BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

a. A man who enjoys the thrill of extreme sports like skydiving.

Abnormal Psychology – Preboard Examination b. A woman who feels sad for several days after the death of a beloved pet.
Name: ______________________________ Score: __________ c. An individual whose intense fear of social situations prevents them from leaving their house and
Instructions: Read each question and its corresponding options carefully. Choose the single best answer maintaining a job.
that most accurately and completely addresses the scenario or concept presented. d. A teenager who chooses to dye their hair a bright, unconventional color.
5. The concept of "abnormality" in psychology is best understood as:
1. A college student reports feeling "down" and overwhelmed for the past three weeks after receiving a. A clear, dichotomous category where a behavior is either normal or abnormal.
a lower-than-expected grade on a midterm exam. While he feels distressed and his sleep has been b. A dimensional continuum, where behaviors are evaluated based on the degree of impairment and
mildly disrupted, he continues to attend all his classes, completes his assignments, and maintains distress they cause.
his social activities with friends. This presentation is best described as: c. Any behavior that violates the legal codes of a society.
a. A normal, transient emotional reaction to a common life stressor. d. A purely subjective judgment with no objective criteria.
b. A clear manifestation of a major depressive episode requiring immediate intervention. 6. A 30-year-old woman experiences sudden, recurrent episodes of intense fear that peak within
c. An example of abnormal behavior because it involves psychological distress. minutes. During these attacks, she feels heart palpitations, shortness of breath, and a fear that she
d. A subclinical form of an adjustment disorder. is "going crazy." She has now begun to worry persistently about having another attack and has
2. The "Four Ds" of abnormality are dysfunction, distress, deviance, and danger. Which of these is most started avoiding places where she thinks one might occur. The most likely diagnosis is:
dependent on the cultural context and historical period in which it is being evaluated? a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
a. Distress, as it is a universal human experience. b. Specific Phobia, Situational Type
b. Danger, as threats to self or others are objectively defined. c. Panic Disorder
c. Dysfunction, as the inability to perform daily roles is consistent across societies. d. Illness Anxiety Disorder
d. Deviance, as societal norms for what is acceptable behavior vary significantly across cultures and 7. A client with Agoraphobia experiences intense fear and anxiety in crowded buses and large
time. supermarkets. The core fear underlying their avoidance of these situations is typically:
3. A highly successful artist is known for her eccentric style of dress and unconventional living habits. a. A fear of the specific objects or places themselves.
While her behavior is statistically rare and considered odd by many, she reports feeling content, is b. A fear that something embarrassing or incapacitating might happen (like a panic attack) and
highly productive in her work, and maintains a small circle of close friends. From a clinical escape or help would be difficult to obtain.
perspective, her behavior would likely not be considered abnormal because it lacks significant: c. A fear of being judged or scrutinized by others.
a. Deviance from the statistical norm. d. A fear of contamination or germs.
b. Danger to herself or others. 8. The primary feature that distinguishes Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) from other anxiety
c. Dysfunction in her occupational and social life. disorders is that the anxiety in GAD is:
d. Uniqueness compared to other artists. a. Focused on a specific object or situation.
4. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of psychological dysfunction as a b. Characterized by sudden, intense panic attacks.
component of abnormality? c. Pervasive, excessive, and focused on a wide range of everyday life events and activities.

