
1.6 1.55
1.4 1.4
1.2 1.25
1 0.95
0.8 0.85
0.6 0.65
0.4 0.35
0.2
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001

56. In how many of the given years were the exports more than import ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
57. The imports were minimum proportionate to the exports of the company in the year:
(a) 1997 (b) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 2000
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

58. If the imports of a company in 1996 was Rs 272 crores, the exports from the company in 1996
was:
(a) Rs 120 crores (b) Rs 220 crores (c) Rs 320 crores (d) Rs 420 crores
59. What was the percentage increase in imports from 1997 to 1998 ?
(a) 70 (b) 72 (c) 74 (d) data inadequate
60. If the imports in 1998 was Rs 250 crores and the total exports in years 1998 and 1999 together
was Rs 500 crores, then the imports in 1999 was:
(a) 320 crores (b) 420 crores (c) 520 crores (d) 620 crores

Answer Keys
1 a 21 a 41 d
2 d 22 c 42 c
3 c 23 d 43 a
4 d 24 a 44 b
5 c 25 c 45 c
6 d 26 d 46 a
7 a 27 c 47 a
8 d 28 c 48 d
9 d 29 d 49 b
10 c 30 c 50 c
11 c 31 c 51 a
12 d 32 b 52 b
13 d 33 d 53 d
14 a 34 a 54 b
15 c 35 b 55 c
16 b 36 b 56 d
17 d 37 d 57 a
18 b 38 c 58 c
19 b 39 d 59 d
20 d 40 a 60 b
Explanations
1. a;
The total discount on giving two successive discounts equals (5000 – 3740) = 1260 which is
25.2% of the marked price.
Let the first discount be Y% and if the second discount is 15% , we can write:
Y + 15 – [(Y × 15)/100] = 25.2
On solving this equation, we get Y = 12%
2. d;
Sum of age of 41 students and the teacher = 24 × 42 = 1008
Let the age of the teacher be N years.
Total age of students = 1008 – N
Average age of students = (1008 – N)/41 = 23
 1008 – N = 943
 N = 65
3. c;
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Paras can do 1/18th of a task in three days, which implies it takes 54 days for him to complete
the task (or 1/54th of the task done by him in 1day).
Similarly, it takes 27 days for Mansavi to complete the task (or 1/27th of the task done by her
in 1 day).
If they both start doing the task together, 1/54 + 1/27 = 1/18th of the task shall be done in 1 day
or the task shall get completed in 18 days, implying that half of the work shall be done in 9
days.
Since Paras can complete the task alone in 54 days, half of the task shall be completed by him
alone in 27 days. Thus , 36 days (9 + 27) will be taken to complete the task.
4. d;
Price of the house = Rs 3,25,000
Money receied by Ranjit from Manikaran = 106% of Rs 3,25,000 = 3,44,500
Therefore, price at which Manikaan sells the house back to Ranjit = 96% of Rs 3,44,500
=Rs 3,30,720
Thus, Ranjit gains = Rs (3,44,450 – 3,30,720) = Rs 13,780
5. c;
If the average score of 28 students of the class is 55%, then the total marks of 28 students will
be 28 × 55 = 1540 (assuming the percentage score to be marks out of 100).
Similarly, the total marks of 40 students will be 40 × 62.5 = 2500. Then, the total marks of the
12 students whose marks were added later = 2500 – 1540 = 960
Consequently, average score of the students whose marks were added later = 960/12 = 80%
6. d;
Let actual CP per kg be 100
Since he buys 1100 g and sells only 900 g, projected CP = 100 × 11/9 = 1100/9
MP = 1.2 CP and discount= 20%
Hence SP = 1100/9 × 1.2 × 0.8 = Rs117.33
Therefore, gain % = 17.33%
7. a;
Area of the farm = 25 sq m
Sum of area that can be grazed by the cows = π / 4(9 + 1 + 4 + 1) = 15π / 4
Taking π as 3.14 , we get 11.78
Area that cannot be grazed = 25 – 11.78 = 13.22
Required percentage = 13.22/25 × 100 = 52.88%
8. d;
If a sum is deposited at simple interest at 15% pa , then the total interest on it for 6 years is still
less than the sum deposited by Rs 72000. Let the sum deposited be Rs P
Then, [(P × 15 × 6)/100] + 72000 = p
On solving the above equation, we get = Rs 720000
9. d;
Ritesh scored 182 marks which is 58 marks less than passing
So passing marks are 182 + 58 = 240 marks
Now Sanya scored 60% which is 120 marks more than passing.
Therefore, 60% - 120 = 360
480 --------------------------------- 60%
Pass Marks = 240 --------------------------(60% × 240)/360 = 40%
Therefore, 40% is the passing percentage in the class test.
10. c;
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Let the principal amount be Rs P.

