Duaso TEST 1-40 (pdf) all terms in machine design

BS Mechanical Engineering (BSME)

Answer: d Answer: d
Test 1
1. It deals only with the motion of bodies without 11. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a 21. Which of the following is the rate at which the
reference to the forces that cause them. plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation of velocity is changing?
a) Kinetics the cam. a) Acceleration
b) Motion a) Radial cam b) Linear
c) Kinematics b) Cylindrical cam c) Motion
d) Acceleration c) Cam curves d) Vertical
d) Tangential cam
Answer: c Answer: a
Answer: a
2. Progressive change in position of a body is 22. The direction of the ________ is toward the
called: 12. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a center of the circle in which, the study moves.
a) Acceleration plane parallel to the axis of rotation. a) Centripetal acc.
b) Motion a) cam curves b) Centrifugal acc.
c) Force b) cylindrical cam c) Radial cam
d) Momentum c) tangential cam d) Tangential
d) Radial cam
Answer: b Answer: a
Answer: b
3. Cam in general maybe divided into two 23. It is a device that changes the magnitude,
classes; uniform motion and _________motion 13. A cone formed by elements, which are direction or mode of application of a torque
cam. perpendicular to the elements of the pitch or force while transmitting it for a particular
a) Reverse cone at the large end. purpose.
b) gravity a) cone distance a) Frame
c) decelerated b) back cone b) Machine
d) accelerated c) root cone c) Mechanism
d) cone center d) Structure
Answer: d
Answer: b Answer: b
4. Product of mass and linear velocity is known
as: 14. The ability of moving body to perform work is 24. The process of obtaining the resultant of any
a) Impulse called: number of vectors.
b) Linear momentum a) Internal energy a) Scalar quantity
c) Angular momentum b) potential energy b) Vector composition
d) Impact c) kinetic energy c) Vector quantity
d) flow work d) Vector resolution
Answer: b
Answer: c Answer: b
5. It is the motion of an object
diminished/decreased speed. 15. A slider crank chain is made up of 25. It has magnitude, direction and sense.
a) Deceleration a) one turning and one sliding pair a) scalar quantity
b) Retarded motion b) one turning and two sliding pairs b) absolute quantity
c) Negative impulse c) two turning and one sliding pair c) vector quantity
d) All of these d) three turning and one sliding pair d) relative velocity

Answer: b Answer: d Answer: c

6. It is a property of matter, which causes it to 16. A scott-Russell mechanism is made up of 26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a surface
resist any change in its motion or state of rest. a) rotating pair only of contact so designed as to caused or modify
a) Brake b) sliding and turning pairs the motion of the piece.
b) Friction c) turning and rotary pairs a) Cam
c) Inertia d) turning pair only b) Disc
d) Impulse c) Gear
Answer: b d) Pulley
Answer: c
17. Ackerman steering gear is made up of Answer: a
7. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time a) rolling and sliding pairs
during which motion takes place is called: b) rolling pairs 27. When acceleration is zero, the
a) Deceleration c) sliding and rotary pairs a) velocity is constant
b) Uniform motion d) turning pairs b) velocity is negative
c) Acceleration c) velocity is variable
d) None of these Answer: d d) velocity is zero

Answer: b 18. A cam where the follower reciprocates or Answer: a

oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of the
8. Statement that a given body is in static cam is called: 28. When the velocity is changing, the
equilibrium means that the body cannot a) circular cam acceleration is
a) have any type of motion b) cylindrical cam a) constant
b) be acted upon by more than one c) reciprocating cam b) not constant
force d) tangential cam c) variable
c) undergo any displacement d) zero
d) have any type of acceleration Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: b 19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a
four bar mechanism lies on 29. Klein’s construction is used to determine the
9. It is a science of motion that can be solved in a) a point obtained by intersection of a) acceleration of various parts
terms of scalar or vector algebra. extending adjoining links b) angular acceleration of various
a) Kinematics b) left side pivot of this link parts
b) Curvilinear translation c) right side pivot of this link c) displacement of various part
c) Projectile d) any of the choices above d) velocity of various parts
d) Acceleration
Answer: a Answer: a
Answer: a
20. A vector quantity that describes both how fast 30. Klein’s construction can be used when
10. An object thrown upward will return to earth it is moving and the direction in which it is a) crank has a uniform angular
the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal heated. acceleration
to a) Acceleration b) crank has a uniform angular
a) zero b) Displacement velocity
b) one-half the initial velocity c) Motion c) crank has a non-uniform angular
c) twice the initial velocity d) Velocity velocity

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d) initial velocity d) b and c above
 d) two pairs and two pairs sliding
Answer: d 50. It is one that is not appreciably deformed by
Answer: d the action of any external force or load.
31. The cam angle is a) rigid body
a) the angle subtended by live portion of 41. The Klein’s method of construction for b) structure
cam at the cam’s center reciprocating engine mechanism c) Frame
b) the angle of rotation of the cam for a a) enables determined of coriolis d) Mechanism
definite displacement of the follower component
c) the angle subtended at the cam’s b) is a simplified form of instantaneous Answer: a
center by the portion of cam during center method
which the follower moves c) is based on acceleration diagram
d) the angle subtended by the cam at the d) utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the Test 2
cam center when the follower dwells diagram of mechanism for 1. At a given section of an I beam the maximum
reciprocating engine bending stress occurs at the
Answer: b a) max. shear stress area
Answer: d b) neutral axis
32. The pitch point on a cam refers to c) web joint near the flange
a) any point on pitch curve 42. If a particle of a link has a velocity that d) outermost
b) a point at a distance equal to changes both in magnitude and direction at
pitch circle radius from the center any instant, then Answer: d
c) the point of cam pitch circle that a) it must have only unidirectional
has the maximum pressure angle acceleration 2. The resultant of two or more forces is a
d) none of the above b) it must have two components of a) couple of forces
acceleration e.g., centripetal and b) concurrent of forces
Answer: c tangential c) momentum
c) it must have three components of d) resolution of forces
33. For a kinematics chain to be considered as acceleration e.g., centripetal,
mechanism, centrifugal and tangential Answer: d
a) none of the links should be fixed d) it must have three components of
b) one link should be fixed acceleration e.g., centripetal, 3. Two or more forces acting together, could be
c) there is no such criterion centrifugal and gravitational replaced by a single force with same effect in a
d) two links should be fixed mass called:
Answer: b a) couple of forces
Answer: b b) resolution of forces
43. Select the one that is the highest pair. c) resultant
34. Hart mechanism has how many links? a) Crosby indicator mechanism d) concurrent of forces
a) 4 b) Hart’s straight line mechanism
b) 6 c) Thomson indicator mechanism Answer: c
c) 8 d) Both gearing mechanism
d) 12 4. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of
Answer: d friction and
Answer: b a) torque
44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a b) weights of object
35. Peaucellier mechanism has how many links? a) Cylindrical pair c) normal of force
a) 4 b) higher pair d) moment
b) 5 c) lower pair
c) 6 d) sliding pair Answer: c
d) 8
Answer: c 5. Shear modulus is also known as:
Answer: d a) Shear elasticity
45. The total number of instantaneous center for a b) poisson’s ratio
36. A cam with a roller follower would constitute mechanism of N links is equal to c) modulus of elasticity
which type of pair? a) 2N d) modulus of rigidity
a) close pair b) (N-1)(N+1)
b) higher pair c) 2N(N-1) Answer: d
c) lower pair d) N(N-1)/2
d) open pair 6. The maximum stress induced in a material when
Answer: d subjected to intermittent or repeated load without
Answer: b causing failure is called:
46. A kinematics chain needs a minimum of a) Ultimate stress
37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that have a) 2 links and 2 turning pairs b) Endurance limit
a) elements of pairs not held b) 3 links and 3 turning pairs c) Ultimate strength
together mechanically c) 3 links and 2 turning pairs d) Elastic limit
b) point or line contact between the d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
elements when in motion Answer: b
c) surface contact between the two Answer: d
elements when in motion 7. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist the
d) two elements that allow relative 47. For kinematics chains formed by lower pair the action of outside force is called:
motion relation between the number of joint J is given a) Shearing stress
by b) tensile stress
Answer: d a) L = 2/3(J+2) c) ultimate stress
b) L = 3/2(J+2) d) compressive stress
38. A Pantograph is a mechanism having c) L = 2/3(L+2)
a) higher pairs d) L = 3/2(L+2) Answer: a
b) lower pairs
c) rolling pairs Answer: a 8. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will
d) spherical pairs eventually fail if the load/stress is above the
48. In case of an elliptical trammel, endurance for the steel under consideration. The
Answer: b a) one pair turns and two pairs slide endurance limit of the steel is therefore
b) two pairs turn and two pairs slide a) equal to the allowable stress of the
39. The number of links in a pantograph is equal to c) three pairs turn and one pair slides module of elasticity
a) 3 d) all four pairs turn b) equal to half of the ultimate strength
b) 4 c) equal to module of elasticity
c) 5 Answer: b d) equal to 80% of the elastic limit
d) 6
49. Coriolis component of acceleration is found in Answer: b
Answer: b a) four bar mechanism
b) mechanism of steam engine 9. Moment of inertia is also called:
40. In elliptical trammels, c) higher pair a) Modulus of elasticity
a) all four pairs are turning d) whitworth-quick-return mechanism b) Weep strength
b) one pair turning and three pairs sliding c) Radius of gyration
c) three pairs turning and one pair sliding Answer: d d) None of these

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 c) couple b) angular momentum
Answer: d d) non-coplanar force c) Linear impulse
d) linear momentum
10. Defection of a beam is Answer: a
a) proportional to the modulus of elasticity Answer: c
and moment of inertia 20. The ability of metal to resist being crushed is
b) proportional to the load imposed and called 30. The system of forces and opposite collinear
inversely to the length squared a) shearing strength forces are added, which of the following if any is
c) inversely proportional to the modulus of b) compressive stress true?
elasticity and moment of inertia c) torsional strength a) equilibrium is destroyed
d) inversely proportional to the weight d) tensile strength b) equilibrium is maintained
imposed times the length c) none of these is true
Answer: b d) an unbalance of moment exist
Answer: c
21. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is Answer: b
11. Continuous stretching under load even if the called:
stress is less than the yield point is called: a) co-planar 31. What is the property of a material, which resists
a) Plasticity b) non-coplanar forces forces acting to pull the material apart?
b) Elasticity c) Acceleration a) shear strength
c) Creep d) composition of forces b) tensile strength
d) Ductility c) torsional strength
Answer: d d) compressive strength
Answer: c
22. In general, the design stress and factor of safety Answer: b
12. It is opposite direction of parallel force. are related as follows
a) concurrent a) design stress = ultimate stress times factor 32. What is the metal characteristic to withstand
b) coplanar of safety forces that causes twisting?
c) couple b) design stress = ultimate stress divided by a) torsional strength
d) non coplanar factor of safety b) modulus of elasticity
c) factor of safety = design stress divided c) twisting moment
Answer: c ultimate stress d) elasticity
d) ultimate stress = factor of safety divided
13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross - by design stress Answer: a
section of the beam to the section modulus is
a) equal to the radius of gyration Answer: b 33. The unit deformation is called
b) equal to the area of the cross-section a) torsion
c) measure of a distance 23. Stresses that are independent to loads are b) strain
d) dependent on modulus of elasticity of known as: c) stress
beam measure a) Working stresses d) shear
b) Operating stresses
Answer: c c) residual stresses Answer: b
d) shear stresses
14. The differential of the shear equation is which of 34. The total amount of permanent extension of the
the following: Answer: c gage length measured after specimen has
a) bending moment of the beam fractured and is expressed as percentage increase
b) tensile strength of the beam 24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to unit of the original length.
c) slope of the elastic curve longitudinal deformation is called: a) elongation
d) load of the beam a) poisson’s ratio b) strain
b) willan’s line c) stress
Answer: d c) modulus of elasticity d) elastic limit
d) deformation
15. Could be defined as simply push and pull is Answer: a
known as Answer: a
a) work 35. Strength of a material is that of a stress intensity
b) force 25. Separate forces, which can be so combined are determined by considering the maximum test load
c) inertia called: to act over the original area of the test specimens
d) power a) non-concurrent called
b) couple a) yield point
Answer: b c) combined forces b) ultimate strength
d) concurrent forces c) break strength
16. The changes in shape or geometry of the body d) elastic limit
due to action of a force on it is called deformation Answer: d
or Answer: b
a) shearing stress 26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the
b) stresses ultimate strength but not with 36. The maximum stress, which is reached during a
c) compressive stress a) yield strength tension test is called
d) strains b) design stress a) stress
c) shear stress b) elasticity
Answer: d d) all of these c) strain
d) tensile strength
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress is called: Answer: a
a) plasticity Answer: d
b) all of these 27. The three moment equation may be used to
c) stiffness analyze a 37. Which of the following is the different of the shear
d) toughness a) tapered column equation?
b) continuous beam a) bending moment
Answer: c c) endurance limit b) load on the beam
d) tensile stress c) tensile strength of the beam
18. The property of a material that relates the lateral d) slope of the beam
strain to longitudinal strain is called: Answer: b
a) stress Answer: b
b) strain 28. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of
c) poisson’s ratio a) shear strain to compressive strain 38. The change in length per unit original length
d) endurance limit b) elastic limit to compressive strain a) strain
c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain b) stress
Answer: c d) elastic limit to proportional limit c) deformation
d) elastic modulus
19. The single force which produces the same effect Answer: c
upon a body as two or more forces acting together Answer: a
is called: 29. The product of the resultant of all forces acting
a) Resultant force on a body and the time that the resultant acts. 39. The ability of material or metal to resist being
b) co-planar force a) angular impulse crushed is

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 a) fatigue strength 49. The total resistance that a material offers to an b) stress
b) bending strength applied load is called c) elasticity
c) torsional strength a) friction torque d) rigidity
d) compressive strength b) stress
c) rigidity Answer: b
Answer: d d) compressive force
9. If the areas of cross-sections of square and circular
40. The ability of a metal to withstand forces that Answer: b beams are the same and both are put to equal
causes a member to twist. bending moment then the correct statement is
a) shear strength 50. The ability of metal to withstand forces thus a) both the beams are equally economical
b) tensile strength following a number of twist.
c) bearing strength a) shear strength b) both the beams are equally strong
d) torsional strength b) bearing strength c) the circular beam is more economical
c) endurance limit
Answer: d d) deformation d) the square beam is more economical

41. The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is Answer: a Answer: d
called
a) creep 10. Ties are load carrying members that carry
b) modulus of rigidity Test 3 a) axial compressive loads
c) modulus of elasticity 1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable b) axial tension loads
d) poisson’s ratio stress. c) prestressing thick cylinders
a) proportionality constant e) d)relieving thick cylinders
Answer: c b) strain
c) Modulus Answer: b
42. The ability of metal to withstand loads without d) Factor of safety
breaking down is termed as 11. Auto frottage is the method of
a) strain Answer: d a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders
b) stress b) increasing life of thick cylinders
c) elasticity 2. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at c) prestressing thick cylinders
d) strength the free end, the moment is d) relieving thick cylinders
a) constant along the beam Answer: c
Answer: d b) maximum at the wall
c) ¼ maximum half way out on the beam 12. Mohr’s circle can be used to determine
43. The last point at which a material may be _________ on inclined surface.
stretched a still return to its underformed condition d) maximum at the free end a) principal stress
upon release of the stress. b) normal stress
a) rupture limit Answer: b c) tangential stress
b) elastic limit d) all of the above
c) proportional limit 3. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously
d) ultimate limit withstand. Answer: d
a) yield point
Answer: b b) bearing strength 13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of
c) ultimate strength a) linear stress to longitudinal strain
44. The deformation that results from a stress and is d) point of rupture b) shear stress to shear strain
expressed in terms of the amount of deformation per c) shear to strain
inch. Answer: b d) shear stress to volumetric strain
a) elongation
b) strain 4. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load Answer: b
c) poisson’s ratio is removed the strain disappears. From this
d) elasticity information, which of the following can be 14. The total strain energy stored in a body is called
deducted about this material? a) resilience
Answer: b a) It is elastic. b) proof resilience
b) It has a modulus of elasticity. c) modulus of resilience
45. The internal resistance a material offers to being c) it is plastic d) toughness
deformed and is measured in terms of applied load. d) it is ductile.
a) strain Answer: a
b) elasticity Answer: a
c) stress 15. The elongation of a conical bar under its own
d) resilience 5. A cantilever beam having a uniformly increasing weight is equal to
load toward the fixed end a) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of the
Answer: c a) has uniform shear same length
b) has a reaction equal to the load b) one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the
46. The maximum stress induced in a material when c) will have maximum bending moment same length
subjected to alternating or repeated loading midway to the beam c) one third that of a prismatic bar of the
without causing failure. d) has a reaction is not equal to the load same length
a) Ultimate strength d) that of a prismatic bar of the same length
b) yield strength Answer: b
c) endurance strength Answer: c
d) rupture strength 6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces
a) depends on the materials and the finish 16. Which one is the incorrect statement about true
Answer: c condition of the surface stress-strain method?
b) depends only on the finish condition pf the e) it is more sensitive to changes in
47. The maximum stress to which a material may be surface mechanical conditions.
subjected before failure occurs is called: c) does not depend on the materials f) There is no such phenomenon like true
a) Rupture strength d) depends on the composition of the stress or true strain.
b) ultimate strength materials only g) This method can be used for compression
c) Yield strength tests as well.
d) proportional limit Answer: a h) True stress is load per unit area and similarly
true strain is determined under actual
Answer: b 7. The maximum stress to which a material may be conditions.
subjected before failure occurs.
48. The total deformation measured in the direction a) rupture stress Answer: f
of the line of stress. b) yield stress
a) strain c) ultimate stress 17. The tensile stress of a material is given by
b) elasticity d) allowable stress a) average load during the test / average
c) elongation at the time of fracture
d) contraction Answer: c b) average load during the test / original
cross-sectional area
Answer: a 8. The total resistance that a material offers to an c) maximum load during test / area at the
applied load. time of fracture
a) flexure