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d. Related to a past traumatic event. 13. The primary difference between Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
9. A child with Selective Mutism consistently fails to speak in specific social situations (e.g., at school) (PTSD) is the:
where there is an expectation for speaking, despite speaking normally in other situations (e.g., at a. Type of traumatic event that can serve as a trigger.
home). This condition is best classified under which category of disorders? b. Severity of the symptoms experienced by the individual.
a. Speech and Language Disorders c. Duration of the disturbance after the traumatic event.
b. Autism Spectrum Disorder d. Presence or absence of dissociative symptoms.
c. Anxiety Disorders 14. For a diagnosis of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder, the exposure to a traumatic event can be indirect.
d. Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders Which of the following scenarios would meet this criterion?
10. Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia) can be specified with a "performance only" specifier. This a. A person watching a fictional violent movie.
would be most appropriate for an individual whose fear is restricted to: b. A person seeing news coverage of a disaster in a foreign country.
a. Any situation involving interaction with other people. c. A first responder repeatedly collecting human remains after a major catastrophe.
b. Situations like using public restrooms or eating in front of others. d. A person hearing about a friend's stressful day at work.
c. Public speaking or performing in front of an audience. 15. A client presents with an overwhelming fear of gaining weight and a severely distorted body image,
d. Being in open or enclosed spaces. believing she is overweight despite being dangerously thin. She achieves her low weight primarily
11. A combat veteran has been home for eight months. He experiences intrusive, recurrent memories through extreme dieting and excessive exercise, and has not had a menstrual period in four months.
of a firefight, actively avoids conversations or places that remind him of his deployment, feels The most likely diagnosis is:
emotionally numb and detached from his family, and exhibits hypervigilance and an exaggerated a. Bulimia Nervosa, non-purging type
startle response. The duration of these symptoms is critical for which diagnosis? b. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
a. Acute Stress Disorder c. Anorexia Nervosa, restricting type
b. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder d. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
c. Adjustment Disorder with anxiety 16. The key behavioral feature that distinguishes Bulimia Nervosa from Binge-Eating Disorder is:
d. Generalized Anxiety Disorder a. The amount of food consumed during a binge.
12. A college student breaks up with his long-term girlfriend and, within two weeks, begins experiencing b. The feeling of being out of control during a binge.
significant emotional distress, including tearfulness and difficulty concentrating on his studies, which c. The presence of recurrent, inappropriate compensatory behaviors (e.g., purging, excessive
is out of proportion to the stressor. He has no prior history of mental health issues. The most exercise) to prevent weight gain.
appropriate diagnosis would be: d. The level of distress and guilt felt after a binge.
a. Major Depressive Disorder 17. Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) is characterized by a preoccupation with one or more perceived
b. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder flaws in physical appearance that are not observable or appear only slight to others. The most
c. Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood common compulsive behaviors associated with BDD include:
d. Normal grief reaction a. Binge eating and purging.
b. Repeated mirror checking, excessive grooming, and seeking reassurance about one's appearance.

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c. Hoarding objects related to the perceived defect. c. The individual has one or more distressing and disruptive somatic symptoms that are the central
d. Pulling out one's hair or picking at one's skin. focus of their concern.
18. A client describes an irresistible urge to pull out her own hair, particularly from her scalp and d. The individual is intentionally faking their symptoms for external gain.
eyebrows, resulting in noticeable hair loss. She experiences a sense of tension before pulling and a 22. A client is found to have been deliberately contaminating her own urine samples with sugar to
feeling of relief or gratification afterward. This pattern is characteristic of: produce symptoms of diabetes. When confronted, she admits to the deception but denies any
a. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder motive for external reward, stating she enjoys the attention and care she receives from being in the
b. Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorder "sick role." This pattern is indicative of:
c. Trichotillomania (Hair-Pulling Disorder) a. Malingering
d. Body Dysmorphic Disorder b. Conversion Disorder
19. A client reports a 2-year history of multiple, persistent physical complaints, including chronic pain, c. Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self
fatigue, and gastrointestinal issues. He has seen numerous doctors, but no medical explanation can d. Somatic Symptom Disorder
be found. He is excessively worried about his health, devotes significant time and energy to his 23. Following a highly traumatic event where she witnessed a car accident, a woman reports significant
symptoms, and his life has become functionally impaired. The most fitting diagnosis is: gaps in her memory. She can remember the entire day leading up to the accident and the events
a. Illness Anxiety Disorder immediately after, but she cannot recall the specific details of the accident itself. This is a classic
b. Conversion Disorder example of:
c. Somatic Symptom Disorder a. Dissociative Fugue
d. Factitious Disorder b. Dissociative Amnesia with a localized pattern.
20. A patient is brought to the emergency room with a sudden paralysis of his right arm. Extensive c. Dissociative Amnesia with a selective pattern.
neurological testing reveals no underlying medical cause for the paralysis. The symptom onset d. Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder.
occurred immediately after he was informed he was being fired from his job. The clinical 24. A client describes recurrent experiences of feeling detached from her own body, as if she were an
presentation is most suggestive of: outside observer of her own life. During these episodes, which she finds very distressing, her sense
a. Somatic Symptom Disorder of reality remains intact. This clinical picture is most consistent with the symptoms of:
b. Malingering a. Derealization
c. Illness Anxiety Disorder b. Depersonalization
d. Conversion Disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder) c. Dissociative Amnesia
21. A key difference between Somatic Symptom Disorder and Illness Anxiety Disorder is that in Somatic d. Dissociative Identity Disorder
Symptom Disorder: 25. The most defining feature of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) is:
a. The individual has no actual physical symptoms. a. A sudden, unexpected travel away from home with an inability to recall one's past.
b. The individual is primarily preoccupied with the idea of having a serious illness, with minimal b. The presence of persistent or recurrent feelings of detachment from oneself.
somatic symptoms. c. The disruption of identity characterized by two or more distinct personality states (alters).

