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Sainik School Rewa (MP) : Mid Term Examination 2025-26 Subject - Social Science

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
50 views5 pages

Sainik School Rewa (MP) : Mid Term Examination 2025-26 Subject - Social Science

Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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School No.

Name

SAINIK SCHOOL REWA (MP)

MID TERM EXAMINATION 2025-26


Set-B
Subject – Social Science

Time : 3hrs Class – X M.M. – 80


General Instructions :
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D
Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question
should not exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 60 words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 120 words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks)
and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

SECTION A
HISTORY (20 Marks)
Q1. Which of the following best reflects the paradox of nationalism in 19th-century Europe? (1m)
a) It unified people while deepening divisions
b) It eliminated monarchies
c) It weakened trade but encouraged industrialism
d) It supported socialism while strengthening aristocracy
Q2. The Frankfurt Parliament failed in 1848 because: (1m)
a) Prussian king rejected the offered crown
b) Revolutionaries lacked financial support
c) Aristocracy voluntarily gave up power
d) Workers supported monarchy
Q3. Which thinker argued that economic nationalism would strengthen the nation-state? (1m)
a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
b) Friedrich List
c) Karl Marx
d) Louis Blanc
Q4. Which of the following was NOT a feature of the Vienna Settlement (1815)? (1m)
a) Restoration of monarchies
b) Balance of power among states
c) Suppression of liberal movements
d) Introduction of universal suffrage
Q5A. “The revolutions of 1848 are sometimes called a failure but not useless.” Justify with two
points. (2m)
OR
Q5B. Identify two contrasting outcomes of Napoleon’s reforms in Europe. (2m)
Q6A. “Print culture not only spread ideas but also created anxiety among monarchs.” Explain with
three points. (3m)
OR
Q6B. Compare the role of peasants in the French Revolution and in German unification. (3m)
Q7A. Evaluate: “The revolutions of the 19th century often carried the seeds of their own
destruction.” Support with examples. (5m)
OR
Q7B. Analyse how the French Revolution influenced movements in two other countries. (5m)
Case Based Question
Q8. Read the extract and answer:
“The European revolutions of 1848 revealed contradictions. Middle classes sought constitutions
and free press but feared workers’ radicalism. Peasants resisted landlords but ignored the
national cause. Women joined protests yet were excluded from Frankfurt Assembly.
Monarchs regained power, aided by foreign armies, while revolutionaries lacked unity.”
Q8.1. What contradiction existed between liberals and workers? (1m)
Q8.2. Why were peasants indifferent to nationalism? (1m)
Q8.3. How were women treated in Frankfurt Assembly? (1m)
Q8.4. Which factor most helped monarchs crush revolts? (1m)
Map Work
Q9. On the map of Europe, identify and label:
a) Paris – centre of 1848 Revolution (1m)
b) Turin – capital of Piedmont-Sardinia (1m)

SECTION B
GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)
Q10. Which resource is ubiquitous but unevenly usable due to technology? (1m)
a) Solar energy
b) Water
c) Wind energy
d) Soil
Q11. Laterite soil is paradoxical because: (1m)
a) Rich in humus, poor in iron
b) Rich in iron, poor in humus
c) Poor in both humus and iron
d) Best for wheat
Q12. Why is slash-and-burn cultivation ecologically destructive? (1m)
a) It permanently increases fertility
b) It erodes biodiversity and nutrients
c) It prevents desertification
d) It requires high technology
Q13. Which crop thrives in both tropical and sub-tropical zones and feeds industries? (1m)
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Sugarcane
d) Tea
Q14. Which transport system is called “lifeline of the nation”? (1m)
a) Railways
b) Airways
c) Pipelines
d) Waterways
Q15. Which dam is across the Sutlej river? (1m)
a) Tehri
b) Bhakra Nangal
c) Sardar Sarovar
d) Hirakud
Q16A. How does resource planning bridge present consumption and future sustainability? (2m)
OR
Q16B. State two reasons for regional differences in Indian soils. (2m)
Q17A. “Agriculture in India is both a gamble of monsoons and a product of human ingenuity.”
Explain. (5m)
OR
Q17B. Explain how physical and human factors shape cropping patterns in India. (5m)
Case Based Question
Q18. Read the extract and answer:
“India’s energy demand is rising. Coal dominates but degrades land and pollutes air. Hydropower
is clean but displaces thousands. Solar and wind promise sustainability yet face cost and
intermittency challenges. With population growth, India faces a dilemma: exploit cheap
fossil fuels or invest in costly renewables?”
Q18.1. What dilemma does India face? (1m)
Q18.2. Mention one drawback each of coal and hydropower. (1m)
Q18.3. Why are renewables not easily scalable? (1m)
Q18.4. Suggest one balanced strategy. (1m)
Map Work
Q19. On the map of India, mark and label:
a) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant (1m)
b) Major cotton producing state (1m)
c) Iron ore mine in Odisha (1m)

