HUGE

1.The following is true of Isoflurane:

A. 25% of patients with coronary artery disease are prone to coronary steal.

B. It decreases the rate of production of CSF and increases reabsorption.

C. Hypercapnic cerebral vasodilation is reduced.

D. It is 0.4% metabolized.

E. All of the above.

2.Which of the following agents can react with soda lime:

A. Trichlorethylene.

B. Ethyl Chloride.

C. Halothane.

D. Sevoflurane.

E. All of the above

3.The boiling point of nitrous oxide (at atmospheric pressure) is:

A. + 36.4 °C

B. - 90.9 °C

C. - 88.5 °C

D. + 34.6 °C

E. - 12.5 °C
4.After exposure to 2 MAC-Hour of anaesthesia with the following inhalational anaesthetics, which
agent would be associated with the lowest plasma inorganic fluoride levels?

A. Methoxyflurane.

B. Isoflurane.

C. Sevoflurane.

D. Enflurane.

E. Desflurane.

5.The graph below expresses the relationship between the ratio of alveolar to inspired
fractional concentration of two volatile agents plotted against time. The curves labelled 'A'
and 'B' represent the same agent, obtained under different patient and/or circuit conditions
and the curve labelled 'C' represents a different agent

What is the most likely explanation for the difference between these curves?

A. In case 'A' alveolar ventilation is less than in case 'B'.

B. In case 'A' cardiac output is less than in case 'B'.

C. In case 'A' inspired concentration is greater than in case 'B'.

D. In case 'A' inspired concentration is less than in case 'B'.

E. Curve 'A' was obtained under hyperbaric conditions.

6.Which of the following are true statements concerning the blood supply of the spinal cord via the
anterior spinal artery?

A. A single pair of arteries supply the anterior region for the entire length of the cord.

B. No collateral blood supply exists.

C. Thrombosis results in paraplegia and paraesthesia.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above

7. A Semi-rigid oxygen mask receiving an oxygen flow of 10 L/min will deliver what concentration of
oxygen to the patient?

A. 30%.

B. 40%.

C. 50%.

D. 60%.

E. 70%

8.Which is the most efficient breathing system during controlled ventilation?

A. Mapleson A.

B. Mapleson B.

C. Mapleson C.

D. Mapleson D.

E. Mapleson E.

9.Dead-space and alveolar gas flowing through standard anaesthetic circuit tubing will be completely
mixed at a point:

A. 0.25 metres along the tube.

B. 0.50 metres along the tube.

C. 1.0 metres along the tube.

D. 1.25 metres along the tube.

E. 1.50 metres along the tube.

10.The most accurate measure of LVEDP on a wedged pulmonary artery pressure trace is:

A. The mean value of the PAOP at the end of expiration.

B. The peak of the 'A' wave at the end of expiration.

C. The peak of the 'V' wave at the end of expiration.

D. The peak of the 'A' wave at the end of inspiration.

E. The mean value of the PAOP at the end of inspiration.

11.Resistance to laminar flow in a vessel is:

a) proportional to wall thickness​
b) inversely proportional to the fourth power of the radius​
c) inverse proportional to length​
d) independent of haematocrit​
e) proportional to the pressure drop

12. Myocardial contractility is increased by except:

a) catecholamines​
b) an increase in heart rate​
c) an increase in fibre length​
d) an increase in parasympathetic nervous system activity​
e) calcium ions

13. The number of calories required to s 1g of asubstance by 1C is

A. the heat of vaporization

B. the specific heat

C. the critical tepreture

D. thermal conductivity

E.equal for all substances

14. Measures to prevent aspiration pneumonia include all of the following except
(https://quizlet.com/13605520/ob-flash-cards/ )

A. administration of antiacides before delivery

B.rapid intubation

C. rapid induction

D. determination the last time the patient has eaten

E.cricoid pressure

15. Neuronal pathways for the transmission of pain during the first and second stage of labour

A. T1to L1and S2to S4

B. T8to L2

C. T6 to T12

D.T10 to L5

E. T12 to L3 and S2 to S5

16.Classic sings of congenitlal diaphragmatic hernie include all of the following EXCEPT

A. decreased movement of the hemithorax

B. rounded abdomen

C. mediastinal shift

D. bowel sound in chest

E. bowel pattern in chest by x-ray

17.A 16 year-old patient with Down syndrome is admitted for dental extraction. In the preoperative
preparation

A. atropine should be avoided

B. opioids should be avoided

C. neck mobility should be documented

D. heavy sedation is required

E. anticonvulsants should be withheld

18.The administration of 0.5% halothane as a supplement to nitrous oxide during Lower Segment
Caesarean Section is associated with:

A. Increased post-partum blood loss.

B. Depressed neonatal neurobehavioural scores for several hours.

C. Decreased sensitivity to oxytocin.

D. Awareness.

E. None of the above.

19. A nulliparous woman in early labour with no other risk factors asks your advice on the possible
impact of epidural analgesia on maternal outcome. Your advice is that the technique:

A. Has no adverse effect.

B. May prolong labour, but otherwise has no adverse effect.

C. May prolong labour and increase the instrumental delivery rate.

D. May prolong labour and increase the Caesarean section rate

20. The most likely severe adverse effect of rapacuronium given at a dose of 1.5 mg / kg is:

A. Bradycardia.

B. Myocardial depression.

C. Transient hyperkalaemia.

D. Bronchospasm.

E. Raised intra-ocular pressure

21. Halothane: (https://www.frca.co.uk/article.aspx?articleid=278 )

a) has a marked arrhythmogenic potential compared with other currently used volatiles ​
b) is a racemic mixture of optical isomers ​
c) has a minimal alveolar concentration of .50% in 70% of nitrous oxide ​
d) is metabolised to the greatest extent amongst currently available agents ​
e) sensitises the myocardium to endogenous or exogenous catecholamines
22.The ventilation/perfusion ratio of a lung unit increases in all of the following
except:
a) the alveolar PO2 rises ​
b) the alveolar CO2 decreases​
c) end capillary PO2 increases ​
d) arterial PO2 increases ​
e) hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction will compensate for any change in gas exchange

