28-08-2025

6201CMD30303525ST3 MD

PHYSICS

1) A light ray gets reflected from a pair of mutually mirrors, not necessarily along axes.
The intersection point of mirrors is at origin. The incident light is along y = x + 2. If the light
ray strikes both mirrors in succession, then it may get reflected finally along the line :

(1) y = 2x – 2
(2) y = – x + 2
(3) y = – x – 2
(4) y = x – 4

2) An object and a plane mirror are shown in figure. Mirror is moved with velocity V as shown.

The velocity of image is

(1)
(2) 2V
(3)
(4)

3) The mirror of length L moves horizontally as shown in the figure with a velocity v. The mirror
is illuminated by a point source of light ‘P’ placed on the ground. The rate at which the length of the

light spot on the ground increases is

(1) v
(2) Zero
(3) 2v
(4) 3v

4) Assertion : The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed in water.

Reason : The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

5) A point object infront of a plane mirror has velocity and the mirror has velocity
. The x-axis is along the normal of the plane mirror. Find the velocity of the image.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) A point object is moving along principal axis of a concave mirror with uniform velocity
towards pole. Initially the object is at infinite distance from pole on right side of the mirror as
shown. Before the object collides with mirror, the number of times at which the distance between

object and its image is 40 cm are.

(1) One time

(2) Two time
(3) Three time
(4) Data insufficient

7) An infinitely long rectangular strip is placed on principal axis of a concave mirror as shown
in figure. One end of the strip coincides with centre of curvature as shown. The height of
rectangular strip is very small in comparison to focal length of the mirror. Then the shape of image

of strip formed by concave mirror is

(1) Rectangle
(2) Trapezium
(3) Triangle
(4) Square

8) A particle revolves in clockwise direction (as seen from point A) in a circle C of radius 1 cm
and completes one revolution in 2 sec. The axis of the circle and the principal axis of the mirror
M coincide. Call it AB. The radius of curvature of the mirror is 20 cm. Then the direction of
revolution (as seen from A) of the image of the particle and its speed is

(1) Clockwise, 1.57 cm/s

(2) Clockwise, 3.14 cm/s
(3) Anticlockwise, 1.57 cm/s
(4) Anticlockwise, 3.14 cm/s

9) The circular boundary of the concave mirror subtends a cone of half angle at its centre
of curvature. The minimum value of for which any ray incident on this mirror parallel to

the principal axis suffers reflection more than once is

(1) 30º
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

10) The minimum distance of the real image of a real object, formed by a concave mirror of
focal length ‘ f ‘ from the mirror is:

(1) 0
(2) f
(3) 2f
(4) 4f

11) A point object lies at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The mirror starts moving
with velocity , then the velocity of the image is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) The focal length of a concave mirror is f and the distance from the object to the principal focus is
x. Then the ratio of the size of the image to the size of the object is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In the figure M1 and M2 are two fixed mirrors shown. If the object ' O ' moves towards the
plane mirror, then the image I (which is formed after two successive reflections from M1 & M2

respectively) will move

(1) Always towards right

(2) Always towards left
(3) Depends on position of O
(4) Cannot be determined

14) You are looking in a mirror. The field of view (for same aperture) is minimum for:

(1) Convex mirror

(2) Concave mirror
(3) Plane mirror
(4) All have same field view

15) A mango tree is at the bank of a river and one of the branch of tree extends over the river.
A tortoise lives in river. A mango falls just above the tortoise. The acceleration of the mango falling

from tree appearing to the tortoise is (Refractive index of water is and the tortoise is stationary)

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two transparent slabs are of equal length (thickness). One is made of a material A of R.I. 1.5 and
the other is made of materials B and C, the ratio of their thicknesses being 1 : 2. The R.I. of C is
1.6. When light passes through them, the two slabs have the same number of waves. The R.I. of B
is (Light is incident normally)

(1) 1.4
(2) 1.3
(3) 1.1
(4) 1.05

17) A small rod ABC is put in water making an angle 6° with vertical. If it is viewed paraxially
from above, it will look like bent shaped ABC'. The angle of bending will be in degree ____

(1) 2°
(2) 3°
(3) 4°
(4) 4.5°

18) A bird is flying up at angle with the horizontal. A fish in a pond looks at that bird.
When it is vertically above the fish. The angle at which the bird appears to fly (to the fish) is