Then, P (1 + 0.07)3 – p (1 + 0.07)2 = 40071.5
1.225043P – 1.1449P = 40071.5
0.080143P = 40071.5
On solving the above equation, we get P = Rs 500000
11. c;
The relative speed of train is 64 – 54 = 10 km/hr = 10 × 5/18 = 25/9 m/s
In 18 secs the total distance travelled is 18 × 25/9 = 50 m
Therefore, the length of each train is = 50/2 = 25 m
12. d;
Ratio in which they get profits is 20,000 : 30,000 = 2 : 3
B gets 25% of 30,000 = 7,500
Profit left which is to be divided in ratio 2 : 3 = 30,000 – 7,500 = 22,500
Now B gets [3/(2 + 3)] × 22,500 = 13,500
So total share of B = 7500 + 13500 = Rs 21,000
13. d;
{20 × 25 / (25 – 20)} × 6 / 60 = 10
14. a;
du 4 4x  3x
= ,  14 = 48 , x = 2, ds = 8 and us = 6
ds 3 7x
1
Rate of stream = (8 − 6) = 1km / hr
2
15. c;
Probability = (2C1 ×3C2 +2C2 ×3C1) / 5C3
= (2 × 3 + 1 × 3)/10 = 9/10
16. b;
3x/12x + 3 = 3x/15x
New ratio = 1 : 5
Required % = 1/6 × 100% = 50/3%
17. d;
Let initial quantity of milk and water in the vessel be 30x lit and 10x lit respectively.
3
Quantity of milk taken out from the vessel = 80  = 60lit
4
1
Quantity of water taken out from the vessel = 80  = 20lit
4
ATQ,
(30 x − 60) + 80 = 700
10 x − 20 100
x=4
Hence, required original quantity of the vessel = 30x + 10x = 160 lit
18. b;
132 × 5/18 =( 110 + 165)/t
t = 275 × 18/(132 × 5)
t = 7.5 seconds
19. b;
Initial expenses = x
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

New expenses = x + 40
According to question,
x x + 40
 = +2
30 40
x x + 40 + 80
 =
30 40
x = 360
20. d;
A + C = 58, B – C = 8, A/B = 6/5, A + B – 8 = 58, A + B = 66, 11 part = 66
1 part = 6, B = 5 part = 30
21. a;
Let the manufacturing price is x
105 110 115
x   = 5313
100 100 100
x = Rs 4000
22. c;
Let total no of students = 100
Interested in sports = 12
3
Interested in Dancing = of(100 − 12) = 66
4
Interested in singing = 10
Remaining students who did not have interest anywhere = (100 – 12 – 66 - 10) = 12
According to given condition,
12 → → → 15
15
Hence, 100 → → →  100 = 125
12
Therefore, total no of students = 125
23. d;
Total marks = 24 ×56 = 1344
Total of actual marks = 1344 – (44 + 45 + 61) + (48 + 59 + 67) = 1368
1368
Actual average = = 57
24
24. a;
Let CP be Rs x
1920 − x x − 1280
Then,  100 =  100
x x
 1920 − x = x − 1280
 2x = 3200
 x = 1600
Required SP = 125% of Rs 1600
 125 
= Rs  1600  = Rs2000
 100 
25. c;
 1500  R1  3   1500  R2  3 
  −  = 13.50
 100   100 
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

