BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

Marathon Edition (1000 Items) 8. A person with Schizophrenia who remains motionless for hours and 16. The implementation of RA 11036 faced challenges during the COVID-
exhibits waxy flexibility is displaying which type of symptom? 19 pandemic due to:
1. A 30-year-old woman experiences sudden, intense episodes of fear, A) Positive symptoms A) Lack of interest from the public.
accompanied by heart palpitations, sweating, and a feeling of B) Negative symptoms B) Increased stigma and limited access to care due to lockdowns.
impending doom. These attacks occur unexpectedly. According to the C) Cognitive symptoms C) The law being repealed by the government.
DSM-5-TR, which disorder is the most likely diagnosis? D) Catatonic behavior D) A sudden decrease in mental health issues.
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder 9. Which psychological intervention is most widely recognized for its efficacy 17. A client with Somatic Symptom Disorder is most likely to:
B) Social Anxiety Disorder in treating Specific Phobias? A) Intentionally fake an illness for external gain.
C) Panic Disorder A) Psychoanalysis B) Experience genuine physical symptoms with excessive, distressing
D) Agoraphobia B) Systematic Desensitization thoughts about them.
2. Which of the following is considered a "normal" reaction to a highly C) Humanistic Therapy C) Be preoccupied with having a serious illness despite no symptoms
stressful event, differentiating it from a true disorder? D) Pharmacotherapy being present.
A) Persistent flashbacks and avoidance behaviors lasting for over a 10. The Mental Health Act (RA 11036) in the Philippines primarily aims to: D) Suffer from a neurological symptom with no medical explanation.
year. A) Increase the number of psychiatric hospitals. 18. A psychologist evaluates the efficacy of a new therapy for anxiety. This
B) Temporary distress and sleep difficulties that subside within a few B) Integrate mental health services into the general healthcare system falls under which competency in the TOS?
days. and protect the rights of service users. A) Differentiating psychological disorders.
C) A complete inability to function in daily life for several months. C) Mandate psychological testing for all government employees. B) Applying ethical principles.
D) The development of delusions related to the stressful event. D) Restrict the practice of psychology to medical doctors. C) Evaluating the efficacy of psychological interventions.
3. The diathesis-stress model proposes that psychological disorders 11. A war veteran experiences vivid nightmares, avoids reminders of their D) Explaining the etiology of disorders.
develop from: combat experience, and is easily startled. These symptoms have 19. An older adult shows a gradual decline in memory and cognitive
A) A genetic predisposition alone. persisted for eight months. The most probable diagnosis is: function, severely impairing their ability to perform daily tasks like
B) The interaction between a pre-existing vulnerability and a stressful A) Acute Stress Disorder managing finances. This condition is characteristic of:
life event. B) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder A) Delirium
C) The social environment exclusively. C) Adjustment Disorder B) A major neurocognitive disorder, such as Alzheimer's disease.
D) Faulty cognitive patterns learned in childhood. D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder C) A dissociative disorder.
4. A client with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) reports having 12. A person shows a persistent pattern of disregard for and violation of the D) A depressive episode.
intrusive thoughts about contamination (obsessions) and feels rights of others, lacks remorse, and is often deceitful and manipulative. 20. A person with Anorexia Nervosa is differentiated from a person with
compelled to wash their hands hundreds of times a day (compulsions). Which personality disorder best fits this description? Bulimia Nervosa primarily by:
The primary purpose of the compulsion is to: A) Borderline Personality Disorder A) The presence of binge-eating.
A) Gain attention from others. B) Narcissistic Personality Disorder B) The presence of purging behaviors.
B) Fulfill a desire to be clean. C) Antisocial Personality Disorder C) A significantly low body weight.
C) Reduce the anxiety caused by the obsession. D) Schizoid Personality Disorder D) A distorted body image.
D) Establish a sense of order and control. 13. According to the biological approach, the development of schizophrenia 21. The principle of "nature and nurture" in development is best understood
5. According to the cognitive model, the etiology of depression is linked to: is often linked to an overactivity of which neurotransmitter? as:
A) A chemical imbalance in the brain involving serotonin. A) Serotonin A) A competition where one force ultimately wins.
B) Unresolved unconscious conflicts from early childhood. B) GABA B) A complex interaction where genes and environment mutually
C) A pattern of negative thinking about oneself, the world, and the C) Acetylcholine influence each other.
future. D) Dopamine C) Two independent pathways of development.
D) A learned pattern of helplessness from repeated failures. 14. A child is diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder. Which of the D) Nature being biological and nurture being purely social.
6. Which of the following is a key diagnostic criterion that differentiates following symptoms is central to this neurodevelopmental disorder? 22. A researcher studies a group of 20-year-olds, 40-year-olds, and 60-
Bipolar I Disorder from Bipolar II Disorder in the DSM-5-TR? A) Inattention and hyperactivity. year-olds to investigate age-related changes in memory. This is an
A) The presence of a major depressive episode. B) A persistent pattern of violating rules. example of a _____ study.
B) The presence of at least one full manic episode. C) Deficits in social communication and interaction, along with A) Longitudinal
C) The presence of hypomanic episodes. restricted, repetitive behaviors. B) Sequential
D) The total duration of the mood symptoms. D) The presence of multiple distinct personalities. C) Cross-sectional
7. A psychometrician administering a diagnostic tool in a rural community 15. An individual experiences significant memory loss, particularly for D) Case
notices that many behaviors considered symptomatic in Western personal information, following a traumatic event, with no underlying 23. According to Piaget, a child who can think logically about concrete
contexts are seen as normal spiritual experiences in the local culture. medical cause. This is characteristic of: events but struggles with abstract concepts is in which stage?
This highlights the importance of which ethical consideration? A) Somatic Symptom Disorder A) Sensorimotor
A) Competence B) Retrograde Amnesia B) Preoperational
B) Confidentiality C) Dissociative Amnesia C) Concrete Operational
C) Test Security D) Factitious Disorder D) Formal Operational
D) Cultural Sensitivity and avoiding diagnostic bias.
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24. An adolescent who adopts their parents' values without questioning or D) General to specific. B) Neo-Classical Organizational Theory
exploring other options is in which of Marcia's identity statuses? 33. A toddler's rapid vocabulary growth, often called the "naming explosion," C) Classical Organization Theory (e.g., Taylor, Weber)
A) Identity Achievement is a key milestone in which domain? D) Contingency Theory
B) Identity Moratorium A) Physical development 42. A company organizes its departments based on the products they sell
C) Identity Foreclosure B) Socio-emotional development (e.g., a software division, a hardware division). This is an example of
D) Identity Diffusion C) Cognitive development (specifically language) which type of organizational structure?
25. The "Strange Situation" experiment was designed to assess: D) Moral development A) Functional structure
A) Object permanence 34. A middle-aged adult who is dedicated to mentoring the next generation B) Multi-divisional structure
B) Moral development at work and raising a family is demonstrating what Erikson called: C) Flat structure
C) Attachment quality A) Intimacy D) Matrix structure
D) Egocentrism B) Identity 43. What is the key difference between Human Resource Development
26. Vygotsky's concept of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refers C) Generativity (HRD) and Human Resource Management (HRM)?
to: D) Integrity A) HRM is strategic, while HRD is purely administrative.
A) The skills a child has already mastered independently. 35. The period of development marked by the onset of puberty and the B) HRD focuses on long-term employee growth and learning, while
B) The range of tasks a child can perform with the guidance of a more development of secondary sexual characteristics is known as: HRM covers broader functions like staffing and compensation.
skilled person. A) Early Childhood C) HRD is only for large corporations, while HRM is for small
C) The innate cognitive abilities a child is born with. B) Middle Childhood businesses.
D) The final stage of cognitive development. C) Adolescence D) There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable.
27. According to Erikson's theory, the primary psychosocial task of a young D) Young Adulthood 44. A newly formed project team is experiencing conflict and disagreement
adult is to develop: 36. Which of the following represents a key developmental milestone of over roles and procedures. According to Tuckman's model, which stage
A) Trust infancy (0-2 years)? of team development are they in?
B) Identity A) Forming a stable life partnership. A) Forming
C) Intimacy B) Developing abstract thought. B) Storming
D) Integrity C) Forming a secure attachment and developing motor skills like C) Norming
28. The understanding that an object still exists even when it is out of sight walking. D) Performing
is a developmental milestone known as: D) Graduating from college. 45. The process by which an organization moves from its current state to a
A) Conservation 37. A researcher who is concerned that the participants in her longitudinal desired future state to increase its effectiveness is known as:
B) Egocentrism study may drop out over time is worried about: A) Organizational Culture
C) Animism A) Cohort effects B) Organizational Change
D) Object Permanence B) Participant attrition C) Team Dynamics
29. A person who reasons that an action is morally right because it upholds C) A lack of validity D) Job Analysis
the law and maintains social order is at which of Kohlberg's levels? D) Ethical violations 46. An organization's structure that has very few layers of management and
A) Pre-conventional 38. The development of "Theory of Mind" is a crucial socio-emotional a wide span of control is called a:
B) Conventional milestone where a child begins to understand that: A) Hierarchical structure
C) Post-conventional A) Objects continue to exist when hidden. B) Matrix structure
D) Sub-conventional B) Rules must be followed to avoid punishment. C) Flat structure
30. Bronfenbrenner's ecological model describes the influence of the C) Others have different beliefs, feelings, and perspectives. D) Network structure
broader culture, laws, and societal values as the: D) Their actions have consequences. 47. According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory of motivation, which of the
A) Microsystem 39. In late adulthood, a common developmental challenge involves: following is a "hygiene factor"?
B) Mesosystem A) Choosing a career. A) Recognition
C) Exosystem B) Learning to read. B) Responsibility
D) Macrosystem C) Adjusting to retirement and changing physical capabilities. C) Salary and working conditions
31. A key challenge of adolescence is navigating the conflict between the D) The onset of puberty. D) Achievement
need for independence and the: 40. Applying developmental principles, a psychologist understands that a 48. A company implements a new performance management system. This
A) Desire to master new skills. child's behavior is: is an activity primarily within the scope of:
B) Continued need for parental guidance and support. A) Determined solely by genetics. A) Human Resource Development (HRD)
C) Development of language. B) A result of the complex interplay of multiple factors over time. B) Organizational Development (OD)
D) Onset of physical aging. C) Unrelated to their early experiences. C) Human Resource Management (HRM)
32. The cephalocaudal principle of development states that development D) A direct copy of their parents' behavior. D) Team Dynamics
proceeds from: 41. Which organizational theory emphasizes a universal set of principles 49. An employee is assigned to a project team and reports to both a project
A) The center of the body outward. like hierarchy, division of labor, and a clear chain of command to manager and their regular department manager. This is characteristic
B) The head downwards. achieve efficiency? of which structure?
C) Simple to complex. A) Modern Organizational Theory A) Functional structure
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BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

B) Flat structure B) Payroll and benefits administration C) Provide the scores but ask the manager to keep them secret.
C) Matrix structure C) Employee training and career planning D) Ask the employee for permission to release the scores to the
D) Divisional structure D) Monitoring workplace safety manager.
50. The shared values, beliefs, and assumptions that guide the behavior of 59. An organization decides to completely overhaul its structure, culture, 67. The statistical procedure of factor analysis is most commonly used in
members in an organization are referred to as: and core processes to adapt to a major shift in the market. This is an test development to help establish:
A) Organizational structure example of: A) Test-retest reliability
B) Organizational strategy A) Incremental change B) Construct validity
C) Organizational culture B) Organizational development C) Alternate-forms reliability
D) Organizational chart C) Organizational transformation D) Predictive validity
51. "Groupthink" is a common problem in teams that can lead to: D) Team building 68. What is the primary limitation of using assessment tools developed in a
A) Increased creativity and innovation. 60. The primary advantage of a functional organizational structure is: Western country (e.g., the USA) on a Filipino population without proper
B) A cohesive and high-performing team. A) Fast decision-making. adaptation?
C) A lack of critical evaluation and poor decision-making. B) High levels of specialization and expertise within departments. A) The tests are too expensive.
D) Healthy conflict and debate. C) A strong focus on customer needs. B) The cultural and linguistic differences can make the test invalid and
52. The systematic process of gathering information about the duties, D) Ease of coordination between different departments. unreliable for the local context.
responsibilities, and requirements of a job is called: 61. If a test consistently produces the same results when administered to C) The printing quality is usually poor.
A) Job evaluation the same person under the same conditions, it is said to have high: D) The norms will be too high.
B) Job design A) Validity 69. In test administration, the standardized procedures must be followed
C) Job analysis B) Reliability precisely to ensure that:
D) Job specification C) Objectivity A) The client feels comfortable.
53. Kurt Lewin's model of organizational change consists of which three D) Standardization B) The test results are based on the individual's performance and not
stages? 62. The extent to which a test measures the theoretical construct it claims on procedural variations.
A) Forming, Storming, Performing to measure (e.g., intelligence, anxiety) is known as: C) The psychometrician can finish the test quickly.
B) Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing A) Content validity D) The client will get a high score.
C) Planning, Implementing, Evaluating B) Criterion-related validity 70. The practice of using multiple assessment methods (e.g., interview,
D) Diagnosis, Intervention, Feedback C) Construct validity observation, testing) to gather information about a client is known as:
54. The process of developing employees' skills and abilities to prepare D) Face validity A) Test-retest assessment
them for future job roles is known as: 63. According to the PAP Code of Ethics, a psychometrician must obtain B) Multi-method assessment
A) Employee training _____ before administering a psychological test. C) Factor analysis
B) Career development A) Payment D) Item response theory
C) Performance appraisal B) The client's full life history 71. A z-score of +1.0 indicates that a person's score is:
D) Manpower planning C) Informed consent A) Exactly at the mean.
55. Modern organizational theory views an organization as an "open D) Approval from a medical doctor B) One standard deviation below the mean.
system," which means it: 64. A psychologist wants to create a new test for anxiety. She administers C) One standard deviation above the mean.
A) Is completely independent of its environment. her test along with a well-established anxiety test to the same group of D) Invalid.
B) Interacts with and is influenced by its external environment. people to see if the scores are correlated. This is a method for 72. It is unethical for a psychometrician to interpret a psychological test for
C) Has a rigid and unchanging structure. establishing: which they have not received the proper training. This relates to the
D) Is only focused on internal efficiency. A) Test-retest reliability ethical principle of:
56. The number of subordinates a manager can effectively supervise is B) Content validity A) Confidentiality
known as their: C) Concurrent validity B) Test security
A) Chain of command D) Internal consistency C) Competence
B) Span of control 65. A test is considered to have a high degree of content validity when: D) Informed consent
C) Delegation authority A) It looks like it measures what it's supposed to measure. 73. A university uses an entrance exam to decide which students to admit.
D) Departmentation B) Its items are representative of the entire domain the test aims to A year later, they find that students with high scores on the exam also
57. An intervention designed to improve the effectiveness of a team by measure. have high GPAs. This provides evidence for the exam's:
helping members understand their working relationships is called: C) It predicts future performance on a related criterion. A) Predictive validity
A) Job redesign D) It correlates highly with other tests of the same construct. B) Face validity
B) Survey feedback 66. A psychometrician is asked by a manager to provide the raw IQ scores C) Internal consistency
C) Team building of an employee. According to the PAP Code of Ethics, what is the D) Content validity
D) Process consultation appropriate action? 74. When selecting an assessment tool for a child with a suspected learning
58. Which of the following is a primary activity of Human Resource A) Provide the scores immediately as requested by a superior. disability, a psychologist must choose a test that is:
Development (HRD)? B) Refuse to release the raw scores, explaining the principle of A) The shortest and easiest to administer.
A) Recruitment and selection confidentiality and proper use of test data.
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B) Appropriate for the child's age, language, and specific referral C) Equal to the final number of items. D) Test scores are often influenced by the administrator's attitude.
question. D) Borrowed from other existing tests. 91. A key limitation of self-report inventories is that:
C) The most popular test on the market. 83. A psychometrician is asked to conduct a child custody evaluation. Why A) They are difficult to score.
D) Developed by a well-known psychologist. might this be an ethical challenge? B) The results can be influenced by the respondent's willingness and
75. The principle of test security in the PAP Code of Ethics requires A) It is a specialized area that requires specific forensic training beyond ability to be truthful (e.g., social desirability bias).
psychometricians to: standard psychometric competence. C) They have poor reliability.
A) Share test materials openly to promote learning. B) Children are not reliable informants. D) They can only be used for children.
B) Protect the integrity of test materials by preventing their unauthorized C) The results are always biased. 92. A client from a collectivist culture may be hesitant to talk about personal
use or distribution. D) It is not covered by the PAP Code of Ethics. achievements in an interview. A culturally competent assessor should:
C) Destroy all test records after one year. 84. A percentile rank of 85 means that the individual's score is: A) Conclude that the client lacks ambition.
D) Allow clients to take test materials home for practice. A) 85% correct. B) Interpret this behavior within the client's cultural context.
76. A test item has an item difficulty index of 0.95. This means the item is: B) Higher than 85% of the people in the norm group. C) Force the client to talk about their achievements.
A) Very difficult C) In the 85th standard deviation. D) End the assessment immediately.
B) Moderately difficult D) 15% below the average. 93. A test question that is biased against a particular group of people (e.g.,
C) Very easy 85. Which of the following is a benefit of using standardized tests in culturally, economically) lacks:
D) Flawed and should be discarded assessment? A) Reliability
77. A psychometrician notices a scoring error after a report has been sent A) They are free from cultural bias. B) Standardization
to a client. What is the most appropriate ethical action? B) They provide objectivity and allow for comparison against a C) Fairness
A) Ignore the error to avoid confusion. normative group. D) Objectivity
B) Take steps to correct the error and communicate the correction to all C) They can provide a complete picture of a person's life. 94. The process of establishing that test scores can be used to predict a
relevant parties. D) They are quick and require no professional training to interpret. specific outcome (e.g., job success) falls under:
C) Blame the client for not catching the error. 86. An item discrimination index indicates: A) Content Validity
D) Wait for the client to report the error. A) How difficult an item is. B) Construct Validity
78. A projective test, like the Rorschach Inkblot Test, is an example of what B) How well an item differentiates between high scorers and low scorers C) Criterion-related Validity
type of assessment method? on the test. D) Face Validity
A) Structured test C) How reliable an item is. 95. In test development, a "pilot test" refers to:
B) Unstructured test D) How culturally biased an item is. A) The final version of the test.
C) Aptitude test 87. Which of the following would be an inappropriate use of a psychological B) A trial run of the test on a small sample to identify problems.
D) Intelligence test test? C) The process of scoring the test.
79. The standard error of measurement (SEM) is most directly related to A) Using an IQ test as part of a comprehensive assessment for D) The marketing plan for the test.
which psychometric property? intellectual disability. 96. A client reveals during an assessment that they have a plan to seriously
A) Validity B) Using a vocational interest inventory to help a client explore career harm another person. The principle of confidentiality is now limited by
B) Reliability options. the:
C) Norms C) Using a single test score to make a major life decision about an A) Duty to Warn.
D) Objectivity individual, like employment or custody. B) Principle of beneficence.
80. A client asks for a copy of their psychological report. According to the D) Using a personality test to facilitate discussion in therapy. C) Right to privacy.
PAP Code of Ethics, the psychologist should: 88. A psychologist evaluates the usefulness of a test under different D) Need for test security.
A) Refuse, as reports are confidential. conditions of administration (e.g., timed vs. untimed). This relates to 97. Split-half reliability is a measure of a test's:
B) Provide the report, ensuring it is understandable and not misleading, which competency? A) Stability over time.
and offer to discuss the contents. A) Appraising the usefulness of tests under varying conditions. B) Equivalence between different forms.
C) Provide only the raw scores. B) Detecting errors in test selection. C) Internal consistency.
D) Tell the client to get a court order. C) Exploring anomaly in test interpretation. D) Validity.
81. Which of the following is an example of an aptitude test? D) Identifying ethical principles. 98. A psychometrician should choose assessment tools based on evidence
A) A test measuring knowledge of history. 89. "Norms" in psychological testing refer to: of their:
B) A test measuring proficiency in typing. A) The rules of test administration. A) Popularity and brand name.
C) A test predicting a person's potential to succeed in a mechanical B) The ethical standards for test use. B) Low cost and ease of use.
engineering program. C) A set of scores from a representative group used to provide a frame C) Strong psychometric properties (reliability and validity) for the
D) A test assessing symptoms of depression. of reference for interpreting individual scores. intended population and purpose.
82. In the process of test construction, the initial pool of items should ideally D) The theoretical basis of the test. D) Endorsement by celebrities.
be: 90. The Flynn effect refers to the observation that: 99. When a psychologist explains the nature of the assessment, its purpose,
A) Smaller than the final number of items. A) IQ scores have been gradually decreasing over time. and any potential risks to the client, they are fulfilling the principle of:
B) Much larger than the final number of items to allow for item analysis B) IQ scores have been gradually increasing over time across the globe. A) Competence
and selection. C) Reliability is more important than validity. B) Test security
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C) Confidentiality D) The type of mood experienced (e.g., elevated vs. irritable). D) Dependent Personality Disorder
D) Informed Consent 108. The developmental principle that growth occurs from the center of the 116. A company's "grapevine" or informal communication network is a key
100. A major benefit of using computer-adaptive testing is that it can: body outwards is known as: element studied in which organizational theory?
A) Be administered by anyone without training. A) Cephalocaudal principle A) Classical Theory
B) Often reduce testing time by tailoring item difficulty to the test-taker's B) Proximodistal principle B) Neo-Classical Theory (Human Relations)
ability level. C) Orthogenetic principle C) Contingency Theory
C) Eliminate all forms of test anxiety. D) Multidirectional principle D) Systems Theory
D) Guarantee a high score for everyone. 109. A psychologist wants to determine if their new assessment tool is 117. Erikson's psychosocial stage of "Industry vs. Inferiority" corresponds
101. A test developer finds that items on their new depression scale are appropriate for use with a specific ethnic minority group in the with which of Freud's psychosexual stages?
highly correlated with each other. This provides evidence for the test's: Philippines. The most crucial first step is to: A) Oral Stage
A) Internal consistency reliability A) Translate the test into the local dialect. B) Anal Stage
B) Test-retest reliability B) Conduct a local validation and norming study. C) Phallic Stage
C) Content validity C) Assume the original norms are applicable. D) Latency Stage
D) Predictive validity D) Modify only the items that seem culturally inappropriate. 118. When interpreting test results, a psychometrician must consider the
102. A 25-year-old individual experiences at least six months of persistent, 110. A person with a specific phobia of spiders (arachnophobia) is most test's Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) because it:
excessive worry about multiple aspects of life, such as work, health, and likely to have acquired it through: A) Indicates the test's validity.
finances, leading to restlessness and fatigue. This is characteristic of: A) A chemical imbalance in the brain. B) Provides a measure of the test's cultural fairness.
A) Panic Disorder B) Classical conditioning, such as a frightening experience with a C) Represents the band of error around a client's true score.
B) Social Anxiety Disorder spider. D) Determines the percentile rank.
C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder C) Unresolved unconscious conflicts. 119. A defining characteristic of Autism Spectrum Disorder is:
D) Agoraphobia D) Genetic inheritance alone. A) A persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity.
103. An organization that centralizes decision-making at the highest levels 111. Which of the following best describes the main focus of Human B) Deficits in social communication and interaction across multiple
and has a tall structure with many layers of management is best Resource Development (HRD)? contexts.
described by which theory? A) Administering payroll and employee benefits. C) A history of unstable interpersonal relationships, self-image, and
A) Open Systems Theory B) Enhancing employee competencies and organizational capabilities affects.
B) Contingency Theory through learning. D) Recurrent episodes of binge eating with compensatory behaviors.
C) Classical Organization Theory C) Recruiting and hiring new employees. 120. Which of the following is a primary goal of an organizational
D) Modern Organizational Theory D) Monitoring compliance with labor laws. development (OD) intervention?
104. A child who shares a toy with a friend to get a toy in return is operating 112. When a test score is used to forecast performance on a future task, A) To increase short-term sales figures.
at which of Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning? such as using college entrance exam scores to predict GPA, the primary B) To improve long-term organizational effectiveness and employee
A) Punishment and Obedience Orientation type of validity being assessed is: well-being.
B) Instrumental Purpose Orientation A) Content Validity C) To handle administrative tasks like payroll.
C) Good Boy/Good Girl Orientation B) Concurrent Validity D) To discipline employees who violate company policy.
D) Social Contract Orientation C) Predictive Validity 121. To assess a test's reliability over time, a researcher would most likely
105. A client's score on a test is reported as being at the 75th percentile. D) Construct Validity use which method?
This means the client: 113. An infant who becomes distressed when a familiar caregiver leaves is A) Split-half reliability
A) Answered 75% of the items correctly. demonstrating a key developmental milestone related to: B) Cronbach's alpha
B) Scored higher than approximately 75% of the individuals in the A) Object permanence C) Test-retest reliability
normative sample. B) Attachment D) Inter-rater reliability
C) Is in the top 25% of the population. C) Egocentrism 122. According to Piaget, the ability to engage in symbolic thought, such as
D) Has a standard score of 75. D) Conservation pretend play, first emerges during which stage?