(1)

(2)

(3) 45°

(4)

19) In the figure shown a slab of refractive index is moved towards a stationary observer. A point
‘O’ is observed by the observer with the help of paraxial rays through the slab. Both ‘O’ and observer
lie in air. The velocity with which the image will move is

(1) 2 m/s towards left

(2)
m/s towards left
(3) 3 m/s towards left
(4) Zero

20) A square of side 3 cm is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10
cm. The centre of the square is at the axis of the mirror and the plane is normal to the axis. The area
enclosed by the image of the square is:

(1) 4 cm2
(2) 6 cm2
(3) 16 cm2
(4) 34 cm2

21) In the figure ABC is the cross-section of a right angled prism and BCDE is the cross-section of a
glass slab. The value of so that light incident normally on the face AB does not cross the face BC is

[given ]

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) The distance of an object from the pole of a concave mirror is equal to its radius of
curvature. The image must be

(1) Real
(2) Inverted
(3) Same sized
(4) Erect

23) A ray is incident on plane mirror at some angle. If the mirror is rotate clockwise by 15°, then
reflected ray will rotate by

(1) 30° clockwise

(2) 30° anticlockwise
(3) 15° clockwise
(4) 15° anticlockwise

CHEMISTRY

1) The oxidation number of sulfur in S8, S2F2, H2S respectively, are

(1) 0, +1 and –2
(2) +2, +1 and –2
(3) 0, +1 and +2
(4) –2, +1 and –2

2) Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Which of the following is a redox reaction ?

(1) NaCl + KNO3 ⟶ NaNO3 + KCl

(2) CaC2O4 + 2HCl ⟶ CaCl2 + H2C2O4
(3) Ca(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl ⟶ CaCl2 + 2NH3 + 2H2O
(4) 2K[Ag(CN)2] + Zn ⟶ 2Ag + K2[Zn(CN)4]

4) Match the following column-I and column-II:

Column-I Column-II

(a) H2S (p) Oxidising agent

(b) KMnO4 (q) Reducing agent

(c) H2O2 (r) Can acts as both oxidising and reducing agent
(1) a–r; b–p; c–q
(2) a–q; b–p; c–r
(3) a–p; b–q; c–r
(4) a–r; b–q; c–p

5) In the reaction, , the eq.wt. of is equal to its

(1) mol. wt.

(2) mol. wt./2
(3) 2 × mol. wt.
(4) mol. wt./6

6) The equivalent weight of Cu2S (mol. wt. = M) in the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Hydrazine reacts with KIO3 in presence of HCl as,

The equivalent masses of N2H4 and KIO3 respectively are:

(1) 8, 87
(2) 8, 35.6
(3) 16, 53.5
(4) 8, 53.5

8) The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its molecular weight when it converts to

(1) Mn2O3
(2) MnO2
(3)
(4)

9) Assertion : 5 mol of ferrous oxalate are completely oxidised by 2.5 moles of acidic solution of
K2Cr2O7.
Reason : n-factor of ferrous oxalate against dichromate is 6.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid (H3PO3) is

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.9
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.6
11) Assertion: .
Reason: The n factor for and ions respectively are 3 and 8.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Reason is correct, but Assertion is incorrect.

12) Assertion: The change in oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 (acidic medium) is less than the
change in oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 in basic medium.
Reason: In acidic medium, oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 to +2, while in basic medium, it
changes from +7 to +4.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion and reason both are incorrect.

13) For the reaction,

.
What is eq.wt. of ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

14) Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent ?

(1) H2S
(2) SO3
(3) H2O2
(4) F2

15) Oxidation state of oxygen in F2O is

(1) +1
(2) –1
(3) +2
(4) –2

16)
In the above reaction:

(1) Iodine is reduced; is reduced

(2) Iodine is reduced; is oxidized
(3) Iodine is oxidized; is reduced
(4) Iodine is oxidized; is oxidized

17) Oxidation number of S in H2S2O8 is

(1) +2
(2) +4
(3) +3
(4) +6

18) For the redox reaction

The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are

H+

(1) 2 5 16

(2) 16 5 2

(3) 5 16 2

(4) 2 16 5
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction ?