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d. An inability to recall important autobiographical information that is inconsistent with ordinary a. With Mixed Features
forgetting. b. With Psychotic Features
26. To meet the diagnostic criteria for a Major Depressive Episode, a client must experience a depressed c. With Rapid Cycling
mood or anhedonia, plus several other symptoms, for a period of at least: d. With Anxious Distress
a. One week 31. Sleep-wake disorders can have significant impacts on functioning. Insomnia Disorder is primarily
b. Two weeks characterized by dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality, associated with difficulty initiating
c. One month sleep, maintaining sleep, or early-morning awakening. To be diagnosed, this must occur at least:
d. Two months a. 3 nights a week for at least 3 months.
27. A client has experienced a chronically depressed mood for most of the day, more days than not, for b. 1 night a week for at least 1 month.
the past three years. She reports low energy and poor self-esteem but has never had a full major c. 5 nights a week for at least 6 months.
depressive episode. Her symptoms, while persistent, cause significant distress. The most likely d. Every night for at least 2 weeks.
diagnosis is: 32. A client's partner complains that the client often acts out his dreams during sleep. He has kicked,
a. Cyclothymic Disorder yelled, and even fallen out of bed while seemingly in a dream state. He has no memory of these
b. Major Depressive Disorder, chronic events upon waking. This presentation is most consistent with:
c. Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) a. Sleepwalking
d. Bipolar II Disorder b. Nightmare Disorder
28. The primary distinction between Bipolar I Disorder and Bipolar II Disorder is that Bipolar I Disorder c. REM Sleep Behavior Disorder
requires the presence of at least one ________, whereas Bipolar II Disorder is characterized by ________. d. Restless Legs Syndrome
a. major depressive episode; hypomanic episode 33. A man reports that he can only achieve sexual arousal and orgasm by secretly observing
b. manic episode; at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode unsuspecting individuals who are undressing or engaging in sexual activity. He has acted on these
c. hypomanic episode; cyclothymic symptoms urges multiple times, causing him significant distress and fear of being caught. This pattern is
d. psychotic feature; rapid cycling characteristic of:
29. A new mother experiences mood swings, tearfulness, and irritability beginning four days after giving a. Exhibitionistic Disorder
birth. These symptoms peak around the fifth day and resolve spontaneously within two weeks. This b. Frotteuristic Disorder
common and typically benign condition is known as: c. Voyeuristic Disorder
a. Postpartum Depression (Major Depressive Disorder with Peripartum Onset) d. Fetishistic Disorder
b. Postpartum Psychosis 34. A key criterion for diagnosing any paraphilic disorder, such as Fetishistic Disorder or Transvestic
c. The "Baby Blues" Disorder, is that the paraphilic interest must:
d. Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood a. Be statistically rare in the general population.
30. A client with Bipolar I Disorder experiences four distinct mood episodes (mania and depression) b. Involve the use of inanimate objects.
within a 12-month period. This pattern would be noted with the DSM-5 specifier:

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c. Cause distress or impairment to the individual, or its satisfaction must involve harm or risk of harm 39. A client reports recurrent behavioral outbursts representing a failure to control aggressive impulses,
to others. manifested by verbal aggression or physical aggression that is grossly out of proportion to the
d. Be present for a minimum duration of one year. provocation. The outbursts are not premeditated and cause significant distress. This describes:
35. The essential feature of a substance use disorder is: a. Conduct Disorder
a. The development of tolerance and withdrawal symptoms. b. Antisocial Personality Disorder
b. The recurrent use of the substance in situations where it is physically hazardous. c. Intermittent Explosive Disorder
c. A cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that the individual d. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems. 40. An individual who consistently sets fires for pleasure, gratification, or relief of tension, and who
d. The act of taking the substance in larger amounts or over a longer period than was intended. shows a fascination with fire and its contextual associations, would most likely be diagnosed with:
36. A person who has stopped using a heavy amount of alcohol begins to experience tremors, insomnia, a. Arson (a legal term, not a diagnosis)
anxiety, and autonomic hyperactivity within 12 hours. These symptoms are indicative of: b. Conduct Disorder
a. Alcohol Intoxication c. Pyromania
b. Alcohol Withdrawal d. Antisocial Personality Disorder
c. Korsakoff's Syndrome 41. A client exhibits a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.
d. A substance-induced psychotic disorder He believes he is "special" and unique, requires excessive praise, and is envious of others. This
37. A 10-year-old child displays a persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant pattern is most characteristic of which personality disorder?
behavior toward authority figures, and vindictiveness for at least six months. He is deliberately a. Histrionic Personality Disorder
annoying and often blames others for his mistakes. This is most consistent with a diagnosis of: b. Borderline Personality Disorder
a. Conduct Disorder c. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
b. Oppositional Defiant Disorder d. Antisocial Personality Disorder
c. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder 42. A core feature of Borderline Personality Disorder is a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal
d. Intermittent Explosive Disorder relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked impulsivity. Which of the following is a key
38. The primary difference between Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) and Conduct Disorder (CD) is symptom of this disorder?
that: a. A persistent avoidance of social relationships.
a. ODD involves emotional dysregulation, whereas CD does not. b. An excessive need to be taken care of.
b. CD involves a more severe pattern of behavior that includes aggression to people and animals, c. Frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment.
destruction of property, or a pattern of theft or deceit. d. A preoccupation with orderliness and perfectionism.
c. ODD is only diagnosed in childhood, while CD is only diagnosed in adolescence. 43. The "Cluster A" personality disorders (Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal) are often described as:
d. CD is characterized by defiance towards authority, while ODD is not. a. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic.
b. Anxious or fearful.
c. Odd or eccentric.

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d. Impulsive and aggressive. a. Alogia (poverty of speech)

44. An individual who shows a profound disregard for and violation of the rights of others, a failure to b. Avolition
conform to social norms, deceitfulness, impulsivity, and a lack of remorse would be diagnosed with c. Derailment (or loose associations)
Antisocial Personality Disorder. A diagnosis cannot be made before what age? d. A delusion of reference
a. 15 49. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia refer to:
b. 18 a. The presence of abnormal behaviors, such as hallucinations.
c. 21 b. The absence or diminution of normal behaviors, such as flattened affect, alogia, or avolition.
d. 12 c. Hostile and aggressive behaviors towards others.
45. An individual with Schizoid Personality Disorder is most likely to be described as: d. The cognitive deficits associated with the disorder.
a. A social chameleon who is the life of the party. 50. A man believes that a famous news anchor is secretly sending him coded messages of love through
b. A detached loner who has no interest in social relationships. her television broadcasts. This is an example of what type of delusion?
c. A suspicious and mistrustful person who thinks others are trying to harm them. a. Grandiose
d. A person with odd beliefs and behaviors who is uncomfortable in social situations. b. Persecutory
46. A client has experienced delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech for the past seven c. Erotomanic
months. These symptoms have caused significant impairment in his ability to work and maintain d. Somatic
relationships. There have been no major depressive or manic episodes concurrent with the active- 51. To receive a diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD), an individual must display persistent
phase symptoms. The most likely diagnosis is: deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts, as well as:
a. Schizophreniform Disorder a. The presence of intellectual disability.
b. Brief Psychotic Disorder b. A delay in language development.
c. Schizophrenia c. Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities.
d. Schizoaffective Disorder d. The presence of a known genetic condition.
47. The primary difference between Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder is that in Schizoaffective 52. A 9-year-old boy has significant difficulty paying attention in class, is constantly fidgeting, often
Disorder: loses his school supplies, and frequently interrupts his teachers and classmates. These symptoms
a. The psychotic symptoms only occur during mood episodes. occur both at home and at school and impair his academic performance. This is most consistent
b. There is a major mood episode (depressive or manic) that is concurrent with the active-phase with:
symptoms of schizophrenia, and delusions or hallucinations have also been present for at least 2 a. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
weeks without a major mood episode. b. A Specific Learning Disorder
c. There are no negative symptoms present. c. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
d. The duration of the illness is less than six months. d. Autism Spectrum Disorder
48. A client is brought to a clinic after speaking in a completely incoherent manner, shifting rapidly from
one topic to another without any logical connection. This symptom is known as:

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53. The primary diagnostic criterion for Intellectual Disability (Intellectual Developmental Disorder) b. A traumatic conditioning experience, such as being bitten by a dog as a child.
involves deficits in intellectual functions (such as reasoning and problem-solving) confirmed by c. A genetic predisposition to anxiety.
clinical assessment and standardized intelligence testing, as well as: d. Maladaptive cognitions about the dangerousness of all dogs.
a. Deficits in adaptive functioning that result in failure to meet developmental and sociocultural 58. According to the cognitive model, panic attacks are often maintained by a process of "catastrophic
standards for personal independence. misinterpretation," where an individual:
b. The presence of a physical disability. a. Overestimates the probability of a negative outcome in a social situation.
c. An onset of symptoms after age 18. b. Attributes negative events to internal, stable, and global causes.
d. A specific learning impairment in reading or math. c. Interprets normal bodily sensations (e.g., a racing heart) as signs of an impending medical or
54. A 75-year-old man with a history of multiple strokes begins to show a significant decline in memory mental disaster.
and executive function. He has difficulty planning his day and managing his finances. The decline is d. Holds rigid and perfectionistic beliefs about themselves and the world.
a change from his previous level of functioning and interferes with his independence. The most 59. Genetic research on disorders like schizophrenia and bipolar disorder has shown that:
probable diagnosis is: a. There is a single "schizophrenia gene" that causes the disorder.
a. Alzheimer's Disease b. These disorders are not heritable and are caused entirely by environmental factors.
b. Delirium c. Genetics play a significant role, with multiple genes likely contributing to a predisposition or
c. Major Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder vulnerability to the disorders.
d. Lewy Body Dementia d. Having a parent with the disorder guarantees the child will also develop it.
55. The key feature that distinguishes Delirium from a Major Neurocognitive Disorder is that Delirium: 60. The neurotransmitter most closely associated with the rewarding effects of substances of abuse,
a. Involves a gradual, insidious onset and a progressive decline. and therefore central to theories of addiction, is:
b. Is characterized primarily by memory impairment. a. Serotonin
c. Represents a disturbance in attention and awareness that develops over a short period of time b. Acetylcholine
and tends to fluctuate in severity. c. GABA
d. Is an irreversible condition. d. Dopamine
56. The diathesis-stress model proposes that psychopathology results from: 61. From a psychodynamic perspective, the symptoms of Conversion Disorder (e.g., unexplained
a. The influence of unconscious conflicts and early childhood experiences. paralysis) are thought to represent the "conversion" of:
b. A learned pattern of maladaptive behaviors. a. Maladaptive thoughts into physical reality.
c. The interaction between a pre-existing vulnerability (diathesis) and a precipitating event or b. Unconscious emotional conflict into a more acceptable physical symptom.
condition (stress). c. A desire for attention into a legitimate medical condition.
d. The impact of societal and cultural factors alone. d. A biological predisposition into a neurological symptom.
57. A behavioral theorist would most likely explain the development of a specific phobia of dogs as 62. The biological basis of Alzheimer's Disease is characterized by the accumulation of two key protein
resulting from: abnormalities in the brain:
a. An unresolved Oedipus complex. a. Dopamine and serotonin plaques.