106. The process of making a job more interesting and motivating by 114. A psychometrician must protect test materials from being copied and A) Sensorimotor Stage
increasing responsibility, autonomy, and control is known as: distributed online. This adheres to which ethical principle? B) Preoperational Stage
A) Job rotation A) Informed Consent C) Concrete Operational Stage
B) Job enlargement B) Competence D) Formal Operational Stage
C) Job enrichment C) Test Security 123. A psychologist is asked to select an assessment tool for a client with a
D) Job specification D) Confidentiality visual impairment. Which ethical principle is most critical in this
107. According to the DSM-5-TR, a key feature that distinguishes a manic 115. A pattern of behavior in which an individual persistently seeks attention situation?
episode from a hypomanic episode is: through dramatic emotional displays and an exaggerated style of A) Ensuring the chosen tool is appropriate and fair for the individual's
A) The duration of the mood disturbance. speech is characteristic of which personality disorder? specific condition.
B) The specific number of symptoms present. A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder B) Maintaining test security at all costs.
C) The presence of marked impairment in functioning or the need for B) Borderline Personality Disorder C) Charging a lower fee for the assessment.
hospitalization. C) Histrionic Personality Disorder D) Obtaining consent from the client's family.
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124. The difference between Organizational Change and Organizational 132. The primary purpose of providing a client with a clear explanation of C) A test must be available online.
Development (OD) is that OD: the nature of the assessment, who will receive the results, and any D) A test must be inexpensive.
A) Is always a top-down process. potential consequences is to: 141. The gradual decline in the speed of cognitive processing that is a
B) Tends to be a more systematic, long-term, and collaborative A) Fulfill the requirements of informed consent. normal part of aging is a developmental issue of which domain?
approach to change. B) Ensure the client gets a high score. A) Socio-emotional
C) Focuses only on changing the organizational structure. C) Maintain the security of the test. B) Physical
D) Is typically a rapid, reactive response to a crisis. D) Comply with billing requirements. C) Cognitive
125. An individual who experiences a significant, unexplained neurological 133. A person with an intense, irrational fear of being in public places or D) Moral
symptom, such as paralysis or blindness, following a major stressor situations from which escape might be difficult (e.g., crowds, bridges, 142. A person who is preoccupied with having or acquiring a serious illness,
may be diagnosed with: buses) would most likely be diagnosed with: despite having mild or no somatic symptoms, is likely to be diagnosed
A) Illness Anxiety Disorder A) Social Anxiety Disorder with:
B) Somatic Symptom Disorder B) Specific Phobia A) Conversion Disorder
C) Conversion Disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder) C) Agoraphobia B) Somatic Symptom Disorder
D) Factitious Disorder D) Claustrophobia C) Illness Anxiety Disorder
126. An adolescent's belief that they are unique, special, and that no one 134. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a team in the D) Factitious Disorder
can understand their experiences is an example of what Elkind called: "Performing" stage of development? 143. If a test item is answered correctly by 15% of the test-takers, its item
A) The imaginary audience A) High levels of conflict and disagreement. difficulty index (p) would be:
B) The personal fable B) Uncertainty about roles and goals. A) 0.85
C) Hypothetical reasoning C) A focus on relationship building and establishing norms. B) 0.50
D) Identity crisis D) Interdependence, flexibility, and a shared focus on achieving goals. C) 0.15
127. If a test is administered to two different groups, and one group 135. A "norm group" in psychological testing should be: D) 1.15
consistently scores lower due to culturally specific phrasing in the items, A) As small as possible to save costs. 144. The process of comparing a candidate's qualifications to the
the test has: B) Composed only of high-achieving individuals. requirements outlined in a job specification is part of which HR function?
A) Low reliability C) Representative of the population for whom the test is intended. A) Training and Development
B) Item bias D) Composed of individuals who have never taken a test before. B) Performance Appraisal
C) A high standard error 136. Mary Ainsworth's "Strange Situation" procedure revealed that the C) Compensation and Benefits
D) Good content validity majority of infants display which type of attachment? D) Selection and Placement
128. An employee feels that they are being paid less than another employee A) Secure attachment 145. When is it permissible for a psychometrician to break confidentiality
who does similar work. According to Equity Theory, this employee might B) Avoidant attachment without the client's consent?
be motivated to: C) Ambivalent/Resistant attachment A) When a family member requests the information.
A) Work harder to impress their boss. D) Disorganized attachment B) When the client poses a clear and imminent danger to themselves or
B) Reduce their effort or ask for a raise. 137. Which of the following is an example of an unstructured assessment others.
C) Ignore the situation completely. method? C) When a news reporter is doing a story on mental health.
D) Feel a greater sense of job satisfaction. A) A multiple-choice intelligence test. D) It is never permissible.
129. A therapist helps a client with depression identify and challenge their B) A Likert-scale personality inventory. 146. A child believes that a tall, thin glass holds more water than a short,
automatic negative thoughts, such as "I'm a complete failure." This C) A clinical interview with open-ended questions. wide glass, even after seeing the water poured from one to the other.
technique is central to which therapeutic approach? D) A true/false aptitude test. This child has not yet mastered the Piagetian concept of:
A) Psychoanalytic Therapy 138. The experience of "flashbacks," where an individual feels as if a A) Object Permanence
B) Humanistic Therapy traumatic event is happening again, is a hallmark symptom of: B) Egocentrism
C) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder C) Conservation
D) Gestalt Therapy B) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder D) Symbolic Thought
130. The process of using two different forms of the same test to assess its C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder 147. A core assumption of the contingency theory of leadership is that:
consistency is known as measuring: D) Somatic Symptom Disorder A) There is one single best way to lead.
A) Test-retest reliability 139. In a matrix organizational structure, a primary challenge for employees B) The effectiveness of a leadership style depends on the situation.
B) Split-half reliability is: C) Leaders are born, not made.
C) Parallel-forms or alternate-forms reliability A) A lack of specialization. D) Democratic leadership is always superior to autocratic leadership.
D) Inter-rater reliability B) Slow decision-making. 148. The primary purpose of using statistics in test development is to:
131. A key developmental task of middle adulthood is: C) Potential role conflict from having two bosses. A) Make the test more complicated.
A) Forming an identity. D) A rigid and inflexible work environment. B) Evaluate the quality of the test and its items.
B) Establishing intimate relationships. 140. Which psychometric property is most essential for a test to be C) Guarantee that all test-takers will pass.
C) Adjusting to aging parents and launching children. considered a good measurement tool? D) Fulfill a government requirement.
D) Learning to walk and talk. A) A test must be valid for its intended purpose. 149. The negative symptoms of schizophrenia include:
B) A test must be short and easy to administer. A) Hallucinations and delusions.
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B) Disorganized speech and behavior. D) A key milestone in late adulthood. 167. Which of the following is an example of an "organizational intervention"
C) Flat affect, avolition, and alogia. 159. A psychometrician uses an intelligence test developed for adults on a used in Organizational Development?
D) Catatonia and waxy flexibility. 6-year-old child. This action violates the principle of: A) Firing an underperforming employee.
150. According to the PAP Code of Ethics, psychological assessment A) Appropriate test selection. B) Implementing a new company-wide communication system.
results should be explained to the client in a way that is: B) Confidentiality. C) Conducting a team-building workshop.
A) Vague and technical. C) Test security. D) Issuing a new dress code policy.
B) Understandable and usable. D) Informed consent. 168. A person experiences recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and is
C) Focused only on the client's weaknesses. 160. Which disorder involves a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, persistently worried about having more attacks. This is the core feature
D) Withheld from the client to avoid anxiety. feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation? of:
151. A teenager trying out different hairstyles, friend groups, and hobbies is A) Schizoid Personality Disorder A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
engaging in a process central to which of Erikson's stages? B) Avoidant Personality Disorder B) Specific Phobia
A) Intimacy vs. Isolation C) Agoraphobia C) Panic Disorder
B) Identity vs. Role Confusion D) Social Anxiety Disorder D) PTSD
C) Initiative vs. Guilt 161. A researcher gives one group a new memory-enhancing drug and 169. What is the primary purpose of a "pilot test" in the test development
D) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt another group a placebo. The group that receives the placebo is known process?
152. In an organization, the Human Resources department is primarily as the: A) To finalize the norms for the test.
considered a: A) Experimental group B) To market the test to potential users.
A) Line function B) Control group C) To try out items, check instructions, and identify potential problems
B) Staff function C) Normative group before the final version.
C) Production function D) Dependent group D) To calculate the final reliability and validity coefficients.
D) Finance function 162. Item Response Theory (IRT) is a modern framework in psychometrics 170. The "empty nest" syndrome is a challenge that typically occurs during
153. A test that accurately predicts which applicants will succeed on the job used for: which developmental stage?
is said to have high: A) Developing interview questions. A) Adolescence
A) Test-retest reliability B) Selecting, analyzing, and scoring test items based on their B) Young Adulthood
B) Criterion-related validity characteristics and the test-taker's ability level. C) Middle Adulthood
C) Internal consistency C) Ensuring all tests are culturally fair. D) Late Adulthood
D) Content validity D) Calculating test-retest reliability. 171. A test item states: "True or False: I do not never feel sad." This item is
154. A delusion of grandeur is a belief in which an individual: 163. The process by which an organization's mission and goals are flawed because it is:
A) Is convinced that others are plotting against them. translated into a formal blueprint for structure and authority is called: A) Culturally biased
B) Believes they have exceptional abilities, wealth, or fame. A) Organizational culture B) Too difficult
C) Thinks that neutral events have a special, personal meaning. B) Organizational design C) A double negative and confusing
D) Believes their body is diseased or malfunctioning. C) Organizational development D) Too long
155. Which of the following is a key limitation of a case study research D) Performance management 172. A person with an inflated sense of self-importance, a deep need for
method in developmental psychology? 164. A child who has learned to fear all furry animals after being frightened excessive admiration, and a lack of empathy for others is characteristic
A) It is not useful for studying rare phenomena. by a dog is demonstrating the learning principle of: of which disorder?
B) The findings may not be generalizable to a larger population. A) Discrimination A) Histrionic Personality Disorder
C) It is the most expensive type of research. B) Extinction B) Antisocial Personality Disorder
D) It does not provide in-depth information. C) Spontaneous recovery C) Borderline Personality Disorder
156. The use of outdated test norms can lead to: D) Generalization D) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
A) More accurate test results. 165. A client scores 115 on an IQ test with a mean of 100 and a standard 173. The Hawthrone Studies were pivotal in I/O Psychology because they
B) Inaccurate and misleading interpretations of an individual's score. deviation of 15. This score is: highlighted the importance of:
C) A higher level of test security. A) Exactly at the mean. A) Financial incentives as the only motivator.
D) A decrease in the standard error of measurement. B) One standard deviation above the mean. B) Social factors and human relations in the workplace.
157. An employee's overall satisfaction with their job is most directly related C) One standard deviation below the mean. C) The physical work environment.
to which area of I/O Psychology? D) Two standard deviations above the mean. D) Efficient assembly line processes.
A) Organizational theory 166. A 50-year-old manager is laid off and replaced by a younger employee. 174. Which of the following is an example of a "projective" assessment
B) Personnel psychology The manager struggles with feelings of being useless and unproductive. technique?
C) Human factors This reflects a crisis in which of Erikson's stages? A) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)
D) Organizational behavior A) Trust vs. Mistrust B) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2)
158. The concept of "ageism" refers to: B) Intimacy vs. Isolation C) The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
A) The scientific study of aging. C) Generativity vs. Stagnation D) The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
B) A period of rapid growth in adolescence. D) Ego Integrity vs. Despair 175. Which theorist proposed that cognitive development is driven by a
C) Prejudice or discrimination on the grounds of a person's age. child's active exploration of their environment?
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A) Lev Vygotsky A) Sensorimotor A) To determine employee salaries.

B) B.F. Skinner B) Preoperational B) To provide a foundation for many HR activities, like recruitment,
C) Jean Piaget C) Concrete Operational training, and performance appraisal.
D) Erik Erikson D) Formal Operational C) To create more layers of management.
176. A manager delegates a task to an employee but does not give them 185. A company wants to assess its employees' attitudes towards a new D) To reduce the number of employees.
the authority to acquire the necessary resources. This violates the policy. The most appropriate tool would be: 194. A key difference between Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and
principle of: A) An intelligence test Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD) is that:
A) Unity of command B) A projective test A) Individuals with OCPD experience true obsessions and compulsions.
B) Span of control C) A survey or questionnaire B) Individuals with OCD are generally content with their traits, while
C) Parity of authority and responsibility D) A performance appraisal those with OCPD find their symptoms distressing.
D) Division of labor 186. The concept of "face validity" refers to whether a test: C) Individuals with OCPD have a pervasive preoccupation with
177. When test scores are positively skewed, it means that: A) Is truly valid for its intended purpose. orderliness and control, but without the specific obsessions and
A) Most scores are clustered at the high end, with a few low scores. B) Appears to measure what it is supposed to measure. compulsions of OCD.
B) Most scores are clustered at the low end, with a few high scores. C) Correlates with other tests of the same construct. D) OCPD is an anxiety disorder, while OCD is a personality disorder.
C) The scores are evenly distributed. D) Predicts future performance. 195. Which of the following is a major limitation of using projective tests?
D) The test was too easy. 187. A person who compulsively pulls out their hair, resulting in hair loss, A) They are too structured.
178. To diagnose an intellectual disability, the DSM-5-TR requires deficits may be diagnosed with: B) They have very high reliability.
in both intellectual functioning and: A) Hoarding Disorder C) The scoring and interpretation can be highly subjective and lack
A) Motor skills B) Excoriation (Skin-Picking) Disorder strong evidence of validity.
B) Social skills C) Trichotillomania (Hair-Pulling Disorder) D) They are not sensitive to unconscious processes.
C) Adaptive functioning D) Body Dysmorphic Disorder 196. A child's temperament is generally considered to be:
D) Emotional regulation 188. An 80-year-old man looks back on his life with a sense of regret and A) Entirely learned from the environment.
179. A client has a right to know about the nature of the testing, the purpose, bitterness. According to Erikson, he has not successfully resolved the B) An early-appearing, biologically based tendency to behave in a
and who will see the results. This is a core component of: crisis of: particular way.
A) Competence A) Generativity vs. Stagnation C) A direct result of parenting style.
B) Test Security B) Intimacy vs. Isolation D) Unimportant for later development.
C) Informed Consent C) Ego Integrity vs. Despair 197. The process of change management often fails because of:
D) Objectivity D) Trust vs. Mistrust A) Too much communication from leadership.
180. A child learns to be polite because their parents praise them for saying 189. A "situational interview" is one where candidates are asked: B) Employee resistance and a lack of clear vision.
"please" and "thank you." This is an example of: A) About their past experiences. C) Over-investing in training.
A) Classical Conditioning B) How they would behave in a hypothetical work-related scenario. D) The change being too small.
B) Operant Conditioning C) A series of random, unrelated questions. 198. A test item has a discrimination index of -0.25. This indicates that:
C) Observational Learning D) To take a written test. A) The item discriminates well between high and low scorers.
D) Latent Learning 190. A test that yields a normal distribution of scores will have a bell-shaped B) More low-scorers than high-scorers got the item correct, suggesting
181. A student is preparing for an important exam and feels stressed. After curve where the mean, median, and mode are: it is a flawed item.
the exam is over, the stress subsides. This is an example of: A) All at different points. C) The item is moderately difficult.
A) A psychological disorder B) Approximately the same. D) The item is very easy.
B) A normal reaction to a stressor C) Not relevant to the shape of the curve. 199. A person who has experienced a traumatic event and now feels
C) A phobia D) Skewed to the left. detached from their own mind and body, as if they are an outside
D) A compulsion 191. A psychometrician explains a client's assessment results to their observer, is experiencing:
182. A flat organizational structure is characterized by: therapist. This falls under the competency of: A) Derealization
A) Many layers of management. A) Test development B) Depersonalization
B) A wide span of control and decentralized decision-making. B) Communication of test results C) A delusion
C) A rigid hierarchy. C) Research and statistics D) An illusion
D) High levels of departmentalization. D) Test administration 200. The primary ethical responsibility of a psychometrician is to:
183. If a psychometrician is not competent to use a specific psychological 192. A toddler sees a zebra for the first time and calls it a "horse." According A) The company that hired them.
test, the most ethical course of action is to: to Piaget, this is an example of: B) The science of psychology.
A) Use the test anyway and hope for the best. A) Accommodation C) The well-being and rights of the person being assessed.
B) Decline to use the test and seek supervision or refer the client. B) Assimilation D) The publisher of the psychological test.
C) Modify the test to make it easier to use. C) Equilibration 201. Which of the following represents a primary ethical violation according
D) Inform the client that the test is flawed. D) Conservation to the PAP Code of Ethics?
184. The ability to think about abstract possibilities and hypothetical 193. Which of these is a primary reason for conducting a job analysis in an A) Using a recently published and well-validated assessment tool.
situations is the hallmark of which of Piaget's stages? organization?
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B) Engaging in a dual relationship with a client that impairs professional 209. An item discrimination index (D) is calculated to be +0.45. This value B) The accumulated knowledge and verbal skills that tend to increase
judgment. indicates that the test item: with age.
C) Referring a client to another professional who has more expertise. A) Is too easy. C) The speed of information processing.
D) Attending a professional development workshop to enhance skills. B) Is too difficult. D) The ability to solve novel problems.
202. A 10-year-old child demonstrates a persistent pattern of angry/irritable C) Effectively differentiates between high-scoring and low-scoring 218. When a test's scores are correlated with scores on a different test that
mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness towards individuals. measures the same construct, it provides evidence for:
others. This is characteristic of: D) Is likely flawed and should be removed. A) Discriminant validity
A) Conduct Disorder 210. The phenomenon of "group polarization" suggests that after a group B) Convergent validity
B) Oppositional Defiant Disorder discussion, the members' initial attitudes tend to become: C) Face validity
C) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder A) More moderate D) Content validity
D) Bipolar Disorder B) More extreme 219. A major challenge in implementing organizational change is
203. A manager who believes that employees are inherently lazy and C) Completely reversed overcoming employee resistance. A good strategy to manage this is to:
require constant supervision and control is operating under the D) Less clear A) Ignore the resistance and push the change through.
assumptions of: 211. When a psychometrician reports test results, they should avoid using B) Involve employees in the change process and communicate openly.
A) Theory Y technical jargon and instead use clear, understandable language. This C) Threaten employees who resist the change.
B) Theory X aligns with the competency of: D) Implement the change secretly.
C) Two-Factor Theory A) Test development 220. The experience of physical symptoms that suggest a neurological
D) Equity Theory B) Effective communication disease (e.g., blindness, paralysis) but have no medical explanation and
204. The process by which a toddler learns the social rules and norms of C) Test security are not intentionally produced is the core feature of:
their culture is called: D) Statistical analysis A) Somatic Symptom Disorder
A) Maturation 212. A person with a cyclical pattern of mood episodes, including at least B) Illness Anxiety Disorder
B) Socialization one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode, C) Factitious Disorder
C) Accommodation would be diagnosed with: D) Conversion Disorder
D) Assimilation A) Bipolar I Disorder 221. A "stanine" is a type of standard score that has a mean of _____ and
205. The normal distribution, or "bell curve," is a fundamental concept in B) Bipolar II Disorder a standard deviation of _____.
psychometrics because: C) Cyclothymic Disorder A) 10; 3
A) It proves that all human traits are normally distributed. D) Major Depressive Disorder B) 50; 10
B) Many statistical tests and interpretations of standardized scores 213. A child's ability to recognize that they are a distinct individual with their C) 5; 2
assume it. own thoughts and feelings is known as: D) 100; 15
C) It eliminates all sources of test bias. A) Self-concept 222. The parenting style characterized by high demands but low
D) It guarantees high test reliability. B) Self-esteem responsiveness is known as:
206. A key difference between training and development in an organization C) Self-awareness A) Authoritative
is that training focuses on _____, while development focuses on _____. D) Self-efficacy B) Authoritarian
A) current job skills; future roles and responsibilities 214. The practice of "360-degree feedback" in organizations involves C) Permissive
B) managers; non-managerial employees collecting performance data from: D) Uninvolved
C) technical skills; soft skills A) Only the employee's direct supervisor. 223. What is the primary purpose of a "job specification" document?
D) long-term goals; short-term tasks B) The employee, their supervisor, peers, and subordinates. A) To describe the tasks and duties of a job.
207. A person who consumes an unusually large amount of food in a C) An external consultant. B) To outline the knowledge, skills, and abilities an individual needs to
discrete period and feels a lack of control, followed by inappropriate D) The human resources department. perform the job.
compensatory behaviors like self-induced vomiting, fits the diagnosis 215. A test is found to be highly reliable but does not actually measure the C) To determine the salary for a job.
for: construct it was designed to measure. This test is: D) To design the organizational structure.
A) Anorexia Nervosa A) Reliable but not valid. 224. A psychologist who uses an assessment tool on a Filipino population
B) Binge-Eating Disorder B) Valid but not reliable. without considering local norms or cultural appropriateness is violating
C) Bulimia Nervosa C) Both reliable and valid. the principle of:
D) Pica D) Neither reliable nor valid. A) Test security
208. According to Vygotsky, the role of a "More Knowledgeable Other" 216. A client reports feeling detached from reality, as if the world around B) Confidentiality
(MKO) is to: them is unreal or dreamlike. This symptom is known as: C) Competence and responsible use
A) Provide direct instruction and rote memorization drills. A) Depersonalization D) Objectivity
B) Allow the child to discover everything on their own. B) Derealization 225. A person with a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration,
C) Provide guidance and support for tasks within the child's Zone of C) Delusion and a lack of empathy most likely has which personality disorder?
Proximal Development. D) Hallucination A) Borderline Personality Disorder
D) Set firm rules and enforce punishment. 217. In the context of aging, "crystallized intelligence" refers to: B) Avoidant Personality Disorder
A) The ability to reason quickly and think abstractly. C) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
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D) Antisocial Personality Disorder 234. If a psychologist uses the results of a personality test to make a hiring 242. A company that values innovation, risk-taking, and flexibility is said to
226. The ability for a child to mentally reverse an action, such as decision, and the test is not validated for that purpose, it is an example have what type of organizational culture?
understanding that 2+3=5 is the same as 5-3=2, is a hallmark of which of: A) A clan culture
of Piaget's stages? A) Proper test use B) An adhocracy culture
A) Sensorimotor B) Unethical and inappropriate test use C) A market culture
B) Preoperational C) A reliable assessment strategy D) A hierarchy culture
C) Concrete Operational D) An objective measurement 243. When a test's scores are correlated with an outcome that is measured
D) Formal Operational 235. The developmental stage where individuals are most focused on at the same time, this provides evidence of:
227. An organizational structure that combines elements of both functional establishing a career and starting a family is typically: A) Predictive validity
and divisional structures, often for project-based work, is known as a: A) Adolescence B) Concurrent validity
A) Flat structure B) Young Adulthood C) Content validity
B) Tall structure C) Middle Adulthood D) Face validity
C) Matrix structure D) Late Adulthood 244. A toddler who explores a room freely when their caregiver is present,
D) Hierarchical structure 236. A test-taker's score is influenced by their mood on the day of the test. becomes upset when the caregiver leaves, and is easily soothed upon
228. Which of the following is a fundamental right of a test-taker? This introduces what type of error into the score? their return is demonstrating:
A) The right to know the correct answers after the test. A) Systematic error A) Secure attachment
B) The right to be treated with courtesy, respect, and impartiality. B) Random error B) Insecure-avoidant attachment
C) The right to a copy of the test booklet. C) Standard error C) Insecure-resistant attachment
D) The right to a guaranteed high score. D) Administrative error D) Disorganized attachment
229. A soldier who witnessed a traumatic event has no memory of the event 237. The leadership theory that suggests leaders can motivate subordinates 245. An individual with a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others,
itself but retains all other memories. This specific type of memory loss by clarifying goals and showing them a path to achieve those goals is interpreting their motives as malevolent, is likely to have which
is known as: called: personality disorder?
A) Anterograde amnesia A) Trait Theory A) Schizoid Personality Disorder
B) Retrograde amnesia B) Path-Goal Theory B) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C) Localized amnesia C) Fiedler's Contingency Theory C) Paranoid Personality Disorder
D) Generalized amnesia D) Transformational Leadership D) Avoidant Personality Disorder
230. A test item asks, "Do you agree that the current company policy is not 238. An individual experiences at least one manic episode, which may or 246. When a psychologist provides feedback on assessment results, they
ineffective?" This is a poor item because it is: may not be followed by a hypomanic or major depressive episode. This should focus on:
A) Too personal is the primary criterion for: A) Only the numerical scores.
B) Ambiguous and contains a double negative A) Bipolar I Disorder B) Describing the client's performance in a clear, constructive, and
C) Too short B) Bipolar II Disorder understandable way.
D) Biased towards a specific gender C) Cyclothymic Disorder C) Comparing the client to their family members.
231. The "Big Five" model of personality, often used in organizational D) Schizoaffective Disorder D) Providing a definitive life plan for the client.
settings, includes which of the following traits? 239. The most significant limitation of a cross-sectional research design is 247. The concept of "job satisfaction" is best described as:
A) Honesty, Humility, and Helpfulness that it: A) An employee's performance level.
B) Intelligence, Creativity, and Ambition A) Is too time-consuming and expensive. B) An employee's emotional attitude towards their job.
C) Openness, Conscientiousness, and Agreeableness B) Is susceptible to participant attrition. C) An employee's length of service in the company.
D) Power, Affiliation, and Achievement C) Cannot distinguish age effects from cohort effects. D) An employee's salary and benefits package.
232. In research, "informed consent" means that participants: D) Does not provide a snapshot of different age groups. 248. The cognitive error of focusing on only one aspect of a situation while
A) Have agreed to participate without knowing the true purpose of the 240. The process of making sure that test administration, scoring, and ignoring other relevant aspects is known as:
study. interpretation are conducted in the same way for all test-takers is called: A) Egocentrism
B) Are aware of the potential risks and benefits before agreeing to A) Validation B) Conservation
participate. B) Item analysis C) Centration
C) Can be deceived as long as they are debriefed afterward. C) Standardization D) Animism
D) Must be paid for their participation. D) Factor analysis 249. Which of the following is an example of an "aptitude" test?