(1) +4 to +4
(2) 0 to +4
(3) –4 to +4
(4) 0 to –4

20) Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
21)

Match the reactions in column-I with their respective characteristics given in column-II:

Column-I Column-II
(Name and Reaction) (Characteristics)

(p) Fractional oxidation

(a) number

(b) C3O2 (q) Redox reaction

(r) Natural redox

(c)
reaction

(d) (s) Zero oxidation

number

(e) Photosynthesis (t) Disproportionation

(u) Auto-redox
(1) a – t, u ; b – p ; c – s ; d – q ; e – r
(2) a – u, t ; b – p ; c – s ; d – q ; e – r
(3) a – t, u ; b – s ; c – p ; d – q ; e – r
(4) a – t, u ; b – p ; c – s ; d – r ; e – q

22) In the chemical reaction,

,
x, y and z are

(1) 1, 3, 1
(2) 4, 1, 4
(3) 3, 2, 3
(4) 2, 1, 2

BOTANY

1) Furrow formation does not occur in plant cell during cytokinesis because of

(1) Extensible cell wall

(2) Inextensible cell wall
(3) Extensible plasma membrane
(4) Inextensible plasma membrane

2) The centriole undergoes duplication during:

(1) S-phase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) G2 phase

3)

During telophase:
(i) Chromosome cluster at opposite spindle poles.
(ii) Two daughter nuclei formed.
(iii) Chromosomes lose their individuality.
(iv) It is reversal of prophase.
(v) Nucleolus is not reformed.
Choose the incorrect statement:

(1) (i) & (ii) only

(2) (iii) & (iv) only
(3) (v) Only
(4) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v) only

4)

How many of following structures are observed when cells are viewed under the microscope at end
of prophase
Golgi body, ER, Nucleolus, Nuclear envelope, Centrosome

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) All of these

5) Mitotic division in plants can occur in –

(1) Diploid somatic cell

(2) Haploid cell
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Gametes

6)

Choose the correct statement with respect to G0 phase:

(1) Also known as quiescent stage and start after G2 phase

(2) Cell of this stage remain inactive and no longer proliferates.
Cell of this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferates unless called to do so
(3)
depending on the requirement of organism
(4) Cell of this stage remain active and proliferate till death without any condition.

7) Statement-I: During anaphase, centromere remains directed towards the pole while arms of the
chromosome trail behind.
Statement-II: Each chromosome moves away from the equatorial plate towards the two opposite
poles during anaphase.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

8) Kinetochores are –

(1) Precursors of microtubules

(2) Sites of attachment of spindle fibres on chromosome
(3) Site for origination of spindle fibres on chromosome
(4) Small disc shaped structure attached to centrosome

9)

Match the following events that occur in their respective phases of cell cycle and select the correct
option:

(i) Cell grows and most of the

(a) G1 phase
organelle duplication

(ii) DNA replication and

(b) S phase
chromosome duplication

(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth

(d) Metaphase in (iv) Alignment of

M-phase chromosomes at equator
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

10)

Label the structure indicated by (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv):

(i) - Chromatid, (ii) - Centriole,

(1)
(iii) - Centromere, (iv) - Chromosome
(i) - Chromosome, (ii) - Centriole,
(2)
(iii) - Centromere, (iv) - Chromatid
 (i) - Chromatid, (ii) - Centromere,
(3)
(iii) - Centriole, (iv) - Chromosome
(i) - Chromosome, (ii) - Centromere,
(4)
(iii) - Centriole, (iv) - Chromatid

11) The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesize the other constituent of
cells and eventually divides itself into two daughter cells is termed as

(1) Cytology
(2) Cell division
(3) Cell cycle
(4) Cell biology

12)

(I) The nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio in organism is restored by mitosis.

(II) The cells of the upper layer of the epidermis, cells of lining of gut, and blood cells are being
constantly replaced by Mitotic division.
Choose the correct option from following:

(1) Statement (I) is true, but (II) is false

(2) Statement (II) is true, but (I) is false
(3) Both statements (I) and (II) are true
(4) Both statements (I) and (II) are false

13) Equational division refer to

(1) Meiosis
(2) Mitosis
(3) Number of cell chromosome in parent & progeny cell is same
(4) Both (2) and (3)

14) Most dramatic period of cell cycle is

(1) Gap 1 only

(2) M-phase
(3) S-phase only
(4) Interphase

15)

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic increase) is a discontinuous process which occur
during cell cycle.
Statement-II: DNA synthesis occur only during one specific stage in the cell cycle.
Statement-III: The event of cell cycle are under genetic control.