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b. Lewy bodies and alpha-synuclein. a. Schizophrenia is purely a biological illness, unaffected by culture.
c. Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. b. Schizophrenia is a cultural construct with no biological basis.
d. Cortisol deposits and hippocampal shrinkage. c. While the core biological vulnerability may be universal, cultural factors play a crucial role in
63. The learning theory concept of "preparedness" suggests that humans are evolutionarily predisposed shaping the expression and outcome of the disorder.
to more easily develop phobias of certain things (like snakes or spiders) than others (like electrical d. The diagnosis of schizophrenia is applied inconsistently across cultures.
outlets or cars). This is because: 68. The "dopamine hypothesis" of schizophrenia primarily suggests that the positive symptoms of the
a. These stimuli were genuine threats to our ancestors' survival. disorder are related to:
b. These stimuli are more commonly portrayed as scary in movies. a. A deficit of dopamine activity in the prefrontal cortex.
c. These stimuli are associated with unconscious symbolic meanings. b. An excess of dopamine activity in certain brain pathways, particularly the mesolimbic pathway.
d. Conditioning to these stimuli is more resistant to extinction. c. A dysregulation of the serotonin system.
64. The cognitive "negative triad," proposed by Aaron Beck as a core component of depression, involves d. The formation of amyloid plaques.
negative views of: 69. In the context of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD), a behavioral therapist would explain the
a. The past, the present, and the future. maintenance of compulsive behaviors (like hand-washing) through the principle of:
b. Oneself, one's experiences (the world), and the future. a. Positive reinforcement, as the behavior adds a pleasant feeling.
c. Friends, family, and colleagues. b. Negative reinforcement, as the behavior removes or reduces the anxiety caused by the obsession.
d. One's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. c. Classical conditioning, as a neutral stimulus becomes associated with fear.
65. A gene-environment interaction study might find that individuals with a particular genetic makeup d. Observational learning, by watching others perform similar rituals.
are more susceptible to developing antisocial behavior, but only if they are also exposed to: 70. The "Permissive Hypothesis" regarding mood disorders suggests that:
a. A supportive and nurturing family environment. a. Low serotonin "permits" the dysregulation of other neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, leading
b. A high-quality education. to mood swings.
c. Maladaptive peer influences or childhood maltreatment. b. A permissive parenting style is the primary cause of mood disorders.
d. A healthy diet. c. Society's permissive attitude towards emotional expression has increased the rate of diagnosis.
66. The diathesis-stress model would explain why, after experiencing the same traumatic car accident, d. Mood disorders give individuals permission to behave in socially unacceptable ways.
one person develops PTSD while another does not. The person who develops PTSD may have had 71. Cognitive-behavioral theories of anxiety disorders propose that anxiety is maintained by a vicious
a pre-existing diathesis, such as: cycle of:
a. A history of successful coping with stress. a. Unconscious conflict, repression, and symptom formation.
b. A strong social support network. b. Maladaptive thoughts, which lead to anxious feelings and avoidance behaviors, which in turn
c. A genetic vulnerability to anxiety or a history of early childhood trauma. reinforce the maladaptive thoughts.
d. A high level of optimism and resilience. c. Genetic vulnerability, which leads to neurotransmitter imbalance and physiological arousal.
67. The observation that schizophrenia is found in all cultures, but its specific content of delusions and d. A lack of social support, leading to isolation and increased worry.
prognosis can vary, suggests that:

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72. Brain imaging studies of individuals with PTSD often show hyperactivity in the ________, a brain region a. Psychoanalytic Therapy
associated with fear processing, and hypoactivity in the ________, which is involved in regulating b. Person-Centered Therapy
emotional responses. c. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
a. cerebellum; prefrontal cortex d. Gestalt Therapy
b. hippocampus; amygdala 77. For a client with a specific phobia of spiders (arachnophobia), the most effective therapeutic
c. amygdala; prefrontal cortex intervention would likely be:
d. thalamus; hypothalamus a. Aversion therapy, where the client is punished for thinking about spiders.
73. The fact that depression is diagnosed about twice as often in women as in men across many cultures b. Systematic desensitization or exposure therapy, where the client is gradually exposed to spider-
may be explained by a combination of biological factors, cognitive styles (e.g., rumination), and related stimuli while practicing relaxation techniques.
sociocultural pressures. This illustrates a key principle of modern psychopathology: c. Family systems therapy to explore how the phobia affects family dynamics.
a. The principle of single causality. d. Long-term psychodynamic therapy to uncover the unconscious meaning of the spider.
b. The principle of parsimony. 78. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT), developed by Marsha Linehan, is considered the gold-standard
c. The principle of equifinality, where a single disorder may have multiple causes. treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder. It uniquely combines CBT techniques with core
d. The principle of multifinality, where a single cause can lead to multiple outcomes. concepts of:
74. A person with a gambling disorder continues to gamble despite severe financial losses and damage a. Free association and dream analysis.
to their family relationships. From a learning perspective, the intermittent and unpredictable nature b. Unconditional positive regard.
of winning acts as a powerful: c. Mindfulness, distress tolerance, and emotion regulation.
a. Continuous reinforcement schedule. d. Family sculpting and genograms.
b. Fixed-interval reinforcement schedule. 79. The therapeutic technique of Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is the first-line treatment for
c. Variable-ratio reinforcement schedule, which is highly resistant to extinction. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. It involves:
d. Negative reinforcement schedule. a. Exposing the client to their obsessional fears (e.g., contamination) and preventing them from
75. The high rate of comorbidity between anxiety and depressive disorders is thought to be explained, engaging in their compulsive ritual (e.g., hand-washing).
from a biological perspective, by: b. Exploring the childhood origins of the obsessions.
a. Shared genetic vulnerabilities and overlapping neural circuits involving the limbic system and c. Challenging the irrationality of the obsessional thoughts through Socratic questioning.
prefrontal cortex. d. Using medication to block the obsessional thoughts.
b. The fact that one disorder is always a direct cause of the other. 80. A therapist is working with a client who has experienced a recent traumatic event. The therapist
c. Diagnostic confusion on the part of clinicians. helps the client process the traumatic memory by having them focus on it while engaging in bilateral
d. The influence of the same specific environmental stressor. stimulation (e.g., eye movements). This technique is a hallmark of:
76. The most widely used and evidence-based therapeutic approach for the treatment of Panic Disorder, a. Interpersonal Therapy (IPT)
which involves correcting catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations and gradual exposure b. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR)
to feared situations, is: c. Solution-Focused Brief Therapy

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d. Motivational Interviewing b. Freud's Psychoanalysis

81. A key component in the successful application of contingency management for substance use c. Rogers's Person-Centered Therapy
disorders is: d. Perls's Gestalt Therapy
a. Exploring the client's ambivalence about change. 86. A Filipino client describes his depressive symptoms primarily in somatic terms, such as "paninikip
b. Providing tangible rewards (e.g., vouchers, prizes) for objective evidence of abstinence, such as a ng dibdib" (chest tightness) and "panghihina ng katawan" (bodily weakness), rather than expressing
negative urine test. feelings of sadness or guilt. A culturally competent clinician should:
c. Uncovering the unconscious motivations for substance use. a. Conclude that the client does not have depression because he is not reporting the typical affective
d. Teaching the client mindfulness and meditation skills. symptoms.
82. In evaluating the efficacy of different therapeutic approaches, a "randomized controlled trial" (RCT) b. Recognize that the somatic expression of distress is a common cultural idiom in the Philippines
is considered the gold standard. A key feature of an RCT is: and continue to assess for other depressive symptoms.
a. The therapist's ability to choose the treatment they think is best for each client. c. Immediately refer the client to a medical doctor to rule out a heart condition.
b. The reliance on client testimonials as the primary outcome measure. d. Insist that the client use Western psychological terms to describe his feelings.
c. The random assignment of participants to different treatment groups (including a control or 87. A psychometrician is asked to administer an intelligence test, developed and normed in the United
placebo group) to minimize bias. States, to a child from a remote indigenous community in the Philippines. The most significant
d. The long-term follow-up of a single client in a case study design. ethical concern is the:
83. Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA) is a widely used and evidence-based intervention for children with: a. Cost of the testing materials.
a. Depression b. Length of time it will take to administer the test.
b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder c. Potential for cultural bias in the test items and the inappropriateness of the norms, leading to an
c. Autism Spectrum Disorder invalid assessment.
d. A Specific Learning Disorder d. Child's willingness to participate in the testing session.
84. While pharmacological treatments (e.g., stimulants) are highly effective for the core symptoms of 88. According to the Code of Ethics for Philippine Psychologists, when a clinician determines that a
ADHD, research suggests that the most comprehensive treatment approach often involves client is at imminent risk of harming themselves or others, the principle of confidentiality:
combining medication with: a. Must be maintained without exception.
a. Psychoanalysis b. May be breached, as the duty to protect potential victims or the client themselves from harm
b. Play therapy overrides confidentiality.
c. Behavioral interventions, such as parent training and classroom management strategies. c. Is waived, but only with the client's explicit written permission.
d. Hypnotherapy d. Should be discussed with the client before any action is taken.
85. A therapist helps a depressed client identify their automatic negative thoughts, evaluate the 89. The concept of "pagtanong-tanong" (asking around) in Filipino psychology suggests that a more
evidence for and against these thoughts, and generate more balanced and realistic alternative culturally appropriate way to gather assessment information, compared to a formal, structured
thoughts. This process is central to: interview, might involve:
a. Beck's Cognitive Therapy a. Using only standardized psychological tests.