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 d) maximum load during test / original cross- Answer: a
sectional area Answer: d
37. Hooke’s law for an isotropic homogeneous
Answer: d 28. The stress in an elastic material is medium experiencing one dimensional stress is
a) inversely proportional to the material’s known as
18. When a part is constrained to move and heated, yield strength a) Stress = E (strain)
it develops what kind of stress? b) inversely proportional to the force acting b) Strain = E (stress)
a) compressive stress c) proportional to the displacement of the c) (Force)(Area) = E (change in
b) principal stress material acted upon by the force length/length)
c) shear stress d) inversely proportional to the strain d) strain energy = E (internal energy)
d) tensile stress
Answer: c Answer: a
Answer: a
29. The slenderness ratio of a column is generally 38. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is
19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as defined as the ratio of its a) a function of the length and depth
compared to in tension is nearly a) length to its minimum width b) defined as the unit shear stress divided by
a) one-half b) unsupported length to its maximum the unit shear deformation
b) one-third radius of gyration c) equal to the modulus of elasticity divided
c) one-fourth c) length to its moment of inertia by one plus Poisson’s ratio
d) the same d) unsupported length to its least radius of d) defined as the length divided by the
gyration moment of inertia
Answer: a
Answer: d Answer: b
20. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is
known as 30. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of 39. The maximum bending moment of a beam
a) bulk modulus steel is known as simply supported at both ends and subject to a total
b) modulus of elasticity a) modulus of elongation load  uniformly distributed over its length L is
c) modulus of rigidity b) plastic range expressed by the formula
d) unit stress c) irreversible range a)  L/8
d) elastic range b)  L2/8
Answer: b c)  L/2
Answer: d d)  L2/2
21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel, as
compared to its ultimate compressive stress will be 31. Principal stresses occur on those planes Answer: b
a) less a) where the shearing stress is zero
b) more b) which are 45 degrees apart 40. In a column (slenderness ratio > 160), which of
c) more or less depending on the factors c) where the shearing stress is a maximum the following has the greatest influence on its
d) same d) which are subjected only to tension tendency to buckle under a compressive load?
a) the modulus of elasticity of the material
Answer: b Answer: a b) the compressive strength of the material
c) the radius of gyration of the column
22. The relation between modulus of elasticity E and 32. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross- d) the length of the column
modulus of elasticity in shear G, bulk modulus of section of a beam to the section modulus is
elasticity K and Poisson’s ratio is given by a) equal to the radius of gyration Answer: d
a) E = Gu b) equal to the area of the cross section
b) E = G (u + 1) c) a measure of distance 41. The area of the shear diagram of a beam
c) E = 2g(u+1) d) multiplied by the bending moment to between any two points on the beam is equal to the
d) E = 4G (1+2u) determine the stress a) change in shear between the two points
b) total shear beyond the two points
Answer: c Answer: c c) average moment between the two
23. When shear force is zero along a section, the points
bending moment at that section will be 33. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion d) change in moment between the two
a) maximum develop what kind of stress? points
b) minimum a) bending stress
c) minimum or maximum b) compressive stress Answer: d
d) zero c) shearing stress
d) tensile stress 42. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in
Answer: c a) the determination of capability of
Answer: c material for being shaped
24. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during b) the determination of capacity of a
tensile test is 34. The bending moment at a section of a beam is material for plastic deformation with
a) an irregular derived from the fracture
b) a parabola a) sum of the moments of all external forces c) stress-strain relationships where stresses
c) a sudden break on one side of the section are applied in more than one direction
d) a straight line b) difference between the moments on one d) the determination of the endurance limit
side of the section and the opposite side
Answer: c c) sum of the moments of all external forces Answer: c
on both sides of the section
25. The ratio of average shear stress to maximum d) sum of the moments of all external forces 43. Modulus of resilience is
shear stress for a circular section is equal to between supports a) the same as the modulus of elasticity
a) 2 b) a measure of a materials ability to store
b) 2/3 Answer: a strain energy
c) 3/2 c) the reciprocal of the modulus of
d) ¾ 35. The stress concentration factor elasticity
a) is a ratio of the average stress on a section d) a measure of the deflection of member
Answer: d to the allowable stress
b) cannot be evaluated for brittle materials Answer: b
26. The ratio of bulk modulus for Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 c) is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden
will be equal to change of cross-section 44. Which of the following best describes the 0.2%
a) 3/2 d) is the ratio of the maximum stress offset yield stress?
b) 5/16 produced in a cross section to the a) it is elastic limit after which a measurable
c) 1 average stress over the section plastic strain has occurred.
d) 2 b) it is the stress at which the material
Answer: d plastically strains 0.2%.
Answer: c c) it is the stress at which the material
36. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the elastically strains 0.2%
27. The compression members tend to buckle in the a) unit lateral deformation to the unit d) it is 0.2% below the fracture point of the
direction of longitudinal deformation material.
a) axis of load b) unit stress to unit strain
b) perpendicular to the axis of load c) elastic limit to proportional limit Answer: b
c) minimum cross-section d) shear strain to compressive strain
d) least radius of gyration

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45. Under very low deformation and at high c) torsion
temperature it is possible to have some plastic flow d) yield Answer: c
in a crystal at a shear stress lower than the critical
shear stress. What is this phenomenon called? Answer: a 15. The ratio of the length of the column and the
a) Slip radius of gyration of the cross-sectional area about
b) Twinning 5. The ratio of moment and stress is called: a centroidal axis is called
c) Creep a) Contraction a) contact ratio
d) Shearing b) Proportional constant b) constant ratio
c) Section modulus c) power factor
Answer: c d) Strain d) slenderness ratio

46. In a stress-strain diagram what is the correct term Answer: c Answer: d

for the stress level at e = 0.20% offset?
a) Elastic limit 6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the flexural 16. Formula that applies to a very slender column is
b) Plastic limit stress is _______ when the vertical shear is maximum. called
c) Offset rupture stress a) infinity a) Column formula
d) Offset yield stress b) maximum b) Euler’s formula
c) minimum c) Moment formula
Answer: d d) zero d) Slender formula

47. Under which type of loading does fatigue Answer: d Answer: b

occur?
a) Static load 7. When tested in compression, ductile materials 17. If two principal stresses are zero, the state stress is
b) Plane usually exhibit ________characteristics up to the yield a) biaxial
c) High load strength as they do when tested in tension b) monoaxial
d) Repeated load a) the same c) triaxial
b) less than d) uniaxial
Answer: d c) more than
d) approximately the same Answer: d
48. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the
load is removed, the strain disappears. From this Answer: d 18. If one principal stress is zero, the state stress is
information, which of the following can be deduced a) biaxial
about this material? 8. It has been said that 80% of the failures of machine b) monoaxial
a) It is elastic. parts have been due to c) triaxial
b) It is plastic. a) compression d) uniaxial
c) It is has a high modulus of elasticity. b) fatigue failures
d) It is ductile. c) negligence Answer: a
d) torsion
Answer: a 19. If all the principal stresses have finite values, the
Answer: b system is
49. Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio a) biaxial
of a material? 9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing Sn/Su b) monoaxial
a) 0.45 ratios, often called endurance ratio, from c) triaxial
b) 0.5 a) 0.23 to 0.65 d) uniaxial
c) 0.55 b) 0.34 to 0.45
d) 0.60 c) 0.34 to 0.87 Answer: c
d) 0.63 to 0.93
Answer: a 20. Under theories of failure for static loading of
Answer: a ductile material, the design stress is the
50. In pure torsion, the minimum torsional stress a) endurance strength / factor of safety
occurs at the 10. The discontinuity or change of section, such as b) factor of safety / yield stress
a) center scratches, holes, bends, or grooves is a c) yield stress / factor of safety
b) long side a) stress raiser d) ultimate stress / factor of safety
c) medium side b) stress functioning
d) short side c) stress raiser Answer: c
d) stress relieving
Answer: b 21. Under theories of failure, the value of shear stress
Answer: a is ______ that of tensile stress.
a) equal
Test 4 11. The degree of stress concentration is usually b) double
1. In a specification schedule is used when the pipe indicated by the c) half
specified as “schedule 80”, the pipe corresponds to a) power factor d) three times
the b) stress concentration factor
a) “ extra standard “ weight c) service factor Answer: c
b) allowable stress d) stress factor
c) internal pressure 22. The theory of mechanics of materials shows that
d) “ old standard “ weight Answer: b the results from the octahedral shear stress theory
and those from the maximum distortion energy
Answer: b 12. In a part at uniform temperature and not acted theory are ________.
upon by an external load, any internal stress that a) more than
2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel usually exists is called: b) less than
falls between ________ million pounds per square a) Control stress c) relevant
inch. b) Form stress d) the same
a) 26 to 28 c) Residual stress
b) 28 to 31 d) Superposed stress Answer: d
c) 20 to 45
d) 50 to 30 Answer: c 23. A kind of stress that is caused by forces acting
along or parallel to the area is called
Answer: b 13. The stress or load induced by the tightening a) Bearing stress
operation. b) Shearing stress
3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of a) Initial stress c) Tangential stress
a) accuracy b) Initial tension d) tensile stess
b) quality c) Residual stress
c) stiffness d) None of these Answer: b
d) rigidity
Answer: a 24. Obtained by dividing the differential load dF by
Answer: c the dA over which it acts.
14. A type of failure due to instability is known as a) Elasticity
4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in a) Slenderness ratio b) Elongation
compression is usually taken as that in b) Buckingham c) Strain
a) tension c) Buckling d) Stress
b) bearing d) Stability

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Answer: d 35. Refers to the actual stress the material has when
under load. 45. The stress value, which is used, in the
25. The highest ordinate in the stress – strain diagram a) Allowable stress mathematical determination of the required size of
or curve is called b) Factor of safety the machine member.
a) elastic limit c) Ultimate strength a) Endurance stress
b) rapture strength d) Working stress b) Design stress
c) ultimate strength c) Maximum stress
d) yield point Answer: d d) Normal stress

Answer: c 36. The safe soil bearing pressure of diesel engine is Answer: b
about
26. A pair of forces equal in magnitude opposite in a) 2000 kg per sq. cm 46. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of cast iron is in
direction, and not in the same line is called b) 4600 kg per sq. cm the range of
a) couple c) 4890 kg per sq. cm a) 0.30 to 0.33
b) momentum d) 5633 kg per sq. cm b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) parallel forces c) 0.25 to 0.27
d) torque Answer: c d) 0.35 to 0.45

Answer: a 37. The machine foundation must have a factor of Answer: c

safety of
27. Framework composed of members joined at a) 3 47. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of steel is in the
their ends to form a rigid structure is known as : b) 4 range of
a) Joists c) 5 a) 0.30 to 0.33
b) Machine d) 6 b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) Purlins c) 0.25 to 0.27
d) Truss Answer: c d) 0.35 to 0.45

Answer: d 38. The load acts over a smaller area, and the Answer: b
________ continues to increase unit failure.
28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile strain is a) actual stress 48. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of aluminum and
called b) allowable stress titanium is in the range of
a) Bulk modulus c) compressive stress a) 0.25 to 0.27
b) Hooke’s law d) tensile stress b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) Shear modulus c) 0.30 to 0.33
d) Young modulus Answer: a d) 0.35 to 0.45

Answer: d 39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is a large Answer: c

increase in strain with little or no increase in stress is
29. The ratio of the volume stress to the volume strain called 49. The angle of inclination of the planes on which
is called the coefficient of volume elasticity or a) Endurance strength the principal stresses act is called
a) bulk modulus b) Ultimate strength a) normal plane
b) Hooke’s law c) Rapture strength b) principal plane
c) shear modulus d) Yield strength c) tangential plane
d) Young modulus d) traverse plane
Answer: d
Answer: a Answer: b
40. A ________ member that carries loads transverse
30. The action of a force is characterized by to its axis. 50. _________ provides a very accurate prediction of
a) its magnitude a) structure failure of ductile materials under static loads or
b) direction of its action b) column completely reversed normal, shear or combined
c) point of application c) beam stresses.
d) all of the above d) frame a) Shear stress theory
b) Normal stress theory
Answer: d Answer: c c) Distortion energy theory
d) Soderberg line theory
31. At highest or lowest point on the moment 41. Which type of load that is applied slowly and is
diagram never removed? Answer: c
a) shear is half, the maximum moment a) Uniform load
b) shear is maximum b) Static load
c) shear is negative c) Equilibrium load Test 5
d) shear is zero d) Impact load 1. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration
in the design of shaft and the limit should be in the
Answer: d Answer: b range of ________ degrees/foot of length.
a) 0.004 to 0.006
32. The built-in or fixed support is capable of 42. When varying loads are applied that are not b) 0.08 to 1
supporting regular in their amplitude, the loading is called c) 0.006 to 0.008
a) an axial load a) Repeated loading d) 0.008 to 1
b) a traverse force b) Random loading
c) a bending moment c) Reversed loading Answer: b
d) all of these d) Fluctuating loading
2. For a universal joint shaft angle should be
Answer: d Answer: b _________ degrees maximum and much less if in high
rotational speed.
33. The modulus of elasticity in shear is commonly 43. A measure of the relative safety of a load- a) 12
called carrying component is termed as b) 16
a) Bulk modulus a) design factor c) 15
b) deformation b) load factor d) 14
c) Modulus of rigidity c) ratio factor
d) Young modulus d) demand factor Answer: c

Answer: c Answer: a 3. It is a good design practice for steel line shafting

to consider a limit to the linear deflection of ________
34. The stress beyond which the material will not 44. The condition, which causes actual stresses in inch/foot length maximum.
return to its original shape when unloaded, but will machine members to be higher than nominal values a) 0.050
retain a permanent deformation is termed as predicted by the elementary direct and combined b) 0.010
a) elastic limit stress equations. c) 0.020
b) proportional limit a) Stress concentration factor d) 0.060
c) yield point b) Stress factor
d) yield strength c) Design factor Answer: b
d) Load factor
Answer: a 4. It is a rotating machine member that transmits
Answer: a power.