233. The practice of classifying psychological disorders using a manual like 241. A person who intentionally produces or fakes physical or psychological A) A final exam in a history class.
the DSM-5-TR is beneficial because it: symptoms in order to assume the "sick role," with no obvious external B) A test measuring a person's current typing speed.
A) Eliminates the stigma associated with mental illness. incentives, may be diagnosed with: C) A test designed to predict a person's potential to learn a new
B) Provides a standardized language and criteria for diagnosis, A) Malingering language.
treatment, and research. B) Somatic Symptom Disorder D) A checklist of symptoms for depression.
C) Guarantees a cure for all disorders. C) Illness Anxiety Disorder 250. An individual who has a lifelong pattern of being detached from social
D) Is free from cultural bias. D) Factitious Disorder relationships and shows a restricted range of emotional expression
would most likely be diagnosed with:
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A) Avoidant Personality Disorder C) The right to change their answers after the test is scored. 267. The phenomenon where an organization's members unconsciously
B) Schizoid Personality Disorder D) The right to have their results published. share assumptions that guide their behavior and perceptions is known
C) Antisocial Personality Disorder 259. A child's vocabulary is an example of which type of intelligence? as:
D) Borderline Personality Disorder A) Fluid intelligence A) The organizational chart
251. A psychometrician is asked to use an assessment tool for a purpose B) Crystallized intelligence B) The formal structure
for which it has not been validated. The most ethical action is to: C) Practical intelligence C) The deep culture of the organization
A) Use the tool but write a disclaimer in the report. D) Creative intelligence D) The strategic plan
B) Refuse to use the tool for that purpose, explaining the limitations of 260. A person who is preoccupied with minor flaws in their appearance that 268. The "nature vs. nurture" debate in developmental psychology
its validity. are not observable to others, and performs repetitive behaviors in concludes that:
C) Use the tool, as all psychological tests are generally applicable. response, may have: A) Nature is more important than nurture.
D) Modify the tool to fit the new purpose. A) Hoarding Disorder B) Nurture is more important than nature.
252. The stage in Erikson's theory where an older adult reflects on their life B) Body Dysmorphic Disorder C) Development is a product of the complex interaction between both.
and experiences a sense of fulfillment or regret is: C) Anorexia Nervosa D) The debate is irrelevant to modern psychology.
A) Generativity vs. Stagnation D) Trichotillomania 269. A psychometrician must ensure that a client's test results are not
B) Intimacy vs. Isolation 261. The process of defining a variable in terms of the specific procedures shared with unauthorized individuals. This upholds the principle of:
C) Ego Integrity vs. Despair used to measure it is called: A) Competence
D) Identity vs. Role Confusion A) A hypothesis B) Objectivity
253. In team dynamics, "social loafing" refers to the tendency for individuals B) A theory C) Confidentiality
to: C) An operational definition D) Test Security
A) Work harder when they are in a group. D) A correlation 270. A person who feels an overwhelming need to be taken care of, leading
B) Exert less effort on a task when they are working in a group than 262. Which of the following is the best way to protect against cultural bias to submissive and clinging behavior, likely has which personality
when working alone. in testing? disorder?
C) Become more extreme in their views after a group discussion. A) Using only non-verbal tests. A) Avoidant Personality Disorder
D) Conform to the group's opinion even if they disagree. B) Ensuring that tests are properly validated and normed for the specific B) Histrionic Personality Disorder
254. A student who scores 130 on an IQ test with a mean of 100 and a cultural group being assessed. C) Borderline Personality Disorder
standard deviation of 15 is how many standard deviations from the C) Translating a test literally from one language to another. D) Dependent Personality Disorder
mean? D) Assuming that all cultures are the same. 271. When a test developer removes items that show a significant
A) One standard deviation above. 263. A supervisor who provides guidance, delegates tasks effectively, and difference in performance between different ethnic or gender groups,
B) One standard deviation below. gives regular feedback is fulfilling which role of management? they are attempting to:
C) Two standard deviations above. A) Planning A) Increase the test's reliability.
D) Two standard deviations below. B) Organizing B) Reduce item bias.
255. A person with a history of unstable relationships, a fragile sense of self, C) Leading C) Lower the test's validity.
and intense fears of abandonment is characteristic of which personality D) Controlling D) Make the test more difficult.
disorder? 264. According to Freud's theory, the "superego" is the part of the 272. A child who can only see the world from their own perspective is
A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder personality that: displaying:
B) Borderline Personality Disorder A) Operates on the pleasure principle. A) Conservation
C) Dependent Personality Disorder B) Represents internalized ideals and provides standards for judgment. B) Object permanence
D) Histrionic Personality Disorder C) Mediates between the demands of the id and the reality of the C) Egocentrism
256. "Debriefing" in psychological research is the process of: external world. D) Reversibility
A) Obtaining consent from participants. D) Is present from birth. 273. The primary goal of a performance appraisal is to:
B) Explaining the true purpose of the study to participants after it is over. 265. Which of the following is a key symptom of Inattentive Type ADHD in A) Justify firing an employee.
C) Analyzing the statistical data. a child? B) Provide feedback to an employee to guide their performance and
D) Selecting participants for the study. A) Frequently fidgets or squirms in their seat. development.
257. An "assessment center" is a method used by organizations to: B) Often interrupts or intrudes on others. C) Set the salary for all employees in a department.
A) Provide therapy to employees. C) Has difficulty sustaining attention in tasks or play activities. D) Compare employees against each other for ranking purposes.
B) Evaluate managerial potential using multiple techniques like D) Talks excessively. 274. Which of the following is an example of a delusion?
simulations and interviews. 266. A "T-score" is a standard score with a mean of _____ and a standard A) Seeing a person who is not actually there.
C) Conduct basic psychometric testing. deviation of _____. B) A strong, false belief that one is being monitored by the government,
D) Host company-wide social events. A) 100; 15 despite a lack of evidence.
258. Which of the following is a primary right of a client undergoing B) 50; 10 C) Hearing voices that no one else can hear.
psychological assessment? C) 5; 2 D) A mistaken perception of a real stimulus, such as seeing a face in
A) The right to receive a copy of the raw test data. D) 0; 1 the clouds.
B) The right to know the qualifications of the examiner.
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275. A psychometrician's primary responsibility when administering a group B) AI can score tests faster than humans. C) Conservation
test is to: C) AI can administer tests remotely. D) Object permanence
A) Ensure all instructions are followed exactly as stated in the manual. D) The results are always more accurate than human judgment. 293. The primary benefit of using a structured interview over an
B) Help students who are having trouble with specific items. 284. A person with a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits, unstructured one in employee selection is that it:
C) Allow for extra time if some students are not finished. acute discomfort with close relationships, and cognitive or perceptual A) Is more flexible and conversational.
D) Create a relaxed, informal atmosphere. distortions may have which personality disorder? B) Is generally more reliable and valid due to its consistency.
276. The "use it or lose it" principle, as it applies to cognitive aging, suggests A) Schizoid Personality Disorder C) Allows the interviewer to ask any questions they want.
that: B) Avoidant Personality Disorder D) Is quicker to conduct.
A) All cognitive abilities decline inevitably with age. C) Schizotypal Personality Disorder 294. A client who received psychological services has the right to access
B) Engaging in mentally stimulating activities can help maintain D) Borderline Personality Disorder their records. This is mandated by which principle?
cognitive function. 285. In a negatively skewed distribution of scores, the _____ is lower than A) Test Security
C) Memory loss is the first sign of aging. the _____. B) Client Welfare and Rights
D) Physical exercise has no effect on cognitive health. A) mean; median C) Competence
277. The statistical technique used to predict the value of one variable B) median; mean D) Objectivity
based on the value of another is called: C) mode; median 295. A person diagnosed with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
A) T-test D) mean; standard deviation (DMDD) typically shows:
B) ANOVA 286. A company invests in a comprehensive training program for its new A) Cyclical episodes of mania and depression.
C) Correlation hires. This is an activity related to: B) Persistent irritability and severe, recurrent temper outbursts.
D) Regression analysis A) Organizational Development C) A pattern of violating the rights of others.
278. The final stage in Kurt Lewin's model of organizational change, B) Human Resource Development D) An intense fear of social situations.
"Refreezing," involves: C) Strategic Planning 296. The Spearman-Brown formula is used to:
A) Challenging the status quo. D) Organizational Design A) Calculate the validity of a test.
B) Implementing the desired change. 287. Which research method allows a researcher to determine cause-and- B) Estimate the reliability of a full test based on its split-half reliability.
C) Stabilizing the change and integrating it into the organization's effect relationships? C) Determine the standard error of measurement.
culture. A) Correlational study D) Analyze the factor structure of a test.
D) Planning the change strategy. B) Case study 297. A key goal of a human factors psychologist (ergonomist) is to:
279. The presence of two or more distinct personality states in an individual, C) Experimental method A) Design work environments and tools that are safe, efficient, and user-
with recurrent gaps in memory, is the core feature of: D) Naturalistic observation friendly.
A) Schizophrenia 288. Which of the following is a "negative" symptom of schizophrenia? B) Conduct therapy sessions for employees.
B) Bipolar Disorder A) Hallucinations C) Hire and fire employees.
C) Dissociative Identity Disorder B) Delusions D) Develop marketing strategies for the company.
D) Borderline Personality Disorder C) Avolition (lack of motivation) 298. The period of life when one's physical abilities are at their peak is
280. If a test is being used to make high-stakes decisions (e.g., college D) Disorganized speech generally:
admission, employment), it is critical that the test has: 289. The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development is primarily used A) Adolescence
A) High face validity. to: B) Young Adulthood
B) Strong evidence of reliability and validity for that specific purpose. A) Diagnose personality disorders in infants. C) Middle Adulthood
C) Been published in a popular magazine. B) Identify developmental delays in young children. D) Late Adulthood
D) An easy scoring procedure. C) Predict adult intelligence. 299. When a psychometrician notices that a client is extremely anxious
281. A manager's ability to understand and work effectively with people is D) Assess an infant's attachment style. during testing, this observation is:
an example of which type of managerial skill? 290. The most critical aspect of an ethical code for psychologists is that it: A) Irrelevant to the test results.
A) Technical skill A) Is legally binding in all situations. B) A crucial piece of qualitative data that should be noted and
B) Conceptual skill B) Serves to protect the public and guide professional conduct. considered in the interpretation.
C) Human or interpersonal skill C) Is easy to memorize. C) Something that should be ignored to maintain objectivity.
D) Financial skill D) Never changes or gets updated. D) A reason to invalidate the test immediately.
282. The term "teratogen" refers to: 291. "Burnout" in the workplace is typically characterized by: 300. The primary difference between a delusion and a hallucination is that
A) A gene that causes a specific birth defect. A) High levels of engagement and energy. a delusion is a false _____, while a hallucination is a false _____.
B) An environmental agent that can cause harm to a developing fetus. B) Emotional exhaustion, cynicism, and a sense of inefficacy. A) perception; belief
C) A normal stage of prenatal development. C) A strong desire for promotion. B) emotion; thought
D) A type of nutrient essential for fetal growth. D) A healthy work-life balance. C) belief; sensory perception
283. Which of the following is a potential ethical issue in the use of AI for 292. A five-year-old who believes that her teddy bear is sad because it was D) memory; idea
psychological assessment? left outside is demonstrating: 301. The type of validity that is most concerned with how well the items on
A) The algorithms may be biased based on the data they were trained A) Animistic thinking a test represent the entire universe of items for a given domain is:
on. B) Egocentrism A) Construct validity
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B) Content validity C) Mean score. C) Reason speedily and abstractly, and solve novel problems.
C) Predictive validity D) Number of items. D) Understand social cues and norms.
D) Concurrent validity 310. "Procedural justice" in an organization refers to the perceived fairness 318. When a test developer wants to ensure their test does not correlate
302. Which of the following is a core feature of Conduct Disorder? of: with measures of unrelated constructs, they are seeking evidence of:
A) A persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or A) The outcomes or rewards an employee receives. A) Convergent validity
major age-appropriate societal norms are violated. B) The processes used to make decisions and allocate rewards. B) Discriminant validity
B) Chronic irritability and frequent, severe temper outbursts. C) The interpersonal treatment an employee receives from their C) Predictive validity
C) A pattern of social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy. superiors. D) Content validity
D) An inability to form close social relationships. D) The overall company culture. 319. A leadership style where the leader inspires and motivates followers to
303. The "Open Systems" perspective in modern organizational theory 311. A test developer correlates scores from their new intelligence test with achieve extraordinary outcomes and develop their own leadership
suggests that organizations: high school grade point averages. This is a method of establishing: capacity is known as:
A) Are self-contained and not affected by their external environment. A) Content validity A) Transactional leadership
B) Must interact with and adapt to their external environment to survive B) Construct validity B) Laissez-faire leadership
and thrive. C) Criterion-related validity C) Autocratic leadership
C) Should have rigid, unchanging structures. D) Face validity D) Transformational leadership
D) Function best with a strict, hierarchical chain of command. 312. A diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder requires that the individual has 320. A person who hoards a large number of possessions that have little to
304. A researcher is studying the same group of children every two years, symptoms of schizophrenia along with: no value, to the point where it clutters their living space and causes
from age 5 to age 15. This is an example of which type of research A) A major mood episode (depressive or manic) that is concurrent with significant distress, may be diagnosed with:
design? the active-phase symptoms of schizophrenia. A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
A) Cross-sectional B) A co-occurring anxiety disorder. B) Hoarding Disorder
B) Experimental C) A substance use disorder. C) A specific phobia
C) Longitudinal D) A personality disorder. D) Body Dysmorphic Disorder
D) Correlational 313. The ability of a preschooler to delay gratification (e.g., waiting to eat a 321. The Kuder-Richardson 20 (KR-20) formula is used to estimate which
305. A T-score of 70 on a psychological test is: marshmallow to get two later) is a key indicator of: type of reliability?
A) One standard deviation above the mean. A) Self-regulation and executive function. A) Test-retest
B) One standard deviation below the mean. B) Gross motor skills. B) Parallel-forms
C) Two standard deviations above the mean. C) Language development. C) Inter-rater
D) Two standard deviations below the mean. D) Attachment style. D) Internal consistency for dichotomously scored items
306. A key difference between a leader and a manager is that a leader is 314. The concept of "organizational citizenship behavior" (OCB) refers to 322. The term "androgyny" in developmental psychology refers to:
more focused on _____, while a manager is more focused on _____. employee actions that: A) A delay in the onset of puberty.
A) stability and control; change and inspiration A) Are part of their formal job description. B) The presence of high degrees of both masculine and feminine traits
B) change and inspiration; stability and control B) Go beyond their formal job requirements and contribute to the well- in an individual.
C) administrative tasks; strategic vision being of the organization. C) A firm commitment to traditional gender roles.
D) enforcing rules; building relationships C) Are counterproductive and harmful to the organization. D) Confusion about one's gender identity.
307. An individual has a period of abnormally and persistently elevated D) Are focused solely on achieving personal career goals. 323. Which of the following is an example of a "selection" error in
mood lasting at least four consecutive days, which is a noticeable 315. Which of the following is a violation of the ethical principle of informed assessment?
change from their usual behavior but does not cause marked consent? A) Scoring a test incorrectly.
impairment in functioning. This is best described as a: A) Explaining the purpose of the assessment in language the client can B) Using a test that is inappropriate for the client's age or cultural
A) Manic episode understand. background.
B) Hypomanic episode B) Forcing an individual to participate in an assessment against their C) Failing to follow standardized administration procedures.
C) Depressive episode will. D) Misinterpreting the meaning of a test score.
D) Panic attack C) Informing the client about the limits of confidentiality. 324. A key provision of the Philippine Mental Health Act (RA 11036) is the:
308. In Bowlby's theory of attachment, the "internal working model" refers D) Answering the client's questions about the procedure. A) Decriminalization of suicide.
to: 316. A person with a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, B) Mandate for mental health services to be available in all hospitals.
A) A child's biological predisposition to form attachments. which leads to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of C) Protection of the rights and welfare of persons with mental health
B) The cultural norms surrounding child-rearing. separation, would most likely be diagnosed with: needs.
C) A cognitive framework comprising mental representations for A) Avoidant Personality Disorder D) All of the above.
understanding the world, self, and others. B) Dependent Personality Disorder 325. A performance appraisal method where an employee is evaluated
D) The specific sequence of behaviors an infant shows during C) Borderline Personality Disorder against the performance of other employees is known as:
separation. D) Histrionic Personality Disorder A) A graphic rating scale
309. If a test is reliable, its scores will have a relatively small: 317. "Fluid intelligence" is best described as the ability to: B) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
A) Standard error of measurement (SEM). A) Recall factual information and accumulated knowledge. C) A ranking method
B) Range of possible scores. B) Use language effectively. D) A critical incident method
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326. An item characteristic curve (ICC) in Item Response Theory (IRT) B) Method that uses multiple techniques and multiple assessors to B) Embryonic stage
graphically displays the relationship between: evaluate candidates. C) Fetal stage
A) An individual's score and their percentile rank. C) Type of intelligence test. D) Zygotic stage
B) A test's reliability and its validity. D) Physical location where all HR activities are centralized. 343. In an organizational context, "turnover" refers to:
C) The probability of a correct response and the test-taker's underlying 335. Which of the following is an example of a "high-stakes" test? A) The rate at which employees are promoted.
ability level. A) A weekly quiz in a college course. B) The rate at which employees leave the organization.
D) The item's difficulty and its discrimination index. B) A self-assessment of personal interests. C) The amount of profit the company makes.
327. The development of friendships with peers is a crucial aspect of which C) A professional licensure examination. D) The number of new products developed.
domain of development? D) A survey about customer satisfaction. 344. A psychometrician is asked to provide a client's raw test scores to an
A) Physical 336. The symptoms of a psychological disorder cause significant distress or insurance company. The most appropriate first action is to:
B) Cognitive impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of A) Send the scores immediately.
C) Socio-emotional functioning. This criterion is known as: B) Obtain written consent from the client to release the information.
D) Perceptual A) The deviance criterion C) Refuse the request, as it is always a violation of confidentiality.
328. An individual experiences recurrent episodes of binge eating but does B) The dysfunction criterion D) Send a summary report instead of the raw scores without consulting
not engage in compensatory behaviors like purging. The most likely C) The danger criterion the client.
diagnosis is: D) The duration criterion 345. A person with Cyclothymic Disorder experiences:
A) Anorexia Nervosa 337. According to Kohlberg's theory, an individual who makes moral A) At least one full manic episode.
B) Bulimia Nervosa judgments based on universal ethical principles, even if it means B) Numerous periods with hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods
C) Binge-Eating Disorder violating a law, is at which level of moral reasoning? with depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a major
D) Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder A) Pre-conventional depressive episode.
329. Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a psychometrician B) Conventional C) A single, prolonged episode of depression.
according to the PAP Code of Ethics? C) Post-conventional D) A pattern of intense but unstable relationships.
A) To diagnose psychological disorders. D) Non-conventional 346. When a psychologist modifies a test administration procedure for a
B) To conduct psychotherapy. 338. A psychologist using a test developed in 2005 with norms from that person with a disability (e.g., providing larger print), this is known as:
C) To administer and score psychological tests competently and period to assess a client in 2025 may be encountering problems related A) An ethical violation
ethically. to: B) An accommodation
D) To prescribe medication for mental health conditions. A) The Flynn Effect and outdated norms. C) A breach of test security
330. In Vroom's Expectancy Theory of motivation, "instrumentality" refers to B) Low test-retest reliability. D) A standardization error
an individual's belief that: C) A lack of content validity. 347. The tendency for an interviewer to allow one positive characteristic of
A) Their effort will lead to a certain level of performance. D) Poor test security. a candidate to influence their evaluation of other unrelated
B) A certain level of performance will lead to a desired outcome. 339. The process of systematically gathering and analyzing information characteristics is known as the:
C) The outcome offered is valuable and desirable. about a job's content, context, and requirements is called: A) Horns effect
D) They are capable of performing the task. A) Performance appraisal B) Halo effect
331. A test has a reliability coefficient of .90. This means that: B) Job evaluation C) Recency effect
A) 90% of the score is accurate, and 10% is due to error. C) Job analysis D) Primacy effect
B) The test is 90% valid. D) Organizational design 348. According to Piaget's theory, "accommodation" is the process of:
C) 90% of test-takers will pass the test. 340. A key difference between Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) and A) Fitting new information into existing cognitive schemas.
D) The test is 90% difficult. Conduct Disorder (CD) is that: B) Modifying existing cognitive schemas to fit new information.
332. The concept of "scaffolding" in Vygotsky's theory involves: A) ODD involves more severe violations of others' rights, such as C) Achieving a balance between assimilation and accommodation.
A) Allowing a child to struggle with a task alone until they succeed. aggression and theft. D) Understanding that objects continue to exist when they are not
B) Adjusting the level of support given to a child based on their B) CD involves a pattern of angry/irritable mood and defiance, while perceived.
performance level. ODD involves more severe aggression. 349. A test item format where the respondent chooses from a range of
C) Giving the child the answer to a problem immediately. C) ODD is diagnosed in adults, while CD is diagnosed in children. options such as "Strongly Agree," "Agree," "Neutral," "Disagree," and
D) Using a strict reward-and-punishment system. D) CD involves a more severe pattern of behavior that violates the basic "Strongly Disagree" is called a:
333. A disorder characterized by odd beliefs, magical thinking, and rights of others or societal norms. A) True/False item
eccentric behavior, but without the full-blown psychosis of 341. The first step in constructing a new psychological test is typically to: B) Multiple-choice item
schizophrenia, is: A) Write the test items. C) Likert scale
A) Schizoid Personality Disorder B) Define the purpose of the test and the construct to be measured. D) Dichotomous item
B) Paranoid Personality Disorder C) Conduct a validation study. 350. A person who experiences repeated skin-picking resulting in lesions
C) Schizotypal Personality Disorder D) Establish the norms. and makes repeated attempts to stop, may be diagnosed with:
D) Avoidant Personality Disorder 342. The stage of prenatal development where the major organ systems are A) Trichotillomania
334. An "assessment center" in I/O psychology is a: formed is the: B) Hoarding Disorder
A) Place where employees receive psychological counseling. A) Germinal stage C) Excoriation Disorder
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D) Body Dysmorphic Disorder C) Integrate data from multiple sources (e.g., test scores, interviews, 367. In a selection context, a "false positive" error occurs when the test:
351. A psychometrician is asked to assess a client who speaks a dialect observations) to form a comprehensive picture. A) Incorrectly predicts that an applicant who would have been
they are not fluent in. The most ethical course of action is to: D) Provide a definitive diagnosis based on a single test score. successful will fail.
A) Proceed with the assessment using an interpreter. 359. A pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self- B) Correctly predicts that a successful applicant will succeed.
B) Proceed with the assessment and make a note of the language image, and emotions, along with marked impulsivity, is the core feature C) Correctly predicts that an unsuccessful applicant will fail.
barrier. of: D) Incorrectly predicts that an applicant who will perform poorly will
C) Refer the client to a professional who is competent in that language A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder succeed.
and culture. B) Antisocial Personality Disorder 368. An OD intervention that involves gathering data from employees
D) Use a non-verbal test, assuming it eliminates all cultural and C) Borderline Personality Disorder through surveys and then using that data as a basis for group
linguistic bias. D) Avoidant Personality Disorder discussion and problem-solving is called:
352. The term "midlife crisis," though not a formal diagnosis, is a 360. A test developer ensures that the test items are relevant to the specific A) Process consultation
developmental challenge associated with which stage? purpose of the test (e.g., items on a math test are about math). This is B) Team building
A) Young Adulthood a matter of: C) Survey feedback
B) Middle Adulthood A) Reliability D) Sensitivity training
C) Late Adulthood B) Content validity 369. A person presents with disorganized speech, flat affect, and avolition
D) Adolescence C) Standardization for the past seven months. They have no history of mood episodes. The
353. "Distributive justice" refers to the perceived fairness of the: D) Norming most likely diagnosis is:
A) Procedures used to make decisions. 361. The final stage of cognitive development in Piaget's theory, A) Schizoaffective Disorder
B) Interpersonal treatment from managers. characterized by the ability to think abstractly and hypothetically, is the: B) Schizophrenia
C) Outcomes or allocations that an individual receives. A) Preoperational stage C) Bipolar I Disorder with Psychotic Features
D) Physical work environment. B) Concrete operational stage D) Major Depressive Disorder with Psychotic Features
354. The standard deviation is a measure of: C) Formal operational stage 370. When a test manual reports a reliability coefficient of .85, it means that
A) The central tendency of a set of scores. D) Sensorimotor stage 85% of the variance in the test scores is attributable to:
B) The variability or dispersion of scores around the mean. 362. Which of the following is a key element of an effective team? A) Error variance
C) The correlation between two variables. A) Homogeneity of thought B) True score variance
D) The difficulty of a test. B) A lack of clear goals C) The content of the test
355. A person experiences a mood disturbance with psychotic features. To C) A dictatorial leader D) The difficulty of the test
diagnose Schizoaffective Disorder instead of a Mood Disorder with D) Clear communication and mutual accountability 371. The "glass ceiling" in an organizational context refers to:
Psychotic Features, there must be a period of: 363. The ethical principle that requires psychologists to be honest and A) A transparent management style.
A) At least two weeks of delusions or hallucinations in the absence of a accurate in their professional activities is: B) An invisible barrier that prevents women and minorities from
major mood episode. A) Competence advancing to top leadership positions.