(1) Statement-I is false & statement-II and III are true

(2) Statement-I and II are false & statement-III are true
(3) All statement are true
(4) None of the above stated statement are true

16)

Assertion (A): Liquid endosperm in Coconut is multinucleated.

Reason (R): Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

17)

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): The growth of multicellular organism is due to mitosis.
Reason (R): Mitosis is also called as equational division and it offers genetic variability.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

18) What is the primary event marking the beginning of prophase ?

(1) Disintegration of the nuclear envelope

(2) Untangling of chromosomal material
(3) Decondensation of chromosomes
(4) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator

19)

The above graph shows the change in DNA content during various phases (A to D) in a typical
mitotic cell cycle. Identify the phases.

A B C D

(1) G1 G2 S M

(2) G0 S G2 M
 (3) G1 S G2 M

(4) M G1 S G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20)

Identify stage of given diagrams (i) and (ii) respectively.

(1) i – Early prophase; ii – metaphase

(2) i – Late prophase, ii – transition to metaphase
(3) i – Early prophase, ii – transition to metaphase
(4) i – Late prophase, ii – metaphase

21) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

(A) M Phase (I) Proteins are synthesized

(B) G2 Phase (II) Inactive phase

(III) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA

(C) Quiescent stage
replication

(D) G1 Phase (IV) Equational division

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
(2) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(3) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
(4) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

22) Which of the following is true about interphase ?

(1) It includes mitosis and cytokinesis

(2) DNA replication occurs in the G2 phase
(3) The cell is inactive during this phase
(4) It is the longest phase of the cell cycle
23) Identify the correct statement with respect to cell cycle duration.

(1) Yeast takes 24 hours, while human cells take 90 minutes

(2) Both take approximately the same time
(3) Yeast takes 90 minutes, while human cells take ~ 24 hours
(4) Yeast has no defined cell cycle

ZOOLOGY

1)

The type of body symmetry shown below can be found in :-

(1) All Sponges, Coelenterates and Ctenophores

(2) Platyhelminthes, Aschelminths and Annelids
(3) Coelenterates, Ctenophores and adult Echinoderms
(4) Arthropods, Molluscs, Hemichordates and Chordates

2)

Arrange the correct sequence of water canal system.

(1) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel

(2) Ostia → Osculum → Choanocytes
(3) Paragastric cavity → Osculum → Ostia
(4) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum

3) Assertion (A): Tentacles in hydra are locomotory organs.

Reason (R): Tentacles in hydra are used for swimming.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

4)

Identify the organisms X and Y given below.

Select the correct option w.r.t 'X' and 'Y'.

(1) ‘X’ lives in freshwater whereas ‘Y’ lives in ocean.

A central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening (mouth) on hypostome is present in both
(2)
‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(3) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are sessile animals and ‘Y’ uses its tentacles for capturing the prey.
(4) Stinging capsule is present in ‘Y’ and ‘X’ contains flagellated collar cells.

5) Select the incorrect feature w.r.t comb jellies:

(1) Exclusively marine

(2) Only sexual reproduction
(3) Internal fertilisation
(4) Sexes are not separate

6)

Choose the correct match from the option given below:

Acoelomate, Fasciola and

(1)
triploblastic Ascaris

Alternation of Culex and

(2)
generation Pheretima

Adamsia and
(3) Segmented body
Gorgonia

Tissue level of Obelia and

(4)
organisation Physalia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Skeleton of sponges made up of spicules and spongin fibres present in which layer ?

(1) Mesoderm
(2) Choanoderm
(3) Mesoglea
(4) Mesohyl / Mesenchyme

8)

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

(A) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata

(B) Canal System (ii) Ctenophora

(C) Comb plates (iii) Annelida

(D) Cnidoblast (iv) Porifera

Choose the CORRECT answers from the options given below:
(1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(2) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(3) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(4) A – II, B – IV, C – II, D – I

9) What is the function of Cnidoblast ?