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 a) Cam centrifugal force changes its direction as the shaft
b) Plate turns. Answer: b
c) Shaft a) Critical speed
d) Flywheel b) Geometrical speed 24. There are two types of crankshafts, namely
c) Mean speed a) single piece and built up
Answer: c d) Unit speed b) forged and turned
c) rotary and stationary
5. A stationary member carrying pulleys, wheels and Answer: a d) none of these
etc. that transmit power is called:
a) Axle 15. For shaft, the minimum value of numerical Answer: a
b) Propeller shaft combined shock and fatigue factor to be applied in
c) Turbine shaft every case to the computed bending moment is 25. Engine valves get open by means of
d) Machine shaft a) 1.0 a) cam shaft
b) 1.3 b) rocker shaft
Answer: a c) 1.5 c) crank shaft
d) 1.8 d) valve guard
6. A line shaft is also known as
a) Counter shaft Answer: c Answer: a
b) Jack shaft
c) Main shaft 16. It is suggested that the design factor on the yield 26. The value of allowable stresses which are
d) Head shaft strength be about 1.5 for the smooth load, about 2 generally used in practice for main transmitting
to 2.25 for minor shock loads, and _________ when shafts is
Answer: c the loading reverse during operation. a) 282 kg/cm2
a) 3.0 b) 423 kg/cm2
7. Which of the following shaft intermediate b) 4.0 c) 599 kg/cm2
between a line shaft and a driven shaft? c) 3.5 d) 620 kg/cm2
a) Counter shaft d) 4.5
b) Jack shaft Answer: a
c) Head Shaft Answer: d
d) All of the above 27. The value of allowable stresses which are
17. A column is called short column when generally used in practice for line shafts carrying
Answer: d a) the length is more than 30 times the pulleys is
diameter a) 150 kg/cm2
8. Short shafts on machines are called b) slenderness ratio is more than 120 b) 282 kg/cm2
a) Core shafts c) the length is less than 8 times the c) 423 kg/cm2
b) Head shafts diameter d) 550 kg/cm2
c) Medium shafts d) the slenderness ratio is more than 32
d) Spindles Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: d 28. The value of allowable stresses which are
18. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value generally used in practice for small, short shafts,
9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum of shear stress countershafts is
at the neutral plane where the normal stress is a) is uniform throughout a) 282 kg/cm2
a) constant b) has maximum value at the axis b) 599 kg/cm2
b) maximum c) has maximum value at the surface c) 650 kg/cm2
c) minimum d) is zero at the axis and linearly increases d) 750 kg/cm2
d) zero to a maximum value at the surface of
the shaft Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: d 29. Torsional deformation in transmission shafts
10. Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary should be limited to _______ in 20 diameters.
from 0.08 per foot of length for machinery shafts to 19. The compression members tend to buckle in the a) 1
_______ per foot. direction of b) 2
a) 1 a) axis of load c) 3
b) 2 b) perpendicular to the axis of load d) 4
c) 3 c) minimum cross-section
d) 4 d) least radius of gyration Answer: a

Answer: a Answer: d 30. Lateral deflection caused by bending should not

exceed
11. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is 20. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be a) in. per foot of length
one degree in a length of _________ diameters. made up of b) 0.005 in. per foot of length
a) 10 a) clad material c) in. per foot of length
b) 15 b) composite material d) 0.05 in. per foot of length
c) 20 c) homogeneous material
d) 25 d) heterogeneous material Answer: c

Answer: c Answer: d 31. Front axle should be live and

a) weak
12. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is 21. The column splice is used for increasing b) dead
that the deflection should not exceed a) strength of the column c) strong
____________ of length between supports. b) cross-sectional area of the column d) none of these
a) 0.01 in. per foot c) length of the column
b) 0.02 in. per foot d) all of the above Answer: b
c) 0.03 in. per foot
d) 0.04 in. per foot Answer: c 32. The steering is coupled to the two front wheels
by means of a
Answer: a 22. A simply supported beam has a uniformly a) connecting rod
distributed load on it, the bending moment is b) tie rod
13. In general for machinery shafts, the permissible a) triangle c) push rod
deflection may be closer to b) parabola d) spindle
a) 0.02 in/ft c) semi-circle
b) 0.01 in/ft d) rectangle Answer: b
c) 0.002 in/ft
d) 0.030 in/ft Answer: b 33. In the overdrive transmission system the rotation
speed of ________ rest higher than that of engine’s
Answer: c 23. The power obtained by piston reaches flywheel speed.
through the a) main shaft
14. The speed at which the center of mass will equal a. countershaft b) crank shaft
the deflecting forces on the shaft with its attached b. crank shaft c) propeller shaft
bodies will then vibrate violently, since the c. transmission shaft d) machine shaft
d. line shaft

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Answer: c
Answer: a Answer: a
34. A slip joint ________ the length of propeller shaft.
a) increases 45. The process of redistributing the mass attached 5. A key with one of several patented methods of
b) decreases to a rotating body in order to reduce vibrations keying is driven or pressed into a hole that is small
c) keeps appropriate arising from a centrifugal force. enough to close the slit, assembled in radial
d) none of these a) Shaft coupling direction.
b) Shaft balancing a) Fit key
Answer: c c) Shaft hooper b) Saddle key
d) stator balancing c) Roll Pin
35. The transmission system incorporates clutch, d) Pin key
gear box, and propeller shaft and Answer: b
a) brake Answer: c
b) differential 46. In many cases the _________ of the shaft is an
c) steering import design feature. 6. Kennedy keys are also known as
d) main shafting a) deflections a) Tangential keys
b) rigidity b) Normal keys
Answer: b c) size c) Saddle keys
d) strength d) Roll Pin
36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary shaft.
a) equal to Answer: b Answer: a
b) more than
c) less than 47. Commercial shafting is made of 7. A key that allows the hub to move along the shaft
d) in the gear ratio a) low carbon steel but prevents the rotation of the shaft.
b) cast iron a) Woodruff key
Answer: d c) brass b) Feather key
d) bronze c) Gibbs key
37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay shaft. d) Square key
a) before Answer: a
b) after Answer: b
c) parallel to 48. What is the most common material for shafting?
d) adjacent to a) Wrought iron 8. Which of the following type of fits used for involute
b) Cast iron spline?
Answer: c c) Mild steel a) Close fit
d) Aluminum b) Press
38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of c) Sliding
_________ remain the same Answer: c d) All of these
a) primary and lay shafts
b) main and lay shafts 49. Cold drawing produces a ________ shaft that hot Answer: d
c) primary and main shafts rolling, but with higher residual stresses.
d) secondary and main shafts a) weaker 9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to involute
b) stronger splines except that the pressure angle is 14.5 deg.
Answer: c c) harder a) Separation load
d) none of the above b) Stub serrations
39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in _________ c) Spline shaft
direction. Answer: b d) Involute serrations
a) in the same
b) different 50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to ________ are Answer: d
c) reverse common in design of a shaft.
d) none of the above a) 3000 to 5000 psi 10. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is most likely to
b) 4000 to 6000 psi fall in
Answer: c c) 5000 to 8000 psi a) compression
d) 6000 to 10000 psi b) shear
40. It is an integral part of a machine. c) tension
a) Spindle Answer: c d) double shear
b) Axle
c) Counter shaft Answer: d
d) Machine shaft Test 6
1. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of 11. In case of sunk key,
Answer: d torsional angular flexibility due to introduction with a) the key is cut in both shaft and hub
some elastic material cylindrically wrapped around b) the key way is cut in hub only
41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through the bolts in the flange. c) the key way is cut in shaft only
a) torsional a) Simple elastic bonded coupling d) the key way is helical along the shaft
b) bending b) Elastic material bushed coupling
c) axial c) Elastic material bonded coupling Answer: a
d) all of these d) All of these
12. Splined shafts are generally for
Answer: d Answer: b a) air craft
b) automobiles
42. What is the standard stock length? 2. Which of the following keys that is square or flat c) bicycles
a) 16 ft and tapered with head? d) machine tools
b) 20 ft a) Pin key
c) 24 ft b) Saddle key Answer: b
d) all of the above c) Gib-head keys
d) None of these 13. Splines are used when
Answer: d a) the power to be transmitted is low
Answer: c b) the power to be transmitted is high
43. Centrifugal separators that operate at speeds c) the torque is high
________ also employ these flexible shafts. 3. What are considered as the most common keys? d) axial relative motion between shaft and
a) 1000 to 3000 rpm a) Flat key hub is necessary
b) 5000 to 10000 rpm b) Square key
c) 15000 to 30000 rpm c) Saddle key Answer: d
d) 20000 to 50000 rpm d) A & B above
14. Which key normally used in wristwatches?
Answer: d Answer: d a) Kennedy key
b) Sunk key
44. Which of the following material is used for 4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a c) Tangent key
shafting? drive fit. d) None of the above
a) AISI 3240 a) Pin key
b) AISI 3150 b) Saddle key Answer: d
c) AISI 4063 c) Gib-head key
d) AISI 33000 d) None of these

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15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the same Answer: d d) None of these
material and of equal strength the length of key
would be equal to 25. The three keys are angularly spaced Answer: b
a) d a) 60 
b) 0.75 d b) 90  35. For a single Hooke’s coupling the shaft angle
c) 1.2 d c) 1200 should not be greater than
d) 1.5 d d) 1800 a) 10 
b) 12 
Answer: c Answer: c c) 15 
d) 30 
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning machine 26. The permissible crushing stress is about _________
key made by a side milling cutter in the form of a times the permissible shear stress. Answer: c
segment of a disk. a) 1.5
a) Kennedy key b) 1.7 36. A universal coupling is
b) Saddle key c) 1.9 a) A rigid coupling
c) Tangent key d) 1.10 b) A type of flange coupling
d) Woodruff key c) Used for collinear coupling
Answer: b d) Used for non-collinear shafts
Answer: d
27. Practical considerations required that the hub Answer: d
17. A female mating member that forms a groove in length should be at least _________ to obtain a good
the shaft to which the key fits. grip. 37. A flange coupling is
a) Key path a) 1.2D a) flexible
b) Key way b) 1.5D b) used for collinear shafts
c) Key holder c) 1.7D c) used for non-collinear shafts
d) Key hole d) 1.9D d) used only on small shafts rotating at low
speed
Answer: b Answer: b
Answer: b
18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway of square 28. For three keys, a _________ percent overload
section and driven from opposite ends of the hub is often is used. 38. In flange coupling the weakest element should
known as a) 10 be the
a) Barth key b) 15 a) bolts
b) Feather key c) 20 b) flange
c) Kennedy key d) 25 c) key
d) Saddle key d) shaft
Answer: b
Answer: c Answer: c
29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on
19. A machine member employed at the interface one end and a radial through hole in the other end. 39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are designed
of a pair of mating male and female circular cross- a) Clevis pins for
sectioned members to prevent relative angular b) Taper pins a) fatigue
motion between these mating. c) Dower pins b) shear forces
a) Key way d) Taper pins c) compression
b) Key d) tensile forces
c) Constant key Answer: a
d) Variable key Answer: b
30. Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and
Answer: b similar devices onto shafts for light-duty service. 40. Which of the following mechanical devices is
a) Clevis pins used for uniting or connecting parts of a
20. A feather key is one of the following types of b) Cotter pins mechanical system?
a) sunk c) Dowel pins a) Coupling
b) tapered d) Taper pins b) Keys
c) parallel c) Splines
d) tangent Answer: d d) Flexible coupling

Answer: a 31. The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and Answer: a
mating member is called
21. Permanent keys made integral with the shaft a) Key way 41. A coupling that employs a fluid to provide
and fitting into key ways broached into the mating b) Key path angular flexibility between the input and output
hub. c) Key hole shafts.
a) Square keys d) None of these a) Rigid coupling
b) Splines b) Flexible coupling
c) Woodruff keys Answer: a c) Hydraulic coupling
d) Kennedy keys d) Oldham coupling
32. Used as couplings, or in addition to overload,
Answer: b where there is danger of injury to machines or to Answer: c
material in process.
22. A type of square key with bottom two corners a) Flange couplings 42. Which of the following type of coupling is used
beveled is called b) Involute serrations with collinear shafts?
a) Flat key c) King pins a) Collar coupling
b) Feather key d) Shear pins b) Rigid coupling
c) Barth key c) Flexible coupling
d) Woodruff key Answer: d d) Hydraulic coupling

Answer: c 33. A coupling that transmits power via the frictional Answer: b
forces induced by pulling the flanges toward each
23. The bearing load on feather keys should not other over slotted tapered sleeves is known as 43. A type of coupling used to connect shafts that
exceed a) Flange coupling have lateral misalignment.
a) 600 psi b) Flange compression coupling a) Compression coupling
b) 800 psi c) Ribbed compression coupling b) Collar coupling
c) 1000 psi d) Rigid coupling c) Chain coupling
d) 1200 psi d) Oldham coupling
Answer: b
Answer: c Answer: d
34. What is used for absorbing some shock and
24. The two keys are angularly spaced vibration that may appear on one shaft and of 44. A coupling that is composed of two slotted
a) 45  preventing the occurrence of reversed stresses members, which are connected by a continuous
b) 60  caused by the shaft deflecting at the coupling? steel spring, and lies in the slots.
c) 75  a) Flange coupling a) Ajax coupling
d) 90  b) Flexible coupling b) Falk coupling
c) Rigid coupling c) Lord coupling

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 d) Slip coupling 4. The surface connecting the cast and roots of the 14. A type of bolt commonly used in the construction
screw thread. that is threaded in both ends.
Answer: b a) Lead angle a) Stud bolt
b) Length of engagement b) Acme threaded bolt
45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several c) Top land c) Square threaded bolt
purposes. The most common purpose of shaft d) Flank d) Hex bolt
coupling is
a) to provide for the connection of shafts of Answer: d Answer: a
units that are manufactured separately
b) to provide for misalignment of the shafts 5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a length of 15. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts.
c) to reduce the transmission of shock one pitch in the axial plane on which design forms a) Shaver
loads from one shaft to another of both the external threads are based. b) Tachometer
d) all of the above a) Basic form of thread c) Tensor
b) Effective thread d) Torque wrench
Answer: a c) Basic profile of thread
d) Design form of external thread Answer: d
46. Typical hub length falls between _________ where
D is the shaft diameter Answer: c 16. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting
a) 1.2D and 1.8D threads in holes.
b) 1.25D and 2.4D 6. The top and bottom-land for gears is similar a) Tapping tap
c) 1.30 and 2.5D formed as to crest and ________ for screw thread. b) Plug tap
d) 1.35D and 3.0D a) flank c) Taper tap
b) root d) Bottoming tap
Answer: b c) flank tooth
d) top land Answer: a
47. The diameter of the large end of the pin should
be ________ the shaft diameter. Answer: b 17. Type of bolt intended for use in bolting wooden
a) ¼ parts together or wood to metal. It has a short
b) 1/3 7. Some experiments made at Cornell University portion of shank just underneath a round head,
c) ½ showed that experience mechanic could bread a which is designed to keep the bolt from turning in
d) 3/2 ________ bolt due to nut tightening. the wood when the nut is tightened.
a) 3/8 a) U-bolt
Answer: a b) 5/8 inch b) Carriage bolt
c) ½ inch c) Eye bolt
48. The most common type of sliding action fastener d) 7/16 inch d) Stud bolt
and is widely used on doors is the
a) Pawl fastener Answer: b Answer: b
b) Magnetic fastener
c) Sliding fastener 8. The angle included between the sides of the 18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads formed
d) Screw fastener thread measured in an axial plane in a screw around it and grooves or flutes running lengthwise in
thread. it, intersecting with the threads to form cutting
Answer: c a) Angle of thread edges. It is used to cut internal threads.
b) Angle between thread or 40 deg a) Groove
49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides c) Helix angle thread b) Lap
experience has shown that, the permissible crushing d) Half angle thread c) Tap
stress is about ____________ times the permissible d) Flute
shear stress. Answer: a
a) 1.3 Answer: c
b) 1.5 9. Length of contact between two mating parts in
c) 1.7 screw and nut threads measured axially is called 19. A kind of bolt, which has no head but instead has
d) 1.9 a) Arc of contact threads on bolts ends.
b) Depth of engagement a) Stud bolt
Answer: c c) Length of engagement b) Acme threaded bolt
d) Axis of contact c) Square bolt
50. The mechanical fastening that connects shafts d) Hex bolt
together for power transmission. Answer: b
a) Coupling Answer: a
b) Key 10. Major and minor diameters are commonly used
c) Splines in 20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary cylinder
d) None of the above a) screw thread that bounds the crest of an external thread.
b) bolt a) Mean diameter
Answer: a c) gear b) Stress diameter
d) all of these c) Minor diameter
d) Major diameter
Test 7 Answer: a
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is Answer: d
known as 11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the
a) Pitch a) major diameter 21. The distance in inches a screw thread advances
b) Top flank b) minor diameter axially in one turn.
c) Top land c) stress area a) Lead
d) Crest d) mean diameter b) Circular pitch
c) Pitch
Answer: d Answer: a d) Mean pitch

2. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface 12. A _________ is a kind of thread in which the width Answer: c
is a of the thread and the space between threads are
a) thread series approximately equal. 22. Which of the following type of threads
b) thread shear a) square thread recommended for general use?
c) straight thread b) acme thread a) UNC
d) taper thread c) buttress thread b) UNEF
d) whit worth thread c) UNF
Answer: d d) NC
Answer: a
3. The conical surface at the starting end of the Answer: a
thread is called 13. A kind of thread that is generally used.
a) Pitch cone a) UNEC 23. It is frequently used in automobile and aircraft
b) Chamfer b) UNC work.
c) Crest c) UNF a) UNC
d) Flute d) UNEF b) UNEF
c) UNF
Answer: b Answer: b d) NC

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Answer: c 34. The length of contact in a tapped hole should
be a minimum of about ___________ for cast iron. 43. Foundation bolts should be at least ____________
24. Which of the following type of threads are useful a) D times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
in aeronautical equipment? b) 1.5D a) 12
a) UNC c) 1.2D b) 14
b) UNEF d) 2D c) 16
c) UNF d) 18
d) NC Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: b 35. When the location of bolt is such that it would
normally be shear, it is better practice to use a 44. No foundation bolts shall be less than _________
25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe flanges, a) dummy bolts mm diameter.
cylinder head studs etc. b) mid-pins a) 10
a) UNC c) crank pins b) 12
b) UNEF d) dowel pins c) 14
c) UNF d) 16
d) 8UN Answer: d
Answer: b
Answer: d 36. A locking device used to maintain pressure
between the threads of the bolt and nut. 45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in concrete
26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on it. a) Gasket at least ___________ times the bolt diameter.
a) Bolt b) Lock nuts a) 10
b) Fastener c) Lock washer b) 20
c) Rivet d) Lock out c) 30
d) None of these d) 40
Answer: c
Answer: a Answer: c
37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is the same
27. Which one that has no nut and turns into a as 46. The screw thread commonly used for
threaded hole? a) major diameter transmission of motion is one of the following types
a) Rivet b) pitch diameter of ___________ threads.
b) Screw c) minor diameter a) acme
c) Stud bolt d) none of the above b) vee
d) U-bolt c) knuckle
Answer: a d) British Association
Answer: b
38. Turn buckle has Answer: a
28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished through a) left hand threads on both ends
bolt, comes with a square. b) left hand threads on one end and right 47. The spindle of bench vises are usually provided
a) Coupling bolt hand threads on other end with
b) Machine bolt c) right hand threads on both ends a) buttress threads
c) Stud bolt d) no threads b) square threads
d) Automobile bolt c) acme threads
Answer: b d) v-threads
Answer: b
39. The diameter of a washer is generally Answer: c
29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, usually a) equal to the diameter of bolt
having coarse threads? b) slightly more than the diameter of the 48. Any device to connect or joint more
a) Coupling bolt bolt components.
b) Machine bolt c) slightly less than the diameter of the bolt a) Bolt
c) Stud bolt d) of any size that suits the application b) Screw
d) Automobile bolt c) Fastener
Answer: a d) None of the above
Answer: a
40. The stress concentration is maximum at _________ Answer: c
30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of in a standard coarse thread.
the shank underneath the head being square or a) all over the surface 49. When the threads are of opposite hand, the
finned or ribbed. b) flank driven screw moves rapidly is known as
a) Carriage bolt c) root a) Bearing screw
b) Coupling bolt d) top surface b) Compound screw
c) Machine bolt c) Differential screw
d) Stud bolt Answer: c d) Set screw