B) At least two months where mood symptoms and psychotic symptoms B) Integrity C) The physical design of an office building.
co-occur. C) Confidentiality D) A policy of open communication.
C) Psychotic symptoms that occur only during mood episodes. D) Justice 372. A child's understanding that their gender is stable and will not change
D) A full recovery between episodes. 364. An individual who has a persistent fear of social or performance over time is known as:
356. In the "Strange Situation" protocol, an infant who shows extreme situations in which they might be scrutinized by others would most likely A) Gender identity
distress when the caregiver leaves and is difficult to soothe upon their be diagnosed with: B) Gender schema
return is demonstrating which attachment style? A) Agoraphobia C) Gender constancy
A) Secure B) Panic Disorder D) Gender role
B) Avoidant C) Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia) 373. It is unethical for a psychometrician to score a test using an outdated
C) Resistant/Ambivalent D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder or homemade answer key because it violates the principle of:
D) Disorganized 365. The "Flynn Effect" has important implications for psychological testing A) Standardized and competent practice.
357. A "behaviorally anchored rating scale" (BARS) is a performance because it suggests that: B) Confidentiality.
appraisal tool that: A) Test norms need to be updated periodically to remain accurate. C) Test security.
A) Ranks employees from best to worst. B) Intelligence is fixed and does not change. D) Informed consent.
B) Uses specific examples of work behaviors to define levels of C) Reliability is more important than validity. 374. A core feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD)
performance. D) All tests are culturally biased. is a pervasive preoccupation with:
C) Asks managers to write a narrative description of an employee's 366. The "empty nest transition" is a developmental phenomenon primarily A) Orderliness, perfectionism, and control.
performance. related to which domain? B) The fear of contamination.
D) Evaluates employees based on their personality traits. A) Cognitive development C) The need to be the center of attention.
358. When creating a psychological report, it is essential to: B) Physical development D) A distrust of others.
A) Use highly technical and complex language to sound professional. C) Socio-emotional and family development 375. A test's ability to measure what it is supposed to measure is called its:
B) Focus only on the client's weaknesses and deficits. D) Moral development A) Reliability
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B) Validity B) Experiencing a Factitious Disorder C) A picture-based test

C) Objectivity C) Malingering D) A test that requires reading lengthy passages
D) Norms D) Experiencing a Conversion Disorder 394. The belief that one's culture is superior to all others is known as:
376. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the need for friendship, 385. The correlation coefficient (r) ranges from: A) Ethnocentrism
belonging, and love is a: A) 0 to +1.0 B) Cultural relativism
A) Physiological need B) -1.0 to +1.0 C) Multiculturalism
B) Safety need C) -1.0 to 0 D) Empathy
C) Social (Belongingness) need D) 0 to 100 395. A correlation of -0.85 between two variables indicates a:
D) Esteem need 386. The concept of "work-life balance" is a major concern within the field A) Strong positive relationship
377. The term "gerontology" refers to the scientific study of: of: B) Weak positive relationship
A) Infants and children A) Personnel Psychology C) Strong negative relationship
B) The aging process B) Human Factors Psychology D) Weak negative relationship
C) The human mind C) Organizational Psychology 396. An individual is terrified of gaining weight, severely restricts their food
D) Psychological disorders D) Consumer Psychology intake, and has a significantly low body weight. The most likely
378. A client has a right to not have their test results used in a stigmatizing 387. A key milestone of the "preoperational" stage of cognitive development diagnosis is:
manner. This falls under the general principle of: is the acquisition of: A) Bulimia Nervosa
A) Respect for People's Rights and Dignity. A) Abstract thought B) Binge-Eating Disorder
B) Competence. B) Object permanence C) Anorexia Nervosa
C) Integrity. C) Symbolic function (language and pretend play) D) Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
D) Professional and Scientific Responsibility. D) Logical reasoning 397. A manager who makes decisions without consulting their team is using
379. A person with a pervasive pattern of grandiosity in fantasy or behavior, 388. A psychometrician must keep all client records in a secure location. which leadership style?
a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy is exhibiting symptoms of: This is an application of the principle of: A) Democratic
A) Schizotypal Personality Disorder A) Competence B) Laissez-faire
B) Borderline Personality Disorder B) Informed consent C) Autocratic
C) Histrionic Personality Disorder C) Integrity D) Transformational
D) Narcissistic Personality Disorder D) Confidentiality 398. In developmental psychology, a "cohort" refers to:
380. A test is considered "objective" if it is: 389. The difference between an "obsession" and a "compulsion" is that an A) A group of people who are the same age.
A) Free from cultural bias. obsession is a _____, while a compulsion is a _____. B) A group of people born at around the same time, in the same place.
B) Scored in a way that minimizes subjective judgment. A) behavior; thought C) The genetic makeup of an individual.
C) A perfect measure of the construct. B) thought; behavior D) A specific stage of development.
D) Short and easy to administer. C) feeling; thought 399. The practice of using the same assessment tool to make decisions for
381. The concept of "emotional intelligence" is important in the workplace D) behavior; feeling different subgroups when the tool is not equally valid for those groups
because it relates to an individual's ability to: 390. A test that is highly correlated with a future criterion is said to have is a form of:
A) Solve complex mathematical problems. good: A) Test bias
B) Understand and manage their own emotions and the emotions of A) Content validity B) Good practice
others. B) Concurrent validity C) High reliability
C) Write computer code. C) Predictive validity D) Ethical assessment
D) Perform physical labor. D) Construct validity 400. In order to diagnose Major Depressive Disorder, symptoms must be
382. An adolescent who has explored various identity options but has not 391. A key task for a new team in the "norming" stage of development is to: present for at least:
yet made a commitment is in which of Marcia's identity statuses? A) Deal with conflicts and power struggles. A) One week
A) Identity Achievement B) Establish group cohesion, roles, and norms. B) Two weeks
B) Identity Foreclosure C) Focus on achieving its goals. C) One month
C) Identity Moratorium D) Get acquainted with each other. D) Six months
D) Identity Diffusion 392. Puberty is a period of rapid physical maturation involving hormonal and 401. A test item that asks two separate questions at once (e.g., "Do you
383. A major limitation of projective tests like the Rorschach is the: bodily changes that occurs primarily during: enjoy parties and meeting new people?") is known as a:
A) Lack of standardized administration and scoring, leading to A) Early childhood A) Leading question
questionable reliability and validity. B) Middle childhood B) Double-barreled item
B) Ease with which clients can fake their responses. C) Adolescence C) Biased item
C) Restricted range of responses they can provide. D) Young adulthood D) Projective item
D) High degree of cultural bias. 393. A psychologist is developing a test for a non-reading population. Which 402. The primary characteristic of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) is:
384. A person who is found to be faking an illness for a clear external gain test format would be most inappropriate? A) A significant memory loss of personal information.
(e.g., to get out of work, to win a lawsuit) is: A) A performance-based test B) A feeling of detachment from one's own body or mental processes.
A) Experiencing a Somatic Symptom Disorder B) A test with orally presented questions
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C) The presence of two or more distinct personality states or an C) Reward power D) Projective test
experience of possession. D) Referent power 419. An organization that attempts to improve its functioning by analyzing
D) A feeling that the external world is unreal or strange. 411. When interpreting a client's score, a psychologist uses a 95% its internal processes, such as communication and decision-making, is
403. The belief that one's own efforts will lead to successful performance is confidence interval. This means that: using which OD intervention?
known as "expectancy" in which theory of motivation? A) They are 95% certain that the obtained score is the client's true A) Survey feedback
A) Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory score. B) Process consultation
B) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs B) There is a 95% probability that the client's true score falls within the C) Team building
C) Vroom's Expectancy Theory specified range. D) Job enrichment
D) Equity Theory C) 95% of the test items are valid. 420. A person who is preoccupied with fears of having a serious disease
404. When an infant is repeatedly shown the same stimulus, their D) The client scored higher than 95% of the norm group. based on their misinterpretation of bodily symptoms, despite medical
responsiveness decreases. This process is called: 412. A person with a pervasive pattern of emotional coldness, detachment reassurance, may be diagnosed with:
A) Habituation from social relationships, and an indifference to praise or criticism is A) Somatic Symptom Disorder
B) Dishabituation exhibiting signs of which personality disorder? B) Conversion Disorder
C) Scaffolding A) Avoidant Personality Disorder C) Illness Anxiety Disorder
D) Accommodation B) Schizoid Personality Disorder D) Factitious Disorder
405. The process of administering a new test to a large, representative C) Dependent Personality Disorder 421. Item Response Theory (IRT) provides an advantage over Classical
sample of individuals to establish a frame of reference for interpreting D) Paranoid Personality Disorder Test Theory (CTT) because IRT:
scores is called: 413. A two-year-old child who plays alongside other children but does not A) Is simpler to understand and apply.
A) Validation interact with them is engaged in what type of play? B) Provides information about item functioning that is independent of
B) Item analysis A) Solitary play the specific sample of test-takers.
C) Standardization (or Norming) B) Onlooker play C) Does not require statistical analysis.
D) Factor analysis C) Parallel play D) Focuses only on the total test score.
406. An employee who remains with a company because they feel an D) Cooperative play 422. The term "selective optimization with compensation" is a model for
emotional attachment and genuinely want to be there is displaying what 414. The "Big Five" personality trait most consistently associated with job successful:
type of commitment? success across a variety of occupations is: A) Language acquisition in infants.
A) Continuance commitment A) Extraversion B) Identity formation in adolescents.
B) Normative commitment B) Agreeableness C) Attachment in childhood.
C) Affective commitment C) Neuroticism D) Aging.
D) Job commitment D) Conscientiousness 423. When a psychologist uses assessment tools with a Filipino client, it is
407. A person experiences symptoms that are clearly suggestive of a 415. A client's right to be protected from unauthorized disclosure of their crucial to:
medical condition, but the symptoms are found to be intentionally personal information shared during an assessment is known as: A) Assume that tools developed in the West are universally applicable.
produced or faked for a clear external reward, such as avoiding military A) Informed consent B) Consider the influence of Filipino cultural values like
duty. This is known as: B) Competence pakikipagkapwa-tao and hiya on the client's responses.
A) Factitious Disorder C) Integrity C) Focus exclusively on quantitative scores and ignore qualitative
B) Conversion Disorder D) Confidentiality observations.
C) Malingering 416. A key feature of Bipolar I Disorder that is not required for a diagnosis D) Administer the test as quickly as possible.
D) Somatic Symptom Disorder of Bipolar II Disorder is: 424. A person with a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and
408. According to research on parenting styles, which style is most A) A major depressive episode. attention-seeking behavior, who is often uncomfortable in situations
associated with children who are competent, self-reliant, and have high B) A hypomanic episode. where they are not the center of attention, may have:
self-esteem? C) A full manic episode. A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
A) Authoritarian D) A period of euthymia. B) Borderline Personality Disorder
B) Authoritative 417. The gradual wearing down of the ends of chromosomes with each cell C) Dependent Personality Disorder
C) Permissive division, which is implicated in the aging process, involves structures D) Histrionic Personality Disorder
D) Uninvolved called: 425. A company uses a personality test to screen applicants, but the test
409. Cronbach's alpha is a statistical measure used to assess a test's: A) Mitochondria has not been shown to predict job performance in their industry. This is
A) Test-retest reliability B) Neurons a problem of:
B) Content validity C) Telomeres A) Reliability
C) Internal consistency reliability D) Free radicals B) Validity
D) Predictive validity 418. A test that aims to measure a specific skill or learned knowledge, such C) Objectivity
410. A leader who gains influence because their followers admire and as a final examination in a course, is what type of test? D) Standardization
respect them personally is exercising which type of power? A) Aptitude test 426. The part of the personality in Freudian theory that operates on the
A) Legitimate power B) Achievement test "reality principle" and mediates between the other two parts is the:
B) Coercive power C) Personality test A) Id
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B) Ego 435. A person with a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of B) A reading comprehension subtest.
C) Superego inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation is likely to have C) A block design or puzzle assembly subtest.
D) Libido which personality disorder? D) A general knowledge subtest.
427. The first step in creating a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) A) Schizoid Personality Disorder 444. A person experiences a clinically significant disturbance in their ability
for performance appraisal is to: B) Paranoid Personality Disorder to regulate emotions. This is the definition of which DSM-5-TR concept?
A) Write the rating scale points. C) Dependent Personality Disorder A) Psychosis
B) Generate "critical incidents" of effective and ineffective job D) Avoidant Personality Disorder B) Anxiety
performance. 436. The type of memory that involves general world knowledge, facts, and C) Mood Dysregulation
C) Evaluate the current employees. concepts is called: D) Dissociation
D) Determine the compensation for the job. A) Episodic memory 445. The "Goodness of Fit" model in developmental psychology suggests
428. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a "projective test"? B) Semantic memory that a child's development is optimized when:
A) It has a standardized, multiple-choice format. C) Procedural memory A) The child's temperament matches the demands and expectations of
B) It presents ambiguous stimuli to which the client provides a response. D) Working memory the environment.
C) It is scored objectively by a computer. 437. When an assessment is ordered by a court, the psychologist's primary B) The parent uses a strict, authoritarian style.
D) It has high reliability and validity. duty regarding confidentiality is to: C) The child is raised in a highly stimulating environment.
429. A core ethical principle is that psychologists should not engage in A) The client being assessed. D) The child and parent have opposite temperaments.
professional activities where their personal problems could harm a B) The court that ordered the assessment. 446. The law in the Philippines that safeguards the rights of persons with
client. This relates to the principle of: C) The legal system as a whole. disabilities, including access to education and employment, is:
A) Maintaining competence. D) Maintain absolute confidentiality under all circumstances. A) RA 11036 (The Mental Health Act)
B) Ensuring confidentiality. 438. A company finds that employees who are highly satisfied with their jobs B) RA 7277 (The Magna Carta for Disabled Persons)
C) Respecting client rights. are also less likely to be absent. This represents a: C) The Family Code of the Philippines
D) Test security. A) Positive correlation D) The Labor Code of the Philippines
430. A person who has recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the use B) Negative correlation 447. Which of the following is a key advantage of computer-adaptive testing
of nonliving objects may be diagnosed with which paraphilic disorder? C) Causal relationship (CAT)?
A) Voyeuristic Disorder D) Zero correlation A) It is less secure than paper-and-pencil tests.
B) Exhibitionistic Disorder 439. The most common type of hallucination experienced by individuals with B) It typically requires less testing time because it tailors items to the
C) Frotteuristic Disorder schizophrenia is: test-taker's ability.
D) Fetishistic Disorder A) Visual C) It can be administered by anyone without training.
431. The "g" factor in intelligence, as proposed by Spearman, refers to: B) Auditory D) It eliminates the need for test validation.
A) General intelligence that underlies all specific mental abilities. C) Olfactory 448. A leader who has the authority to give salary increases and promotions
B) Group-specific intelligence. D) Tactile is using which source of power?
C) Genetically determined intelligence. 440. A major purpose of the PAP Code of Ethics is to: A) Expert power
D) Giftedness. A) Provide a set of rules that guarantee a psychologist will never make B) Referent power
432. A child in the concrete operational stage can solve conservation a mistake. C) Reward power
problems because they have developed the ability to: B) Protect the welfare of the public and guide the professional conduct D) Legitimate power
A) Think abstractly. of psychologists. 449. When developing a test, the process of trying it out on a small group to
B) Mentally reverse actions and decenter. C) Serve as a legal document that can be used for prosecution. identify confusing items or unclear instructions is called:
C) Form a secure attachment. D) List all the psychological tests that are approved for use. A) The final validation
D) Use symbolic thought. 441. A child who says "me go" instead of "I am going" is using what type of B) Norming
433. A manager who provides rewards for good performance and takes speech? C) A pilot study
corrective action for poor performance is demonstrating which style of A) Babbling D) Item analysis
leadership? B) Holophrastic speech 450. A person with a pervasive pattern of perfectionism, inflexibility, and a
A) Transformational C) Telegraphic speech preoccupation with rules and details, to the point where it interferes with
B) Transactional D) Overregularization task completion, may have:
C) Laissez-faire 442. Kirkpatrick's model for training evaluation includes which of the A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
D) Charismatic following levels? B) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
434. A test score that is reported as a percentage of people in the norm A) Reaction, Learning, Behavior, and Results C) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
group who scored at or below that particular score is a: B) Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation D) Avoidant Personality Disorder
A) Z-score C) Forming, Storming, and Norming 451. According to Piaget's theory, the main task of the sensorimotor stage
B) T-score D) Input, Process, and Output is to:
C) Stanine 443. Which of the following is an example of a "performance test" of A) Develop language.
D) Percentile rank intelligence? B) Learn to coordinate sensory experiences with motor actions.
A) A vocabulary subtest. C) Master logical thought.
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D) Think abstractly. C) Consult with the client and/or their legal counsel before responding. B) Validation
452. The "duty to warn," established in the Tarasoff case, is a limitation on D) Destroy the records to prevent their disclosure. C) Interpretation
which ethical principle? 461. The "zone of proximal development" is a key concept in the theory of D) Test construction
A) Competence which developmental psychologist? 470. A person who is diagnosed with both a substance use disorder and
B) Integrity A) Jean Piaget another mental health condition like depression is said to have:
C) Confidentiality B) Lawrence Kohlberg A) Comorbid or co-occurring disorders.
D) Objectivity C) Erik Erikson B) A single, complex disorder.
453. In an organization, the informal network through which communication D) Lev Vygotsky C) A misdiagnosis.
flows is often called the: 462. A "situational judgment test" (SJT) used in employee selection typically D) A temporary condition.
A) Chain of command presents candidates with: 471. In terms of memory, the "primacy effect" suggests that when given a
B) Organizational chart A) A series of abstract reasoning problems. list of items, we are more likely to remember the items at the:
C) Grapevine B) Questions about their personality traits. A) Beginning
D) Formal channel C) Work-related scenarios and asks them to choose the best course of B) Middle
454. Which of the following is a symptom of a panic attack? action. C) End
A) A feeling of sadness lasting for several weeks. D) A test of their physical abilities. D) Items that are most unusual
B) An intrusive, unwanted thought. 463. An individual with a history of violating the rights of others, who is often 472. A company's culture is so strong that it overrides individual
C) A sudden surge of intense fear accompanied by physical symptoms aggressive, deceitful, and lacks remorse, may be diagnosed with: personalities and guides employee behavior. This is an example of a:
like a pounding heart and shortness of breath. A) Borderline Personality Disorder A) Weak culture
D) A need to perform a repetitive behavior. B) Narcissistic Personality Disorder B) Strong culture
455. A neuropsychological assessment is primarily used to: C) Antisocial Personality Disorder C) Subculture
A) Determine a person's intelligence quotient (IQ). D) Histrionic Personality Disorder D) Counterculture
B) Assess the relationship between brain function and behavior. 464. A psychologist who continues to use an assessment tool that has been 473. Which of the following is a key right of a test-taker?
C) Diagnose personality disorders. shown by new research to be invalid is violating the ethical principle of: A) The right to know the correct answers to all items.
D) Measure a person's vocational interests. A) Competence. B) The right to an assessment that is fair and free from bias.
456. A 75-year-old reflects on her life and feels a strong sense of B) Confidentiality. C) The right to take the test home.
satisfaction and acceptance. According to Erikson, she has successfully C) Integrity. D) The right to have their score changed if they disagree with it.
achieved: D) Test security. 474. A core diagnostic criterion for all personality disorders is that the
A) Intimacy 465. The correlation between scores on a test and scores on a future pattern of behavior is:
B) Generativity criterion is a measure of the test's: A) Temporary and situational.
C) Ego Integrity A) Predictive validity B) Inflexible and pervasive across a broad range of situations.
D) Identity B) Concurrent validity C) Easily changed with therapy.
457. A test item has a difficulty index of .50 and a discrimination index of C) Content validity D) A normal response to a stressful event.
.40. This would generally be considered a: D) Construct validity 475. A five-year-old child is asked to solve a complex algebra problem. This
A) Poor item that should be discarded. 466. The "babbling" stage of language development is characterized by: task is likely outside their:
B) Good item. A) The use of single words to convey a full thought. A) Zone of Proximal Development
C) Very easy item. B) The production of consonant-vowel combinations. B) Sensorimotor stage
D) Very difficult item. C) The use of two-word sentences. C) Internal working model
458. The first stage in Tuckman's model of team development, where D) The incorrect application of grammatical rules. D) Attachment style
members are getting to know each other, is called: 467. In classical conditioning, a previously neutral stimulus that comes to 476. The "halo effect" in performance appraisal is a rating error where:
A) Storming elicit a conditioned response is called the: A) A manager gives average ratings to all employees.
B) Norming A) Unconditioned stimulus B) A manager's overall impression of an employee influences their
C) Performing B) Unconditioned response rating on specific dimensions.
D) Forming C) Conditioned stimulus C) A manager focuses only on the most recent behavior of an
459. The primary goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy for panic disorder is D) Conditioned response employee.
to: 468. The process of evaluating a job to determine its financial worth to an D) A manager rates an employee low on all dimensions because of one
A) Uncover unconscious conflicts from childhood. organization is called: negative trait.
B) Help the client correct their misinterpretation of bodily sensations. A) Job analysis 477. A test has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. A person who
C) Provide unconditional positive regard. B) Job design scores 30 has a T-score of:
D) Use medication to suppress the symptoms. C) Job evaluation A) 30
460. When a client's records are subpoenaed by a court, the psychologist D) Performance appraisal B) 40
should: 469. A psychometrician must administer a test following the exact C) 20
A) Immediately send all the records as requested. procedures outlined in the test manual. This is a matter of: D) 70
B) Ignore the subpoena to protect the client. A) Standardization
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478. The primary purpose of a "waiver of confidentiality" or "release of C) A temper tantrum 495. A psychologist must provide a client with an understandable
information" form is to: D) A symptom of a disorder explanation of the assessment results. This is part of the client's right
A) Allow the psychologist to share information without any restrictions. 487. A manager believes that people are naturally creative and motivated to:
B) Obtain the client's documented permission to share specific to work if they are committed to the organization's goals. This is A) Test security
information with a designated third party. consistent with: B) Feedback and interpretation
C) Inform the client about the limits of confidentiality. A) Theory X C) Confidentiality
D) Waive the client's right to privacy. B) Theory Y D) Objectivity
479. The fear of being in a situation where escape might be difficult or help C) Classical Theory 496. A child who misapplies a grammatical rule, such as saying "I goed to
unavailable in the event of a panic attack is the central feature of: D) Equity Theory the store," is demonstrating:
A) Social Anxiety Disorder 488. A test item is considered biased if it: A) Babbling
B) Specific Phobia A) Is more difficult for one group of people than another for reasons B) Telegraphic speech
C) Agoraphobia unrelated to the ability being measured. C) A language delay
D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder B) Is difficult for everyone. D) Overregularization
480. In the five-factor model of personality, the trait associated with being C) Is easy for everyone. 497. The feeling of being "on edge," muscle tension, and difficulty
organized, dependable, and disciplined is: D) Has a high correlation with the total test score. concentrating are all symptoms of:
A) Agreeableness 489. A key feature of an "unstructured" interview is that: A) A manic episode
B) Openness to Experience A) The interviewer follows a strict set of predetermined questions. B) Anxiety
C) Conscientiousness B) It is highly reliable and valid. C) A delusion
D) Extraversion C) The interviewer has the flexibility to ask follow-up questions and D) A hallucination
481. The term "geriatrics" refers to: explore topics as they arise. 498. "Employee engagement" is best described as an employee's:
A) The study of aging. D) It is used to assess physical abilities. A) Length of service with the company.
B) The medical care of older adults. 490. A delusion of persecution is a false belief that: B) Level of satisfaction with their pay.
C) The study of child development. A) One has special powers or abilities. C) Level of involvement, enthusiasm, and commitment to their work and
D) A type of cognitive therapy. B) One is being plotted against, spied on, or harmed by others. the organization.
482. A psychometrician who provides test preparation materials or answers C) A neutral event has a special, personal meaning. D) Position in the organizational hierarchy.
to a client before they take a standardized test is committing a serious D) Another person is secretly in love with them. 499. The "floor effect" in testing occurs when:
ethical violation related to: 491. Which of the following is a primary concern in "high-stakes testing"? A) The test is too easy, and many people get high scores.
A) Confidentiality A) Ensuring the tests are short and easy. B) The test is administered on the ground floor of a building.
B) Test security and integrity B) Making sure the test results are used fairly and that the tests have C) The test is too difficult, and many people get scores at or near the
C) Informed consent strong evidence of validity for their purpose. lowest possible score.
D) Competence C) Allowing everyone to pass. D) The scores are normally distributed.