23.The following are impermeable to water:

a) ascending vasa recta ​

b) descending vasa recta ​
c) ascending loop of Henle ​
d) descending loop of Henle ​
e) proximal convoluted tubule

24.A highly ionised drug:

a) is well absorbed from the intestine ​
b) is excreted mainly in the kidney ​
c) crosses the placental barrier easily ​
d) is reabsorbed from the renal tubule ​
e) is highly protein bound

25.the following are partial agonists at opioid receptors except:

a) nalbuphine ​
b) nalorphine ​
c) naloxone ​
d) buprenorphine ​
e) meptazinol

26. When succinylcholine is administred in adose of 1mg/kg , one may expect of

the following except
A an intraocular pressure increase
B an increase intgastric pressure
C bradycardia in infants and children
D tachycardia after multiple doses in adult
E hyperkalemia in paraplegic patients
27 . A high-volume, low-pressure cuff

A may not prevent aspiration

B has more tendency to leak fluids in patients on controlled ventilation
C will protect from aspiration if filled to specifications

D is better if vaginations are present along the wall

E. will seal better in patients who are breathing spontaneously

28. Hypoxemia secondary to failure of the oxygen supply may be to all of the following except

A cracked flowmeter

B transposition of pipes during construction

C failure of reducing valve

D an incidental change of flowmeter setting

E a shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

29 A child is admitted for general anesthesia fore closure of severe scalp laceration . He had
eaten 2 hours before his accident . He should

A always have a rapid sequence induction with thiopental and succinylcholine

B have a nasogastric tube passed to remove gastric contents before induction

C not be operated for 6 hours

D have vomiting induced

E be allowed to awaken with the endotracheal tube in place at the end of the procedure

30 . Aproperly performed and successful axillary block my provide inadequate anesthesia for

A open reduction of a fracture of the humerus

B creation of a radiocephalic arteriovenous fistula for dialysis access

C repair of gamekeeper’s thumb

D carpal tunnel release

E repair of the flexer carpi ulnaris tendon

For each of the items in this section , ONE or MORE of the numberd option is correct. Choose
answer

A if only 1,2,and 3 are correct

B if only 1and 3 are correct

C if only 2 and 4 are correct

D if only 4 is correct

E if all are correct

31. Which of the following drugs are believed to be effective in the treatment of
post-operative shivering?

1. Clonidine.

2. Tramadol.

3. Pethidine.

4. Paracetamol

32. Which of the following significantly increase the risk of peri-operative myocardial
infarction.?

1. Untreated Hypertension in the absence of Coronary Artery Disease.

2. Signs of Congestive Cardiac Failure.

3. Previous Coronary Artery Grafting.

4. Unstable Angina

33. Remifentanil:

1. Has a similar lipid solubility to alfentanil.

2. Relies on pseudocholinesterase for its metabolism.

3. Does not need dose modification in the presence of renal failure.

4. Can be used for induction of anaesthesia when spontaneous respiration is planned.

34. Which statement(s) is/are true with regard to Dantrolene:

1. It has muscle relaxant properties.

2. It has a role in the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

3. It lowers intracellular calcium levels.

4. Its solubility increases with increasing p H

35. Remifentanil:

1. Will prevent the rise in intraocular pressure associated with the administration of
suxamethonium.

2. Will diminish cerebral vasoreactivity to carbon dixoide.

3. Tends to cause a bradycardia.

4. Provokes histamine release.

36. Which of the following are true of limb tourniquets?

1. The cuff should be inflated 50 mmHg > SBP in upper limb.

2. The cuff should be inflated 100 mmHg > SBP in lower limb.

3. Ischaemic changes are observed after 1 hour.

4. Haemodynamic responses are more extreme when used in conjunction with regional
anaesthesia
37. With regard to an infant with a tracheo-oesophageal fistula:

1. The diagnosis is suggested by the inability to pass a feeding tube into the stomach.

2. Other congenital abnormalities commonly occur.

3. Polyhydramnios may well have been a feature of the antenatal period.

4. The child should be intubated soon after birth to reduce aspiration risk

38. Which of the following conditions typically complicate the syndrome of tetralogy of
Fallot?

1. Congestive cardiac failure.

2. Polycythaemia.

3. Eisenmenger's Syndrome.

4. Neonatal hypoxaemia

38. Which of the following are contained within the carotid sheath?

1. The common carotid artery.

2. The external carotid artery.

3. The internal carotid artery.

4. The sympathetic trunk.

39. The tca:

1. Is lateral to the carotid artery at the level of the cricoid cartilage.

2. Is postero-lateral to the carotid artery at the base of the skull.

3. Is anterior to the carotid artery at the base of the neck.

4. Lies outside the carotid sheath.

40. Ropivacaine is appropriate for use in:

1. A patient with proven allergy to procaine.

2. Intravenous Regional Anaesthesia (Bier’s blocks).

3. A patient with dialysis-dependent renal failure.

4. Spinal anaesthesia

ANSWER
1.E , 21. C
2E 22. E
3C 23. C
4E 24 A
5B 25 C
6D 26 D
7D 27A
8D 28 E​
9C 29 E
10B 30 A
11B 31 A
12 D 32 C
13 B 33 B
14 D 34 E
15 A 35 B
16 B 36 A
17 C 37A
18 E 38C
19 C 39A
20 D 40B