Answer: d 41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has Answer: b

a) one small nut is tightened over main nut
31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends that and main nut tightened against smaller 50. The threaded length is about _________ times the
can be used where a through bolt is impossible. one loosening, creating friction diameters.
a) Carriage bolt jamming. a) 1.25
b) Coupling bolt b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut partly b) 1.5
c) Machine bolt in middle of tightening of screw c) 1.8
d) Stud bolt c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in d) 2.0
the nut and becomes threaded as the
Answer: a nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight Answer: b
grip.
32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in small sizes. d) Through slots are made at top and a
a) Stud bolt cotter pin is passed through these and a Test 8
b) Carriage bolt hole in the bolt and cotter pin splitted 1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications is
c) Stove bolt and bent in reverse direction at other a) 6 x 27
d) Mini bolt end b) 6 x 37
c) 6x9
Answer: c Answer: c d) 6 x 21

33. A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery 42. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used Answer: b
and equipment to a wooden base. and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside
a) Lag screw diameter of a least ________ times the diameter of 2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire rope
b) Log screw the anchor bolt. arrangement except this ________ which deals with
c) Wood screw a) 1 rope materials strength.
d) None of these b) 2 a) performed
c) 3 b) IWRC
Answer: a d) 4 c) Mps
d) Lang lay
Answer: c

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Answer: c 12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted
any point in the thickness of the cylinder, the radial in opposite direction
3. One of the following materials is not mentioned for stress Sr and hoop stress Sh are related as d) wires are not twisted
wire rope pulley / sheave applications. a) Sr – Sh = constant
a) Plastic b) Sr + Sh = constant Answer: a
b) Iron c) Sr/Sh = constant
c) Paper d) Sr – Sh/Sr = constant 22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible?
d) Copper alloy a) 6 by 7
Answer: a b) 6 by 19
Answer: a c) 6 by 37
13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness d) 8 by 19
4. The factor of safety generally applied in wire rope t when subjected to internal pressure P, if Poisson’s
design starts at 3-4 for standing rope application, 5- ratio of material is  , the circumferential or hoop Answer: c
12 for operating rope and __________ for hazard to strain is
life and properly application like foundry operation. a) Pd(1-2)/2tE 23. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted
a) higher value b) Pd(1-2)/ in opposite direction.
b) 7 – 10 c) Pd(1/2 - )/2tE a) Long lay
c) 8 – 10 d) Pd(1/2-)/4tE b) Lang lay
d) 10 – 18 c) Regular lay
Answer: a d) Performed
Answer: a
14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall thickness Answer: c
5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means to the inside diameter is ___________ may be called
wires and standards are arranged in the following a thin cylinder 24. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted
manner _________ a) less than 0.05 in the same direction.
a) twisted in same direction b) less than 0. a) Long lay
b) twisted in any direction c) more than 0.05 b) Lang lay
c) twisted in opposite direction d) more than 0.07 c) Performed
d) twisted in along direction d) Non-performed
Answer: b
Answer: c Answer: b
15. External pressure tubes in boilers are designed
6. A process of prestressing or over stressing a hollow with an apparent factor of safety of 25. A type of rope used for haulages, rigging, and
cylindrical member beyond the elastic range by a) 1 to 3 guardrails.
hydraulic pressure. b) 4 to 6 a) 6 x 35 IWRC
a) Presstage c) 5 to 7 b) 6 x 25 IWRC
b) Stress relieving d) 8 to 10 c) 7 x 7 IWRC
c) Auto frettage d) 6 x 8 IWRC
d) Countersinking Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: c 16. Refers to a hollow product of round or any other
cross section having a continuous periphery. 26. A rope used for general-purpose.
7. When two touching surface have a high contact a) Gear a) 6 x 15 IWRC
pressure and when these surfaces have minute b) Flywheel b) 6 x 21 IWRC
relative motion a phenomenon called c) Sphere c) 6 x 19 IWRC
a) Carving d) Tube d) 7 x 26 IWRC
b) Friction
c) Fretting Answer: d Answer: c
d) Prestressing
17. The thickness should be multiplied by _________ 27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers,
Answer: c to obtain the nominal wall thickness. overheated cranes, hoists.
a) 5/8 a) 6 x 34 IWRC
8. Pipes subject to high pressure are generally made b) 8/5 b) 6 x 35 IWRC
by c) 7/8 c) 6 x 37 IWRC
a) slush casting d) 8/7 d) 6 x 45 IWRC
b) pressure casting
c) extrusion Answer: d Answer: c
d) centrifugal casting
18. It is used in high-pressure cylinders. 28. The regular materials for wire rope are made of
Answer: d a) Thin-walled cylinders a) cast steel
b) Thick-walled cylinders b) chromium
9. Hoop stress refers to c) Solid-walled cylinders c) wrought iron
a) circumferential tensile stress d) Hard-walled cylinders d) high-carbon steel
b) compressive stress
c) longitudinal stress Answer: b Answer: d
d) radial stress
19. To obtain safe working pressure the critical 29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow Steel is in
Answer: a pressure, should be at least ______ times the working the range of
pressure. a) 200 and 400 ksi
10. Autfrettage is the method of a) 3 b) 240 and 280 ksi
a) calculating stress in thick cylinders b) 4 c) 230 and 260 ksi
b) increasing life of thick cylinders c) 5 d) 400 and 500 ksi
c) prestressing thick cylinders d) 6
d) relieving thick cylinders Answer: b
Answer: c
Answer: c 30. The minimum suggested design factor of
20. The radial pressure between the cylinders at the ________ for ropes miscellaneous hoisting
11. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick surface of contact depends on the ___________ of equipment.
cylinder is the materials. a) 2
a) maximum at inner surface and a) strength b) 3
decreases toward outer surface b) hardness c) 4
b) minimum at inner surface and increases c) modulus of elasticity d) 5
towards outer surface d) modulus of rigidity
c) minimum at inner and outer surfaces Answer: d
and maximum in middle Answer: c
d) maximum at inner and outer surfaces 31. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended
and minimum in middle 21. In cross or regular lay ropes the limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for cast
a) direction of twist in strands is opposite to iron.
Answer: a the direction of twist of strands a) 200 psi
b) direction of twist of wires and strands are b) 300 psi
the same c) 400 psi
d) 500 psi

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Answer: d Answer: c 2. A of welding whereby a wire or powder
from the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a gas
32. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended 42. What is the recommended sheave diameter for flame, arc or plasma jet and then molten
limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ________ for cast standard hoisting rope? particles are projected in a form of a spray by
steel. a) 40d means of compressed air or gas is known a
a) 700 psi b) 45d a) Elector-slug building
b) 900 psi c) 50d b) Electro-beam welding
c) 1000 psi d) 55d c) Plasma-arc welding
d) 1200 psi d) Metal spray welding
Answer: b
Answer: b Answer: d
43. What is the recommended sheave diameter for
33. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended extra-flexible hoisting rope? 3. Weld metal impact specimen shall be
limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for a) 30d taken across the weld with one face
manganese steel. b) 31d substantially parallel to and within
a) 2000 psi c) 32d a) 3/4in
b) 2300 psi d) 33d b) 1/32 in.
c) 2500 psi c) ¼ in.
d) 3000 psi Answer: b d) 1/16 in.

Answer: c 44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that Answer: c
are first wrapped into
34. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that a) pulp 4. A joint between to overlapping
are first wrapped into b) strands members in whom the overlapped edge of
a) layer c) helices one member is welded with a fillet weld is
b) segment d) hemp called
c) strands a) A single welded lap joint
d) none of these Answer: b b) Double welded lap joint
c) A single welded lap joint with
Answer: c 45. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum backing
design factor of guy’s is d) Track weld
35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the rope is a) 3.0
made of six strands each containing b) 3.5 Answer: a
a) 7 pieces c) 4.0
b) 7 diameters d) 5.0 5. A weld place in groove between two
c) 7 wires butting members is called
d) 7 strands Answer: b a) Full-fillet weld
b) Tack weld
Answer: c 46. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum c) Butt weld
design factor of miscellaneous hoisting equipment is d) fillet weld
36. Ropes are made of a) 3.0
a) aluminum alloys b) 5.0 Answer: c
b) copper c) 7.0
c) bronze d) 9.0 6. A weld of approximately triangular cross-
d) all of the above section that join two surfaces at
Answer: b approximately right angles as in lap joint, tee
Answer: d joint, corner joint.
47. An extra flexible rope is a) Single welded lap joint
37. The ratio of the strength of all the inside wires to a) 6x7 b) Fillet weld
the strength of all the wires in the rope b) 6 x 19 c) Tack weld
a) excess strength c) 6 x 37 d) Butt weld
b) reserve strength d) 7x7
c) factor of safety Answer: b
d) ratio of factor Answer: c
7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the
Answer: b 48. The strength of the rope is always ____________ thickness of the inner joint member is called
the sum of the strength of wires a) Butt joint
38. The chief usage of wire ropes at the present time a) less than b) Butt weld
is b) more than c) Tack weld
a) elevators c) equal d) Full-fillet weld
b) cranes d) the same
c) tramways Answer: d
d) all of the above Answer: a
8. A weld made to hold the parts of a
Answer: d 49. One of the most popular rope style is weldment in proper alignment until the final
a) 6x7 welds are made of
39. Tests and theoretical investigations by J.F. Howe b) 6 x 19 a) Butt weld
indicate that for steel ropes of the ordinary c) 6 x 37 b) Tack weld
constructions the value of modulus of elasticity is d) 7x7 c) Fillet weld
a) 10,000,000 psi d) Full fillet weld
b) 10,500,000 psi Answer: b
c) 11,000,000 psi Answer: b
d) 12,000,000 psi 50. The minimum factor of safety of small hoist is
a) 3 9. Test is designed primarily for application
Answer: d b) 5 to electric-welded tubing for detection of lack
c) 7 of penetration or overlaps resulting from flash
40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use drums d) 9 removal in the weld
______________ times the rope diameter. a) Butt weld
a) 60 to 70 Answer: c b) Paste
b) 60 to 80 c) Lap weld
c) 60 to 90 d) Double butt weld
d) 60 to 100 Test 9
1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the Answer: c
Answer: d residual stress in the welding it is normally stress
relieved of 10. The internal stresses existing in a welded
41. What is the recommended sheave diameter for a) Quenching connection are
haulage rope? b) Normalizing a) Relieved by x-ray analysis
a) 70d c) Tempering b) Maybe relieved when weld is penned
b) 71d d) Drawing c) Not relieved when the weld is penned
c) 72d d) Not relieved by heat treatment
d) 73d Answer: b

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Answer: d 20. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold d) TIG welding
the members in position for assembly purposes
11. A welding operation in which a non- or for principal welding Answer: a
ferrous fillet metal at a temperature below that a) Edge weld
of the metal joined but is heated above 450C b) Tack weld 30. During MIG welding the metal is
a) Spot welding c) Back welds transferred in the form of
b) Gas welding d) Half welds a) A fine spray of metal
c) Brazing b) Continuous flow of molten metal
d) Arc welding Answer: b c) Electron beam
d) Solution
Answer: c 21. A welding operation that uses hot flame
and metal rod is known as Answer: a
12. Uniting two pieces of metal by means of a) Gas welding
a different metal which is applied between b) Arc welding 31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be spot
the two in molten state c) Resistance welding welded then electrode tip diameter is equal
a) Casting d) Automatic welding to
b) Welding a) √𝑡
c) Soldering Answer: a b) 1.5√𝑡
d) Brazing c) 2.5√𝑡
22. The arc is covered with a welding d) 2√𝑡
Answer: c composition and bare electrode wire is fed
automatically Answer: a
13. Joining metal by means of high current a) Resistance welding
at low voltage. During the passage of current, b) Submerged arc welding 32. Weld spatter refers to
pressure by the electrodes produces a forge c) Induction welding a) Flux
weld: d) Spot welding b) Filler material
a) Spot welding c) Welding defect
b) Resistance welding Answer: b d) Welding electrode
c) Steam welding
d) Gas welding 23. Treating the weld as a line, the amount Answer: c
or inertia about center of gravity of a circular
Answer: b weld or diameter d would b 33. Which of the following metals can be
a) 𝜋 d2/36 suitably welded by TIG welding?
14. A fusion process in which the metal is b) 𝜋d2/6 a) Aluminum
heated together into a solid joint. c) 𝜋 d3/36 b) Magnesium
a) Electric arc welding d) 𝜋d3/4 c) A and B above
b) Gas welding d) Stainless steel
c) Spot welding Answer: d
d) Projection welding Answer: c
24. For butt welding of two plates each of
Answer: a which is 25 mm thick, the best process would 34. Arc blow takes place in
be a) Arc welding when straight polarity
15. As one example, the ASME code for a) TIG welding is used
riveted joints permits the design surface b) MIG welding b) Arc welding when reverse polarity
compressive stress to be about ________ higher c) Gas welding is used
than the design tensile stress. d) Electro slag welding c) Gas welding
a) 40% d) Welding stainless steel
b) 50% Answer: d
c) 60% Answer: d
d) 70% 25. What should be the maximum size of the
fillet weld? 35. Unlike materials or materials of different
Answer: c a) 2 mm thickness can be butt welded by
b) 3 mm a) Adjusting initial gap
16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of minimum c) 5 mm b) Adjusting time duration of current
strength of joint to the strength of solid joint is d) 7 mm c) Control of pressure and current
known as d) All of the above
a) Efficiency Answer: b
b) Joint efficiency Answer: c
c) Performance factor 26. The maximum size of the fillet weld that
d) Relative strength can be made in single pass is 36. The phenomenon of weld decay takes
a) 3 mm place in
Answer: d b) 6 mm a) Brass
c) 8 mm b) Bronze
17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of d) 12 mm c) Cast iron
safety may be taken as d) Stainless steel
a) 2 Answer: b
b) 3 Answer: d
c) 4 27. Which diamond riveted joint can be
d) 5 adopted? 37. Laser welding is widely used in
a) Butt joint a) electronic industry
Answer: d b) Lap joint b) Heavy industry
c) Double riveted lap joint c) Process industry
18. Are resistance welds, usually round in the d) All types of joints d) Structural work
same form as the electrodes that press the
sheets together Answer: a Answer: a
a) Edge joint
b) MIG joint 28. Wiping is the process of 38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger
c) Spot joint a) Applying flux during welding preparation for welding is not needed?
d) TIG joint process a) 2 mm
b) Clearing the welded surface after b) 4 mm
Answer: c the welding operation is over c) 8 mm
c) Connecting load pipes by d) 12 mm
19. Consists of short lengths (2 to 3 inches soldering alloy
long) of welds with space between as 6 inches d) Low temperature welding Answer: b
on centers.
a) Intermittent weld Answer: c 39. Grey cast iron is best welded by
b) MIG weld a) Arc
c) Spot welds 29. A collimated light beam is used for b) MIG
d) TIG welds producing heat in c) Oxy- acetylene
a) Laser welding d) TIG
Answer: a b) MIG welding
c) Plasma welding Answer: a

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40. In resistance welding, the pressure is Answer: c Answer: b
release
a) Just at the time of passing the 50. Which of the following produced a series 10. Soft solder is made of
current of spot welds made by circular or wheel type a) Copper and zinc
b) After completion of currents electrodes? b) Tin and copper
c) After the weld cools a) Steam welding c) Tin and lead
d) During heating b) Mash welding d) Tin and zinc
c) Spot welding
Answer: c d) Steam welding Answer: c