483. Which of the following is an example of an "OD intervention"? D) Keeping the cost of the test as low as possible. 500. A person who experiences a significant traumatic event and
A) Hiring a new employee. 492. A five-year-old understands that their amount of juice does not change subsequently cannot recall important personal information, which is too
B) Firing an underperforming manager. when it is poured into a different-shaped glass. This child is extensive to be explained by ordinary forgetfulness, is likely
C) Implementing a company-wide diversity and inclusion training demonstrating: experiencing:
program. A) Egocentrism A) Dissociative Amnesia
D) Processing the company's payroll. B) Conservation B) Anterograde Amnesia
484. A person who shows no regard for the rights or safety of others, is C) Object permanence C) Conversion Disorder
impulsive, and fails to conform to social norms may be diagnosed with: D) Animism D) Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder
A) Borderline Personality Disorder 493. The law that established the Professional Regulatory Board of 501. The type of assessment that compares an individual's performance to
B) Antisocial Personality Disorder Psychology in the Philippines is: a predefined standard of proficiency, rather than to the performance of
C) Schizoid Personality Disorder A) RA 11036 others, is called:
D) Avoidant Personality Disorder B) RA 10029 (The Philippine Psychology Act of 2009) A) Norm-referenced testing
485. The "ceiling effect" occurs in testing when: C) RA 9262 (Anti-Violence Against Women and Their Children Act) B) Criterion-referenced testing
A) The test is too difficult, and many people get very low scores. D) RA 7277 (Magna Carta for Disabled Persons) C) Projective testing
B) The test is too easy, and many people get very high scores, making 494. A psychometrician should be aware of a client's culture because: D) Aptitude testing
it impossible to differentiate among top performers. A) It allows them to predict the client's exact score. 502. The diathesis-stress model of psychological disorders suggests that a
C) The scores are normally distributed. B) Cultural factors can influence a client's behavior during testing and disorder emerges from:
D) The test has low reliability. their responses to test items. A) A biological or genetic predisposition combined with a stressful life
486. A one-year-old infant who cries when their mother leaves the room is C) It is a requirement for billing purposes. event.
likely demonstrating: D) It is irrelevant to the assessment process. B) A stressful life event alone, regardless of predisposition.
A) A cognitive delay C) A biological or genetic predisposition alone, regardless of life events.
B) Separation anxiety D) A learned pattern of maladaptive behavior.
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503. A manager who involves their team in decision-making and values their D) Prove that a test is valid. A) The right to know why they are being tested.
input is demonstrating which leadership style? 512. The presence of delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech for B) The right to obtain a copy of the copyrighted test booklet.
A) Autocratic at least one day but less than one month is characteristic of: C) The right to a score that meets their expectations.
B) Laissez-faire A) Schizophrenia D) The right to have their results shared with anyone they choose
C) Democratic B) Schizophreniform Disorder without restriction.
D) Transactional C) Brief Psychotic Disorder 521. A person repeatedly regurgitates their food, which they may then re-
504. According to Erikson's theory, the primary developmental task of an D) Delusional Disorder chew, re-swallow, or spit out, without any associated medical condition.
infant is to develop: 513. A child who has difficulty seeing a situation from another person's point This describes:
A) Autonomy of view is exhibiting: A) Pica
B) Initiative A) Conservation B) Rumination Disorder
C) Trust B) Object permanence C) Anorexia Nervosa
D) Industry C) Egocentrism D) Bulimia Nervosa
505. A test's "face validity" refers to whether the test: D) Symbolic thought 522. A child's ability to use language and form mental images to represent
A) Accurately predicts a future outcome. 514. The "open systems" view of organizations emphasizes the importance objects is a key milestone of which Piagetian stage?
B) Appears to be relevant and appropriate for what it is measuring. of: A) Sensorimotor
C) Correlates with other measures of the same construct. A) Internal efficiency above all else. B) Preoperational
D) Is free from cultural bias. B) A strict hierarchical structure. C) Concrete Operational
506. A key challenge for a team in the "storming" stage of development is: C) Interaction and adaptation with the external environment. D) Formal Operational
A) Getting acquainted with one another. D) Maintaining the status quo. 523. A psychologist is asked by a school to share a student's assessment
B) Managing conflict and navigating differences in opinion. 515. The PAP Code of Ethics requires that a psychologist only provide results. According to the PAP Code of Ethics, the psychologist must first
C) Establishing norms and group cohesion. services within the boundaries of their: ensure they have:
D) Focusing on task accomplishment. A) Personal interests A) Received payment from the school.
507. A person who consumes non-nutritive, non-food substances (e.g., B) Financial means B) Informed consent from the student's parents or legal guardians.
paint, dirt, paper) on a persistent basis may be diagnosed with: C) Competence C) The approval of the school principal.
A) Anorexia Nervosa D) Geographical location D) Published the results in a journal.
B) Binge-Eating Disorder 516. A key feature of Delusional Disorder is the presence of one or more 524. The degree to which a test is free from random error is a measure of
C) Pica delusions for a month or longer, but without the other symptoms of its:
D) Rumination Disorder schizophrenia like disorganized speech or flat affect. A common type of A) Validity
508. The understanding that the basic properties of an object, such as its delusion in this disorder is: B) Reliability
mass or volume, remain the same even when its appearance changes A) Bizarre C) Objectivity
is called: B) Persecutory D) Fairness
A) Object permanence C) Mood-congruent 525. The process of an organization defining its long-term goals and
B) Egocentrism D) Somatic determining how to achieve them is known as:
C) Conservation 517. The period of development where peer relationships become a primary A) Performance management
D) Centration source of social support and influence is: B) Strategic planning
509. Which of the following is an example of an unethical dual relationship A) Infancy C) Organizational development
for a psychometrician? B) Early Childhood D) Job analysis
A) Attending the same public community event as a former client. C) Middle Childhood 526. A challenge often faced in late adulthood is coping with the death of a
B) Administering a test to a close friend for whom they are also a D) Adolescence spouse or friends. This process is known as:
business partner. 518. When a test's items are examined to see if they adequately cover the A) Bereavement
C) Referring a client to a colleague for therapy. content area they claim to measure, the type of validity being assessed B) Identity crisis
D) Being a member of the same professional organization as a client. is: C) Midlife crisis
510. Kirkpatrick's model is used in I/O psychology to evaluate the A) Construct validity D) Empty nest syndrome
effectiveness of: B) Predictive validity 527. A key difference between Somatic Symptom Disorder and Illness
A) Recruitment strategies C) Concurrent validity Anxiety Disorder is that in Somatic Symptom Disorder, the individual:
B) Compensation plans D) Content validity A) Has one or more distressing physical symptoms.
C) Training programs 519. In a "360-degree appraisal," an employee's performance is evaluated B) Has minimal or no physical symptoms but is preoccupied with the
D) Organizational structures by: idea of being sick.
511. A standard score, such as a z-score or T-score, allows a psychologist A) Only their direct supervisor. C) Is intentionally faking their symptoms for external gain.
to: B) A panel of external experts. D) Has a neurological symptom that cannot be explained medically.
A) Determine if a test is reliable. C) Their supervisor, peers, subordinates, and sometimes customers. 528. A primary benefit of using "Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales"
B) Compare an individual's score to the scores of a normative group. D) The employee themselves (self-appraisal). (BARS) in performance appraisal is that they:
C) Eliminate all sources of measurement error. 520. Which of the following is a primary right of a test-taker? A) Are quick and easy to develop.
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B) Provide specific, observable behavioral examples to anchor the A) Adolescence B) Bipolar I Disorder with Psychotic Features
ratings, reducing subjectivity. B) Young Adulthood C) Schizoaffective Disorder
C) Rank employees against one another. C) Middle Adulthood D) Major Depressive Disorder with Psychotic Features
D) Focus on personality traits rather than behaviors. D) Late Adulthood 546. When a psychologist uses multiple assessment methods (e.g., an
529. The ethical principle of "Integrity" requires psychologists to be: 538. "Interactional justice" in the workplace refers to the perceived fairness interview, a standardized test, and behavioral observation), they are:
A) Knowledgeable and skilled. of: A) Committing an ethical violation.
B) Respectful of all individuals. A) The final outcomes an employee receives. B) Wasting the client's time.
C) Honest, truthful, and accurate in their professional dealings. B) The company's policies and procedures. C) Conducting a comprehensive, multi-method assessment.
D) Aware of their social responsibility. C) The interpersonal treatment and respect shown to an employee by D) Violating the principle of objectivity.
530. A test that produces a wide range of scores, allowing for good their manager. 547. A developmental challenge faced during adolescence is to:
differentiation among individuals, is said to have a good: D) The employee's salary compared to others. A) Form a secure attachment to a caregiver.
A) Ceiling 539. If a test consistently measures the same construct over time, it has B) Learn to walk and talk.
B) Floor high: C) Form a cohesive personal and social identity.
C) Spread or variability A) Test-retest reliability D) Adjust to retirement.
D) Central tendency B) Internal consistency 548. A company's "mission statement" is intended to describe its:
531. A person experiences a traumatic event and subsequently feels that C) Content validity A) Financial goals for the quarter.
their surroundings are unreal and dreamlike. This symptom is called: D) Face validity B) Organizational structure.
A) Depersonalization 540. A person with a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, C) Fundamental purpose and reason for existence.
B) Derealization and a lack of empathy is exhibiting symptoms of which personality D) List of current employees.
C) Dissociative amnesia disorder? 549. The practice of factor analysis is used in test construction to:
D) A delusion A) Borderline PD A) Determine the reliability of a test.
532. The process of a child learning their culture's expectations for male and B) Avoidant PD B) Analyze the underlying structure of a test and identify its core
female behavior is known as: C) Narcissistic PD dimensions.
A) Gender typing D) Dependent PD C) Establish norms for a test.
B) Gender identity 541. A child's ability to think logically about abstract propositions and test D) Set a passing score for a test.
C) Gender constancy hypotheses systematically is a hallmark of which stage? 550. An individual who is socially withdrawn, has odd or eccentric beliefs
D) Gender fluidity A) Sensorimotor (e.g., magical thinking), but does not have full-blown delusions or
533. A common problem that occurs in teams where members are too B) Preoperational hallucinations, may have:
similar and hesitant to criticize each other's ideas is: C) Concrete Operational A) Schizoid Personality Disorder
A) Social loafing D) Formal Operational B) Avoidant Personality Disorder
B) Groupthink 542. The main limitation of using a "case study" for research is: C) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C) High conflict A) The inability to gather in-depth information. D) Paranoid Personality Disorder
D) Low cohesion B) The difficulty in generalizing the findings to a larger population. 551. The "ethic of care" is a perspective on moral development, often
534. A test is considered "biased" if it: C) The high cost compared to other methods. contrasted with Kohlberg's "ethic of justice," which was proposed by:
A) Contains difficult questions. D) The ethical issues involved. A) Jean Piaget
B) Is systematically unfair to a particular group of people. 543. An "OD consultant" is typically an expert who: B) Carol Gilligan
C) Produces a normal distribution of scores. A) Helps organizations manage change and improve their C) Erik Erikson
D) Has a high reliability coefficient. effectiveness. D) Sigmund Freud
535. One of the main goals of the Philippine Mental Health Act (RA 11036) B) Conducts routine performance appraisals. 552. A primary purpose of the PAP Code of Ethics is to:
is to: C) Manages the company's finances. A) Provide a list of all psychological disorders.
A) Increase the cost of mental healthcare. D) Recruits new employees. B) Ensure the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with
B) Restrict access to mental health services. 544. Which of the following represents an ethical dilemma in psychological whom psychologists work.
C) Integrate mental health care into the basic health system. assessment? C) Guarantee that all psychologists will be successful.
D) Stigmatize individuals with mental illness. A) Scoring a test according to the manual. D) Serve as a substitute for legal advice.
536. A psychologist is asked to testify in court about a client they have B) Using a test that is well-validated for the intended population. 553. The "contingency theory" of leadership proposes that a leader's
assessed. The psychologist's testimony must be: C) Being pressured by a school to inflate a student's test scores to effectiveness is dependent on:
A) Based on personal opinion rather than assessment data. qualify them for a special program. A) Their personality traits alone.
B) Biased in favor of their client. D) Providing clear feedback to a client about their results. B) The will of their followers.
C) Limited to the scope of the assessment and their professional 545. A person who experiences both mood episodes (manic or depressive) C) The interaction between the leader's style and the characteristics of
expertise. and symptoms of schizophrenia, and has had delusions or the situation.
D) Kept confidential from the court. hallucinations for at least two weeks without a major mood episode, D) A universal set of leadership principles.
537. The developmental period characterized by the establishment of would be diagnosed with: 554. Which of the following is a limitation of a standardized test?
intimate relationships and the consolidation of a career is: A) Schizophrenia A) It allows for comparison between individuals.
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B) It can be influenced by cultural factors and may not be fair for all A) Job rotation D) Early experiences and later experiences on development.
populations. B) Team building 572. An organization's decision to downsize and lay off employees is a type
C) It is administered in a consistent manner. C) Performance appraisal of:
D) It is based on objective scoring. D) Compensation analysis A) Team building
555. A person with a specific phobia of heights is most likely to be treated 564. According to the PAP Code of Ethics, a psychologist must terminate a B) Organizational change
effectively with: professional relationship when: C) Performance appraisal
A) Psychoanalysis A) The client can no longer pay for the services. D) Employee training
B) Humanistic therapy B) It becomes reasonably clear that the client is no longer benefiting 573. A psychometrician should refuse to perform an assessment when:
C) Exposure therapy (e.g., systematic desensitization) from the service. A) The client is anxious.
D) Pharmacotherapy alone C) The psychologist feels bored with the case. B) They believe the results will be used in an unethical or inappropriate
556. A test that is administered and scored in the same way for all test- D) The client challenges the psychologist's interpretation. manner.
takers is considered: 565. The core feature of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is: C) The client asks too many questions about the test.
A) Valid A) Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks. D) The assessment is difficult to score.
B) Reliable B) A fear of specific objects or situations. 574. A person who is diagnosed with both an alcohol use disorder and post-
C) Standardized C) Excessive and uncontrollable worry about a number of events or traumatic stress disorder is considered to have:
D) Biased activities. A) A single personality disorder
557. A key developmental task during middle childhood (ages 6-12) is: D) The presence of obsessions and compulsions. B) Malingering
A) Developing a sense of autonomy. 566. An "achievement test" is designed to measure: C) Co-occurring disorders
B) Mastering academic and social skills in a school setting. A) A person's potential for learning. D) A factitious disorder
C) Forming an intimate romantic relationship. B) A person's current level of knowledge or skill in a particular area. 575. An assessment tool that is free from subjective judgment in its scoring
D) Preparing for retirement. C) A person's personality traits. is said to be:
558. A company that uses a "participative management" style would likely: D) Unconscious thoughts and feelings. A) Valid
A) Make all decisions at the top level of management. 567. A child who says "The sun is smiling at me" is demonstrating which B) Reliable
B) Encourage employee involvement in decision-making. Piagetian concept? C) Objective
C) Have a rigid, hierarchical structure. A) Conservation D) Standardized
D) Discourage communication between departments. B) Reversibility 576. The concept of "scaffolding" is most closely associated with which
559. A psychometrician is interpreting test scores for a client from a C) Animism theorist?
collectivist culture. They should be aware that the client may: D) Egocentrism A) Piaget
A) Be more likely to emphasize individual achievements. 568. In an organization, "line managers" are those who: B) Kohlberg
B) Be more reserved or modest about their abilities. A) Provide support and expert advice to other departments. C) Vygotsky
C) Respond to test items in the exact same way as someone from an B) Are directly responsible for achieving the organization's goals (e.g., D) Erikson
individualistic culture. production, sales). 577. The most critical responsibility of a psychologist when using
D) Not understand the purpose of the test. C) Work in the human resources department. assessment data is to:
560. A person who experiences a marked fear or anxiety about two or more D) Are new to the organization. A) Ensure the data is interpreted correctly and used responsibly.
of the following: using public transportation, being in open spaces, being 569. If a test has high reliability, a person's score on two different B) Share the data with as many people as possible.
in enclosed places, standing in line, or being outside of the home alone, administrations of the test should be: C) Use the data to confirm their pre-existing beliefs about the client.
may have: A) Very different D) Keep the data secret, even from the client.
A) Specific Phobia B) Very similar 578. A key feature of a "transformational leader" is their ability to:
B) Social Anxiety Disorder C) Exactly the same, with no variation A) Strictly enforce rules and procedures.
C) Agoraphobia D) Inversely correlated B) Focus on day-to-day administrative tasks.
D) Panic Disorder 570. The primary goal of psychoanalytic therapy in treating psychological C) Articulate a clear and inspiring vision for the future.
561. The final stage of Kübler-Ross's model of grief is: disorders is to: D) Use rewards and punishments to control behavior.
A) Denial A) Change maladaptive thought patterns. 579. A person who experiences obsessions, compulsions, or both, which
B) Anger B) Bring unconscious conflicts and repressed memories into conscious are time-consuming and cause significant distress, would be diagnosed
C) Bargaining awareness. with:
D) Acceptance C) Use reinforcement to shape more adaptive behaviors. A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
562. The standard error of measurement (SEM) is used to: D) Provide a supportive and empathetic environment for self- B) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
A) Calculate a test's validity coefficient. actualization. C) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
B) Create a confidence interval around an individual's obtained score. 571. The "nature versus nurture" debate is primarily about the relative D) Hoarding Disorder
C) Determine if a test is culturally biased. influence of: 580. A test can be considered _____ but not _____.
D) Analyze the factor structure of a test. A) Genetics and environment on development. A) valid; reliable
563. An organizational development technique aimed at helping team B) Parents and peers on development. B) reliable; valid
members understand and improve how they work together is: C) School and home on development. C) objective; standardized
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D) standardized; objective 590. A person who avoids occupations that involve significant interpersonal C) They are free from all measurement error.
581. The stage of life where individuals typically experience the most rapid contact due to fears of criticism, disapproval, or rejection may have D) They are easy to construct.
physical growth is: which personality disorder? 599. A person with a medical condition (e.g., asthma, heart disease) that is
A) Infancy A) Schizoid PD adversely affected by psychological factors like stress would be given
B) Middle Adulthood B) Dependent PD what type of diagnosis in the DSM-5-TR?
C) Late Adulthood C) Borderline PD A) Conversion Disorder
D) Young Adulthood D) Avoidant PD B) Somatic Symptom Disorder
582. An employee who feels they are being treated disrespectfully by their 591. The "Strange Situation" procedure was developed by Mary Ainsworth C) Psychological Factors Affecting Other Medical Conditions
manager is experiencing low: to study: D) Illness Anxiety Disorder
A) Distributive justice A) Infant attachment styles. 600. A test score is only meaningful when it is:
B) Procedural justice B) Cognitive development in toddlers. A) A high number.
C) Interactional justice C) Moral reasoning in children. B) Interpreted within a specific context (e.g., compared to a norm group,
D) Organizational justice D) Language acquisition. a criterion).
583. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is an example of what 592. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is an C) Kept secret from the client.
type of test? example of a: D) The same as the person's previous score.
A) A projective test A) Projective test 601. The ethical principle that requires psychologists to be aware of their
B) An individual intelligence test B) Structured personality inventory professional and scientific responsibilities to society is:
C) A group achievement test C) Intelligence test A) Competence
D) A personality inventory D) Aptitude test B) Integrity
584. Which of the following is a symptom of a manic episode? 593. A primary cause of failure in organizational change initiatives is: C) Professional and Scientific Responsibility to Society
A) A decreased need for sleep. A) Excessive communication from leadership. D) Respect for People's Rights and Dignity
B) A loss of interest in pleasurable activities. B) A lack of employee buy-in and resistance to change. 602. A persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that
C) Feelings of worthlessness or guilt. C) Over-planning and analysis. interferes with functioning or development is the core feature of:
D) Fatigue or loss of energy. D) Providing too much training. A) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
585. A psychologist must explain the limits of confidentiality to a client: 594. According to the cognitive perspective, psychological disorders like B) Conduct Disorder
A) Only if the client asks. anxiety are often caused by: C) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
B) At the outset of the professional relationship. A) Unconscious conflicts D) Bipolar Disorder
C) After a crisis has occurred. B) Maladaptive thought patterns and beliefs 603. The primary difference between a team and a group is that a team has:
D) Only when terminating the service. C) A lack of unconditional positive regard A) At least five members.
586. The process by which children acquire the values, beliefs, and D) A chemical imbalance in the brain B) A designated leader.
behaviors of their culture is: 595. A psychologist may break confidentiality without client consent when: C) A shared or common purpose and mutual accountability.
A) Maturation A) A family member asks for information. D) Regular meetings.
B) Socialization B) The client reports a plan to seriously harm themselves or another 604. A young child's belief that inanimate objects have lifelike qualities, such
C) Accommodation person. as thoughts and feelings, is known as:
D) Assimilation C) The psychologist wants to discuss the case with a friend. A) Egocentrism
587. The use of multiple methods and multiple sources of data in D) A news agency is covering a story related to the client. B) Centration
assessment helps to: 596. The "Big Five" personality factor that relates to being curious, C) Animism
A) Increase the reliability and validity of the conclusions. imaginative, and open to new experiences is: D) Conservation
B) Make the assessment process quicker. A) Conscientiousness 605. A test's "norms" are best described as:
C) Reduce the cost of the assessment. B) Agreeableness A) The rules for test administration.
D) Eliminate the need for professional judgment. C) Extraversion B) The ethical guidelines for test use.
588. A common challenge for a "virtual team" is: D) Openness to Experience C) A set of scores from a representative sample used for comparison.
A) Having too much face-to-face interaction. 597. A key developmental milestone for a school-aged child is developing a D) The theoretical foundation of the test.
B) Building trust and effective communication without physical sense of competence and mastery, which Erikson called: 606. An organization's formal system of task and reporting relationships that
proximity. A) Trust coordinates and motivates members is its:
C) A lack of clear goals. B) Initiative A) Culture
D) Having too many resources. C) Industry B) Strategy
589. The primary goal of a "human factors" psychologist is to: D) Identity C) Structure
A) Improve the design of systems and equipment to enhance human 598. Which of the following is a major benefit of using criterion-referenced D) Mission
performance and safety. tests? 607. An individual experiences a marked and persistent fear of a specific
B) Conduct therapy for employees. A) They show how an individual compares to others. object or situation (e.g., flying, spiders, blood) that is excessive or
C) Recruit and select new employees. B) They provide specific information about what an individual can and unreasonable. The most likely diagnosis is:
D) Develop advertising campaigns. cannot do. A) Agoraphobia
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B) Social Anxiety Disorder C) Contact the client's lawyer or their own to seek legal guidance and 624. The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula is used when calculating
C) Specific Phobia assert privilege if possible. which type of reliability?
D) Panic Disorder D) Destroy the records. A) Test-retest
608. A key developmental challenge during the prenatal period is the 616. A person with a pervasive pattern of detachment from social B) Parallel-forms
potential for harm from "teratogens," which are: relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression is C) Split-half
A) Genetic abnormalities inherited from the parents. characteristic of which personality disorder? D) Inter-rater
B) Environmental agents like viruses, drugs, and radiation that can A) Avoidant PD 625. A key difference between "organizational culture" and "organizational
cause birth defects. B) Schizoid PD climate" is that culture is _____, while climate is _____.
C) Nutritional deficiencies in the mother's diet. C) Borderline PD A) deeper and more enduring; a more temporary perception of the work
D) The normal process of cell division. D) Paranoid PD environment
609. A test developer finds that their new test of anxiety correlates highly 617. When a child learns to behave in a certain way through reinforcement B) a more temporary perception; deeper and more enduring
with an established test of anxiety, but has a very low correlation with a and punishment, this is an example of which learning theory? C) focused on individuals; focused on the organization
test of intelligence. This provides evidence for the new test's: A) Social Learning Theory D) easy to change; difficult to change
A) Content validity only. B) Operant Conditioning 626. The primary symptom of "separation anxiety disorder" in a child is:
B) Convergent and discriminant validity. C) Classical Conditioning A) A general fear of new situations.
C) Test-retest reliability. D) Cognitive Development Theory B) A developmentally inappropriate and excessive fear concerning
D) Internal consistency. 618. A major purpose of the "informed consent" process is to: separation from home or from those to whom the individual is attached.
610. The Hawthorne studies are significant in I/O psychology because they A) Protect the psychologist from lawsuits. C) A fear of being judged by peers.
demonstrated that: B) Respect the client's autonomy and right to self-determination. D) A fear of specific objects like spiders or heights.
A) Physical working conditions are the only factor that affects C) Ensure the psychologist gets paid for their services. 627. An older adult who spends time sharing their life experiences and
productivity. D) Make the assessment process seem more official. wisdom with their grandchildren is demonstrating which aspect of
B) Employees are primarily motivated by money. 619. In an organizational setting, "human capital" refers to: Erikson's theory?
C) Social factors and employee attitudes have a significant impact on A) The financial resources of the company. A) Identity crisis
productivity. B) The physical equipment and machinery. B) Intimacy
D) A strict, authoritarian management style is most effective. C) The collective skills, knowledge, and abilities of the employees. C) Generativity
611. A "raw score" on a test is: D) The company's brand reputation. D) Despair
A) A score that has been converted to a standard scale. 620. Which of the following is an ethical consideration when assessing 628. A key benefit of using a structured interview for employee selection is
B) The simple number of items scored correctly or in a certain direction. individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds? that it:
C) The percentile rank of a score. A) Ensuring the assessment tools are culturally appropriate and valid A) Allows for greater flexibility in questioning.
D) A score that is adjusted for cultural bias. for that population. B) Increases consistency and reduces bias in the evaluation of
612. A person with Schizophreniform Disorder has symptoms of B) Assuming that all individuals from a particular culture are the same. candidates.
schizophrenia that last for: C) Using the same assessment tool for everyone, regardless of C) Is more conversational and helps build rapport.
A) Less than one day. background. D) Requires less preparation from the interviewer.
B) At least one month but less than six months. D) Ignoring cultural factors to maintain objectivity. 629. A psychometrician is asked to interpret the results of a projective test
C) At least six months. 621. A delusion where an individual falsely believes that another person, that they have not been trained to use. The most ethical action is to:
D) At least one year. often of a higher status, is in love with them is known as: A) Attempt to interpret it using the manual alone.
613. The ability to use abstract reasoning to solve problems is an example A) Grandiose type B) Refuse the task and state that it is outside their area of competence.
of what type of intelligence, according to Horn and Cattell? B) Persecutory type C) Provide a general interpretation based on their intuition.