 4500 (R1 − R2 ) = 1350

1350
 R1 − R 2 = = 0.3%
4500
26. d;
3600
LCM (6, 5, 7, 10, 12) = 420 seconds, in one hr they toll together = =8
420
27. c;
Radius of sphere = height of cylinder = radius of cylinder.
Volume of cylinder r  r  r 3
= =
Volume of sphere (4 / 3)r  r  r 4
28. c;
2(lb + bh + lh)= 846, 20x2 + 12x2 + 15x2 = 423, 47x2 = 423, x2 = 9, x = 3
L = 15, b = 12, h = 9, volume = 15 x 12 x 9 = 1620
29. d;
volume of cylinder 92 9
= =
volume of cone 1 / 3  16  3 8
30. c;
Radius of cone = 3cm, height = 4 cm
Volume = 1 / 3 π  9  4 = 12π
31. c;
Advertising Department:
Male officers = (600 × 7)/12 = 350
Female managers = (900 × 5)/9 = 500
Public relations departments:
Male officers = (1500 × 7)/16 = 350
Female managers = (800 × 7)/15 = 700
Required difference = (350 + 700) – (500 + 350) = 1050 – 850 = 200
32. b;
Female managers:
Operations departments = (11 × 1200)/24 = 550
Finance department = (13 × 1500) /30 = 650
Male officers:
Operational department = (1800 × 7)/18 = 700
Finance department = (2200 × 90/22 = 900
Required ratio = (650 + 550) : (700 + 900) = 3 : 4
33. d;
Females in procurement department;
Managers = [17/(17+ 18)] × 700 = 340
Officers = (11/20) × 1200 = 660
Total = 340 + 660 = 1000
Males in procurement department managers = 700 – 340 = 360
Officers = 1200 – 660 = 540
Total = 360 + 540 = 900
Required percent = [(1000 – 900)/900] × 100 = 11%
34. a;
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Total number of managers in public relation, finance and sales and operation departments =
800 + 1500 + 1400 + 1200 = 4900
Officers in finance, advertising sales and procurement departments = 2200 + 600 + 1600 + 1200
= 5600
Required ratio = 4900 : 5600 = 7 : 8
35. b;
Female managers in finance department = 1500 × 13/30= 650
Total male employees in sales department = (1400 × 4)/7 + 1500 × 17/30 = 1650
Required percent = (650/1650) × 100 = 39.4
36. b;
58
Total sale of total cars in West Bengal =  20 = 11.6thousands = 11600
100
9
Total sale of Tata car in Goa = 58  = 5.22 = 5220
100
Required difference = 11600 – 5220 = 6380
37. d;
14
Sales of Tata cars in Punjab = 58  = 8.12 = 8120
100
Increase in volume = 15000 – 8120 = 6880
6880
Percentage increase =  100 = 12%
58000
38. c;
112 56  29
Total sale of tata in 2016 =  58 ,000 =  1000 = 64960
100 25
134 10
New total sale in Maharashtra =   58000 = 7772
100 100
122 22
New total sale in MP =   58000 = 15567
100 100
Total new sale in these states = 23339
68
Previous overall sale in all state except MP and Maharashtra =  58,000 = 39440
100
Required increase in sale in other states = (64960 – 23339) – 39440 = 2181 = 2200
= 7981 = 8000
39. d;
101
Required % =  100 = 175%
58
40. a;
120
Net total sale =  199000 = 238800
100
110 20
New sale of Tata in West Bengal =   58000 = 12760
100 100
12760
New total sale of Tata =  100 = 63800
20
Required total sale = 238800 – 63800 = 1,75,000
41. d;
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

2000  72.5 1000  82.5

Number of boys in school R and U together = + = 1450 + 825 = 2225
100 100
2225
Required percentage =  100 = 74.16%
3000
42. c;
1250  60
Number of boys in school T = = 750
100
43. a;
Total number of students in school R = 2000
Total number of students in school S = 2250
2000
Required percentage =  100 = 89
2250
44. b;
1  2500  60 3000  55 
Required average =  + 
2  100 100 
1 1
= (1500 + 1650 ) =  3150 = 1575
2 2
45. c;
2500  40 3000  45
Required ratio = :
100 100
= 25 × 40 : 30 × 45
= 100 : 135 = 20 : 27
46. a;
8+9
Required ratio = = 17 : 33
15 + 18
47. a;
Here, do not find the ratio of number of qualified candidates that of the appeared. Simply
check the ratio of % qualified candidates with respect to the appeared is the least for which
state
48. d;
Required difference = (20 – 19)% of 9000 = 90
49. b;
Required % =
(15 + 6)% of 9000  100 = 22.10%
(11 + 8)% pf 45000
50. c;
Required ratio =
(15 + 19)%of 9000 = 17 : 20
8%of 45000
51. a;
Profit earned by company B in 2006 is 65% of investment or 812500
812500
Income =  165 = 2062500
65
52. b;
Let, the amount invested by companies A and B in the year 2005 be Rs x each
Income of A in 2005 = 1.70 x
Income of B in 2005 = 1.55x
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