41. Half corner weld is used Answer: a or d 11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most
a) Where severe loading is popular but if you did not have any, you could
encountered and the upper use _____ as substitute
surfaces of both pieces must be in Test 10 a) Hydrochloric acid
the same plane 1. The soldering material commonly b) Nitric acid
b) Where efficiency of joint should be applied for automobile radiator cores and c) Sulfuric acid
50% roofing seams. d) Any of the above
c) Where longitudinal shear is present a) 15/85 % tin and lead
d) None of the above b) 50/50% tin and lead Answer: a
c) 45/55% tin and lead
Answer: d d) 20/80% tin and lead 12. Hard solder is made of
a) Copper and zinc
42. Projection welding is Answer: c b) Tin and copper
a) Continuous spot welding process c) Tin and lead
b) Multi spot welding process 2. The flux that should be provided in d) Tin and zinc
c) Used to form frameworks soldering electrical connection or
d) All of the above commutator wires as its tends to corrode the Answer: a
connectors called
Answer: b a) Sal ammoniac 13. Soldered will not unite with a metal
b) Zinc chloride surface that has
43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxy- c) Stearin a) Dirt on it
acetylene welding with d) Acid fluxes b) Grease on it
a) Excess oxygen c) Oxidation on it
b) Excess of acetylene Answer: d d) Any of the above
c) Equal parts of both gases
d) Reduced acetylene 3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint. Answer: d
a) Stronger than
Answer: b b) The same strength as 14. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the
c) Three times as strong as soldered area must be cleaned thoroughly
44. Brasses and bronzes are welded using d) Weaker than afterwards to prevent
a) Carburizing flame a) Anyone touching it from getting
b) Neutral flame Answer: a burned
c) Oxidizing flame b) Remaining acid form eating the
d) Reducing flame 4. Brazing requires metal
a) Hard solder c) The acid form evaporating and
Answer: b b) Soft solder the solder disintegrating
c) More heat d) None of the above
45. One of the following function is not d) Choices A and C
performed by coating on the welding Answer: b
electrodes is to Answer: d
a) Increase the cooling rate 15. Sweating is the process of
b) Provide protective atmosphere 5. What is the reason why lead is used in a) Soldering two different kinds of
c) Refuse oxidation solders? metal
d) Stabilize the arc a) It has a high melting point. b) Separating two pieces of metal
b) It has a low melting point. that have been soldered together
Answer: a c) It is cheap c) Tinning two surfaces, applying flux
d) Choices B and C them, holding the two together
46. Welding defect called arc blow occurs and heating
in Answer: d d) None of the above
a) Arc welding using ac current
b) Arc welding using dc current 6. The higher the melting pint of the solder, Answer: c
c) Gas welding the
d) MIG welding a) Harder the solder joint 16. A surface to be soldered should be
b) Softer the solder joint prepared by
Answer: d c) Stronger the solder joint a) Acid cleaning the surfaces
d) Weaker the solder joint b) Filing the surfaces
47. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to c) Scraping the surfaces
a) Increase fluidity of solder material Answer: c d) Any of the above
b) Full up gaps in bad joint
c) Prevent oxide formation 7. Special solders used for aluminum Answer: d
d) Lower the melting temperature of usually require
the solder a) less heat 17. One of the most important factors that is
b) More heat often overlooked when soldering is the fact
Answer: a c) The same heat as copper wire that
d) The same heat as sheet metal
48. The parts are lapped and held in place a) The surfaces to be soldered must
under pressure Answer: b be clean
a) Butt welding b) The two metals to be soldered
b) Spot welding 8. The flux usually used for hard solder is must not be the same
c) Steam welding a) Alum c) The two metals to be soldered
d) Projection welding b) Barium must be the same
c) Borax d) All surfaces should be dipped in
Answer: b d) Rosin acid first

49. The parts are brought together lightly Answer: c Answer: a

with current flowing and then separated
slightly 9. Soft solder melts at approximately 18. When soldering, flux is used for
a) Mash weld a) 250 °F
b) Steam welding b) 350 °F a) Keeping the metal from getting
c) Flush welding c) 450 °F too hot
d) Percussion welding d) 550 °F

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 b) Keeping the solder from running off d) 1.4√𝑡 to 1.8√𝑡 b) Metal spraying
the metal c) Metalizing
c) Keeping the tip of the soldering Answer: b d) Weldability
iron and clean
d) Remove and prevent oxidation of Answer: d
the metals 28. Fusion welding is the name frequently
given to processes not requiring pressure. It is 37. A surfacing method of blasting particles
Answer: d sometimes called of tungsten carbide onto the surface of a
a) Flash welding piece of metal.
19. Soldering is the process of b) Seam welding a) Flame plating
a) Holding two metals together by c) Spot welding b) Metal spraying
heating d) Thermit welding c) Metalizing
b) Joining two metals by a third soft d) Powder pouring
metal that is applied in a molten Answer: d
state Answer: a
c) Holding two different kinds of 29. The ratio of the load that will produce
metals together by heating the allowable stress in any part of the joint to 38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be
d) All of the above the load that will produce the allowable taken as equal to
tension stress in the unpunched plate. a) 80%
Answer: b a) Efficiency of the welded b) 60%
b) Efficiency of the joint c) 90%
20. Brazing is used for joining c) Performance factor d) 95%
a) Tow ferrous material d) Load factor
b) One ferrous and non-ferrous Answer: c
material Answer: b
c) Two non-ferrous metal 39. When the tensile strength of steel shell
d) Two non-metals 30. Thicker plates usually require excessive plates is not known it shall be taken as
rivet sizes and for practical reasons the rivet a) 379. 31 N/mm2
Answer: c diameter is made approximately b) 565.71 N/mm2
a) 1.2t c) 556.17 N/mm2
21. What is the most commonly used flux for b) 1.2√𝑡 d) 671.55 N/mm2
brazing? c) 2t
a) Zinc chloride d) 2√𝑡 Answer: d
b) Zinc and tin
c) Zinc and copper Answer: b 40. Minimum thickness for boiler plate shall
d) Zinc and lead be
31. The process of joining metals by means a) 3.56 mm
Answer: a by heating to a temperature above the b) 5.36 mm
recrystallization temperature or to fusion with c) 6. 36 mm
22. Multi spot welding process is also or without the application or pressure d) 6. 56 mm
referred as _____welding a) Brazing
a) Tack b) Soldering Answer: c
b) Fillet c) Welding
c) TIG d) Seaming 41. The strength of iron rivets in single shear
d) Projection a) 262 N/mm 2
Answer: c b) 303 N/mm 2
Answer: d c) 524 N/mm 2
32. The process of bonding two or more d) 607 N/mm 2
23. The maximum temperature developed pieces of metal together by means of another
for oxy-hydrogen welding is metal whose melting point is below 800⁰F Answer: a
a) 1755 C a) Brazing
b) 1965 C b) Seaming 42. The strength of steel rivets in single shear
c) 2565 C c) Soldering a) 262 N/mm 2
d) 3440 C d) Welding b) 303 N/mm 2
c) 524 N/mm 2
Answer: b Answer: c d) 607 N/mm 2

24. The maximum temperature developed 33. The process of joining metal parts by Answer: b
for oxy-acetylene welding is means of a non-ferrous fitter or alloy that melts
a) 1965 C at a temperature above 800⁰F. 43. When the longitudinal seams are of lap
b) 2565 C a) Brazing riveted construction the minimum factor of
c) 3440 C b) Seaming safety is
d) 4565 C c) Soldering a) 5
d) Welding b) 6
Answer: c c) 7
Answer: a d) 8
25. A mixture of aluminum powder and a
metal oxide powder is ignited by a special 34. The process of joining metals in which Answer: a
powder in a crucible. the two parts are joined by heating them
a) Thermit welding electrically to a temperature above the 44. The maximum allowable working
b) Stud welding recrystallization temperature. pressure of a non-code steel or wrought iron
c) Resistance welding a) Flash welding heating boiler of welded construction shall not
d) Gas welding b) Projection welding exceed.
c) Thermit welding a) 0.5 bar
Answer: a d) Resistance welding b) 1.0 bar
c) 1.5 bar
26. A welding where an arc is struck Answer: d d) 2.0 bar
between two tungsten electrodes into which
a jet of hydrogen is directed 35. A fusion welding process in which the Answer: b
a) Atomic hydrogen welding welding heat is obtained from an electric arc
b) Electron beam welding set up either between the base metal and one 45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that the
c) Electro slug welding electrode or between to electrodes. edge distance must be not less than
d) Flash welding a) Arc welding a) 1.5d
b) Gas welding b) 2.0d
Answer: a c) Fusion welding c) 2.5d
d) Spot welding d) 3.0d
27. A common rule is to make the rivet hole
diameter from ________ for rivets in single or Answer: a Answer: a
double shear.
a) 1.2 t to 1.4 t 36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to be 46. A method of resistance welding in which
b) 1.2√𝑡 to 1.4√𝑡 joined by welding in a satisfactory manner. the heating and the pressure are localized at
c) 1.3√𝑡 to 1.6√𝑡 a) Flame plating

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specified points by providing embossed or 6. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant hydrodynamic bearings. It is approximately
coined projections on the pieces to be joined. in itself equal to
a) Projection welding A. Zinc A. 1
b) Flash welding B. Antimony B. 2
c) Seam welding C. Babbit C. 3
d) Resistance welding D. Lead D. 4

Answer: a Answer: C Answer: A

47. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold 7. Which of the following materials is 17. Operating temperature of oil film ranges
the members in position for assembly purposes unsuitable as a bearing? _____________ or less
or for the principal welding. A. Teflon A. 120 F to 190 F
a) Spot weld B. Low carbon steel B. 130 F to 160 F
b) Tack weld C. Cast iron C. 140 F to 150 F
c) Butt weld D. Nylon D. 140 F to 160 F
d) Fillet weld
Answer: B Answer: D
Answer: b
8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which 18. At higher temperature, the oil oxidizes
48. What type of welding that the hot flame A. The lube oil is supplied under more rapidly above
and a metal rod are used? pressure A. 120F
a) Seam welding B. Lube oil is not pressurized B. 140F
b) Gas welding C. There is no lube oil C. 160F
c) Spot welding D. Bearing is lightly loaded D. 200F
d) Resistance welding
Answer: A Answer: D
Answer: b
9. At the same thermal and minimum film, 19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by
49. It used for joining members of thickness limitation as sleeve experiments is _____ that the smoother the
approximately equal in cross-section A. Ball bearing surface.
a) Mash welding B. Roller bearing A. Constant
b) Butt welding C. Thrust bearing B. The greater the load
c) Upset welding D. Full bearing capacity of the bearing
d) Choices B and C C. None of these
Answer: D D. Variable
Answer: d
10. The desired between two surfaces Answer: B
50. The melting point of the filler material in having relatively sliding motion is known
brazing is approximately or above. A. Lube oil 20. Which of the following is considered an
a) 420⁰F B. Graphite advantage for bearing materials?
b) 600⁰F C. Packing A. Conformability
c) 800⁰F D. Lubrication B. Embeddability
d) 1000⁰F C. Compatibility
Answer: D D. All of these
Answer: a
11. What bearing composed of two Answer: D
principal parts, namely the
Test 11 A. Bearing and journal 21. For thrust bearing the speed at
1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing B. Clearance and fitted moderate operating conditions is
design, the clearance ratio/clearance should C. Bolt and Babbitt A. 50<Vm>200 fpm
be D. Bolt and cylinder B. 50<Vm>220 fpm
A. 0.01001 C. 50<Vm>250 fpm
B. 0.0101 Answer: A D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm
C. 0.0110
D. 0.0010 12. When the line of action of the load Answer: A
bisects the arc of partial bearing it is said to be:
Answer: D A. Eccentrically loaded 22. The 200 series bearing is called
B. Fit loaded A. Heavy
2. Also called eccentrically loaded C. Centrally loaded B. Light
bearing D. Surface loaded C. Medium
A. Full bearing D. None of these
B. Offset bearing Answer: C
C. Partial bearing Answer: B
D. Fitted bearing 13. It is the difference in the radii of the
bearing and the journal 23. The 300 series bearing is called
Answer: B A. Even clearance A. Heavy
B. Clearance ratio B. Light
3. Wahta type of bearing which totally C. Fit clearance C. Medium
encloses the shaft? D. Radial clearance D. None of these
A. Offset bearing
B. Central bearing Answer: D Answer: C
C. Babbitt bearing
D. Full bearing 14. It is one in which the radii of the journal 24. A type of roller bearing in which the balls
and the bearing are the same are assembled by the eccentric displacement
Answer: D A. Clearance bearing of the inner ring.
B. Fitted bearing A. Shallow-groove ball bearing
4. All are functions of lubricating oil except C. Full bearing B. Self-aligning ball bearing
A. Adhesion D. Partial bearing C. Filling-slot ball bearing
B. Corrosion prevention D. Deep-groove ball bearing
C. Act as coolant Answer: B
D. To tighten the load Answer: D
15. The line that passes through centers of
Answer: A the bearing and the journal is called the 25. Which of the following is not a type of
A. Line of action ball bearing?
5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant B. Line of centers A. Shallow-groove ball bearing
A. Lube oil C. Line of tangent B. Self-aligning ball bearing
B. Graphite D. Under cut C. Fillet-slot ball bearing
C. Grease D. Deep-groove ball bearing
D. All of these Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: C 16. Length-diameter ration was a good
compromise for the general case of

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26. Steel ball for ball bearing are 35. Which of the following is a bearing
manufactured by material? 45. The product of absolute viscosity and
A. Casting A. Babbitt rotational speed divided by the unit loading.
B. Cold headling B. Bronze A. Section modulus
C. Rolling C. Plastics B. Bearing modulus
D. Turning D. All of the above C. Shear modulus
D. All of the above
Answer: B Answer: D
Answer: B
27. In hydrodynamic bearings 36. It acts toward the center of the bearing
A. The oil film pressure is generated along a radius.
only by the rotation of the journal A. Thrust load 46. From the line of radial loading on the
B. The oil film is maintained by B. Tangential load bearing to the position of the minimum oil-film
supplying oil under pressure C. Radial load thickness.
C. Do not need external supply of D. Peripheral load A. Attitude angle
lubricant B. Latitude angle
D. Grease is used for lubrication Answer: C C. Longitude angle
D. Altitude angle
Answer: A 37. Conrad bearing is also known as
A. Needle bearing Answer:
28. If P = bearing pressure on projected B. Ball bearing
bearing area, Z= absolute viscosity of C. Roller bearing
lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then the D. Tapered bearing 47. The radial distance between the center
bearing characteristic number is given by of the bearing and the displaced center of the
A. ZN/P Answer: B journal is called.
B. Z/ PN A. Concentricity
C. ZP/ N 38. The combined effect of many of the B. Eccentricity
D. P/ZN variables involved in the operation of a C. Embeddability
bearing under hydrodynamic lubrication can D. None of the above
Answer: A be characterized by the dimensionless
number called: Answer: B
29. The rated life of a bearing changes A. Reynolds Number
A. Directly as load B. Prandtl Number 48. Which of the following is an example of
B. Inversely as fourth power of C. Grashof Number solid lubricant?
load D. Sommerfeld Number A. Molybdenum disulfide
C. Inversely as cube of load B. Graphite
D. Inversely as square of load Answer: D C. Tungsten disulfide
D. All of the above
Answer: C 39. It exits primarily to guide the motion of a
machine member without specific regard to Answer: D
the direction of load application.
30. In oiless bearing A. radial bearing 49. The length ratio L/D typically varies
A. The oil film pressure is produced only by B. Journal bearing between
the rotation of the journal C. Thrust bearing A. 0.1 to 0.5
B. The oil film I maintained by supplying oil D. Guide bearing B. 0.2 to 0.6
under pressure C. 0.2 to 0.8
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant Answer: D D. 0.25 to 1.0
D. Grease is needed to be applied after
some intervals 40. It carries a load collinear to the axis of Answer: D
possible rotation of the supported member.
Answer: C A. Guide bearing 50. The operating temperature of the
B. Journal bearing Babbitt is limited to
31. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise C. Thrust bearing A. 200°F
direction at slow speed inside a bearing will be D. Radial bearing B. 300°F
A. At bottom most of bearing C. 400°F
B. Towards left side of bearing and Answer: C D. 500°F
making metal to metal contact
C. Towards left side of bearing and 41. The 400 series bearing is called: Answer: B
making no metal to metal contact A. Light
D. Towards right side of bearing and B. Medium
making no metal to metal contact C. Heavy Test 12
D. Extra heavy 1. A heavy rotating body which serves as a
Answer: B reservoir for absorbing and redistributing
Answer: C kinetic energy.
32. A machine part that supports another A. Gear
part, which rotates, slides or oscillates in or on 42. The product of length and diameter of B. Brakes
it the bearing is called: C. Flywheel
A. Journal A. Shearing area D. Fan
B. Bearing B. Compressive area
C. Roller C. Projected area Answer: C
D. Casing D. Cross-sectional area
2. Which of the following is not a use of
Answer: B Answer: C spring?
A. Absorbs energy
33. The part of a shaft or crank which is 43. If the length over diameter of the B. Measure weight
supported by and turns in bearing. bearing is unity, it is also known as C. Source of energy in clocks
A. Casing D. Measure the thickness
B. Bushing A. Long bearing
C. Roller B. Short bearing Answer: D
D. Journal C. Medium bearing
D. Square bearing 3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to the
Answer: D coil diameter
Answer: D A. Wahl factor
34. It is also called anti-friction bearing. B. Diameter ratio
A. Rolling bearing 44. A bearing in which the length ratio C. Spring index
B. Thrust bearing Length/diameter is greater than 1. D. Lead angle
C. Tapered bearing A. Short bearings
D. Single row bearing B. Long bearings Answer: C
C. Square bearings
Answer: A D. Medium bearings 4. The overall length of the spring when it is
compressed until all adjacent coils touched.
Answer: B A. Compressed length