A) Crystallized intelligence C) Jealous type D) Ask a colleague for a quick summary of how to interpret it.
B) Fluid intelligence D) Erotomanic type 630. A test that produces scores that are consistent across different scorers
C) Practical intelligence 622. A child's temperament, such as being "easy," "difficult," or "slow-to- is said to have high:
D) Emotional intelligence warm-up," is considered to be: A) Test-retest reliability
614. The leadership theory that focuses on the characteristics of the leader A) A biologically based and fairly stable aspect of their personality. B) Internal consistency
themselves, such as intelligence and charisma, is known as: B) Entirely determined by parenting style. C) Inter-rater reliability
A) Trait Theory C) A temporary phase that changes weekly. D) Content validity
B) Behavioral Theory D) Unrelated to their later development. 631. The term "affect" in psychology refers to:
C) Contingency Theory 623. An ethical code for psychologists is best described as: A) An individual's long-term, pervasive emotional state.
D) Path-Goal Theory A) A set of strict laws that carry legal penalties. B) The observable expression of an individual's emotion (e.g., facial
615. A psychologist receives a subpoena for a client's records. The client B) A set of guidelines for professional conduct that promotes the welfare expression, tone of voice).
does not want the records released. The psychologist's first step should of clients and the public. C) A specific thought pattern.
be to: C) A list of suggestions that are optional to follow. D) A learned behavior.
A) Ignore the subpoena completely. D) A manual for diagnosing psychological disorders.
B) Release the records immediately to comply with the law.
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632. According to Marcia's theory, an adolescent who is actively exploring B) Bodily sensations 649. A person who shows a persistent pattern of violating societal norms
different identities but has not yet made a firm commitment is in the C) Unconscious desires and the rights of others, such as through aggression, theft, and deceit,
status of: D) Past traumatic events and is under the age of 18, would most likely be diagnosed with:
A) Diffusion 641. The ability to understand that other people have their own minds, A) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B) Foreclosure beliefs, and desires is known as: B) Conduct Disorder
C) Moratorium A) Theory of Mind C) Antisocial Personality Disorder
D) Achievement B) Egocentrism D) ADHD
633. A common source of error in a performance appraisal is the "leniency C) Conservation 650. A test is being developed to predict success in a pilot training program.
error," where a manager: D) Metacognition The most important type of validity to establish would be:
A) Rates all employees as average. 642. The process of analyzing a test item to see if it performs differently for A) Content validity
B) Rates employees more strictly than they should. different groups of people (e.g., gender, ethnicity) is called: B) Predictive validity
C) Rates employees more favorably than they should. A) Item difficulty analysis C) Face validity
D) Focuses only on the most recent behavior. B) Differential item functioning (DIF) analysis D) Discriminant validity
634. The primary limitation of using correlational research is that it: C) Factor analysis 651. The concept that development is a lifelong process that does not end
A) Cannot determine cause-and-effect relationships. D) Item discrimination analysis at adulthood is known as the:
B) Is not useful for making predictions. 643. In an organization, a "whistleblower" is someone who: A) Lifespan perspective
C) Can only be used with small sample sizes. A) Manages the company's social events. B) Traditional perspective
D) Is more expensive than experimental research. B) Exposes unethical or illegal activities within the organization. C) Freudian perspective
635. A client reveals to a psychologist a plan to commit a robbery. The C) Is responsible for employee safety training. D) Behavioral perspective
psychologist's "duty to warn" or "duty to protect": D) Conducts performance appraisals. 652. A test score is reported with a 90% confidence interval. This is an
A) Requires them to immediately report this to the police. 644. A psychologist is developing a test for use in the Philippines. The most application of which psychometric concept?
B) Does not typically apply to crimes against property, but rather to appropriate norm group would be: A) The standard error of measurement (SEM)
imminent threats of physical harm to an identifiable person. A) A large, representative sample of individuals from the Philippines. B) The validity coefficient
C) Requires them to help the client plan the robbery more safely. B) A sample of individuals from the United States. C) The item difficulty index
D) Is not a valid ethical concept in the Philippines. C) A sample of psychology students from a single university. D) The factor loading
636. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a "neurocognitive D) A small group of their own friends and family. 653. A leader who focuses on clarifying employee roles, providing rewards
disorder"? 645. A person who avoids situations where they might be the center of for meeting objectives, and managing by exception is a:
A) A clinically significant decline in cognitive function from a previous attention and fears acting in a way that might be embarrassing or A) Transformational leader
level of performance. humiliating may have: B) Transactional leader
B) A lifelong pattern of intellectual deficits. A) Agoraphobia C) Charismatic leader
C) The presence of obsessions and compulsions. B) Specific Phobia D) Laissez-faire leader
D) An intense fear of gaining weight. C) Social Anxiety Disorder 654. The ethical principle of "Justice" in psychology requires that:
637. A child who learns to be aggressive by watching aggressive cartoon D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder A) Psychologists provide services for free.
characters is demonstrating which learning principle? 646. A key challenge of "late adulthood" is: B) All individuals have fair and equal access to the benefits and
A) Operant Conditioning A) Choosing a career. contributions of psychology.
B) Classical Conditioning B) Forming an identity. C) Psychologists must be lawyers as well.
C) Observational Learning C) Maintaining physical health and adapting to changing social roles. D) Psychologists only work with individuals from their own cultural
D) Latent Learning D) Learning to read. background.
638. A company's effort to create a diverse workforce and ensure that all 647. When a psychologist uses an assessment tool, they are ethically 655. The DSM-5-TR is best described as:
employees are treated fairly and respectfully is part of: responsible for: A) A textbook on psychotherapy techniques.
A) Financial management A) The proper administration, scoring, and interpretation of the tool. B) A classification system for psychological disorders.
B) Operations management B) Guaranteeing a specific outcome for the client. C) A code of ethics for psychologists.
C) Diversity and Inclusion initiatives C) Modifying the tool to ensure the client gets a good score. D) A manual of statistical procedures.
D) Marketing D) The copyright of the test materials. 656. A test designed to measure a person's potential for acquiring a new
639. The "floor" of a test refers to: 648. The "glass cliff" is a phenomenon in I/O psychology where: skill is an:
A) The highest possible score. A) Women and minorities are more likely to be promoted to leadership A) Achievement test
B) The lowest possible score and the degree to which it can differentiate positions during times of crisis, when the risk of failure is high. B) Aptitude test
among low-ability individuals. B) Employees are unable to advance beyond a certain level in the C) Interest inventory
C) The average score. organization. D) Personality test
D) The physical location where the test is administered. C) Communication within the organization is transparent. 657. An older adult who is actively involved in their community, volunteers,
640. According to the cognitive perspective, a panic attack may be triggered D) Leaders are chosen based on their physical attractiveness. and mentors younger people is demonstrating the concept of:
by a catastrophic misinterpretation of: A) Successful aging
A) Social cues B) Disengagement
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C) Ageism B) Approximately 68% D) Diagnosing a psychological disorder.

D) Cognitive decline C) Approximately 95% 675. A major advantage of using a "structured personality inventory" (like
658. In an organization, the process of helping new employees adapt to the D) Approximately 99.7% the MMPI) over a "projective test" is that the inventory is:
social and performance aspects of their jobs is called: 667. The main purpose of a "job rotation" program is to: A) More sensitive to unconscious feelings.
A) Recruitment A) Prepare an employee for a specific promotion. B) Scored more objectively.
B) Selection B) Reduce boredom and increase an employee's range of skills by C) Quicker to administer.
C) Onboarding or socialization moving them through different jobs. D) Free from response bias.
D) Downsizing C) Evaluate an employee's performance. 676. A key challenge during the "sandwich generation" years is:
659. A psychologist must not use assessment techniques that are obsolete D) Discipline an underperforming employee. A) Learning to live independently from parents.
or not applicable for the current purpose. This falls under the ethical 668. A researcher finds that as the temperature increases, so does the sale B) Caring for both one's own children and one's aging parents.
principle of: of ice cream. This represents a: C) Choosing a career path.
A) Confidentiality A) Positive correlation D) Adjusting to the physical changes of puberty.
B) Integrity B) Negative correlation 677. A test has a standard deviation of 10 and a reliability of .84. The
C) Competence C) Zero correlation standard error of measurement (SEM) for this test would be:
D) Justice D) Causal relationship A) 8.4
660. A person who has a delusion that they are a famous historical figure is 669. A person who is socially awkward and has deficits in social B) 1.6
experiencing a: communication, along with restricted and repetitive behaviors, but has C) 4.0
A) Persecutory delusion well-developed language skills and normal intelligence, might have D) 10.0
B) Somatic delusion previously been diagnosed with: 678. An organization that has a very loose structure, with decentralized
C) Grandiose delusion A) Childhood Disintegrative Disorder authority and empowered employees working in teams, is often called
D) Nihilistic delusion B) Asperger's Syndrome an:
661. Which of the following is a primary role of a "mentor" in the workplace? C) Rett Syndrome A) Organic structure
A) To provide formal performance evaluations. D) Classic Autism B) Mechanistic structure
B) To offer guidance, support, and advice to a less experienced 670. The most important consideration when selecting a psychological test C) Hierarchical structure
employee. is its: D) Bureaucratic structure
C) To manage the employee's daily tasks. A) Cost 679. The fear of gaining weight is a central feature in which of the following
D) To determine the employee's salary. B) Length disorders?
662. The use of "Item Response Theory" (IRT) is particularly useful for: C) Popularity A) Binge-Eating Disorder
A) Developing interview questions. D) Appropriateness and psychometric properties for the specific client B) Anorexia Nervosa
B) Creating computer-adaptive tests (CATs). and purpose. C) Pica
C) Analyzing qualitative data. 671. An organization's "chain of command" refers to the: D) Rumination Disorder
D) Conducting group therapy. A) Informal communication network. 680. A test that fairly and accurately measures what it is intended to
663. A key developmental milestone in early childhood is the development B) Line of authority that extends from the top to the bottom of the measure for all individuals, regardless of their background, is
of a "theory of mind," which is the ability to: organization. considered:
A) Think logically about concrete objects. C) Number of employees a manager supervises. A) Unbiased
B) Understand that others have different mental states (beliefs, desires, D) Physical layout of the office. B) Reliable
intentions). 672. A child who can think logically but is limited to concrete, tangible reality C) Standardized
C) Form a secure attachment. is in which of Piaget's stages? D) Objective
D) Speak in full sentences. A) Sensorimotor 681. In Kohlberg's theory of moral development, the "conventional" level is
664. A psychologist who learns from a client about ongoing child abuse has B) Preoperational characterized by:
an ethical and legal obligation to: C) Concrete Operational A) A focus on self-interest and avoiding punishment.
A) Keep the information confidential to protect the client's privacy. D) Formal Operational B) A desire to uphold laws and social rules to gain approval and
B) Report the suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities. 673. The practice of "informed consent" must be a continuous process maintain order.
C) Confront the alleged abuser directly. throughout a professional relationship. This means: C) Reasoning based on abstract, universal ethical principles.
D) Wait for the client to report it themselves. A) It only needs to be obtained once at the very beginning. D) A lack of any moral reasoning.
665. The etiology of a psychological disorder refers to its: B) The psychologist should revisit and confirm consent if the nature of 682. The term "workforce planning" or "manpower planning" refers to the
A) Symptoms the service changes. process of:
B) Treatment C) The client cannot withdraw consent once it is given. A) Designing office layouts.
C) Causes and origins D) It is a written contract that cannot be altered. B) Forecasting an organization's future human resource needs.
D) Prognosis 674. Which of the following is an example of a "psychological intervention"? C) Conducting employee training programs.
666. If the scores on a test are normally distributed, what percentage of A) Administering an intelligence test. D) Appraising employee performance.
scores will fall within one standard deviation of the mean? B) Conducting a research study. 683. A psychologist is using a test that has norms from 1990. This is an
A) Approximately 50% C) Providing cognitive-behavioral therapy to a client with anxiety. ethical concern because:
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A) The test is likely too difficult. C) Telegraphic speech 700. A psychologist explains a client's assessment results to them in a clear
B) The norms may be outdated and not representative of the current D) Babbling and respectful manner. This action primarily upholds the client's right to:
population. 692. A "graphic rating scale" used for performance appraisal: A) Confidentiality
C) The test booklet may be faded. A) Ranks employees from best to worst. B) Test security
D) The test is not copyrighted. B) Lists a number of traits or dimensions and asks the rater to rate the C) Informed feedback
684. The primary goal of a "neuropsychological assessment" is to: employee on a numbered scale. D) A second opinion
A) Provide a psychiatric diagnosis. C) Requires the rater to write a narrative about the employee's 701. A psychologist finds that scores on a newly developed test of
B) Measure intelligence. performance. leadership potential are highly correlated with employees' subsequent
C) Evaluate cognitive functions like memory, attention, and executive D) Uses specific behavioral examples as anchors for the scale points. performance ratings from their managers. This provides strong
function, often in relation to brain injury or disease. 693. A test that is intended to be used for diagnostic purposes must have evidence for the test's:
D) Assess vocational interests. strong evidence of its: A) Content validity
685. A person has a specific phobia of blood-injection-injury. A unique A) Face validity B) Predictive validity
physiological response in this phobia subtype is: B) Clinical utility and validity C) Internal consistency
A) A sudden increase in heart rate and blood pressure. C) Cost-effectiveness D) Face validity
B) A brief increase in heart rate followed by a drop, which can lead to D) Popularity among practitioners 702. A key principle of the learning perspective on the etiology of anxiety
fainting. 694. The theory that suggests that aging is caused by the accumulated disorders is that phobias can be acquired through:
C) A complete lack of any physiological response. damage from oxygen molecules in the body is the: A) A chemical imbalance in the brain.
D) A feeling of euphoria. A) Cellular clock theory B) Classical conditioning and observational learning.
686. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a "bureaucracy" as B) Hormonal stress theory C) Unresolved unconscious conflicts.
described by Max Weber? C) Free-radical theory D) A genetic predisposition.
A) A flexible and informal structure. D) Disengagement theory 703. In the context of organizational change, "unfreezing" refers to the stage
B) A clear hierarchy, formal rules and procedures, and impersonality. 695. The primary difference between "Malingering" and "Factitious where:
C) Decentralized decision-making. Disorder" is: A) The change is implemented.
D) A focus on innovation and risk-taking. A) The presence of physical symptoms. B) The change is stabilized and becomes part of the new norm.
687. The "empty nest" is a challenge that occurs in which domain of B) The intentional production of symptoms. C) The need for change is recognized and the organization is prepared
development? C) The presence of a clear external incentive or goal in Malingering. for it.
A) Cognitive D) The gender of the individual. D) Employee resistance is at its highest.
B) Physical 696. The process of using "factor analysis" helps a test developer to 704. An adolescent who has not explored their identity options and is not
C) Socio-emotional and family life cycle establish which type of validity? committed to any particular path is in which of Marcia's identity
D) Moral A) Content validity statuses?
688. A test item with a difficulty index (p-value) of 0.05 is considered: B) Construct validity A) Achievement
A) Very easy C) Predictive validity B) Moratorium
B) Moderately difficult D) Concurrent validity C) Foreclosure
C) Very difficult 697. The term "organizational commitment" refers to an employee's: D) Diffusion
D) A flawed item A) Level of job performance. 705. A "percentile rank" represents:
689. The ethical principle of "beneficence and non-maleficence" means that B) Psychological attachment to the organization. A) The percentage of items a person answered correctly.
psychologists should: C) Number of years of service. B) The percentage of people in the norm group who scored at or below
A) Strive to benefit those with whom they work and take care to do no D) Salary and benefits. a particular score.
harm. 698. The research finding that children who are securely attached as infants C) The person's score on a scale of 1 to 100.
B) Be honest and truthful in their work. tend to have better social relationships as adolescents is an example of D) The standard deviation of the test scores.
C) Respect the rights and dignity of all people. the developmental principle of: 706. The primary advantage of a "functional" organizational structure is:
D) Be aware of their responsibilities to society. A) Discontinuity A) High levels of specialization and efficiency within departments.
690. An individual who has an IQ score of 65 and shows significant deficits B) Continuity and the influence of early experiences B) Excellent communication and coordination between departments.
in adaptive functioning, with an onset during the developmental period, C) The insignificance of attachment C) Flexibility and rapid response to market changes.
may be diagnosed with: D) Random development D) A strong customer focus.
A) Specific Learning Disorder 699. A person with a morbid fear of gaining weight, who engages in 707. The main difference between a "manic episode" and a "hypomanic
B) Autism Spectrum Disorder recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors episode" is the:
C) Intellectual Disability like purging, would be diagnosed with: A) Type of mood (elevated vs. irritable).
D) Communication Disorder A) Anorexia Nervosa, binge-eating/purging type B) Duration of the symptoms.
691. A child who incorrectly applies a grammatical rule to an exception, B) Bulimia Nervosa C) Severity of symptoms and the level of functional impairment.
such as saying "mouses" instead of "mice," is demonstrating: C) Binge-Eating Disorder D) Age of onset.
A) A language delay D) Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder
B) Overregularization
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708. A key challenge during the prenatal stage of development is the A) The past, the present, and the future. A) Changing the content of a test to make it easier.
mother's exposure to "teratogens." An example of a known teratogen B) Oneself, one's experiences, and the future. B) A modification in the administration of a test that does not change
is: C) Friends, family, and society. the construct being measured (e.g., extended time).
A) Folic acid D) Work, home, and social life. C) Allowing the test-taker to cheat.
B) Alcohol 717. A significant developmental task of "middle adulthood" is often: D) Providing the test-taker with the correct answers.
C) Calcium A) Forming one's initial identity. 725. In an organization, "affective commitment" is an employee's:
D) Iron B) Re-evaluating life goals and dealing with changes in physical A) Perceived obligation to stay with the organization.
709. A test developer wants to create two versions of the same test that are abilities. B) Need to stay with the organization due to the high cost of leaving.
equivalent in content and difficulty. The goal is to establish: C) Learning to walk and talk. C) Emotional attachment to and identification with the organization.
A) Test-retest reliability D) Establishing financial independence for the first time. D) Desire for a promotion.
B) Split-half reliability 718. When a test is used to assess individuals for a specific job, it is crucial 726. A client with a specific phobia of dogs is gradually exposed to pictures
C) Parallel-forms reliability that the test content is: of dogs, then a dog on a leash from a distance, and finally petting a dog.
D) Internal consistency A) As general as possible. This therapeutic technique is called:
710. The concept of "organizational justice" is concerned with: B) Directly related to the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for that A) Psychoanalysis
A) An organization's compliance with criminal law. job. B) Systematic desensitization
B) The extent to which employees perceive fairness in the workplace. C) Easy enough for all applicants to pass. C) Client-centered therapy
C) The physical safety of the work environment. D) The same as tests used for other, unrelated jobs. D) Aversion therapy
D) The organization's strategic goals. 719. The "contingency approach" to organizational design suggests that the 727. The ability to think about one's own thinking processes is known as:
711. A psychometrician is asked to provide a personality assessment for a best structure for an organization depends on: A) Metacognition
friend who is going through a divorce. This situation creates an ethical A) A universal set of principles. B) Egocentrism
problem related to: B) The personal preference of the CEO. C) Conservation
A) Test security C) Factors such as the organization's size, technology, and D) Accommodation
B) Dual relationships and maintaining objectivity. environment. 728. A manager who uses threats and punishment to ensure compliance is
C) Confidentiality D) The structure of its competitors. relying on which type of power?
D) Competence 720. A client asks for a copy of their raw psychological test data (e.g., their A) Reward power
712. A person with a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits, answers on the MMPI). The most appropriate response from the B) Referent power
marked by acute discomfort with close relationships and cognitive or psychologist is to: C) Expert power
perceptual distortions, may have which personality disorder? A) Provide the raw data immediately. D) Coercive power
A) Schizoid PD B) Refuse, as releasing raw data to unqualified individuals can be 729. A test developer finds that an item on a math test is consistently
B) Schizotypal PD misused and harmful. answered correctly more often by males than females, even though
C) Avoidant PD C) Provide the data but charge an extra fee. both groups have the same overall math ability. This item may be
D) Paranoid PD D) Provide the data along with the test manual. exhibiting:
713. The ability to mentally arrange items along a quantitative dimension, 721. A person who has been exposed to a traumatic event and now A) High reliability
such as length or weight, is called: experiences intrusive memories, avoidance of reminders, negative B) Differential item functioning (DIF)
A) Conservation alterations in mood, and hyperarousal for more than a month would be C) Good content validity
B) Seriation diagnosed with: D) A normal distribution
C) Egocentrism A) Acute Stress Disorder 730. If a psychologist discovers they have made a significant error in scoring
D) Animism B) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder a test after a report has been sent, they are ethically obligated to:
714. A key difference between "Human Resource Management" (HRM) and C) Adjustment Disorder A) Ignore the error to avoid causing problems.
"Organizational Development" (OD) is that: D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder B) Take reasonable steps to correct the error, such as notifying the
A) HRM focuses on managing individuals and HR systems, while OD 722. The term "gene-environment interaction" means that: client and relevant parties.
focuses on system-wide change and improvement. A) Genes alone determine an individual's developmental outcome. C) Blame the error on the test publisher.
B) HRM is strategic, while OD is administrative. B) The environment alone determines an individual's developmental D) Wait and see if the client notices the error.
C) HRM is only for large organizations. outcome. 731. A person experiences numerous periods with hypomanic symptoms
D) OD is primarily concerned with recruitment and selection. C) The influence of a gene on a trait can be affected by the environment, and periods with depressive symptoms for at least two years, but the
715. The ethical principle of "Respect for People's Rights and Dignity" and vice versa. symptoms do not meet the full criteria for a hypomanic or major
emphasizes the importance of: D) Genes and the environment are separate, unrelated forces. depressive episode. The diagnosis would be:
A) Honesty and accuracy. 723. It is unethical for a psychologist to: A) Bipolar I Disorder
B) Professional competence. A) Charge a fee for their services. B) Bipolar II Disorder
C) Social responsibility. B) Refer a client to another professional. C) Cyclothymic Disorder
D) Safeguarding privacy, confidentiality, and self-determination. C) Engage in any form of sexual relationship with a current client. D) Persistent Depressive Disorder
716. According to the cognitive model, depression is often maintained by a D) Maintain written records of their sessions. 732. A major developmental task of "young adulthood" is:
"negative triad," which includes negative views of: 724. An "assessment accommodation" refers to: A) To develop a sense of ego integrity.
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B) To form intimate, loving relationships. B) A specific pattern of facial abnormalities, growth deficits, and central B) Limited cultural bias.
C) To master basic motor skills. nervous system problems. C) Questionable reliability and validity.
D) To adjust to the physical declines of aging. C) Exceptional musical talent. D) A very structured format.
733. A key challenge in a "matrix" organizational structure is: D) An immunity to childhood diseases. 751. A key developmental milestone of adolescence is the onset of puberty,
A) A lack of employee specialization. 742. An organization's decision to implement a new company-wide software which is a process of:
B) The potential for conflict and confusion due to employees having two system is an example of: A) Cognitive maturation
managers. A) A personnel selection process. B) Physical and sexual maturation
C) The slow pace of decision-making. B) An organizational change. C) Emotional regulation
D) The rigidity of the structure. C) A performance appraisal system. D) Moral development
734. Which of the following is a primary right of every client in an D) A compensation strategy. 752. The "halo effect" is a rating error in performance appraisal. The
assessment context? 743. A psychologist is asked to assess an individual's "fitness for duty" for opposite error, where a rater allows one negative trait to influence the
A) The right to be treated with respect and impartiality. a high-risk job. The psychologist's duty is to provide an objective entire rating, is the:
B) The right to know the scoring key for the test. evaluation to: A) Leniency error
C) The right to an above-average score. A) The individual being assessed. B) Central tendency error
D) The right to change their score after the test. B) The referring party (the employer). C) Horns effect
735. The "diathesis-stress model" is an example of which theoretical C) The individual's family. D) Recency effect
approach to explaining psychological disorders? D) The public. 753. A test question that is understood differently by members of different
A) A purely biological approach. 744. Which of the following is a symptom of "inattention" in ADHD? cultural groups is likely:
B) A purely cognitive approach. A) Often fidgets or squirms. A) A good, challenging item.
C) An integrative approach that considers multiple factors. B) Often talks excessively. B) A culturally biased item.
D) A purely psychoanalytic approach. C) Is often easily distracted by extraneous stimuli. C) A reliable item.
736. A test that yields scores that are stable over time is considered to be: D) Often interrupts others. D) A valid item.
A) Valid 745. The Wechsler Intelligence Scales (e.g., WAIS, WISC) provide a Full- 754. According to the principle of "gene-environment correlation,"
B) Reliable Scale IQ score, which is a type of: individuals may:
C) Fair A) Raw score A) Be passive recipients of their environment.
D) Objective B) Percentile rank B) Actively seek out environments that are compatible with their genetic
737. The process by which a child fits new experiences into their existing C) Standard score (deviation IQ) predispositions.
mental frameworks (schemas) is called: D) T-score C) Be unaffected by their environment.
A) Accommodation 746. A developmental researcher who studies how children's friendships D) Have genes that are uninfluenced by their environment.