A 1.70x 34
Ratio = = =
B 1.55x 31
53. d;
Let, total investment be Rs x
Now, 55% of x = 10.15 × 105
10.15  10 5
x=  100 = 1845454
55
54. b;
Income of company B in 2004 = 1.55 × 12 = 18.6 lakhs
Investment in 2005 = 18.6 lakhs
55
Profit earned in 2005 =  18.6 = 10.23lakhs
100
55. c;
90 70
 25  10 5 +  25  10 5
100 100 25  10 5  90 + 70 
Required answer = =   = 25  10 3  80 = 20lakhs
2 100  2 
56. d;
Clearly the exports are more than the imports implies that the ratio of value of imports implies
that the ratio of value of imports to exports in less than 1.
So years are 1995, 1996, 1997 and 2000. So these are four years
57. a;
Clearly from the line graph we can judge it is minimum in year 1997.
58. c;
We are given with the ratio of imports and exports in the line graph.
Let the exports from the company in 1996 was x
Then,
272/x = 0.85
 x = 272/0.85
 x = 320
59. d;
For calculating the percentage we will need value of exports, imports etc. We are only given
with the ratio. So data inadequate.
60. b;
The ratio of imports to exports for the years 1998 and 1999 are 1.25 and 1.40 respectively.
Let the exports in the year 1998 = Rs x crores
Then, the exports in the year 1999 = (500 – x) crores
 1.25 = 50/x [because 1.25 is 1998 ratio]
 x = 250/1.25 = 200 crore
Thus the exports in the year 1999 were 500 – 200 = 300 crore
Let the imports in the 1999 = Rs y crore
Then 1.40 = y /300
 y = 1.40 × 300 = 420 crore
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

61. In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
Statements:
No gentleman is poor.
All gentlemen are rich.
Conclusions:
I. No poor man is rich.
II. No rich man is poor.
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follow
62. In a code language, A is written as B, B is written as C, C is written as D and so on, then how will
SMART be written in that code language ?
(a) TLBSU (b) SHBSU (c) TNBSU (d) SNBRU
63. Assertion (A) : Telephone wires sag more in summer.
Reason (R) : They expand due to summer heat.
(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are false.
(d) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A.
64. RJPL : NNLP : : YAWC : ?
(a) SEUG (b) VEUS (c) UGSA (d) UESG
65. If Orange is called Lemon, Lemon is called Flower, Flower is called Fish, Fish is called Tail and
Tail is called Pen, what is Rose ?
(a) Pen (b) Lemon (c) Flower (d) Fish
66. Which two signs of the following equation should be interchanged to make it correct?
12 – 16 x 25 ÷ 80 + 10 = 27
(a) ÷ and x (b) – and + (c) x and – (d) + and _
67. Three persons A, B and C are standing in a queue. There are five persons between A and B and
eight persons between B and C. If there be three persons ahead of C and 21 persons behind A,
what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue ?
(a) 41 (b) 40 (c) 28 (d) 27
68. Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the
number that is different from the rest.
(a) 126 (b) 189 (c) 254 (d) 217
69. Chelcy put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to North. In
which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ?
(a) South-East (b) South (c) North (d) West
70. Arrange the words in the sequence, in which they occur in the dictionary.
a. Brides b. Boastful c. Blizzard
d. Biology e. Brilliant
(a) a, e, b, c, d (b) e, d, c, b, a (c) d, c, b, a, e (d) c, b, a, d,e
71. A word has been given, followed by four other words, one of which can be formed by using the
letters of the given word. Find that word.
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