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 B. Free length A. Economy 24. the shortest length for the spring during
C. Solid length B. Reduction in weight normal operation
D. None of these C. Improved appearance A. compressed length
D. Space consideration of the B. operating length
Answer: C utility stage C. solid length
D. free length
5. The length of coil sprig under no load. Answer: A
A. Compressed length Answer: B
B. Free length 15. An elastic stored energy machine
C. Solid height element that when released, will recover its 25. the relationship between the force
D. None of these basic form exerted by a spring and its deflection is called
A. Flywheel A. spring index
Answer: B B. Clutch B. spring rate
C. Brakes C. wahl’s factor
6. In general, steel spring are made of D. Spring D. Spring angle
relatively high carbon steel usually
A. More than 0.5% Answer: D Answer: B
B. 5%
C. Less than 0.5% 16. When a spring is made of ductile 26. The ration of the mean diameter of the
D. 10% material, the curvature factor would be spring to the wire diameter is called
A. Zero A. Spring index
Answer: B B. Constant B. Spring ratio
C. Unity C. Spring rate
7. When heat treated wire is coiled cold, it D. Positive D. Spring constant
should be stress relieved for bending stresses
after cooling by being heated at some at Answer: C Answer: A
what temperature
A. 400F 17. The solid length plus the clearance plus 27. Refers to the axial distance from a point
B. 500F the maximum deflection. on one coil to the corresponding point on the
C. 600F A. Free length next adjacent coil.
D. 700F B. Height A. Lead
C. Distance B. Spring distance
Answer: B D. Original length C. Pitch
D. Spring deflection
8. A low cost spring material, suitable Answer: A
where service is not severe and dimensional Answer: C
precision is not needed. 18. The majority of coils springs are made of
A. Hard drawn wire spring coil tempered carbon steel wire containing 28. The spring index for general industrial
B. Helical spring ______________ carbon. uses should be
C. Stainless steel A. 0.30 to 0.40% A. 5 to 7
D. Helical tension spring wire B. 0.40 to 0.50% B. 6 to 8
C. 0.50 to 0.60% C. 7 to 9
Answer: A D. 0.60 to 0.70% D. 8 to 10

9. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but it is Answer: D Answer: D

made of high-grade steel
A. Music wire 19. Experimental results indicate that the 29. What is the spring index of valve and
B. Oil tempered wire actual frequency of the spring is from clutch?
C. Song wire A. 5 to 10% A. 3
D. Chromium- silicon B. 10 to 15% B. 5
C. 15 to 20% C. 7
Answer: A D. 20 to 25% D. 9

10. A spring wire with good quality for Answer: B Answer: B

impact loads at moderately high temperature
A. Hard drawn wire spring 20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the critical 30. Refers to the space between adjacent
B. Helical spring wire frequency of the spring should behold at least coils when the spring is compressed to its
C. Chromium-silicon ________ times the frequency of application of operating length
D. Helical tension spring wire a periodic load. A. Coil allowance
A. 5 B. Coil tolerance
Answer: C B. 10 C. Coil clearance
C. 15 D. None of these
11. A type of coil where the helical coil is D. 20
wrapped into a circle forming an annular ring Answer: C
A. Volute spring Answer: D
B. Motor spring 31. The most practical spring designs
C. Hair spring 21. The actual number of coil is _________ in produce a pitch angle is less than
D. Garter spring a squared and ground ends. A. 12°
A. n B. 15°
Answer: D B. n+2 C. 20°
C. nd D. 25°
12. A type of spring where thin flat strip D. ( n + 1) d
wound up on itself as a plane spiral, usually Answer: A
anchored at the inside Answer: B
A. Volute spring 32. Engine valves get shut by means of
B. Motor spring 22. The solid length of squared ends is A. Valve lock
C. Hair spring A. (n+3)d B. Tappet
D. Garter spring B. (n+1)d C. Valve spring
C. np D. Adjusting screw
Answer: B D. n+2
Answer: C
13. A type of spring made in the form of Answer: A
dished washer 33. Which of the following materials is used
A. Volute spring 23. The free length of ground ends is for leaf and coil spring?
B. Motor spring A. np + 3d A. AISI 3140
C. Hair spring B. np + 2d B. AISI 3150
D. Beleville spring C. np + d C. AISI 3240
D. np D. AISI 4063
Answer: D
Answer: D Answer: D
14. In laminated spring the strips are
provided in different lengths for

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34. The circumference of a coil spring times 44. Flywheel is also known as B. Brakes
the effective number of coils is called A. Steering wheel C. Babbitt
A. Active length B. Front wheel D. Holders
B. Solid length C. Balance wheel
C. Compressed length D. Rear wheel Answer: B
D. Operating length
Answer: C 4. The part of the total frictional energy
Answer: A that is stored in the brake parts, principally in
45. What energy is stored in flywheels? the drum or disk has been estimated at
35. For spring subjected to light service, the A. Kinetic energy __________.
factor of safety __________ is suggested B. Internal energy A. 56% up
A. 1.5 C. Potential energy B. 86% up
B. 2.0 D. Rest energy C. 90% up
C. 2.5 D. 75% up
D. 3.0 Answer: A
Answer: D
Answer: A 46. What is the function of the flywheel?
A. To keep the speed fluctuation within the 5. The part of an automobile disc clutch
36. Refers to a flat or curved made of thin desired limits that presses against the flywheel is referred to
superimposed plates and formin a cantilever B. To limit the momentary rise or fall in as:
or beam of uniform strength. speed during sudden changes of load
A. Laminated spring C. To keep the angular advance or A. Contact plate
B. Graduated spring retardation within prescribed limit as B. Friction plate
C. Full spring compared with a perfectly uniform C. Pressure plate
D. Conical spring angular speed D. Sliding plate
D. All of the above
Answer: A Answer: C
Answer: D
37. Cross wire grooves are types which 6. The brake capacity to absorb energy is
A. Decrease the danger of skidding 47. In many flywheel designs, about how known as:
B. Absorb shocks because of road many percent of the weight is concentrated A. Energy
unevenness in the hub and arms B. Resistance brake
C. Provide good faction A. 20 C.
D. Provide better load carrying B. 30 D. Braking torque
capacity C. 35
D. 45 Answer: D
Answer: B
Answer: B 7. If the band warps partly around the
38. The _____ of parallel connection of spring brake wheel or drum and brake action is
is always constant 48. A large rotary machine part whose obtained by pulling the band tight onto the
A. Elongation function is to store energy and to produce wheel. This type of brake is known as:
B. Load uniform angular velocity of the shaft or A. Block brake
C. Thermal conductivity reciprocating engine. B. Band brake
D. Resistance A. Cam C. Clutch
B. Idler D. Centrifugal brake
Answer: A C. Flywheel
D. Chuck Answer: B
39. Speedometer drive is generally taken
from Answer: C 8. The brake lining operating at
A. Dynamo temperature _____, sintered mixtures
B. Flywheel 49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia containing ceramics are used:
C. Gear assists in securing uniform motion of machinery A. 750 F to 1000 F
D. Front wheel by resisting sudden changes of speed. B. 560 F to 900 F
A. Linkage C. 800 F to 1200 F
Answer: D B. Crank D. 400 F to 789 F
C. Planetary gears
40. The device for smoothing out the power D. Flywheel Answer: A
impulses from the engine is known as
A. Clutch Answer: D 9. Hydrodynamic brake is the major type
B. Flywheel of:
C. Gearbox 50. The function of a flywheel is to A. Air brake
D. Differential A. Complete the unusual stroke B. Fluid brake
B. Operated the engines C. Electric brake
Answer: B C. Keep the engines weight D. Spot brake
light
41. Typical hub length falls between D. None of theses Answer: B
A. 1.25D to 2.4D
B. 1.25D to 5D Answer: A 10. Type of brakes that are capable of
C. 1.3 D to 3.4D stopping the motion of a machine member as
D. D to 7D well as retarding its motion
Test 13 A. Electrical brake
Answer: A 1. A shaft that is used to connect or B. Fluid brake
disconnect at will is called: C. Air brake
42. The recommended coefficient of A. Clutch D. Mechanical brake
fluctuation of flywheels for punching, shearing, B. Bearing
and pressing machine is C. Brake Shaft Answer: D
A. 0.05 to 0.10 D. Lock Shaft
B. 0.03 to 0.05 11. It is considered as the simplest type of
C. 0.002 to 0.005 Answer: A mechanical brake.
D. 0.01 to 0.02 A. Differential brake
2. The frictional forces depend on B. Block brake
Answer: A coefficient of friction and: C. Band brake
A. Torque D. Brake shoe
43. Attached to the rear end of the B. Weights of object
crankshaft is the C. Normal Force Answer: C
A. Vibration damper D. Moment
B. Flywheel 12. The friction devices used to connect
C. Drive pulley Answer: C shafts:
D. Timing gear A. Brakes
3. Friction devices used to regulate the B. Clutches
Answer: B motion of bodies and with clutches C. Spring
A. Rollers D. Holder

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 23. The SAE recommends an angle of A. More than one
Answer: B ________ for cone clutches faced with leather B. Less than four
or asbestos or having cork inserts: C. More than ten
13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of A. 7.5 o D. Less than one
heavier rotary masses. B. 9.5 o
A. Multiple disc clutch C. 12.5o Answer: A
B. Disc clutch D. 14.5o
C. Cone clutch 34. Hydraulic clutches are used in _______
D. None of these Answer: C vehicles.
A. Costly
Answer: A 24. Why does a clutch create noise? B. Foreign made
A. Clutch release bearings is either C. Cheap
14. The overrunning clutch dry or defective D. Affordable
A. Should be oiled B. Clutch spring is broken
B. Should be repacked with C. Clutch is faulty Answer: A
grease D. All of these
C. Cannot be lubricated 35. Which of the following is mounted inside
D. Contains no lubricant Answer: D the clutch?
A. An engine
Answer: C 25. What faults develop in the brakes? B. Gear box propeller shaft
A. Brakes do not work properly C. Both the rear axle
15. The overrunning clutch: B. Brakes do not disengage D. All of these
A. Transmits cranking force to C. Brake make noise
the engine flywheel D. All of these Answer: B
B. Is one way clutch
C. Prevents the engine flywheel Answer: D 36. Which clutch is suitable for mine hoists
from driving the starting motor and other services where heavy loads are
D. All of these 26. Which of the following types of brakes accompanied by severe shock?
are also changed while replacing brake A. Band clutch
Answer: D lining? B. Block clutch
A. Brake shoes C. Centrifugal clutch
16. Clutch gear box, differential etc. are the B. Shoe rivets D. Expanding ring clutch
parts of: C. Shoe spring
A. Charging system D. Block brake Answer: A
B. Transmission system
C. Cooling system Answer: B 37. It is used to protect a machine in case of
D. None of these jamming and for overload protection of
27. Power brakes require ______ power: motors and engine
Answer: B A. Equal A. Dry fluid clutch
B. Less B. Magnetic clutch
17. In motor vehicles, it is very common C. More C. Eddy clutch
practice to use a: D. Pulsating D. Slip clutch
A. Multiple clutch
B. Hydraulic clutch Answer: B Answer: D
C. Cone clutch
D. Single plate clutch 28. That type of oil is used in the hydraulic 38. Refers to the simplest type of brakes.
brake system? A. Differential brakes
Answer: D A. Engine oil B. Block brakes
B. Gear oil C. Band brakes
18. The clutch finger is pushed by C. Brake oil D. Brake shoe
A. Clutch fork D. Clutch oil
B. Clutch Answer: C
C. Clutch bearing Answer: C
D. None of these 39. The practical length of shoe is limited to
29. The principal parts of a hydraulic brake about:
Answer: C system are the master cylinder and the: A. 75 o
A. Multi-cylinder B. 90 o
19. A hydraulic clutch doesn’t incorporate B. Wheel cylinder C. 120 o
a: C. Brake wire D. 180 o
A. Clutch plate D. Brake shoe
B. Oil plate Answer: C
C. Vacuum plate Answer: B
D. None of these 40. If the angle of contact is ______, the
30. In the mechanical brake system, the pressure between the brakes shoe and the
Answer: A main function is of: drum cannot be considered uniform:
A. Spring A. Less than 45 deg
20. The lining of a brake shoe: B. Cam B. Less than 60 deg
A. Can be changed C. Shoe adjuster C. Greater than 60 deg
B. Cannot be fitted D. Shoe rivets D. Greater than 120 deg
C. Can be fitted with spring
D. None of these Answer: B Answer: C

Answer: A 31. In motor vehicles, there is a __________ in 41. It is used to stop the motion of a moving
addition of foot brake. object.
21. Due to air effect, the hydraulic brakes A. Hand brake A. Clutch
become: B. Hydraulic brake B. Brakes
A. More effective C. Mechanical brake C. Band clutch
B. Ineffective D. Band brake D. Band brake
C. Possible
D. None of these Answer: A Answer: B

Answer: B 32. Which of the following is also used in the 42. The effectiveness of the brake may
suspension system? greatly decrease shortly after it begins to act
22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking A. Shock absorbers continuously, a phenomenon called:
system is: B. Brake shoes A. Creep
A. About 90 percent C. Cams B. Pressurized
B. 60-80 percent D. Block brakes C. Fade
C. 50-60 percent D. Worn-out
D. 40-50 percent Answer: A
Answer: C
Answer: A 33. There are ______ plates in a multi-plate
clutch

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43. Type of brake under the category of Answer: C 11. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we
power brake is known as: may use the date experience by Link-Belt for
A. Servo brake 2. It is recommended for high speed 1/8 inch pins and the breaking stress is
B. Band brake application that the minimum number of teeth __________ ksi.
C. Differential brake in small sprocket should be: A. 40
D. Brake shoe A. 12 to 20 B. 55
B. 18 to 24 C. 50
Answer: A C. 16 to 32 D. 48
D. 14 to 28
44. Clutches which are designed to transmit Answer: C
torque for one direction of rotation of the Answer: B
driver and then free-wheel or transmit 12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving pulley
essentially no torque when the direction of the 3. Consider a maximum safe center with a speed of 260 rpm and transmitting 5 hp
driver rotation is reversed. distance of should be _____ pitches. Very long A. Type C belts
A. Magnetic clutches center distance caused catenaries tension in B. Type B belts
B. Trip clutches the chain C. Type A belts
C. Overrunning clutches A. 70 D. Type D belts
D. Slip clutches B. 80
C. 90 Answer: B
Answer: C D. 100
13. Belt slip may take place because of:
45. The reason for noise at the time of Answer: B A. Loose load
engaging brake: B. Heavy Belt
A. Back plate being loose or 4. The recommended lubricant for the C. Driving pulley too small
bent chain drive operation is: D. All of these
B. Brake shoe being loose or A. SAE 4140
bent B. Petroleum Oil Answer: D
C. Brake drum could be C. Moly slip
defective D. Heavy grease 14. A single ply leather belt running at a belt
D. All of these velocity of 300ft/min is likely to transmit ____ per
Answer: B inch of width
Answer: D A. 2.5 hp
5. Type of leather belt being applied with B. 3.0 hp
46. When the vehicle runs brake drum waterproof cement is called: C. 4.0 hp
becomes hot because of friction of the shoe. A. Combination of D. 5.0 hp
This fault is known as _______ Oak/Mineral Tanned
A. Brake lining B. Oak Tanned Answer: C
B. Brake winding C. Mineral Tanned
C. Back plate D. All of these 15. What is the density of a leather belt?
D. None of these A. 0.035 lb/in3
Answer: B B. 0.0253 lb/in3
Answer: B C. 0.046 lb/in3
6. What type of leather belting should be D. 0.074 lb/in3
47. The maintenance of mechanical brake used at an ambient temperature above 149
is: deg F and possible acid liquid coming in Answer: A
A. Expensive contact with the belt?
B. Economical A. Mineral Tanned 16. What is the density of flat belt rubber
C. Costly B. Combination of Oak material?
D. None of these C. Oak Tanned A. 0.055 lb/in3
D. None of these B. 0.045 lb/in3
Answer: B C. 0.0725 lb/in3
Answer: D D. 0..0726 lb/in3
48. What is the most common defect of
clutch? 7. It is recommended not to have a direct Answer: B
A. Slip of the clutch drive and drive sprockets if the ratio of their
B. Clutch does not disengage teeth exceeds _______ use two or more 17. The breaking strength of oak tanned
properly combination belting varies from 3 to more than
C. Clutch creates noise A. 10 times A. 5 ksi
D. All of these B. 8 times B. 6 ksi
C. 5 times C. 7 ksi
Answer: D D. 6 times D. 8 ksi

49. The act keeping some pressure on the Answer: B Answer: B

clutch pedal at the time of driving is known as:
A. Hydraulic clutch 8. Flat leather belting not recommended 18. If the ends are joined by wire lacing with
B. Slip of the clutch for use in a speed in excess of ________ fpm machine, the usual efficiency of joint is:
C. Riding on clutch A. 3600 A. 75%
D. Clutch adjustment B. 4800 B. 85%
C. 6000 C. 88%
Answer: C D. All of these D. 100%

50. Which of the following shortcoming in Answer: C Answer: C

the cone clutch because of which the clutch
is not used? 9. V-belts operate efficiently at speed of 19. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal
A. Clutch slips quickly about: force increases rapidly above
B. It occupies more space A. 4500 fpm A. 2500 fpm
C. Adjustment has to be done B. 4400 fpm B. 3000 fpm
early C. 4200 fpm C. 3500 fpm
D. All of these D. 3600 fpm D. 4000 fpm