SECTION C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 Marks)
Q20. Which country demonstrates a holding-together federation? (1m)
a) USA
b) Switzerland
c) India
d) Australia
Q21. Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka produced: (1m)
a) Civil conflict and alienation
b) Federal harmony
c) Rapid growth
d) Tamil integration
Q22. Which represents horizontal distribution of power? (1m)
a) Centre and State
b) Legislature, Executive, Judiciary
c) Local governments
d) Regional parties
Q23. Which is NOT a function of political parties? (1m)
a) Contest elections
b) Run governments
c) Aggregate diverse interests
d) Encourage only independents
Q24. Distinguish between Belgium’s and Sri Lanka’s power sharing. (2m)
Q25. Differentiate between federalism and unitary systems with examples. (2m)
Q26A. Why are political parties called “vehicles of federal compromise”? (3m)
OR
Q26B. State three challenges faced by political parties in democracies. (3m)
Q27A. “Democracy is not just about what it does, but also about what it prevents.” Explain. (5m)
OR
Q27B. “Outcomes of democracy are always more desirable than authoritarianism.” Critically
examine. (5m)
Case Based Question
Q28. Read the extract and answer:
“Belgium distributed power among communities and tiers of government, ensuring stability. Sri
Lanka, however, imposed Sinhala dominance, marginalizing Tamils. Belgium accommodated
diversity peacefully, Sri Lanka saw violent conflict. Thus, majority rule
without inclusivity fails to ensure harmony.”
Q28.1. What type of power sharing did Belgium adopt? (1m)
Q28.2. How were Tamils marginalized in Sri Lanka? (1m)
Q28.3. What contrasting outcomes emerged? (1m)
Q28.4. What democratic lesson can be drawn? (1m)

SECTION D
ECONOMICS (20 Marks)
Q29. Which sector shows the most rapid growth due to globalization? (1m)
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Informal
Q30. Which is an example of disguised unemployment? (1m)
a) Engineer in MNC
b) Five members farming where two suffice
c) Doctor in clinic
d) Teacher in govt school
Q31. Which credit source often leads to debt traps for the poor? (1m)
a) Banks
b) Cooperatives
c) Moneylenders
d) SHGs
Q32. GDP is not a sufficient indicator of development because: (1m)
a) Excludes services
b) Ignores inequality and quality of life
c) Ignores industry
d) Only counts agriculture
Q33. MGNREGA guarantees: (1m)
a) 200 days work
b) 100 days wage employment
c) Minimum wages private sector
d) Compulsory industrial work
Q34. Which sector contributes most to India’s GDP today? (1m)
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
Q35. Explain disguised unemployment with an example. (3m)
Q36. Why is the unorganized sector problematic for workers? (3m)
Q37. Why has the tertiary sector become dominant in India’s economy? (3m)
Q38A. “Though most Indians work in agriculture, it contributes least to GDP.” Analyse. (5m)
OR
Q38B. Compare formal and informal credit sources and their impact on inequality. (5m)

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