(1) Anchorage
(2) Defense and capture of prey
(3) Digestion and Grinding
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10) In Ctenophora, the body bears ______ external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in
locomotion.

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight

11)

Choose the correct option for animals possessing schizocoelom:

(1) Ascaris, Nereis, Hirudinaria, Prawn

(2) Taenia, Ascaris, Apis, Limulus
(3) Locusta, Pheretima, Hirudinaria, Periplaneta
(4) Pleurobrachia, Wuchereria, Scorpion

12)
Read the following four statements (A–D):
(A) Annelids possess only longitudinal muscles which help in locomotion.
(B) Nephridia helps only in excretion and not in osmoregulation.
(C) Closed type circulatory system is present in most of annelids.
(D) Members of phylum Annelida are triploblastic, metamerically segmented and acoelomate.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

13)

Select the correct statement for phylum Arthropoda:

(1) Largest phylum which include only insects

(2) They are triploblastic, unsegmented and coelomate.
(3) Sensory organs like antennae, simple eyes, compound eyes, are present.
(4) They always show indirect development.

14)

Consider the following three statements (A–C) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only:
(A) The earthworm shows metameric segmentation.
(B) Platyhelminthes shows organ level of body organisation.
(C) In Aschelminthes, mesoglea is present between ectoderm and endoderm.

(1) Statement A, B and C

(2) Statements A and B
(3) Statements B and C
(4) Statements A and C

15) Cross section of animal body is given below :

Which of the following animal will satisfy the above cross-section ?

(1) Fasciola
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Ascaris
(4) Nereis
16)

Mark the most appropriate answer about the given diagram

(1) a- Porifera; b - Coelenterata

(2) a - Ctenophora; b - Annelida
(3) a - Coelenterata; b - Platyhelminthes
(4) a - Arthropoda; b - Hemichordata

17) When only one plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical left and right halves, the organism is called

(1) Radially symmetrical

(2) Bilaterally symmetrical
(3) Asymmetrical
(4) Metamerically segmented

18)

Choose the incorrect option.

(1) In Aschelminthes, development may be direct & young ones resemble the adult.
(2) Larva of sponges is morphologically distinct from the adult.
(3) Portuguese man-of-war possesses bilateral symmetry.
(4) Well-marked property of sea walnuts is bioluminescence.

19) In phylum Porifera, the opening through which water leaves the spongocoel is called ?

(1) Ostia
(2) Ommatidia
(3) Osculum
(4) Choanocytes

20) Medusa is :-

(1) Sessile & cylindrical

(2) Free living & umbrella-shaped
(3) Free living & performs sexual reproduction
(4) Free swimming & umbrella-shaped

21) In which organism development is through many larval stages and fertilisation is internal ?
(1) Fasciola
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Limulus

22)

Select the correct statement without any exception :

(1) Flat worms are endoparasites

(2) Mollusc have open circulatory system.
(3) All sponges & coelenterates are marine.
(4) Members of annelida have segmentation.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 2 4 4 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23
A. 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
A. 1 4 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 4 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 4
Q. 44 45
A. 1 1

BOTANY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 2 3 3 1 2 4 1 3 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 4
Q. 66 67 68
A. 2 4 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88
A. 3 4 1 4 3 4 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 4
Q. 89 90
A. 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Figure shows the slope of the final reflected ray is tan 45º = 1

Hence the most appropriate option is (4)

2)

3)

length of AB will remain same.

4)

For paraxial ray focal length of any spherical mirror

Focal length of mirrors is independent of surrounding medium.

5)

6) As the object moves from infinity to centre of curvature, the distance between object and
image reduces from infinity to zero.
As the object moves from centre of curvature to focus, the distance between object and image
increases from zero to infinity.
As the object moves from focus to pole, the distance between object and its image
reduces from infinity to zero. Hence the distance between object and its image shall be 40 cm
three times.

7) Draw an incident ray along the top side of rectangular strip, which happens to be parallel to
the principal axis. After reflection this ray passes through focus. Hence image of all points (for
e.g. O1, O2, O3, .......) on top side of the strip lie on this reflected ray (at I1, I2, I3, .......) in
between focus and centre of curvature. Thus the image of this strip is a triangle as shown in

figure

8) By mirror formula:

The image revolves in circle of radius .