B) Assimilation change over time is focusing on which domain of development? 755. A psychotherapist who is treating a client with Obsessive-Compulsive
C) Equilibration A) Physical Disorder (OCD) uses a technique where the client is exposed to their
D) Scaffolding B) Cognitive feared stimulus (e.g., a dirty object) and prevented from performing their
738. In a "selection interview," the interviewer asks candidates to describe C) Socio-emotional compulsive ritual (e.g., handwashing). This technique is called:
how they handled specific situations in the past. This is known as a: D) Perceptual A) Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)
A) Situational interview 747. "Organizational Development" (OD) interventions are primarily aimed B) Psychoanalysis
B) Stress interview at: C) Client-centered therapy
C) Behavioral interview A) Improving organizational effectiveness and employee well-being. D) Aversion therapy
D) Unstructured interview B) Handling administrative HR tasks. 756. When a psychologist provides services to multiple people who have a
739. The most appropriate therapeutic intervention for a client with C) Disciplining underperforming employees. relationship (e.g., a couple or family), they must:
schizophrenia who is experiencing active psychosis is typically: D) Developing marketing campaigns. A) Choose one person to be their primary client.
A) Psychoanalysis 748. The PAP Code of Ethics is based on several general principles, B) Clarify at the outset their role and the limits of confidentiality for each
B) A combination of antipsychotic medication and supportive including: individual.
psychotherapy. A) Beneficence and Non-maleficence. C) Keep secrets for one family member from the others.
C) Exposure therapy. B) Financial Profitability. D) Avoid seeing families altogether.
D) Humanistic therapy alone. C) Professional Popularity. 757. A key challenge of a "flat" organizational structure is:
740. A "criterion-referenced" test is designed to: D) Legal Compliance Only. A) Slow communication.
A) Compare an individual's performance to that of others. 749. The presence of a "somatic" delusion involves a false belief about: B) A lack of employee autonomy.
B) Measure an individual's performance against a set of predetermined A) Being persecuted by others. C) The potential for an overly wide span of control for managers.
criteria or standards. B) One's own body or health (e.g., believing one's organs are rotting). D) A rigid hierarchy.
C) Assess a person's personality traits. C) Having exceptional talents or powers. 758. The concept of "object permanence" is a major developmental
D) Predict a person's future potential. D) Another person being in love with oneself. milestone achieved during which of Piaget's stages?
741. A key feature of "fetal alcohol syndrome" is the presence of: 750. A major limitation of "projective tests" is that they often have: A) Sensorimotor
A) Above-average intelligence. A) High objectivity in scoring. B) Preoperational
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C) Concrete Operational D) A cohort effect. A) One week

D) Formal Operational 767. A person who is highly suspicious of others and interprets their motives B) Two weeks
759. The validity of a test refers to: as malevolent, but does not have fixed delusions, may have which C) One month
A) Its consistency over time. personality disorder? D) Two months
B) The degree to which it is free from error. A) Schizoid PD 776. The final stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory, which occurs in late
C) The extent to which it measures what it is intended to measure. B) Schizotypal PD adulthood, is:
D) The uniformity of its administration procedures. C) Paranoid PD A) Generativity vs. Stagnation
760. A person with a pervasive pattern of violating social norms, who is D) Borderline PD B) Intimacy vs. Isolation
impulsive, aggressive, and lacks remorse for their actions, would most 768. A major purpose of performance management in an organization is to: C) Ego Integrity vs. Despair
likely be diagnosed with: A) Align individual employee goals with the organization's strategic D) Trust vs. Mistrust
A) Borderline Personality Disorder goals. 777. The most direct way to assess a test's "test-retest reliability" is to:
B) Histrionic Personality Disorder B) Process payroll. A) Correlate the scores from the two halves of the test.
C) Antisocial Personality Disorder C) Hire new employees. B) Administer the same test to the same group of people at two different
D) Narcissistic Personality Disorder D) Plan company social events. points in time and correlate the scores.
761. A researcher wants to study the development of political attitudes. 769. A psychologist is asked to provide therapy to a client they are also C) Administer two different forms of the test to the same group.
They survey a group of 20-year-olds, 30-year-olds, and 40-year-olds at assessing for a court case. This is an example of: D) Analyze the internal consistency of the items.
the same time. This is a _______ design. A) Good professional practice. 778. The "Neo-Classical" theory of organization placed a greater emphasis
A) longitudinal B) A multiple or dual relationship that could compromise objectivity. on:
B) experimental C) A requirement of the court. A) Strict hierarchical structures.
C) cross-sectional D) An ethical imperative. B) The human and social aspects of work, such as employee morale
D) sequential 770. A test can be said to have high "utility" if: and motivation.
762. A company provides training on a new software program. To evaluate A) It is very long and detailed. C) The organization's interaction with its external environment.
the "learning" level of the training according to Kirkpatrick's model, the B) It is expensive. D) A universal set of management principles.
company would measure: C) The benefits of using it outweigh the costs. 779. An assessment tool that is intended to predict future behavior is an:
A) Whether the employees enjoyed the training. D) It is easy to score, regardless of its accuracy. A) Achievement test
B) The increase in the company's profits after the training. 771. A child who can reason logically about concrete events but cannot B) Interest inventory
C) The employees' actual improvement in skill and knowledge of the grasp abstract or hypothetical concepts is in which Piagetian stage? C) Aptitude test
software. A) Sensorimotor D) Diagnostic test
D) Whether the employees use the new software on the job. B) Preoperational 780. A client with a known history of violence makes a specific, credible
763. In the DSM-5-TR, "specifiers" are used to: C) Concrete Operational threat to harm their spouse during a session. The psychologist's "duty
A) Provide a different diagnosis. D) Formal Operational to protect" requires them to:
B) Define and characterize a particular presentation of a disorder (e.g., 772. The "Big Five" personality trait of "neuroticism" is characterized by: A) Keep the information confidential at all costs.
"with anxious distress"). A) A tendency to be organized and dependable. B) Take reasonable steps to warn the potential victim and/or notify law
C) Indicate the cause of a disorder. B) A tendency to be outgoing and sociable. enforcement.
D) List the recommended medications. C) A tendency to experience negative emotions like anxiety, anger, and C) Immediately terminate therapy with the client.
764. When a test is translated from one language to another, it is crucial to: sadness. D) Discuss the threat with the client in the next session.
A) Use a literal, word-for-word translation. D) A tendency to be curious and imaginative. 781. The learning theory that emphasizes the role of cognition and
B) Ensure conceptual equivalence and then re-validate the test in the 773. The role of an "industrial" psychologist often involves: observational learning, in addition to reinforcement, is:
new language. A) Providing therapy to employees with psychological disorders. A) Classical Conditioning
C) Assume the original reliability and validity still apply. B) Focusing on personnel matters like employee selection, training, and B) Operant Conditioning
D) Only translate the instructions. performance appraisal. C) Social Learning Theory
765. The ethical principle of "Justice" implies that a psychologist should: C) Designing the physical layout of the workplace. D) Gestalt Psychology
A) Offer services for free to everyone. D) Analyzing consumer behavior. 782. The "normative" sample for a psychological test should be:
B) Recognize their own biases and not engage in or condone unjust 774. A client has a right to understand the assessment findings. If the A) Small and convenient.
practices. psychologist writes a report in highly technical jargon that the client B) Composed only of high-achieving individuals.
C) Only work with clients from their own social class. cannot understand, they are violating the client's right to: C) Large and representative of the population for which the test is
D) Act as a legal advisor for their clients. A) Confidentiality intended.
766. A key developmental issue during the prenatal period is the timing of B) Informed feedback D) Composed only of psychology students.
exposure to a teratogen, as some periods are more critical for certain C) Test security 783. A key function of a "staff manager" (e.g., in HR or accounting) in an
aspects of development. This is known as the concept of: D) Withdraw from the assessment organization is to:
A) A critical or sensitive period. 775. The presence of a "major depressive episode" is characterized by a A) Directly oversee the production of goods or services.
B) The germinal stage. depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure (anhedonia) for at B) Provide advice, support, and service to line managers.
C) A genetic mutation. least: C) Have final authority on all strategic decisions.
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D) Manage the organization's relationship with external stakeholders. C) An environment with no competition. 801. A psychologist is asked to select a battery of tests for a comprehensive
784. The part of the brain that is crucial for forming new long-term memories D) A highly regulated environment. vocational assessment. This task primarily falls under which
and is often affected in Alzheimer's disease is the: 793. A test item reads: "Psychologists should not violate confidentiality." A competency?
A) Cerebellum "True/False" response to this item is problematic because: A) Test construction
B) Hippocampus A) The item is too long. B) Selection of Assessment Methods and Tools
C) Thalamus B) The item contains an absolute ("not"), and there are ethical C) Research and Statistics
D) Medulla exceptions to confidentiality. D) Test Administration
785. A delusion is a ______, while a compulsion is a ______. C) The item is culturally biased. 802. From a psychoanalytic perspective, the development of psychological
A) perception; behavior D) The item is a double-barreled question. disorders is often attributed to:
B) belief; behavior 794. The theory that our emotional experience is a result of our A) Maladaptive learning histories.
C) behavior; belief physiological response to a stimulus (e.g., "we are afraid because we B) Irrational cognitive schemas.
D) thought; perception run") is the: C) Unresolved conflicts from early psychosexual stages.
786. The concept of "andropause" refers to: A) Cannon-Bard Theory D) A lack of unconditional positive regard.
A) The cessation of menstruation in women. B) James-Lange Theory 803. The "classical theory" of organizations, as proposed by Taylor and
B) A gradual decline in testosterone levels in older men. C) Schachter-Singer Two-Factor Theory Fayol, emphasized:
C) The onset of puberty in boys. D) Cognitive Appraisal Theory A) The social needs of employees.
D) A developmental stage in infancy. 795. An ethical psychologist will always: B) Flexibility and adaptation.
787. A psychometrician gives a test in a noisy, poorly lit room. This can A) Guarantee a positive outcome for their clients. C) Efficiency, specialization, and a clear hierarchy.
introduce what type of error into the scores? B) Work within the bounds of their competence. D) The organization as an open system.
A) Systematic error C) Agree with their client's point of view. 804. A child who successfully navigates Erikson's "autonomy vs. shame and
B) Random error from the testing situation D) Use the most expensive assessment tools. doubt" stage develops a sense of:
C) Sampling error 796. A child who has successfully resolved Erikson's stage of "initiative vs. A) Trust
D) Interpretation error guilt" will have developed a sense of: B) Purpose
788. A major purpose of a "performance management system" is to: A) Purpose and the ability to plan and carry out activities. C) Will
A) Ensure all employees receive the same salary. B) Trust in their caregivers. D) Competence
B) Provide a basis for administrative decisions like promotions and C) Competence in their skills. 805. A "domain-referenced" test is another term for a:
raises. D) A stable personal identity. A) Norm-referenced test
C) Eliminate the need for managers. 797. An organization's "span of control" refers to: B) Criterion-referenced test
D) Handle union grievances. A) The number of levels in the hierarchy. C) Projective test
789. In which disorder does an individual experience physical or B) The number of employees a manager can effectively supervise. D) Standardized test
psychological symptoms after exposure to a traumatic or stressful C) The degree to which decision-making is centralized. 806. A key difference between a "mechanistic" and an "organic"
event, but the symptoms last for 3 days to 1 month? D) The geographical area the organization serves. organizational structure is that a mechanistic structure is _____, while
A) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder 798. A psychologist is asked to assess a client's "personality." This would an organic structure is _____.
B) Acute Stress Disorder be best accomplished using a tool like the: A) flexible; rigid
C) Adjustment Disorder A) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) B) decentralized; centralized
D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2) C) rigid and hierarchical; flexible and adaptive
790. When a test developer calculates Cronbach's alpha, they are C) Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT) D) suitable for changing environments; suitable for stable environments
assessing the test's: D) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) 807. An individual has an IQ of 115, can live independently, and has strong
A) Validity 799. A person who experiences a sudden onset of symptoms like slurred social skills, but shows a pervasive pattern of disregarding the rights of
B) Internal consistency reliability speech, paralysis, or blindness, with no identifiable medical cause, others. This person's high intelligence and adaptive functioning:
C) Test-retest reliability following a significant stressor, may have: A) Rule out the possibility of any psychological disorder.
D) Objectivity A) Illness Anxiety Disorder B) Are irrelevant to a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder.
791. A key developmental challenge in "middle childhood" is the B) Somatic Symptom Disorder C) Do not preclude a diagnosis of a personality disorder if the specific
development of peer relationships and social comparison, which heavily C) Conversion Disorder criteria are met.
influences a child's: D) Factitious Disorder D) Suggest the presence of a neurocognitive disorder.
A) Attachment style 800. A test's content validity is established by: 808. In the context of developmental psychology, a "cohort effect" refers to:
B) Self-esteem A) Correlating scores with a future criterion. A) The influence of being born in a particular historical period.
C) Motor skills B) Having experts systematically review the test content to ensure it is B) The genetic makeup of an individual.
D) Language ability representative of the domain. C) A specific developmental stage.
792. An "organic" organizational structure is more suitable for which type of C) Administering the test to the same group twice. D) The effect of a research intervention.
environment? D) Analyzing the internal structure of the test using factor analysis. 809. When a psychologist uses an assessment tool developed for an adult
A) A stable and predictable environment. population on an adolescent client, which ethical principle is most
B) A dynamic and rapidly changing environment. directly violated?
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A) Confidentiality 818. A psychologist is asked to provide a simple "pass/fail" judgment based 826. Which of the following is a primary right of a research participant,
B) Integrity on a single test score for a job application. The psychologist should be according to ethical guidelines?
C) Competence and appropriate selection of tools cautious because: A) The right to be paid for their participation.
D) Test security A) The test might be too expensive. B) The right to withdraw from the study at any time without penalty.
810. In the five-factor model of personality, "agreeableness" refers to the B) A single test score should not be the sole basis for a high-stakes C) The right to know the results of other participants.
tendency to be: decision. D) The right to have their data published.
A) Organized and dependable. C) "Pass/fail" judgments are always inaccurate. 827. A key feature of "play" in early childhood is that it:
B) Outgoing and sociable. D) The applicant might get a higher score next time. A) Is a waste of time and does not contribute to development.
C) Curious and imaginative. 819. The "human relations" movement in I/O psychology (e.g., the B) Is crucial for cognitive, social, and emotional development.
D) Compassionate, cooperative, and trustworthy. Hawthorne studies) shifted the focus from a purely mechanistic view of C) Should always be structured and led by an adult.
811. A psychometrician discovers that the scoring key they used for a batch workers to one that emphasized: D) Is only important for physical development.
of tests was incorrect. The most ethical first step is to: A) The importance of social factors, morale, and employee attitudes. 828. Which of the following is a key difference between a "group" and a
A) Ignore the error to avoid complications. B) The use of financial incentives as the only motivator. "team" in an organization?
B) Inform their supervisor and take immediate steps to re-score the tests C) The efficiency of the assembly line. A) A group has a common goal, while a team does not.
and correct any reports. D) A strict, hierarchical management style. B) A team involves individual accountability, while a group involves both
C) Delete the original scores and pretend the tests were never 820. A test developer calculates the correlation between scores on the odd- individual and mutual accountability.
administered. numbered items and the even-numbered items of a test. This is a C) A group is always larger than a team.
D) Blame the test publisher for providing a faulty key. method for assessing: D) There is no significant difference.
812. A person with a specific phobia of elevators would most likely benefit A) Test-retest reliability 829. A test manual reports that the test has a standard error of
from which therapeutic approach? B) Split-half reliability measurement (SEM) of 4. A student receives a score of 100. What is
A) Psychoanalysis to uncover the symbolic meaning of the elevator. C) Concurrent validity the 68% confidence interval for their true score?
B) Exposure therapy to gradually reduce the fear response. D) Predictive validity A) 96-104
C) Unconditional positive regard to boost self-esteem. 821. The most effective and empirically supported treatment for Obsessive- B) 92-108
D) Family therapy to address systemic issues. Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is: C) 100-104
813. The process by which an infant develops a specific, enduring A) Client-centered therapy D) 96-100
emotional bond with their caregiver is known as: B) Psychoanalytic therapy 830. Evaluating the efficacy of different psychological interventions for a
A) Socialization C) Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) specific disorder requires a psychologist to:
B) Maturation D) Humanistic therapy A) Choose the therapy they are most comfortable with.
C) Attachment 822. An adolescent who adopts a ready-made identity chosen for them by B) Consider empirical evidence from research studies.
D) Temperament their parents, without undergoing a period of exploration, is in which C) Ask the client which therapy they think would be best.
814. A "tall" organizational structure is characterized by: identity status? D) Use the newest, most popular therapeutic technique.
A) A wide span of control. A) Diffusion 831. A person who is in a constant state of apprehension and worry about
B) Few levels of management. B) Moratorium a number of different life events, and experiences symptoms like muscle
C) A narrow span of control and many hierarchical levels. C) Foreclosure tension and fatigue, may have:
D) Decentralized decision-making. D) Achievement A) Panic Disorder
815. A test is considered to have "construct validity" if: 823. A psychologist is subpoenaed to release a client's therapy notes to the B) Specific Phobia
A) Experts agree that its content is appropriate. court. The client's right to confidentiality: C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) It accurately predicts a future outcome. A) Is absolute and can never be breached. D) OCD
C) There is a strong body of evidence showing it measures the B) Is waived automatically by the subpoena. 832. A child's ability to develop a sense of right and wrong is part of their:
theoretical construct it purports to measure. C) Is not absolute and may be limited by a court order, but the A) Physical development
D) It appears valid to the test-takers. psychologist should take steps to protect the client's privacy. B) Cognitive development
816. A person who experiences a significant decline in memory and other D) Is irrelevant in legal proceedings. C) Moral development
cognitive abilities that interferes with their independence in everyday 824. The concept of "utility" in psychological testing refers to the: D) Perceptual development
activities may be diagnosed with a: A) Usefulness and practical value of a test in a specific context. 833. The process of designing jobs to be more motivating and satisfying for
A) Specific Learning Disorder B) Reliability of a test. employees is called:
B) Major Neurocognitive Disorder C) Validity of a test. A) Job analysis
C) Dissociative Disorder D) Length of a test. B) Job evaluation
D) Somatic Symptom Disorder 825. "Contingency theory" in leadership suggests that the ideal leadership C) Job design (e.g., job enrichment)
817. A key developmental task of "late adulthood" involves: style: D) Job specification
A) Choosing a career. A) Is always democratic. 834. A test is found to be a very consistent measure of a trait, but it does
B) Raising a family. B) Is always autocratic. not actually measure the trait it was designed to assess. This test is:
C) Adjusting to retirement and reflecting on one's life. C) Depends on the specific characteristics of the situation. A) Valid, but not reliable.
D) Developing an identity separate from one's parents. D) Is based solely on the leader's personality. B) Reliable, but not valid.
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C) Both valid and reliable. D) A child being exposed to a certain diet by their parents. C) Initiative
D) Neither valid nor reliable. 843. A psychologist is asked to select a test to screen for potential emotional D) Industry
835. A psychologist must not enter into a professional relationship if their and behavioral problems in children. A suitable tool might be the: 852. Which of the following is a primary right of a client in any psychological
pre-existing relationships could reasonably be expected to impair their A) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) service, including assessment?
objectivity. This is a core part of managing: B) Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment (ASEBA) A) The right to a guaranteed outcome.
A) Test security C) Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT) B) The right to be treated with dignity and respect.
B) Dual or multiple relationships D) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) C) The right to access the psychologist's personal records.
C) Client fees 844. A person who experiences a sudden, unexpected travel away from D) The right to a service that is free of charge.
D) Office administration home and an inability to recall their past, sometimes assuming a new 853. A company that promotes employees based on their performance and
836. An individual with a specific learning disorder in reading (dyslexia) has identity, may have: abilities, rather than seniority or personal connections, is using a system
difficulties primarily with: A) Dissociative Amnesia, with dissociative fugue. of:
A) Mathematical reasoning. B) Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder. A) Nepotism
B) Accurate or fluent word recognition and poor spelling and decoding C) Dissociative Identity Disorder. B) Meritocracy
abilities. D) Schizophrenia. C) Bureaucracy
C) Social interaction. 845. An organizational structure that is highly adaptive and flexible, with little D) Autocracy
D) Following instructions. formalization and decentralized decision-making, is known as an: 854. The process of making a test score meaningful by giving it context
837. A key developmental task of "adolescence" is: A) Mechanistic structure (e.g., comparing it to a norm group) is called:
A) Developing a sense of basic trust. B) Organic structure A) Test administration
B) Achieving a stable personal identity. C) Bureaucratic structure B) Scoring
C) Starting a family. D) Hierarchical structure C) Interpretation
D) Adjusting to retirement. 846. The ethical principle of "competence" requires that a psychometrician: D) Item writing
838. A test item that is phrased in a complex or ambiguous way threatens A) Is friendly and personable. 855. A person with a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration,
the test's: B) Has the necessary knowledge, skills, and training to perform their and a lack of empathy is exhibiting signs of which personality disorder?
A) Reliability professional duties. A) Borderline PD
B) Validity C) Charges the lowest fees. B) Histrionic PD
C) Standardization D) Has a Ph.D. in psychology. C) Narcissistic PD
D) Norms 847. A child in the "preoperational" stage is often unable to understand that D) Dependent PD
839. In an organization, the term "decentralization" refers to the degree to a sibling has their own distinct point of view. This is an example of: 856. Vygotsky's sociocultural theory emphasizes the role of _____ in
which: A) Conservation cognitive development.
A) Decision-making authority is pushed down to lower levels of the B) Egocentrism A) individual discovery
organization. C) Object permanence B) genetic pre-programming
B) All decisions are made by top management. D) Abstract thought C) social interaction and language
C) The organization is physically spread out. 848. An organizational culture that is focused on competition, achievement, D) reinforcement and punishment
D) The organization has a tall hierarchical structure. and getting the job done is known as a: 857. An organization's "chain of command" is violated when:
840. A primary goal of a "neuropsychological assessment" is to: A) Clan culture A) An employee receives conflicting orders from two different
A) Diagnose personality disorders. B) Adhocracy culture managers.
B) Measure a person's general intelligence (IQ). C) Market culture B) A manager supervises too many employees.
C) Evaluate the relationship between brain function and behavior, often D) Hierarchy culture C) An employee communicates directly with a manager several levels
following an injury. 849. Evaluating the appropriateness of the statistical methods used in a above them, bypassing their immediate supervisor.
D) Assess a person's interests for career counseling. test's validation study is a key part of: D) Decision-making is decentralized.
841. Which of the following would be an appropriate "accommodation" for a A) Administering the test. 858. The standard error of measurement (SEM) is directly related to a test's:
test-taker with a documented visual impairment? B) Critically evaluating the test's psychometric properties. A) Validity
A) Providing the test in a large-print format. C) Scoring the test. B) Reliability
B) Answering the test items for the person. D) Providing feedback to the client. C) Fairness
C) Removing all difficult items from the test. 850. The most empirically supported treatment for specific phobias involves: D) Length
D) Allowing the person to take the test home. A) Long-term psychoanalysis. 859. The primary goal when diagnosing a psychological disorder is to:
842. The "gene-environment correlation" concept suggests that our genes B) Gradual exposure to the feared object or situation. A) Label the person.
can influence the environments we are exposed to. An example of an C) Medication alone. B) Provide a basis for prognosis and treatment planning.
"active" correlation is: D) Dream interpretation. C) Justify medication.
A) A child being raised by musically talented parents in a musical home. 851. A key developmental task of "middle childhood" (around ages 6-12) D) Fulfill insurance requirements.
B) A sociable child eliciting more positive social responses from others. according to Erikson is to develop a sense of: 860. A psychologist is asked to recommend an assessment tool for a client
C) An artistically inclined adolescent seeking out art classes and A) Trust with limited English proficiency. The psychologist should:
museums. B) Autonomy
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A) Use a standard English-language test and estimate the client's B) All employees should work towards a common goal. 877. The ability to create a new idea or a novel solution to a problem is an
answers. C) All decisions should be made by one person. aspect of:
B) Search for a test that has been properly translated and validated for D) An organization should have only one mission. A) Crystallized intelligence
the client's language group. 869. If a test's scores are positively skewed, the "tail" of the distribution B) Creative intelligence
C) Refuse to assess the client. points to the: C) Practical intelligence
D) Use a projective test, as they are culture-free. A) Left D) Analytical intelligence
861. A challenge faced during "late adulthood" is the "disengagement B) Right 878. A "mechanistic" organizational structure is likely to be effective in what
theory," which suggests that older adults: C) Center type of environment?
A) Should become more socially active. D) Top A) A dynamic and uncertain environment.
B) Naturally withdraw from social roles and relationships. 870. The primary purpose of the PAP Code of Ethics is to: B) A stable and predictable environment.
C) Experience a second adolescence. A) Provide a basis for suing psychologists. C) A highly competitive environment.
D) Have a stronger desire for career advancement. B) Guide professionals in making sound ethical decisions. D) An innovative environment.
862. Which of the following is a key competency of an I/O psychologist C) List the fees psychologists should charge. 879. A psychologist is using a test battery. "Test battery" refers to:
involved in "personnel psychology"? D) Describe different types of psychological tests. A) A single, very long test.
A) Designing organizational structures. 871. A person who experiences recurrent pulling out of their own hair, B) A group of selected tests and assessment procedures used together.
B) Facilitating team-building exercises. resulting in hair loss, has: C) A method for storing test materials.
C) Developing valid employee selection systems. A) Excoriation Disorder D) The process of scoring a test.
D) Analyzing consumer behavior. B) Trichotillomania 880. An ethical psychologist should terminate a therapeutic relationship
863. A test is found to be highly correlated with an important real-world C) Hoarding Disorder when:
outcome, such as job performance. This demonstrates high: D) Body Dysmorphic Disorder A) The client disagrees with them.
A) Face validity 872. A key developmental task for a toddler is achieving a sense of B) The psychologist is moving to a new office.
B) Internal consistency independence and self-control, which Erikson termed: C) The client is no longer benefiting from the therapy.
C) Criterion-related validity A) Trust vs. Mistrust D) The client misses one appointment.