MEASUREMENT
(a) ASSURE (b) MASTER (c) SUMMIT (d) MANTLE
72. In the following list of numerals, how many 2's are followed by 1's but not preceded by 4 ?
4 2 1 2 1 4 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 1 2 2 1 2 1 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 4 1
4 2 1 2 4 1 4 6
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
73. Choose the odd one out
(a) Deck (b) Quay (c) Stern (d) Bow
74. Look at this series: 21, 9, 21, 11, 21, 13, . . . What number should come next?
(a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 21 (d) 23
75. In the question given below, a statements is given followed by two conclusions. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
Statement: If he is Clever, he will pass in the examination.
Conclusion:
1. It is required to be Clever to pass in the examination.
2. He will pass the examination.
(a) Only 1 is inherited
(b) Only 2 is inherited
(c) 1 & 2 – both are inherited
(d) None is inherited
76. JZMY, IXLW, HVKU, ?
(a) FSIS (b) GTAS (c) GSBT (d) GTIS
77. In the question given below, three statements are given followed by conclusions: I and II. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Only a few heads are epics.
Only a few cases are circles.
Some circles are heads.
Conclusions:
I. All cases can never be heads.
II. All circles being epics is a possibility.
(a) Only II follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Neither I nor II follows
(d) Either I or II follows
78. In a certain code , RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER
written in that code?
(a) 318826 (b) 776655 (c) 786543 (d) 156724
79. Assertion (A) : Rice cookers are fitted with ebonite handles.
Reason (R) : Ebonite is strong.
(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are false.
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
80. An accurate clock shows 2 o’clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand
rotate when the clock shows 9 o’clock in the evening?
(a) 144º (b) 210º (c) 168º (d) 570º
81. In the question given below is given a statement followed by two assumptions. You have to
assume everything in the statement to be true and decide which of the assumption logically
follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statements:
"If it does not rain throughout this month ,most farmers would be in trouble this year"
Assumptions:
1. Timely rain is essential for farming
2. Most farmers are generally dependent on rains
(a) Only 1 is true (b) Only 2 is true
(c) Either 1 or 2 is true (d) Both 1 and 2 follow
82. Kavya is older than Ganesh, Ganesh is older than Parul, Parul Is younger than Raju, Raju is
younger than Ganesh, then who among them is the oldest.
(a) Ganesh (b) Kavya (c) Raju (d) Parul
83. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Paper (b) Pen (c) Marker (d) Highlighter
84. Arrange the fallowing in a logical order:
1) Birth 2) Death 3) Funeral 4) Marriage 5) Education
(a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 (b) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 (c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (d) 4, 5, 3,1, 2
85. Six persons A, B, C, D, E & F are sitting around the circle as B is between D & C, A is between E &
C, and F is at the right of D. Find who sits between A and F.
(a) E (b) C (c) D (d) F
86. Two statements numbered I and II are given below. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
How is B related to A?
I. A is B's sister.
II. D is the father of A and B.
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient answer the question;
(c) if the data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(d) if the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question;
87. In a certain code, 'GONE' is written as 5 % 2 # and 'MEDAL' is written as 4 # 3 $ @, then how
will 'GOLD' be written in that code?
(a) 5 @ % 3 (b) 5 % @ 3 (c) 5 # @ 3 (d) 5 % # 3
88. 1. B5D means B is the father of D.
2. B9D means B is the sister of D.
3. B4D means B is the brother of D.
4. B3D means B is the wife of D.
Which of the following means F is the mother of K?
(a) F3M5K (b) F5M3K (c) F9M4N3K (d) F3M5N3K
89. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are staying in the same locality. B's house is to the east of A's house
and to the north of C's house. C's house is to the west of D's house. D's house is in which
direction with respect to A's house?
(a) South-East (b) North-East (c) East
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

(d) Data inadequate

90. College : Student :: Hospital : ?
(a) nurse (b) doctor (c) treatment (d) patient

Answer Keys
61 d 76 b
62 c 77 a
63 d 78 a
64 d 79 a
65 d 80 d
66 b 81 d
67 c 82 b
68 c 83 a
69 d 84 b
70 c 85 a
71 b 86 d
72 c 87 b
73 b 88 a
74 c 89 a
75 a 90 d

Explanations
61. d;

From the Venn diagram we can see that both the conclusions I and II are not true for all the
cases. Hence both I and II do not follow.
62. c;
The letters are coded by moving them 1 step forward.
63. d;
The metal of telephone wires expands in summer and the wires become loose. So, they sag.
64. d;
The 1st & 3rd letters of the 1st group are each moved four steps backward to obtain the
corresponding letters of the 2nd group. The 2nd and 4th letters of the 1st group are each
moved 4 steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the 2nd group.
Similar relationship will exist between the 3rd and the 4th groups.
Hence, the answer is (d).
65. d;
Rose is a flower and as per given codes flower is fish.
66. b;
12+(16×25÷80)+10=27
67. c;
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Three persons A, B, C can be arranged in a queue in six different ways i.e., ABC, CBA, BAC, CAB,
BCA, ACB. But since there are only 3 persons ahead of C, so C should be in front of the queue.
Thus, there are only two possible arrangements i.e., CBA and CAB.
We may consider the two cases as under :
3 8 5 21
Case I :C B A
Clearly, number of persons in the queue= (3 +1+8+1+5+1+21) = 40.
Case II :
Number of persons between A and C= (8 - 6) = 2.Clearly, number of persons in the queue= (3 +
1 + 2 + 1 + 21) = 28.Now, 28 <40. So, 28 is the minimum number of persons in the queue
68. c;
Except 254, all are multiple of 7.
69. d;

At 9.15 P.M., the minute hand will point towards west.