Image of a radius is erect particle will revolve in the same direction as the particle.
The image will complete one revolution in the same time 2s.
Velocity of image

9)

10) Theory based.

11) Theory based.

12)

13) The image ‘I’ of object ‘O’ formed by plane mirror moves towards left.
I acts a real object for concave mirror.
As I moves towards left, its image formed by concave mirror (whether real or virtual) moves
towards right.

14) Concave mirror

15)

16) Given that

Number of waves in A = Number of waves in B + Number of waves in C

Here C is constant (3 × 108 m/s) and frequency f does not depends on medium.

17)

18) Let y-axis be vertically upwards and x-axis be horizontal.

 19) The final image formed by slab has a fixed separation from ’O’.

20)

Area of image = m2 area of object

21)

22) Conceptual.

23)

When mirror is rotated by an angle

Reflected ray rotates by an angle in the same sense.

CHEMISTRY

24) The oxidation number of an overall molecule is zero.

Hence, the oxidation number of sulfur in S8 is zero because it is a complete molecule.
The oxidation state of fluorine is –1 due to high electronegativity
Hence, the oxidation number of sulfur in S2F2 is
[2x – 2 = 0]
[2x = 2]
x = +1
The oxidation state of hydrogen is +1 due to less electronegative than sulfur.
Hence, the oxidation number of sulfur in H2S is
2x × 1 + x = 0
x+2=0
x = –2
Therefore, the oxidation number of sulfur in S8, S2F2 and H2S is 0, +1 and –2 respectively.
 25) Redox reaction is a chemical reaction that involves both oxidation and reduction half-
reactions simultaneously.
Given,
is a redox reaction.
The oxidation state of fluorine is always –1 due to its high electronegativity.
The overall oxidation state of a molecule is zero.

Oxidation Oxidation
Element state in state in
reactants products

Xe +4 +6 (oxidation)

F –1 –1

O +2 .0 (reduction)

26) Given,
2K[Ag(CN)2] + Zn ⟶ 2Ag + K2[Zn(CN)4]
Redox reaction is a chemical reaction that involves both oxidation and reduction half-reactions
simultaneously.

27) Minimum oxidation state - Reducing agent

Maximum oxidation state - Oxidising agent
Intermediate oxidation state – both oxidising agent and reducing agent.

28)

For redox reaction, the valence factor is equal to the number of electron gain or loss by a
species.
The equivalent weight of redox species is written as,

Equivalent weight =

S2O32– acts as an oxidizing agent. It reduces I2 to I–.

The reaction of thiosulfates with iodine is represented as follows,
2S2O32– + I2 → S4O62– + 2I–
Here the oxidation state of S does not change.
Therefore, the valence factor for S2O32– is equal to 1.
The equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 is written as,

Equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 =

Therefore, the equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 is equal to molecular weight.

29) For redox reaction, the valence factor is equal to the number of electron gain or loss by a
species.
The equivalent weight of redox species is written as,

Equivalent weight =

Oxidation state of Cu changes from +1 to +2.

Oxidation state of S changes from –2 to +4.

Equivalent weight of Cu2S =

30)

The reaction is given as,

Hydrazine accepts electrons and oxidizes to nitrogen.

The reaction is,
N2H4 → N2 + 4H+ + 4e–
The oxidation reaction involves 4 electrons, thus valence factor for hydrazine oxidation is
equal to 4.

Equivalent weight of
Here, iodine in IIO3– accepts four electrons and is reduced to ICl.
The number of electrons involved in the reduction is equal to 4.
The reaction is,
IO3– + 6H+ + 5e– → ICl + 3H2O
Thus valence factor is equal to 4.
Equivalent weight for KIO3 is calculated as follows,

Equivalent weight of KIO3 =

So, the equivalent weight of hydrazine is 8 and KIO3 is 53.5.

31) Equivalent weight of a compound is defined as the ratio of molecular weight of compound
by the change in oxidation state.
The oxidation state of manganese (Mn) in MnSO4 is +2.

Therefore, Equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its molecular weight when it changes to
MnO2 as the change in the oxidation state of manganese is 2.

32)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

33) Given,
The chemical formula of phosphorus acid is H3PO3
Molarity of phosphorous acid = 0.3 M
Normality = Molarity × Basicity of acid
Basicity of an acid is defined as the number of replaceable hydrogen ions present in the
structure

34)

The reaction is given as follows,

Here, Mn accepts three electrons and reduces to MnO2.

The oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 → +4.
A reduction reaction is,

Similarly, sulfur in oxidizes to .

The reaction involves 8 electrons.
The reaction is,

So the valence factor for and is equal to 3 and 8.

So both reason and assertion are correct but the reason is not a proper explanation of
assertion.

35)

In acidic medium, change in oxidation state of Mn = 7 − 2 = 5

In basic medium, change in oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 = 7 − 6 = 1
n-factor of KMnO4 in acidic medium = 5
n-factor of KMnO4 in basic medium = 1
n-factor of KMnO4 in neutral medium = 3
Thus, assertion and reason both are incorrect.

36)
37)

Let us consider the oxidation states of central metal atom for each given option,
H2S → S(−2) Sulphur cannot be reduced further.
H2O2 → O(−1) Oxygen can undergo −2 to 0.
SO3 → S(+6)
Sulphur is present in high oxidation state.
F2 → F(0) Fluorine cannot oxidize, because it is most electronegative in nature.
Clearly, O can act as oxidizing as well as reducing agent in H2O2.

38) Here, central atom is oxygen and F is more electronegative.

Let us consider the oxidation states for oxygen in given compound to be x,
F2O → x − 2 = 0, x = +2

39)

The given reaction can be written as:

4S(+2) + 2e– → 4S
2I(0) + 2e⁻ → 2I(−1)
Oxidation state of sulfur has increased, but that of iodine is decreased.
Therefore, sulfur is oxidized and iodine is reduced.

40)

The structure of H2S2O8 is as follows:

It contains peroxide linkage due to which the oxidation number of these two oxygen atoms will
be −1 each.
Let the oxidation number of S in this compound be x and it is calculated below:
2 × (+1) + 2x + 6 × (−2) + 2 × (−1) = 0
2 + 2x − 12 − 2 = 0 or 2x = 12
∴ x = +6

41) Given,

Steps involved in balancing redox reaction (acidic medium)

 Divide the chemical reaction into two half-reactions (oxidation and reduction half reaction)
Balance the atoms other than oxygen and hydrogen
Balance the oxygen adding water molecules (H2O)
Balance the hydrogen adding hydrogen ions (H+)
Balance the charge by adding electrons
Balanced chemical reaction is

42) In CH4, oxidation number of carbon is –4 while in , oxidation number of carbon is +4.
Thus, the change in oxidation number of carbon in the given reaction is from –4 to +4.

43) Metal displacement reactions are the ones in which more reactive metal displaces a less
reactive metal from its compound.
Thus, out of the given reactions, the metal displacement reaction is

44)

(a – t, u) Disproportionation or auto-redox: one molecule of a reactant is oxidized and reduced

simultaneously.

45) ....(i)
....(ii)
Multiplying (i) by e and adding (ii),

Completing the reaction,

Here, x = 1, y = 3, z = 1.

BOTANY

46) NCERT Page no. 124

47) Allen module

48)

NCERT Page no. 124

49)

NCERT Page no. 124

50) NCERT Page no. 125

51)

NCERT Page no. 122

52)

NCERT Page no. 123

53) NCERT Page no. 123

54)

Allen module

55)

NCERT Page no. 123

56) NCERT Page no. 120

57)

NCERT Page no. 125

58) NCERT Page no. 122

59) NCERT Page no. 122

60)

NCERT Page no. 120

61)

NCERT Page no. 124

62)
 NCERT Page no. 122

63) NCERT Page no. 122

64)

NCERT Page no. 122

65)

NCERT Page no. 123

66) Allen module page 215.

67) Ncert page 121.

68) Ncert page 121.

ZOOLOGY

69)

Radial symmetry only present in sycon and Leucosolenia (Porifera).

NCERT Page no. 38
Edition = 2022

70)

NCERT Conceptual

71)

NCERT Conceptual.

72)

NCERT Page no. 40 & 41

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74)
NCERT Page no. 41 to 43
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75) Conceptual
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76)

NCERT Page no. 40 to 43

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77) NCERT Page No. 41,

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78) NCERT Page No. 42,

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79)

Type of Eucoelom (NEET 2025)

80)

NCERT Page no. 43

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90)

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