D) Content validity B) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt 881. The term "geropsychology" refers to the field of psychology that
864. The most appropriate therapeutic intervention for borderline C) Initiative vs. Guilt focuses on:
personality disorder, which has strong empirical support, is: D) Industry vs. Inferiority A) Children and adolescents.
A) Classical psychoanalysis 873. A test that uses ambiguous stimuli, such as inkblots, to assess a B) The workplace.
B) Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) person's underlying personality dynamics is a: C) The mental and physical health of older adults.
C) Aversion therapy A) Structured inventory D) The development of psychological tests.
D) Gestalt therapy B) Projective test 882. A company evaluates the success of a training program by measuring
865. The use of "computer-adaptive testing" (CAT) allows for: C) Aptitude test the financial return on investment (ROI). This corresponds to which level
A) A test to be administered without a proctor. D) Achievement test of Kirkpatrick's model?
B) A more efficient assessment by tailoring the difficulty of items to the 874. In an organization, the process of providing ongoing feedback and A) Reaction
test-taker's ability level. setting goals to guide employee performance is called: B) Learning
C) The elimination of all measurement error. A) Recruitment C) Behavior
D) A format that is easier for older adults. B) Performance management D) Results
866. A child who can understand that a clay ball still has the same amount C) Strategic planning 883. An item has a p-value (difficulty index) of .95. This means the item is:
of clay when it is rolled into a sausage shape has mastered the concept D) Downsizing A) Very difficult.
of: 875. A psychologist is developing a new test of anxiety. To establish B) Very easy.
A) Egocentrism "discriminant validity," they should show that their test has a low C) Moderately difficult.
B) Conservation correlation with a measure of: D) A poor item.
C) Object permanence A) Depression 884. A key symptom of "panic disorder" is:
D) Abstract reasoning B) Panic attacks A) Chronic, free-floating anxiety.
867. A person who is overly preoccupied with details, rules, and order, to C) Social phobia B) A fear of specific objects.
the extent that it impairs their efficiency and relationships, may have D) Artistic ability C) Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks and worry about future attacks.
which personality disorder? 876. A person who is an adult has a history of Conduct Disorder before age D) The presence of obsessions.
A) OCD 15 and now shows a pervasive pattern of disregard for the rights of 885. The "Flynn effect" refers to the observed trend of:
B) OCPD others. The diagnosis would be: A) IQ scores decreasing over generations.
C) Narcissistic PD A) Oppositional Defiant Disorder B) IQ scores increasing over generations.
D) Avoidant PD B) Borderline Personality Disorder C) Personality traits remaining stable over the lifespan.
868. The "unity of command" principle in classical organizational theory C) Antisocial Personality Disorder D) The unreliability of psychological tests.
states that: D) Narcissistic Personality Disorder 886. The process of modifying one's existing schemas to incorporate new
A) An employee should have only one direct supervisor. information is called:
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A) Assimilation C) It defines all psychological disorders. C) Narcissistic Personality Disorder

B) Accommodation D) It establishes the Department of Health. D) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C) Equilibration 895. The "Standard Error of the Mean" is a measure of: 903. An organizational culture that is internally focused, with a strong
D) Centration A) The variability of a single score. emphasis on flexibility, participation, and teamwork, is best described
887. The use of "assessment centers" with simulations and in-basket B) The variability of sample means around the true population mean. as a:
exercises is a common method for: C) The reliability of a test. A) Market culture
A) Evaluating entry-level employees. D) The validity of a test. B) Hierarchy culture
B) Selecting and developing managers. 896. A child who is able to understand that their mother is still their mother C) Clan culture
C) Conducting therapy. even when she is dressed in a costume is demonstrating an early form D) Adhocracy culture
D) Measuring employee satisfaction. of: 904. The "visual cliff" experiment was designed to study the development of
888. A psychologist using a test must be knowledgeable about its A) Identity constancy what in infants?
psychometric properties, including its reliability, validity, and norms. B) Egocentrism A) Object permanence
This is a core component of the ethical principle of: C) Conservation B) Attachment
A) Confidentiality D) Object permanence C) Depth perception
B) Competence 897. A key difference between "training" and "education" is that training is D) Language
C) Integrity typically more focused on _____, while education is _____. 905. A primary advantage of using "Item Response Theory" (IRT) over
D) Justice A) specific job skills; broader knowledge "Classical Test Theory" (CTT) is that IRT:
889. The primary goal of "personnel selection" is to: B) theoretical concepts; practical skills A) Is less complex mathematically.
A) Hire as many people as possible. C) long-term growth; immediate needs B) Allows for the creation of computer-adaptive tests.
B) Identify the candidates who have the best potential to perform well in D) managers; non-managers C) Does not require a normative sample.
a specific job. 898. Which of the following is an example of an "ethical dilemma"? D) Focuses only on the total score.
C) Ensure everyone who applies gets an interview. A) A client paying for services on time. 906. The process of evaluating a training program by measuring the degree
D) Reduce the cost of hiring. B) A psychologist being asked by a client's lawyer and the client's to which trainees apply their new skills and knowledge on the job is
890. An individual who is preoccupied with a perceived physical defect that spouse for confidential information, with the client only consenting to assessing which level of Kirkpatrick's model?
is minor or unobservable to others, and performs repetitive behaviors release it to the lawyer. A) Reaction
like mirror checking, may have: C) A psychologist attending a professional conference. B) Learning
A) Anorexia Nervosa D) A psychologist using a well-validated test for its intended purpose. C) Behavior
B) Illness Anxiety Disorder 899. A person with a pervasive pattern of emotional instability, intense and D) Results
C) Body Dysmorphic Disorder unstable relationships, and frantic efforts to avoid abandonment may 907. According to the DSM-5-TR, which of the following is a key diagnostic
D) Somatic Symptom Disorder have which personality disorder? criterion for "intellectual disability"?
891. The period of life that marks the end of menstruation and a woman's A) Narcissistic PD A) Deficits in intellectual functions, such as reasoning and problem-
reproductive capacity is known as: B) Borderline PD solving.
A) Andropause C) Avoidant PD B) Deficits in adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical
B) Menopause D) Dependent PD domains.
C) Puberty 900. A test is found to have a reliability coefficient of .50. This indicates that C) Onset of these deficits during the developmental period.
D) The climacteric the test: D) All of the above.
892. When scoring a projective test like the Rorschach, the psychologist's A) Has a high degree of reliability. 908. A key developmental task of a school-aged child (6-12 years) is to
interpretation can be subjective. This subjectivity can threaten the test's: B) Has a moderate degree of reliability. develop social comparison skills. This process heavily influences their:
A) Standardization C) Has a low degree of reliability and may not be suitable for individual A) Motor coordination
B) Reliability and validity decision-making. B) Self-concept and self-esteem
C) Administration procedure D) Is completely invalid. C) Attachment to parents
D) Face validity 901. When a test developer analyzes the extent to which their test scores D) Language syntax
893. The theory that leadership is a set of behaviors that can be learned, correlate with other measures of the same theoretical construct, they 909. A psychologist is asked to provide assessment results to an insurance
such as being "task-oriented" or "relationship-oriented," is known as: are primarily gathering evidence of: company. The psychologist must:
A) Trait Theory A) Content validity A) Send all records immediately.
B) Behavioral Theory B) Construct validity B) Obtain a signed release of information from the client specifying what
C) Contingency Theory C) Face validity can be shared.
D) Path-Goal Theory D) Internal reliability C) Refuse all such requests on principle.
894. A key provision of the Philippine Psychology Act of 2009 (RA 10029) 902. An individual with a history of recurrent arrests, deceitfulness, D) Provide a verbal summary over the phone.
is that: impulsivity, and a lack of remorse for harming others would likely meet 910. The leadership theory that suggests that leaders develop different
A) It regulates the practice of psychology and psychometrics in the the criteria for: kinds of relationships with different subordinates (an "in-group" and an
Philippines. A) Borderline Personality Disorder "out-group") is:
B) It mandates mental health services in all schools. B) Antisocial Personality Disorder A) Path-Goal Theory
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B) Fiedler's Contingency Theory 919. A "transformational leader" is one who: 927. A person who believes that external events have a special, personal
C) Leader-Member Exchange (LMX) Theory A) Focuses on rewarding good performance and punishing poor meaning (e.g., believing that a news story is a secret message to them)
D) Trait Theory performance. is experiencing what type of delusion?
911. A test item has a difficulty index (p-value) of 0.50. This indicates the B) Inspires and motivates followers to transcend their self-interests for A) Persecutory
item is: the good of the organization. B) Grandiose
A) Very easy C) Adopts a hands-off approach to management. C) Somatic
B) Very difficult D) Relies on their formal authority to get things done. D) Referential
C) Moderate in difficulty 920. A psychologist is asked to evaluate a test's manual. A critical piece of 928. The concept of a "midlife crisis" is a developmental challenge primarily
D) Flawed information to look for is: associated with which domain?
912. The cognitive model of psychopathology suggests that psychological A) The cost of the test booklet. A) Physical
disorders primarily stem from: B) The author's biography. B) Cognitive
A) Dysfunctional thinking patterns and beliefs. C) Detailed information on the test's reliability, validity, and normative C) Socio-emotional
B) Unconscious childhood conflicts. sample. D) Moral
C) Biological imbalances. D) Marketing testimonials from other users. 929. The process of analyzing the relationship between test items and the
D) A lack of self-actualization. 921. An individual with a pervasive pattern of perfectionism that interferes total test score to see how well each item contributes to the overall
913. An elderly individual looking back on their life with a sense of bitterness with task completion, who is excessively devoted to work and reluctant measurement is called:
and regret is experiencing what Erikson called: to delegate, may have which personality disorder? A) Item difficulty analysis
A) Stagnation A) Narcissistic PD B) Item discrimination analysis
B) Isolation B) Avoidant PD C) Test-retest analysis
C) Despair C) Obsessive-Compulsive PD D) Norming
D) Role confusion D) Dependent PD 930. A key challenge for "virtual teams" that communicate primarily through
914. An organization that has a very flexible, adaptive structure with 922. The ability of a child to understand that a set of objects remains the technology is:
decentralized authority and low formalization is best described as: same in number even when their spatial arrangement is changed is A) Finding a physical meeting space.
A) Mechanistic called: B) Establishing trust and clear communication channels.
B) Bureaucratic A) Conservation of number C) Having too many resources.
C) Organic B) Conservation of mass D) A lack of clear goals.
D) Hierarchical C) Conservation of volume 931. A psychologist is asked to assess a child for a learning disability. An
915. A test is considered "fair" if it: D) Object permanence appropriate first step would be to:
A) Is easy for all test-takers. 923. In the ethical decision-making process, a psychologist's first step A) Administer a personality test.
B) Does not provide an advantage or disadvantage to any particular should be to: B) Administer a battery of tests including measures of intelligence and
group of test-takers for reasons unrelated to the construct being A) Consult with a lawyer. academic achievement.
measured. B) Identify the problem and the potential ethical issues involved. C) Interview the child's friends.
C) Has a low reliability coefficient. C) Choose a course of action immediately. D) Provide a diagnosis based on the parent's report alone.
D) Is very short. D) Document the decision. 932. A person with a history of unstable relationships, impulsivity, and
916. The COVID-19 pandemic significantly impacted the implementation of 924. A test that is designed to measure an individual's potential to succeed frantic efforts to avoid abandonment is showing symptoms of:
RA 11036 (The Mental Health Act) in the Philippines by: in a future endeavor is called an: A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
A) Decreasing the need for mental health services. A) Achievement test B) Borderline Personality Disorder
B) Increasing challenges related to access to care, stigma, and B) Aptitude test C) Avoidant Personality Disorder
economic stress. C) Personality test D) Schizoid Personality Disorder
C) Making all mental health services free. D) Diagnostic test 933. Which parenting style is characterized by being demanding and
D) Eliminating all mental health issues. 925. In an organization, "group cohesion" refers to: responsive, setting clear rules but also encouraging discussion?
917. A key finding from Harry Harlow's experiments with rhesus monkeys A) The degree to which group members are attracted to each other and A) Authoritarian
was that: motivated to stay in the group. B) Permissive
A) Food is the primary basis for attachment. B) The level of conflict within the group. C) Uninvolved
B) Contact comfort and security are more important than food for C) The size of the group. D) Authoritative
attachment. D) The formal structure of the group. 934. "Organizational culture" is best described as:
C) Monkeys do not form attachments. 926. The primary role of the Professional Regulatory Board of Psychology A) The formal rules and policies of an organization.
D) Attachment is purely a learned behavior. in the Philippines is to: B) The shared values, beliefs, and assumptions that guide behavior
918. Which of the following is an example of an "objective" personality test? A) Provide therapy to the public. within an organization.
A) The Rorschach Inkblot Test B) Regulate the professional practice of psychology and psychometrics. C) The structure of the organization as shown on an organizational
B) The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) C) Publish psychological research. chart.
C) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2) D) Market psychological tests. D) The strategic goals of the organization.
D) The House-Tree-Person drawing test 935. The concept of "test utility" asks the question:
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A) Is the test reliable? D) Office management. B) Cognitive development

B) Is the test valid? 944. A key purpose of a "job analysis" is to: C) Infant attachment quality
C) Does using this test lead to better outcomes and decisions than not A) Determine the appropriate salary for a position. D) Language acquisition
using it? B) Provide the foundational information for writing a job description and 953. When a test is given to a large group of people at the same time, it is
D) Is the test easy to score? job specification. called:
936. Evaluating the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on the mental health C) Appraise the performance of the current job holder. A) An individual administration
of Filipinos is a competency that falls under which area of the D) Design a new organizational structure. B) A group administration
psychometrician licensure exam? 945. A test's "ceiling" is reached when: C) A projective administration
A) Developmental Psychology A) The test is too difficult for most test-takers. D) An informal administration
B) Industrial-Organizational Psychology B) The test is too easy, and it cannot differentiate among high-scoring 954. The process by which an organization attracts, selects, and retains
C) Abnormal Psychology individuals. employees is known as:
D) Psychological Assessment C) The test has perfect reliability. A) Organizational development
937. The "nature-nurture" issue in development is best understood today D) The scores are normally distributed. B) Performance management
as: 946. A person with a history of mood swings that are not severe enough to C) Staffing
A) A debate that has been resolved in favor of nature. be a full manic or major depressive episode, but are chronic and D) Compensation
B) A debate that has been resolved in favor of nurture. persistent, may have: 955. It is unethical for a psychologist to release a client's raw test data to:
C) An interaction, where nature and nurture mutually influence each A) Bipolar I Disorder A) The client themselves, upon proper request.
other. B) Bipolar II Disorder B) Another qualified psychologist, with client consent.
D) Two completely separate developmental pathways. C) Cyclothymic Disorder C) An unqualified person, as it may be misused.
938. When a test developer finds that their test has a low correlation with a D) Persistent Depressive Disorder D) The court, when ordered by a judge.
measure of a different, unrelated construct, they have evidence for: 947. In Vygotsky's theory, "private speech" is thought to be: 956. The theory that explains the development of psychological disorders
A) Convergent validity A) A sign of cognitive immaturity. as a result of the interplay between genetic vulnerability and life
B) Discriminant validity B) A tool that children use to guide their own thinking and behavior. experiences is the:
C) Content validity C) A form of communication with imaginary friends. A) Psychoanalytic model
D) Predictive validity D) A symptom of a psychological disorder. B) Behavioral model
939. An organization's decision to restructure its departments to better 948. A client has the right to a clear and understandable explanation of their C) Cognitive model
serve customers is a form of: assessment results. This is the right to: D) Diathesis-stress model
A) Personnel selection A) Informed consent 957. A child's ability to understand that superficial changes in an object's
B) Performance appraisal B) Confidentiality appearance do not change its fundamental properties is called:
C) Organizational change C) Competent service A) Egocentrism
D) Employee training D) Informed feedback B) Centration
940. A primary goal of ethical guidelines in psychological assessment is to: 949. The leadership style where the leader provides little to no direction and C) Conservation
A) Protect the client from harm. gives the group complete freedom is: D) Irreversibility
B) Ensure the psychologist makes a profit. A) Autocratic 958. A test item that is more likely to be answered correctly by individuals
C) Make testing more difficult. B) Democratic from a specific cultural background, despite having the same underlying
D) Promote the use of specific tests. C) Laissez-faire ability as other groups, is a:
941. An individual has a lifelong pattern of being socially inhibited and D) Transformational A) Reliable item
feeling inadequate, leading them to avoid social situations and 950. Which of the following is an example of an "unstructured" assessment B) Biased item
occupations with interpersonal contact. This describes: technique? C) Valid item
A) Schizoid Personality Disorder A) A multiple-choice exam. D) Difficult item
B) Dependent Personality Disorder B) A true-false inventory. 959. A "self-managing team" is one that:
C) Avoidant Personality Disorder C) An interview where the questions are flexible and responsive to the A) Has a designated, external leader.
D) Paranoid Personality Disorder client's answers. B) Is responsible for managing its own tasks, assignments, and
942. Which research design is most susceptible to "cohort effects"? D) A Likert-scale questionnaire. performance.
A) Longitudinal 951. A person who experiences significant distress due to a marked C) Lacks clear goals.
B) Experimental incongruence between their experienced gender and their assigned D) Meets infrequently.
C) Cross-sectional gender may be diagnosed with: 960. The primary purpose of a "clinical interview" in psychological
D) Case study A) A paraphilic disorder assessment is to:
943. A psychometrician must not use a client's assessment results in a B) A sexual dysfunction A) Obtain a definitive diagnosis.
manner that is discriminatory or harmful. This is a core component of: C) Gender Dysphoria B) Gather a wide range of information about the client's history,
A) Responsible and ethical practice. D) A personality disorder symptoms, and functioning.
B) Test construction. 952. The "Strange Situation" is a research paradigm used to assess: C) Administer a standardized test.
C) Statistical analysis. A) Moral reasoning D) Provide therapy to the client.
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961. The process of analyzing a job to determine its value to the D) Set financial targets. D) Not a useful measure of central tendency.
organization, often for setting salary levels, is: 970. The "duty to protect" is an ethical principle that may require a 979. When an individual's symptoms meet the criteria for more than one
A) Job analysis psychologist to breach confidentiality if: disorder, this is referred to as:
B) Job design A) A client is feeling sad. A) Comorbidity
C) Job evaluation B) A client makes a credible threat to harm an identifiable third party. B) A differential diagnosis
D) Job specification C) A client's spouse requests information. C) A misdiagnosis
962. A key developmental milestone of infancy is the emergence of a "social D) A client is failing a course. D) A syndrome
smile," which is a sign of: 971. A person who experiences recurrent episodes of eating large amounts 980. The primary purpose of "informed consent" is to:
A) Cognitive development of food, followed by compensatory behaviors like laxative abuse, and A) Ensure payment for services.
B) Physical development has a normal body weight, would likely be diagnosed with: B) Protect the psychologist from liability.
C) Socio-emotional development A) Anorexia Nervosa C) Respect the client's autonomy by providing them with information to
D) Moral development B) Bulimia Nervosa make a knowledgeable decision.
963. A psychologist is asked to select a test for a purpose for which the test C) Binge-Eating Disorder D) Make the assessment process seem more formal.
has no documented validity. The ethical response is to: D) Pica 981. A key developmental milestone of "middle childhood" is the ability to
A) Use the test but note its limitations. 972. The use of "computer-adaptive testing" is based on which engage in:
B) Refuse to use the test for that purpose or select a more appropriate psychometric framework? A) Abstract hypothetical reasoning.
tool. A) Classical Test Theory (CTT) B) Logical thought about concrete events.
C) Modify the test to make it more valid. B) Item Response Theory (IRT) C) Sensorimotor coordination.
D) Use the test because it is popular. C) Generalizability Theory D) Egocentric thinking.
964. An individual who is detached from social relationships and shows a D) Factor Analysis 982. A "toxic" organizational culture is one that is characterized by:
very narrow range of emotions in interpersonal settings may have which 973. A key challenge of adolescence is navigating the balance between A) High levels of trust and collaboration.
personality disorder? autonomy and: B) Conflict, fear, and unethical behavior.
A) Borderline PD A) Attachment to caregivers. C) Open communication and transparency.
B) Avoidant PD B) Motor skill development. D) A strong focus on employee well-being.
C) Schizoid PD C) Language acquisition. 983. A test is found to have very high internal consistency but low test-retest
D) Dependent PD D) Cognitive decline. reliability. This could mean that:
965. A major advantage of a "longitudinal" research design is that it: 974. A "behavioral interview" question would most likely be phrased as: A) The test is measuring a stable trait.
A) Is quick and inexpensive. A) "What would you do if...?" B) The test is measuring a state or mood that fluctuates over time.
B) Can track the development of individuals over time. B) "Tell me about a time when you..." C) The test is perfectly valid.
C) Is free from cohort effects. C) "What are your greatest weaknesses?" D) The test is free from all error.
D) Has a low rate of participant attrition. D) "Where do you see yourself in five years?" 984. The primary goal of "exposure and response prevention" (ERP) for
966. "Team efficacy" refers to a team's: 975. A psychologist must not misrepresent their qualifications, services, or OCD is to:
A) Size research findings. This is the ethical principle of: A) Uncover the unconscious meaning of the compulsions.
B) Level of conflict A) Competence B) Help the client learn to tolerate their anxiety without performing the
C) Shared belief in its collective ability to succeed. B) Confidentiality compulsive ritual.
D) Formal structure. C) Integrity C) Provide a supportive environment.
967. A test has a mean of 100, a standard deviation of 15, and a reliability D) Justice D) Use medication to stop the thoughts.
of .91. What is the standard error of measurement (SEM)? 976. The concept of "ageism" refers to: 985. The final decision to release a client's confidential information should
A) 15 A) The study of the elderly. be made:
B) 9.1 B) The physical process of aging. A) By the psychologist alone.
C) 13.65 C) Prejudice and discrimination directed against individuals based on B) With the client's informed consent, or as compelled by law.
D) 4.5 their age. C) By the client's family.
968. According to the "information processing" approach to cognitive D) A normal developmental stage. D) By the person requesting the information.
development, the mind is often compared to a: 977. The "Openness to Experience" trait in the Big Five model is associated 986. "Fluid intelligence" generally refers to abilities such as problem-solving
A) Muscle with: and abstract reasoning, which tend to _____ in late adulthood.
B) Computer A) Being organized and dependable. A) increase
C) Blank slate B) Being sociable and assertive. B) decline
D) Garden C) Being cooperative and trustworthy. C) remain perfectly stable
969. A primary goal of an "OD intervention" is to: D) Being imaginative, curious, and creative. D) fluctuate randomly
A) Manage system-wide change and improve organizational 978. In a "positively skewed" distribution of scores, the mean is typically: 987. A key function of "Human Resource Development" (HRD) is:
effectiveness. A) Lower than the median. A) Administering payroll.
B) Discipline individual employees. B) Higher than the median. B) Employee training and career development.
C) Handle day-to-day administrative tasks. C) The same as the median. C) Recruiting new hires.
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D) Managing labor relations. 997. A key ethical obligation for a psychologist is to engage in "lifelong
988. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a "projective test"? learning" or "continuing professional development" in order to:
A) It is scored objectively. A) Maintain and enhance their competence.
B) It presents ambiguous stimuli to elicit responses reflecting underlying B) Increase their fees.
dynamics. C) Network with other professionals.
C) It has strong reliability and validity. D) Fulfill a hobby.
D) It is a direct measure of behavior. 998. The research method that can best establish a cause-and-effect
989. The concept of "diathesis" in the diathesis-stress model refers to: relationship is the:
A) A stressful life event. A) Case study
B) A pre-existing vulnerability or predisposition. B) Correlational method
C) A learned behavior. C) Experimental method
D) A cognitive distortion. D) Naturalistic observation
990. A test that is used to sort individuals into distinct groups (e.g., 999. In an organization, "employee morale" refers to:
"depressed" vs. "not depressed") is being used for: A) The overall attitude, satisfaction, and outlook of employees.
A) Prediction B) The number of employees in the company.
B) Classification C) The company's profit margin.
C) Description D) The physical safety of the workplace.
D) Research 1000. An individual who has an exaggerated sense of self-importance,
991. The period of development from birth to about two years of age is requires constant admiration, and lacks empathy for others is exhibiting
known as: the core features of:
A) Early childhood A) Dependent Personality Disorder
B) Infancy B) Borderline Personality Disorder
C) Middle childhood C) Avoidant Personality Disorder
D) Adolescence D) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
992. "Job enlargement" involves:
A) Increasing the number of different tasks an employee performs.
B) Giving an employee more responsibility and control over their work.
C) Promoting an employee to a higher level.
D) Moving an employee from one job to another.
993. A psychologist is asked to use a specific test by an employer, but the
psychologist knows the test is not appropriate for the intended purpose.
The psychologist should:
A) Use the test as requested to please the employer.
B) Refuse to use the inappropriate test and explain the reasons,
suggesting a more suitable alternative.
C) Use the test but change the scores.
D) Modify the test to fit the purpose.
994. The presence of at least one "manic episode" is required for a
diagnosis of:
A) Bipolar I Disorder
B) Bipolar II Disorder
C) Cyclothymic Disorder
D) Major Depressive Disorder
995. The primary purpose of a "normative sample" is to:
A) Provide a standard of comparison for individual test scores.
B) Ensure a test is perfectly reliable.
C) Eliminate all cultural bias.
D) Make a test more difficult.
996. The "authoritarian" parenting style is characterized by:
A) High demands and high responsiveness.
B) Low demands and high responsiveness.
C) High demands and low responsiveness.
D) Low demands and low responsiveness.
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