70. c;
71. b;
MASTER—All the letters of this word are present in the main word. Hence, ‘MASTER’ can be
formed from the letters of the given word ‘MEASUREMENT’.
72. c;
4 2 1 [2] 1 4 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 1 1 [2] 1 [2] 1 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 [2] 1 2 4 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 4 6
73. b;
All except Quay are parts of a ship
74. c;
In this alternating repetition series, the random number 21 is interpolated every other number
into an otherwise simple addition series that increases by 2, beginning with the number 9.
75. a;
76. b;
The first letter goes up by 1 i.e. J I H. So next is G
The third letter goes down by 1 i.e. M L K. So next is A.
2nd and 4th letters skip one letters.
So 2nd letter is T and 4th will be S.
Answer = GTAS
77. a;
Only a few heads are epics. Only a few cases are circles. Some circles are heads.

All cases can never be heads is not true. All circles being epics is a possibility is true. So, only
II follows.
78. a;
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Word : R I P P L E L I F E P I L L E R
Code : 6 1 3 3 8 2 8 1 9 2 3 1 8 8 2 6
79. a;
The handles of Rice cookers are made of ebonite because it being a bad conductor of heat,
does not heat up.
80. d;
We know that the angle traced by the hour hand in one hour is 30º.
The total angle traced by the hour hand in 19 hours (2 a.m to 9 p.m) is 30 x 19 = 570º.
81. d;
It is mentioned that farmers will be in troble without rain .This means that timely rain is
essential. Also,it shows that farmers are dependent on rain.So,both 1 and 2 are true
82. b;
Kavya > Ganesh > Raju > Parul
83. a;
Since, Pen, marker and highlighter are used for writing on paper or else.
84. b;
Clearly, the given words when arranged in the order of various events as they occur in a man’s
life form the sequence: Birth, Education, Marriage, Death, Funeral. So the correct order
becomes 1, 5, 4, 2, 3. Hence, the answer is (B).
85. a;

86. d;
From statements I and II together, we can conclude only that either B is the sister or brother of
A. So, even from both the statements, the exact relation cannot be known.
87. b;
As,

Similarly,

Therefore , GOLD  5%@3

88. a;
F3M → F is the wife of M
M5K → M is the father of K
Therefore, F is the mother of K.
89. a;
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

Hence 'D' is South-East of 'A'.

90. d;
As Students read in College similarly Patients are treated in Hospital.
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

91. Which of the following options in the control panel in Windows 10 OS should be used
to select the program you want to open for Windows web browsing, photo editing,
sending e-mails and use for activities like playing music?
(a) File Explorer Options (b) Devices and Printers
(c) Device Manager (d) Default Programs
92. To add or remove printers using Windows OS, click on the printers icon from the _____.
(a) Control Panel (b) Printer Management
(c) Task Bar (d) Printer Folder
93. What would you use to create a new folder in Windows?
(a) Task Manager (b) Control Panel
(c) Navigation Bar (d) Windows explorer/File explorer
94. Which of the following is not a common feature of software applications?
(a) Menu (b) Windows (c) Help (d) Search
95. The components of the word program ______ include the title bar, ribbon, status bar,
view and document workspace.
(a) Window (b) Browser (c) Explorer (d) Website
96. Which of the following tabs MS- Word 365 has options likes Save, Save as, Open a New
Document etc?
(a) Data (b) Review (c) Home (d) File
97. Which of the following main menu items in MS-Word 2007 includes the ‘Watermark’
command?
(a) Page layout (b) Insert (c) Home (d) References
98. Which of the following texts is an example of subscript in MS-Word?
(a) X = 12 (b) X = 10 + Y (c) H2O (d) X2 + Y2
99. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to go to the File tab in MS-Word
2010?
(a) Alt + N (b) Alt + F (c) Alt + H (d) Alt + G
100. Which of the following commands is not related to ‘Page Setup’ menu in MS Word
2007?
(a) Page Color (b) Margins (c) Paper Size (d) Orientations
101. Which of the following is the primary executable for MS - Excel in windows operating
system?
(a) excel.exe (b) msexcel.exe (c) exel.exe (d) mexel.exe
102. Which of the following is not a spreadsheet application?
(a) Open Office Calc (b) MS-Excel
(c) Lotus 1-2-3 (d) Open Office Impress
103. To instantly autofit all the columns in the worksheet, we have to click the select all
button on any range between two column heading in MS - Excel 365 and then click on
will be.
(a) Double-click left button (b) Triple-click left button
(c) Single-click left button (d) Single-click right button
104. Pressing the _____ key will cancel all edits made to cell contents in an MS Excel 365
worksheet?
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