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b. An informal, participatory approach that relies on community members and trusted sources of 94. Evaluating the impact of the COVID-19 global health crisis on mental health reveals that, in addition
information. to the fear of the virus itself, major stressors included:
c. Conducting a direct and confrontational interview to get to the truth. a. Increased opportunities for international travel.
d. Relying solely on the client's self-report without seeking collateral information. b. Economic instability, job loss, and social isolation due to lockdowns.
90. An ethical practitioner diagnosing a child from a low-income family who is struggling in school must c. A decrease in the use of social media and online communication.
first consider sociocultural factors, such as potential malnutrition, lack of resources, or exposure to d. A strengthening of community social ties for all individuals.
community violence, before attributing the difficulties solely to: 95. The provision in RA 11036 that mandates the integration of mental health into the educational
a. An intrapsychic conflict. system is a strategic effort to:
b. A disorder like ADHD or a Specific Learning Disorder. a. Identify students who require psychiatric medication.
c. Poor parenting skills. b. Promote mental health literacy, combat stigma, and provide early support for students.
d. A lack of motivation on the part of the child. c. Train all teachers to become licensed counselors.
91. According to studies conducted during the COVID-19 pandemic (e.g., Tee et al., 2020), the initial d. Replace traditional academic subjects with mental health classes.
psychological impact on the general population was most characterized by an increase in: 96. A major challenge during the COVID-19 pandemic was the rapid shift to telepsychology services.
a. Psychotic and manic symptoms. Evaluating this shift, a key ethical and practical concern that emerged was:
b. Anxiety and depressive symptoms. a. The difficulty of building therapeutic rapport through a screen.
c. Personality disorder traits. b. Ensuring client privacy and data security on digital platforms.
d. Somatic symptom disorders. c. The "digital divide," where individuals in remote or low-income areas lack reliable internet access.
92. The Mental Health Act (RA 11036) emphasizes a rights-based approach to mental healthcare. A key d. All of the above.
provision of the law is the right of service users to: 97. Under RA 11036, a service user has the right to be protected from torture, cruel, inhuman, and
a. Refuse treatment, except in specific situations where there is a likelihood of serious harm to self degrading treatment. This explicitly includes the prohibition of:
or others. a. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy.
b. Be treated by a professional of the same gender and religion. b. Unwarranted or excessive solitary confinement or physical restraint.
c. Receive free medication for life, regardless of their condition. c. Group therapy sessions.
d. Have their mental health information made public to reduce stigma. d. Evidence-based psychopharmacology.
93. A significant challenge in the implementation of RA 11036 in the Philippines is the: 98. Studies on the psychological impact of the pandemic have identified certain populations as being
a. Lack of public interest in mental health. at higher risk, including healthcare frontliners. The primary challenge faced by this group was:
b. Overabundance of mental health professionals in rural areas. a. Financial insecurity.
c. Need for a significant increase in funding and the integration of mental health services into b. A combination of high work demands, risk of infection, burnout, and witnessing extensive
primary healthcare at the community level. suffering and death.
d. Resistance to the law from major medical organizations. c. A lack of public appreciation for their work.
d. An abundance of free time due to lockdowns.

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99. A key goal of RA 11036 is to "deinstitutionalize" mental healthcare. This means shifting the focus
from:
a. Building more large-scale, long-stay psychiatric hospitals.
b. Treating mental health conditions with medication.
c. Large, isolated psychiatric hospitals to community-based mental health services that are
integrated with general healthcare.
d. Providing services only to those with severe mental illness.
100. Evaluating the overall impact of the COVID-19 crisis, many experts suggest that one of the most
significant and lasting mental health challenges will be:
a. The grief and bereavement from the massive loss of life.
b. The long-term effects of economic disruption on families.
c. The impact of educational disruption on children and adolescents.
d. All of the above are considered major, long-term challenges.

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