(a) Enter (b) Shift (c) Insert (d) Esc

105. Which of the following is not a valid way to edit the contents of the active cell in MS –
Excel 365?
(a) Clicking on the formula bar (b) Double clicking the active cell
(c) Pressing the F5 key (d) Pressing the F2 key
106. Which of the following software is used to calculate loan installments?
(a) Spreadsheets (b) Notepad (c) MS-PowerPoint (d) MS-InfoPath 2007
107. Which of the following options of the insert tab of MS PowerPoint 365 is the 'equation'
object?
(a) Text (b) Illustrations (c) Add-ins (d) Symbols
108. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to start a slide show from the
current slide?
(a) Ctrl + F5 (b) Shift + F5 (c) F5 (d) Alt + F5
109. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to create a blank presentation in MS
PowerPoint 2007?
(a) Ctrl + M (b) Alt + M (c) Ctrl + N (d) Ctrl + Alt + N
110. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to insert a blank slide in MS-
PowerPoint 2007?
(a) Alt + M (b) Ctrl + Alt + M (c) Ctrl + N (d) Ctrl + M

Answer Keys
91 d 101 a
92 a 102 d
93 d 103 a
94 b 104 d
95 a 105 c
96 d 106 a
97 a 107 d
98 c 108 b
99 b 109 c
100 a 110 d
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

111. The colossal nature of the great Kalinga War has been described by Ashoka in his :
(a) Rock Edict XI (b) Rock Edict XII (c) Rock Edict XIII (d) Rock Edict XIV
112. Kharavela the great belong to:
(a) Jina Dynasty (b) Chedi Dynasty (c) Maurya Dynasty (d) Kushana Dynasty
113. After the defeating which of the following ruler Kapilendradeva assumed the title of
Kalavargeswara I .e Lord of Kalavarga ?
(a) Devraya-II (b) Bahamani Sultan
(c) Aliemed Sana (d) Bellaina Chief of Telingana
114. In which year Kalapahad invaded Odisha ?
(a) 1647 (b) 1643 (c) 1567 (d) 1547
115. British established one of their oldest factories in India in the year 1633 at which of the places
in Odisha ?
(a) Balasore (b) Dhamara (c) Harishpur (d) Pipli
116. The total area of Odisha in sq. km is:
(a) 155,707 (b) 189,602 (c) 98,832 (d) None of these
117. Which of the following rivers drains 3 states including Odisha before entering the Bay of Bengal
?
(a) Subarnarekha (b) Brahmani (c) Mahanadi (d) Rusikulya
118. The coastal part of Odisha gets copious rainfall from the :
(a) South-west monsoon (b) North-east monsoon
(c) Cyclones in the Bay of Bengal (d) None of these
119. Brown Forest soil type is mostly found in :
(a) Malkangiri (b) Phulbani (c) Dhenkanal (d) Cuttack
120. Which is a Carnivore Mammals found in Odisha ?
(a) Otter (b) Hyena (c) Chausingha (d) Wolf
121. Which o the following notable incidence during freedom struggle took place in Baleswar ?
(a) Inchudi Salt Revolution (b) Srijang Satyagrah
(c) Iram Massacre (d) All the above
122. Which of the following contributes the maximum to the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) at
present ?
(a) Service sector (b) Industry (c) Agriculture (d) Agriculture and allied sector
123. Which type of natural vegetation presents an Oxero phylous character in Odisha ?
(a) Tropical Semi-evergreen (b) Tropical Moist deciduous
(c) Tropical Dry deciduous (d) Coastal Forests
124. The number of MSME (Micro, Small and Medium scale Enterprises) is highest in the district of:
(a) Mayurbhanj (b) Cuttack (c) Khurdha (d) Sundergarh
125. ‘Your power to grow’ is attributed to the logo of :
(a) IPICOL (b) IDCOL (c) IDCO (d)OSFC
126. When Odia was introduced as the medium of instruction in all primary school ?
(a) 1903 (b) 1936 (c) 1858 (d) 1867
127. The first session of the First Assembly after the independence was held in :
(a) Ravenshaw Conference Hall, Cuttack
(b) Barbati Fort, Cuttack
(c) Swaraj Ashram, Cuttack
(d) Sardar Patel Hall, Bhubaneswar
128. Who headed the Committee to enquire into the feasibility of setting up a High Court for Odisha?
(a) Mr. Madhusudan Das (b) Mr. Bira Kishore Ray
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

(c) Sir Edward Chamiers (d) Justice Sharfuddin

129. Lord Jagannath Temple of Puri is a heavenly marvel of :
(a) 10th Century (b) 11th Century (c) 12th Century (d) 13th Century
130. Who was the first Odia poet to have composed lyrics to be sung ?
(a) Jayadeva (b) Sarala Das (c) Jagannath Das (d) Balaram Das
131. Who has never been a Vice President of India?
(a) Mohammad Hamid Ansari (b) A P J Abdul Kalam
(c) Ramaswamy Venkataraman (d) Shankar Dayal Sharma
132. ‘Smiling Buddha’ was the code name for
(a) The rescue and relief operations after the cloudburst in Uttarakhand in 2013.
(b) The rescue and relief operations after an earthquake hit Nepal in 2015.
(c) Pokhran-II nuclear test conducted by India in 1998.
(d) Pokhran-I nuclear test conducted by India in 1974.
133. The political system in Afghanistan is known as
(a) Islamic State of Afghanistan
(b) Islamic Republic of Afghanistan
(c) Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan
(d) Islamic Government of Afghanistan
134. The Constituent Assembly adopted Indian national flag on
(a) 22nd July 1947 (b) 22nd August 1947
(c) 22nd January 1948 (d) 22nd October 1947
135. The Victoria Falls are on the river
(a) Niger (b) Congo (c) Zambezi (d) Orange
136. What is the name of operation recently launched by Uttarakhand police for smooth conduct of
Kedarnath yatra?
(a) Operation Samriddhi (b) Operation Vikas
(c) Operation Maryada (d) Operation Shakti
137. What is the primary objective of the Saubhagya Scheme, recently seen in news?
(a) Providing free healthcare to rural households
(b) Achieving universal household electrification
(c)] Promoting agriculture in remote areas
(d) Enhancing educational facilities in urban areas
138. Recently, who won the gold medal in men’s javelin throw at the 27th Federation Cup senior
national competition in Bhubaneshwar?
(a) Neeraj Chopra (b) Kishore Jena
(c) Vikas Yadav (d) Manjinder Singh
139. What is the primary objective of Project Udbhav, recently seen in news?
(a) To study ancient Indian texts
(b) To bridge the gap between ancient wisdom and modern military practices
(c) It reflects the project’s focus on ancient Indian military strategies
(d) To analyze the world wars
140. Which day is observed as ‘World Hypertension Day’ every year?
(a) 16 May (b) 17 May (c) 18 May (d) 19 May
141. Who was consider as the father of tomb building in India ?
(a)Akbar (b) Iltutmish (c) Qutubuddin Aibak (d) Humayun
142. How high is the badminton net at the center?
(a) 5 feet (b) 5.1 feet (c) 5.5 feet (d) 4.8 feet
 OSSC CGL (PRELIM) TEST-03

143. Malgudi Days is based on the works of which Indian Writer?

(a) Shankar Nag (b) R. K. Lakshman (c) R.K. Narayan (d) Girish Karnad
144. What does “Bicameral Legislature” mean?
(a) Legislators are divided into 4 separate assemblies
(b) Legislators are grouped as 1 assembly
(c) Legislators are divided into 2 separate assemblies
(d) Legislators are divided into 8 separate assemblies
145. After entering Bangladesh, the main branch of the Ganges is known as
(a) Hooghly river (b) Jamuna river (c) Meghna river (d) Padma river
146. Losoong festival is popular in
(a) Himachal Pradeh (b) Sikkim (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Tripura
147. Mukhyamantri Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan-2 scheme, recently seen in news, is associated with
which state?
(a) Rajastha (b) Gujarat (c) Haryana (d) Punjab
148. What kind of missile is ‘Iris-T Missile’, recently seen in news?
(a) Air-to-Air missile (b) Surface-to-Air missile
(c) Surface-to-Surface missile (d) Air-to-Surface missile
149. Which ministry recently released a report titled ‘Coal and Lignite PSUs’?
(a) Ministry of Coa (b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Home Affair (d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
150. The Rowa Wildlife Sanctuary (RWS) is located in which state?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Kerala (c) Tripura (d) Odisha

Answer keys
111 c 131 b
112 b 132 d
113 b 133 c
114 c 134 a
115 c 135 c
116 a 136 c
117 a 137 b
118 c 138 a
119 b 139 b
120 c 140 b
121 d 141 b
122 a 142 a
123 c 143 c
124 d 144 c
125 c 145 d
126 d 146 b
127 d 147 a
128 b 148 a
129 c 149 a
130 a 150 c