Answer: D Answer: A Answer: A

10. It is advised that in rubber belts 20. Experience suggests that the most
Test 14 application mounting, it should have an initial economical designs are obtained for a belt
1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in tension of _______ speed of:
sprocket drive operation to choose _____ or A. 18 to 24 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
more teeth. B. 15 to 20 B. 3000 to 4000 fpm
A. 25 C. 12 to 15 C. 4000 to 4500 fpm
B. 26 D. 10 D. 4000 to 4000 fpm
C. 27
D. 28 Answer: B Answer: C

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21. For leather belts, recommended speed 31. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the 41. The minimum number of teeth on the
is: reduction should be: smaller sprocket for high speeds is:
A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. 25% A. 19
B. 4000 to 5000 fpm B. 50% B. 21
C. 6000 to 7500 fpm C. 75% C. 23
D. 7000 to 8000 fpm D. 95% D. 25

Answer: D Answer: B Answer: B

22. For fabric belts, recommended speed is: 32. The advantage of flat belt is that: 42. For maximum quietness, use sprockets
A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. It can be used with high-speed drives with _____ or more teeth
B. 2000 and more fpm B. It can be used in dusty and abrasive A. 21
C. 3000 to 4000 fpm environments B. 23
D. 4000 to 4500 fpm C. It allows long distances between shafts C. 25
D. All of these D. 27
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: D
23. In high speed, centrifugal blowers, it has
been observed that the arc of contact 33. The best leather has an ultimate strength 43. For the average application a center
reduced from 180 deg at rest to _______ in of about distance equivalent to ____ pitches of chain
motion A. 3000 psi represents good practice.
A. 90 deg B. 4000 psi A. 10 to 20
B. 95 deg C. 5000 psi B. 20 to 30
C. 100 deg D. 6000 psi C. 30 to 50
D. 110 deg D. 40 to 60
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: C
34. Initial tensions should range from ___ for
24. The recommended initial tension of belt leather belts and 10 to 12 lb/ply per inch of 44. The tension ratio of flat belt is:
is: width for rubber belts A. 2
A. 75 lb/in of width A. 200 to 240 psi B. 3
B. 71 lb/in of width B. 220 to 260 psi C. 4
C. 73 lb/in of width C. 240 to 280 psi D. 5
D. 80 lb/in of width D. 260 to 300 psi
Answer: B
Answer: B Answer: A
45. The tension ratio of V-belt is:
25. The recommended net belt pill for 35. The density of a balata belt is: A. 2
rubber belt is: A. 0.031 lb/in3 B. 3
A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width B. 0.42 lb/in3 C. 4
B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width C. 0.51 lb/in3 D. 5
C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width D. 0.61 lb/in3
D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width Answer: D
Answer: B
Answer: B 46. Balata belt is about _____ stronger than
36. In the selection of the proper belt, it is not rubber
26. If two intersecting shafts are to be belt considered good practice to use single-ply A. 10%
connected, how many guide pulley/s is used? leather belts more than ____ wide B. 15%
A. 1 A. 6 in. C. 20%
B. 2 B. 7 in. D. 25%
C. 3 C. 8 in.
D. 4 D. 9 in. Answer: D

Answer: B Answer: C 47. The coefficient of friction between the

belt and the pulley for leather belt running on
27. Two shafts at right angles to each other 37. According to the Goodrich company, steel pulley is:
may be connected by the _____ arrangement the permissible net belt pull is ____ that it gives A. 0.1
A. Half turn a simple means for quick estimation B. 0.2
B. Three-fourths turn A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width C. 0.3
C. One turn B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width D. 0.5
D. Quarter turn C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width
D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width Answer: C
Answer: D
Answer: A 48. The capacity of a crossed belt should be
28. It offers long life, high efficiency and low reduced to _____ that of an open belt
cost and low maintenance 38. Which type of chain is used in A. 25%
A. Flat belt motorcycle? B. 50%
B. V-belt A. Bush roller C. 60%
C. Tooth belt B. Pintle D. 75%
D. All of these C. Silent
D. None of these Answer: D
Answer: A
Answer: A 49. What is the usual factor of safety used
29. It is used to connect pulleys to convey with leather belts?
materials by transmitting motion and power 39. The minimum number of teeth on the A. 3
A. Rope smaller sprocket for low speeds is: B. 5
B. Wires A. 12 C. 7
C. Belt B. 14 D. 10
D. Flat C. 16
D. 18 Answer: D
Answer: C
Answer: A 50. In practice, it is found that arcs less than
30. A crossed belt wider than ______ inches ______ required high belt tensions.
should be avoided 40. The minimum number of teeth on the A. 155o
A. 7 smaller sprocket for moderate speeds is: B. 165o
B. 8 A. 15 C. 175o
C. 9 B. 17 D. 180o
D. 10 C. 19
D. 21 Answer: B
Answer: B
Answer: B

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 D. Alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron Answer: D
Test 15 spider
1. The minimum recommended worm 20. It is used to transmit power at high
pitch diameter is ¼ in and the maximum is: Answer: A velocity ratios between non-intersecting shafts
A. 1 ¾ in that are usually but not necessarily at right
B. 2 ¾ in 11. Intermediate gear is also called ____ angle.
C. 3 in gear in a gear train engagement. A. Helical gear
D. 2 in A. Idler B. Bevel gear
B. Pinion C. Worm gear
Answer: D C. Third gear D. Spiral gear
D. Mounted gear
2. Vertex distance is a term used in ____ Answer: C
gearing Answer: A
A. Spiral 21. In gear design, the ratio of pitch
B. Worm 12. The distance of a helical gear or worm diameter, in inches to the number of teeth is
C. Bevel would thread along its axis in one revolution if called:
D. Zerol it were to move axially is called: A. Module
A. Lead B. Diametral Pitch
Answer: C B. Thread C. English Module
C. Pitch D. Circular Pitch
3. The arc of action to circular pitch or D. Land
length of action to base pitch Answer: C
A. Approach Answer: A
B. Contact ratio 22. The concave portion of tooth profile
C. Arc of action 13. Range of helix angle on helical gear is where it joints the bottom of the tooth filler
D. Arc of approach _________. curve is called:
A. Less than 18 A. Fillet curve
Answer: B B. 15 - 25 B. Fillet radius
C. 20 - 35 C. Bottom depth
4. Recommended hardness of pinion for D. 35 – 40 D. Fillet
helical/herringbone gear tooth should be
_____ BHN point to sustain life: Answer: B Answer: A
A. 50-58
B. 48-65 14. What will be the effect in bushing gears
C. 40-50 without backlash? 23. The distance of the tooth, which is equal
D. 30-60 A. Jamming to the sum of the addendum and dedendum
B. Overheating is known as:
Answer: C C. Overload A. Full depth
D. All of these B. Whole depth
5. In designing gears of power transmission, C. Working depth
consider and efficiency of _____ as Answer: D D. Dedendum
recommended.
A. 96% or more 15. The amount by which the width of a Answer: B
B. 89% or more tooth space exceeds the thickness of the
C. 85% or more engaging tooth on the pitch circles 24. It is used to change rotary motion to
D. 98% or more A. Backlash reciprocating motion.
B. Clearance A. Helical Gear
Answer: D C. Undercut B. Rack Gear
D. Chordal thickness C. Worm Gear
6. The surface of the gear between the D. Spur Gear
fillets of adjacent teeth is called: Answer: A
A. Bottom land Answer: B
B. Flank 16. Height of tooth above pitch circle or
C. Top land radial distance between pitch circles and top 25. Tooth width measure along the chord at
D. Flank of tooth land of the tooth is called: the pitch circle is known as:
A. Top tooth A. Flank
Answer: A B. Addendum B. Face Width
C. Land C. Width of face
7. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion and D. Hunting D. Chordal Thickness
lightly loaded are usually made of:
A. Bronze Answer: B Answer: D
B. Brass
C. Duralumin 17. In involutes teeth, the pressure angle is 26. _______ is the difference of addendum
D. All of these often defined as the angle between the line and dedendum, which is equivalent to the
of action and the line of tangent to pitch whole depth less working depth.
Answer: D circle. It is termed as: A. Fillet Space
A. Helix angle B. Fillet Radius
8. If a set of spur gears are made installed B. Angle of recess C. Clearance
and lubricated properly, they normally may C. Angle of obliquity D. Backlash
be subjected to failures like: D. Arc of action
A. Tooth spalling Answer: C
B. Tooth penning Answer: C
C. Pitting 27. For moderate speed of mating gears,
D. Shearing 18. The reciprocal of a diametrical pitch or the ideal ratio contact is:
the ratio of pitch diameter to number of teeth A. 1.25 – 4.00
Answer: C is called: B. 1.20 – 1.45
A. Lead C. 1.00 – 1.30
9. Which of the following is an example of B. Module D. 1.35 – 1.45
rectilinear translation? C. Involute
A. Locomotive wheels D. Clearance Answer: A
B. Rack gear
C. Piston of an engine Answer: B 28. The distance a helical gear or worm
D. Jack would thread along its axis in one revolution if
19. For evenly distributed and uniform wear it free to move axially is called:
Answer: C on each meshing gear tooth, the ideal design A. Length of action
practice is to consider a: B. Length of contact
10. For economical cost in the A. Wear resistance alloy addition to tooth C. Land
manufacturing large worm gears, the gear D. Lead
following materials are usually applied: B. Heat treatment of the gears
A. Bronze rim with cast steel spider C. Hardening of each Answer: D
B. Cast iron rim with bronze spider D. Hunting tooth addition
C. Cast steel rim with brass spider

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29. Hyphoid gear is a special type of gear A. Rack Gear Answer: A
like: B. Ring Gear
A. Worm Gear C. Miter Gear 48. If gears cannot, parallel shafts, they are
B. Spur Gear D. Internal Gear called:
C. Herring Gear A. Cycloidal Gears
D. Bevel Gear Answer: D B. Helical Gears
C. Spur Gears
Answer: D 39. The length of arc between the two sides D. Toothed Gears
of a gear tooth on the pitch circle.
30. What type of gear is used for high-speed A. Circle Thickness Answer: A
operation? B. Axial Plane
A. Helical C. Helix Angle 49. ______ is used to transmit power
B. Spur D. Chordal Curves between shafts axis of which it intersect
C. Bevel A. Spur Gears
D. Worm Answer: D B. Bevel Gears
C. Helical Gears
Answer: A 40. Which of the following materials to be D. Straight Bevel Gears
utilized to reduce cost in the manufacture of
31. In a pair of gears, _____ is the plane large worm gears? Answer: B
perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent A. Alloyed Aluminum
to the pitch surface. B. Bronze Rim with Cast Iron Spider 50. The space between the adjacent teeth
A. Pitch C. Cast Iron Rim with Bronze Spider is called:
B. Pitch Plane D. All of these A. Tooth
C. Pitch Circle B. Flank
D. Pitch point Answer: B C. Backlash
D. Width
Answer: B 41. A circle bounding the bottom of the
teeth Answer: D
32. What type of gear, which can transmit A. Addendum Circle
power at a certain angle? B. Addendum Cylinder
A. Helical Gear C. Pitch Circle Test 16
B. Worm Gear D. Dedendum Circle 1. Tooth width measurement along the
C. Bevel Gear chord at the pitch circle
D. Herringbone Gear Answer: D A. Chord Space
B. Chord Clearance
Answer: C 42. ______ is one in which angle is 90 degrees C. Chordal Thickness
that is the pitch cone has become a plane D. Chordal Length
33. _______ commonly used in a parallel A. Crown Gear
shaft transmission especially when a smooth B. Angular Gear Answer: C
continuous action is essential as in high speed C. Miter Gear
drives up to 12,000 fpm. D. Spiral Gear 2. Herringbone gears are gears which:
A. Bevel Gear A. Do not operate parallel shafts
B. Herringbone Gear Answer: A B. Have a line contact between the
C. Spur Gear teeth
D. Helical Gear 43. A ______ formed by elements, which are C. Tend to produce and thrust on the
perpendicular to the elements of the pitch shafts
Answer: B cone at the large end. D. Consists of two left handed helical
A. Cone Distance gears
34. The hardness of helical and herringbone B. Back Cone
gear teeth after heat treatment is 210 to 300 C. Root Cone Answer: B
Brinell Hardness, for gear and pinion is at: D. Cone Center
A. 360 Brinell minimum 3. In usual spur gearing, the:
B. 400 Brinell maximum Answer: B A. Pitch circle and base circle are the
C. 340 – 350 normal same
D. All of these 44. A bevel gear of the same size mounted B. Working depth induces clearance
on a shaft at 90 degrees is called: C. Tooth outline are always cycloidal
Answer: C A. Crown Gear curves
B. Spur Gear D. Tooth outlines are usually involute
35. The path of contact involute gears C. Angular Gear curves
where the force/power is actually transmitted, D. Miter Gear
it is a straight imaginary line passing through Answer: D
the pitch point and tangent to the base circle Answer: D
is known as _____. 4. _____ is a kind of gear used to transmit
A. Principal Reference Plane 45. Gearing in which motion or power that is motion from one shaft to another shaft at
B. Pitch point transmitted depends upon the friction angle to the first
C. Front Angle between the surfaces in contact A. Worm Gear
D. Line of Action A. Bevel Gears B. Bevel Gear
B. Spur Friction wheels C. Helical Gear
Answer: D C. Evans Friction Cones D. Spur Gear
D. Friction Gearing
36. _______ is the angle at the base cylinder Answer: B
of an involute gear that the tooth maxes with Answer: D
the gear axis 5. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the
A. Base Helix Angle 46. Wheels are sometimes used for the bottom of the tooth spaces
B. Pressure Angle transmission of high power when an A. Pitch Circle
C. Arc of Recess approximately constant velocity ratio is B. Root Circle
D. Arc of Approach desired is called: C. Base Circle
A. Bevel Cones D. Outside Circle
Answer: A B. Friction Gearing
C. Spur Friction Wheels Answer: B
37. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually D. Evans Friction Wheels
introduced to: 6. A circle the radius of which is equal to
A. Improve the look of the patch Answer: C the distance from the gear axis to the pitch
B. Reduce concentration of stress point
and extend life of the parts 47. The frustums of two cones used in a A. Pitch Circle
C. Avoid obstruction manner to permit a variation of velocity ratio B. Root Circle
D. Necessary to lessen casting weight between two parallel shafts are called: C. Base Circle
A. Evans Friction Cones D. Outside Circle
Answer: B B. Bevel Cones
C. Spherical Cones Answer: A
38. A type of gear tooth cut inside a cylinder D. Friction
or ring is termed as:

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7. Ratio of pitch diameter to the number of
teeth 17. The portion of a gear tooth space that is 27. According to the law of gearing:
A. Diametral Pitch cut below the pitch circle and is equal to the A. Teeth should be involute type
B. Module addendum plus the clearance B. Clearance between mating teeth
C. Contact Ratio A. Root should be provided
D. Helical Overlap B. Dedendum C. Dedendum should be equal to 1.57
C. Addendum M
Answer: B D. Tooth Space D. None of these

8. A kind of gear used for duty works where Answer: B Answer: D

a large ratio of speed is required and are
extensively used in speed reducer is known as: 18. The portion of a gear tooth that projects 28. Gears for watches are generally
A. Worm Gear above or outside the pitch circle manufactured by:
B. Spiral Gear A. Top Relief A. Die casting
C. Helical Gear B. Dedendum B. Machining on hobber
D. Bevel Gear C. Addendum C. Machining on a gear shaper
D. Tooth Space D. Stamping
Answer: A
Answer: C Answer: D
9. The ratio of the number of teeth to the
number of mm of pitch diameter equals 19. The distance from the center of one 29. In case of gears, the addendum is given
number of gear teeth to each mm pitch tooth of a gear to the center next consecutive by
diameter tooth measured on the pitch. A. One module
A. Diametral Pitch A. Circular Pitch B. 2.157 x module
B. Module B. Module C. 1.57 x module
C. Circular Pitch C. Diametral Pitch D. 1.25 x module
D. English Module D. Circular Pitch
Answer: A
Answer: A Answer: A
30. In case of cross helical worm, the axes of
10. The depth of tooth space below the 20. The number of teeth per inch of pitch two shafts are:
pitch circle diameter and which gives some indications of A. Parallel
A. Dedendum the size of the gear teeth B. Intersecting
B. Working Depth A. Module C. Non-parallel
C. Full Depth B. Pitch Circle D. Non-parallel/non-
D. Tooth Depth C. Diametral Pitch intersecting
D. Circular Pitch
Answer: A Answer: D
Answer: C
11. The total depth of a tooth space, equal 31. In case of spur gears, the flank of the
to addendum plus Dedendum 21. An imaginary circle passing through the tooth is:
A. Full Depth points at which the teeth of the meshing gears A. The part of the tooth surface lying
B. Working Depth contact each other. below the pitch surface
C. Whole Depth A. Pitch Circle B. The curve forming face and flank
D. Dedendum B. Addendum Circle C. The width of the gear tooth measured
C. Dedendum Circle axially along the pitch surface
Answer: C D. Base Circle D. The surface of the top of the tooth

12. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the Answer: A Answer: A

bottom of the tooth space
A. Root circle 22. If the lead angle of a worm is 22.5 32. A reverted gear train is one in which:
B. Pitch circle degrees then the helix angle will be ______ A. The direction of rotation of first and last
C. Addendum circle A. 45 degrees gear is opposite
D. Dedendum B. 67.5 degrees B. The direction of rotation of first and last
C. 22.5 degrees gear is the same
Answer: A D. 90 degrees C. The first and last gear are essentially on
separate but parallel shafts
13. The diameter of a circle coinciding with Answer: B D. None of these
the top of the teeth of an internal gear
A. Pitch diameter 23. Refers to the smallest wheel of a gear Answer: C
B. Root diameter train
C. Internal diameter A. Pinion 33. For best running conditions of a gear, the
D. Central diameter B. Idler contact ratio should be about:
C. Spur A. 1.25 to 1.40
Answer: C D. Driver B. 1.20 to 1.45
C. 1.34 to 1.56
14. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical Answer: A D. 1.62 to 1.45
surface.
A. Outer gear 24. Spiral Gears are suitable for transmitting: Answer: A
B. External gear A. Small power
C. Spiral gear B. Any power 34. The _____ full depth teeth have the
D. Helical gear C. Huge power advantages of the greater capacity and less
D. Pulsating power interference trouble.
Answer: B A. 14.5o
Answer: A B. 24o
15. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth C. 20o
A. Cycloid 25. Zero axial thrust is experienced in: D. 30o
B. Epicycloid A. Helical gears
C. Straight Rack B. Herringbone gears Answer: C
D. Involute C. Spiral gears
D. Bevel gears 35. _______ is the average tangential force
Answer: B on the teeth is then obtained from the
Answer: B horsepower
16. When meshed with a gear, it is used to A. Total load
change rotary motion to reciprocating motion 26. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary B. Separation load
is: motion between two shafts whose axes are: C. Pressure load
A. Gear Shaft A. Parallel D. Tangential load
B. Gear Tooth B. Non-coplanar
C. Gear Rack C. Non-intersecting Answer: D
D. Gear Motor D. None of these

Answer: C Answer: D

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36. The service factor of a gear may be internal gear and pinion be _____ for 14.5 deg C. Center distance
taken as ____ is an electric motor drives a involute depth D. Pitch
centrifugal blower A. 10 teeth
A. 1 B. 12 teeth Answer: A
B. 2 C. 14 teeth
C. 3 D. 16 teeth 5. Refers to the cone that is performed by
D. 4 the elements of top lands
Answer: B A. Face cone
Answer: A B. Root face
46. The loss pair of spur, helical or bevel C. Dial face
37. The kind of a wear occurs because of a gears in an ordinary train should not exceed: D. Pitch face
fatigue failure of the surfaces material as a A. 4%
result of high contact stresses is known as: B. 6% Answer: A
A. Slotting C. 2%
B. Pitting D. 5% 6. The cone formed by the elements of
C. Involuting bottom lands
D. Curving Answer: C A. Face cone
B. Root cone
Answer: B 47. The typical helix angle ranges from _____ C. Back cone
to _____ D. Rake cone
38. ______ is caused by foreign matter such A. 10 deg to 12 deg
as grit or metal particles or by a failure of the B. 12 deg to 15 deg Answer: B
oil film at low speed C. 14 deg to 20 deg
A. Suction D. 15 deg to 25 deg 7. An imaginary cone whose elements are
B. Scoring perpendicular to the pitch cone elements at
C. Abrasion Answer: D the large end of the tooth.
D. Corrosion A. Front cone
48. _____ is the advance of the tooth in the B. Side cone
Answer: C face width divided by circular pitch. C. Rear cone
A. Face contact ratio D. Back cone
39. _______ occurs when the oil film fails but B. Speed ratio
in this case, the load and speed are so high C. Profile ratio Answer: D
that the surface metal is melted and the metal D. Advance ratio
is melted and the metal is smeared down the 8. _____ is one whose tooth profiles consists
profile. Answer: A of straight elements that converge to a point
A. Abrasion at the cone center.
B. Corrosion 49. The distance between the teeth A. Circular bevel gear
C. Spalling measured on the pitch surface along a normal B. Straight bevel gear
D. Scoring to the helix C. Path bevel gear
A. Lead D. Herringbone gear
Answer: D B. Lead angle
C. Normal circular pitch Answer: B
40. _______ is a surface fatigue of greater D. Pitch
extent than pitting that is the flakes are much 9. The desired quality in gear is
larger. This type of failure occurs in surface- Answer: C A. Quietness
hardened teeth. B. Durability
A. Abrasion 50. The hardness of a helical and C. Strength
B. Corrosion herringbone teeth cut after heat treatment will D. All of these
C. Spalling generally fall between the limits of ______.
D. Scoring A. 210 and 300 Brinell Answer: D
B. 147 and 300 Brinell
Answer: C C. 230 and 320 Brinell 10. Straight and zerol bevel gears should not
D. 220 and 320 Brinell be sued when the pitch line velocity is greater
41. Buckingham says that mating phenolic than:
gears with steel of BHN less than ____ leads to Answer: A A. 800 rpm
excessive abrasive wear B. 850 rpm
A. 200 C. 875 rpm
B. 300 D. 900 rpm
C. 400 Test 17
D. 500 1. Helical gears mounted on non-parallel Answer: D
shafts are called _____
Answer: C A. Open gear 11. The spiral bevel gears are
B. Crossed helical gear recommended when the pitch line speed
42. ____ is the extra tooth in gear, which is C. Closed helical gear exceeds:
used to distribute the wear more evenly. D. Herringbone gear A. 1000 fpm
A. Hunting tooth B. 1100 fpm
B. Tooth profile Answer: B C. 1500 fpm
C. Dummy tooth D. 2000 fpm
D. Add tooth 2. _____ is used to connect intersecting
shafts, usually but not necessarily at 90 Answer: A
Answer: A degrees
A. Bevel gear 12. When the pitch line speed is above 800
43. The length of the hub should not be B. Helical gear fpm the teeth should be:
made ____ the face width of the gear. C. Spur gear A. Ground after hardening
A. Less than D. Worm gear B. Should be cooled in air
B. Equal C. Should be quenched after
C. Greater Answer: A D. None of these
D. None of these
3. Bevel gear teeth are built with respect to Answer: A
Answer: A a ____ rather than to a pitch cylinder as ion
spur gears. 13. ______ have curved teeth as in spiral
44. _____ is a gear that has teeth cut on the A. Pitch pedal bevels, but with zero angle.
inside of the rim instead of on the outside B. Pitch profile A. Spiral gears
A. External gear C. Pitch cone B. Zerol bevel gears
B. Involute gear D. Cylinder C. Zero bevel gears
C. Stub gear D. Straight bevel gears
D. Annular gear Answer: C
Answer: B
Answer: D 4. It refers to the length of pitch cone in a
bevel gear 14. ______ is a gear that has an advantage
45. To estimate fouling, let the minimum A. Cone center of smoother tooth engagement quietness of
differences in tooth numbers between the B. Lead

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operation greater and higher permissible 24. The standard pressure angle for fine B. The contact stresses
speeds. pitch gears is ______ gears and is C. The stress
A. Zerol bevel gear recommended for most applications D. Impact
B. Straight bevel gear A. 14.5 degrees
C. Hypoid bevel gear B. 16 degrees Answer: A
D. Spiral bevel gear C. 20 degrees
D. 21 degrees 34. When an excitation frequency coincides
Answer: D with a natural frequency, this is known to be:
Answer: C A. Unity
15. When the pair of bevel gears of the B. Resonance
same size is on shafts intersecting at right 25. The contact ratio of a pair of mating spur C. Obliquity
angle, they are called _____ gears must be well over ____ to insure a D. Sinusoidal
A. Mold gear smooth transfer of load from one pair of teeth
B. Helix angle to the next pair. Answer: B
C. Miter gear A. 1.0
D. Tangent gear B. 2.0 35. The average tooth stiffness constant of
C. 3.0 face is usually:
Answer: C D. 4.0 A. 1.5 to 2 psi
B. 3 to 6 psi
16. The use of gearbox provides: Answer: A C. 3 to 4 psi
A. Gear leverage D. 7.5 to 10 psi
B. More torque 26. As general rule contact ratio should not
C. More speed be less than: Answer: A
D. None of these A. 1:1
B. 1:2 36. When the number of teeth in a pair of
Answer: B C. 1:3 meshing gears are such that they do not have
D. 1:4 a common divisor.
17. For equalizing the rotation of two gears, A. Dummy
a gearbox employs” Answer: D B. LCD
A. Dog and clutch C. Add it
B. Crown gear 27. Surface roughness on active profile D. Hunting
C. Star pinion surfaces on gear is about ____ pitch
D. None of these A. 30 Answer: D
B. 32
Answer: D C. 34 37. For internal gears having a 20 degree
D. 36 pressure angle and full depth teeth, the
18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the difference between the number of teeth in a
speed gears remain: Answer: B gear and pinion should not be less than ______.
A. Separate A. 10
B. Joined to their couple 28. Tooth breakage on gear is usually: B. 12
C. Of the same measurements A. A tensile fatigue C. 14
D. None of these B. A contact stress D. 16
C. A crack
Answer: B D. None of these Answer: B

19. If a big gear is moved by a small gear Answer: A 38. Zerol bevel gears angle should have a
then the big gear pinion either not less than:
A. Will not rotate 29. AGMA means: A. 15 teeth
B. Will rotate reverse direction A. American German Manufacturer B. 16 teeth
C. Will not rotate fastly Association C. 17 teeth
D. None of these B. Athletic Gear Main Association D. 18 teeth
C. American Gear Metal Association
Answer: B D. American Gear Manufacturer Answer: C
Association
20. ______ are bevel gears mounted on 39. _______ are machine elements that
intersecting shafts at angle other than 90 Answer: D transmit motion by means of successively
degrees. engaging teeth.
A. Right angle gears 30. Which of the following does not belong A. Sprockets
B. Half gears to the group? B. Gears
C. Inclined gears A. Tooth scoring C. Tooth belt
D. Angular gears B. Tooth breakage D. Annular
C. Pitting
Answer: D D. Toughing Answer: B

21. The pitch angle is 90 degrees that is, the Answer: D 40. Arc of the pitch circle through which a
pitch has become a plane tooth travels from the first point and contact
A. Atten gear 31. Well proportion commercial gears with a with the mating tooth to the pitch point is
B. Crown gear pitch line velocity of less than _____ will called:
C. Cool gear normally not score if they have a reasonably A. Arc of contact
D. Hiphap gear good surface finish and are properly B. Arc of approach
lubricated. C. Arc of recess
Answer: B A. 6000 fpm D. Arc of action
B. 6500 fpm
22. ____ is used to transmit power between C. 7000 fpm Answer: D
non-intersecting shafts, nearly always at right D. 8000 fpm
angle to each other 41. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the
A. Spur gear Answer: C distance between the pitch circle and the top
B. Ordinary gear of the tooth is called:
C. Bevel gear 32. Experimental data from actual gear unit A. Dedendum
D. Worm gear measurements are seldom repeatable within B. Addendum
a plus or minus ______ band C. Working depth
Answer: D A. 5% D. Total depth
B. 10%
23. What are the two types of construction C. 15% Answer: B
for the worm? D. 20%
A. Shell and cylindrical 42. The circle that bounds the outer ends of
B. Shell and zigzag Answer: B the teeth.
C. Shell and integral A. Addendum circle
D. Tube and integral 33. Pitting is a function of the Hertzian B. Dedendum circle
contact stresses between two cylinders and is C. Pitch circle
Answer: C proportioned to the square root of the ______. D. Root circle
A. Applied load

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 Answer: A d. Dedendum circle
Answer: b
43. The angle through which the gear turns Answer: b
from the time a given pair of teeth are in 12. The curve formed by the path of a point on a
contact at the pitch point until they pass out 2. The angle at the base cylinder if an involute gear, circle as it rolls a straight line.
the mesh that the tooth makes with the gear axis. a. Trochoid
A. Pressure angle a. Helix angle b. Epicycloid
B. Angle of action b. Pressure angle c. Hypocycloid
C. Angle of approach c. Lead angle d. Cycloid
D. Angle of recess d. Base Helix angle
Answer: d
Answer: B Answer: d
13. The circular pitch in the normal plane.
44. The angle through which the gear turns 3. In an involute gear, _____ is the pitch on the base a. Circular plane
from the time a particular pair of teeth comes circle or along the line of action. b. Normal circular pitch
into in contact until they go out the contact. a. Base circle c. Central plane
A. Pressure angle b. Normal base pitch d. Circular base pitch
B. Angle of action c. Base pitch
C. Angle of approach d. Pitch gear Answer: b
D. Angle of recess
Answer: c 14. The strength of the arc between the two sides of
Answer: B a gear tooth on the pitch circles unless otherwise
4. The base pitch in the normal plane. specified.
45. The angle through which the gear tirns a. Normal pitch a. Face of tooth
from the time a particular pair of teeth come b. Normal base pitch b. Circular thickness
into in contact until they are in contact at the c. Axial plane c. Tooth profile
pitch point d. Central plane d. Face width
A. Pressure angle
B. Angle of action Answer: b Answer: b
C. Angle of approach
D. Angle of recess 5. The base pitch in the axial plane. 15. The amount by which the dedendum exceeds
a. Axial base pitch the addendum of the mating tooth.
Answer: C b. Axial pitch a. Tolerance
c. Normal pitch b. Allowance
46. Arc of the circle through which a tooth d. Base pitch c. Clearance
travels from the point of contact with the d. Backlash
mating tooth to the pitch point is called: Answer: a
A. Arc of contact Answer: c
B. Arc of approach 6. In a worm gear, _____ is a plane perpendicular to
C. Arc of recess the gear axis and contains the common 16. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which
D. Arc of action perpendicular of the gear and the worm axis. the mating gear makes:
a. Central plane a. Idler
Answer: B b. Normal plane b. Pinion
c. Axial plane c. Gear
47. The ratio of the arc of approach to the d. Traverse plane d. Central diameter
arc of action
A. Approach ratio Answer: a Answer: d
B. Action ratio
C. Recess ratio 7. The length of the chord subtended by the circular 17. The ratio of the arc of action to the circular pitch
D. Contact ratio arc is called: is known as:
a. Backlash a. Contact ratio
Answer: A b. Face width b. Action ratio
c. Chordal thickness c. Recess ratio
48. In a pair of gear, it is the plane that d. Curve thickness d. Approach ratio
contains two axes in a simple gear; it may be
any plane containing the axes and the given Answer: c Answer: c
point.
A. Axial plane 8. The height from the top of the tooth to the chord 18. The curve that satisfy the law of gearing.
B. Central plane subtending the circular thickness arc. a. Tooth profile
C. Normal plane a. Curve thickness b. Stub curve
D. Transverse plane b. Chordal thickness c. Conjugate curve
c. Chordal addendum d. Involute curve
Answer: A d. Chordal dedendum
Answer: c
49. Arc of the pitch circle which a tooth Answer: c
travels from its contact with the mating tooth 19. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle
at the pitch point to the point where the 9. The length of the arc of the pitch circle between or the radial dimension between the pitch circle
contact ceases is called: the centers or other corresponding points of the and the bottom of the tooth space.
A. Arc of contact adjacent teeth. a. Addendum
B. Arc of approach a. Circular pitch b. Dedendum
C. Arc of recess b. Diametral Pitch c. Working depth
D. Arc of action c. Base pitch d. Whole depth
d. Normal pitch
Answer: C Answer: b
Answer: a
50. A single ply leather belt running at a belt 20. The circle that bounds the bottom of the teeth.
velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to transmit _____ 10. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which a. Addendum circle
per inch of width the mating gear makes contact. b. Pitch circle
A. 2.5 hp a. Contact ratio c. Base circle
B. 3.0 hp b. Contact diameter d. Dedendum circle
C. 4.0 hp c. Contact stress
D. 5.0 hp d. None of these Answer: d

Answer: C Answer: b 21. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number
of millimeters of pitch diameter.
11. The maximum compressive stress within the a. Diametral pitch
Test 18 contact area between mating gear tooth profiles is b. Module
1. The _____ from which an involute tooth is called: c. Circular pitch
generated or developed. a. Bearing stress d. Base pitch
a. Root circle b. Contact stress
b. Base circle c. Ultimate stress Answer: a
c. Pitch circle d. Internal stress

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22. The diametral pitch circulated in the normal 32. That surface which is between the pitch circle a. Lead
plane and is equal to the pitch dived by the cosine and the bottom land is called: b. Helix
of the helix angle a. Flank of tooth c. Length of action
a. Normal diametral plane b. Face of tooth d. Line of action
b. Normal diametral pitch c. Face of width
c. Normal plane d. Fillet of tooth Answer: a
d. Normal axial pitch
Answer: a 43. The path of contact in involute gears, it is straight
Answer: b line passing through the pitch point and the tangent
33. The surface of the tooth between the pitch and to the base circles.
23. That portion of the face width that actually root cylinders. a. Length of action
comes into contact with mating teeth, as a. Fillet b. Line of action
occasionally one member of a pair of gears may b. Face c. Line of contact
have a greater face width than the other is called: c. Flank d. None of these
a. Effective face width d. Bottom land
b. Effective tooth face Answer: b
c. Effective tooth thickness Answer: c
d. Effective tooth flank 44. The distance on involute line of action through
34. The number of teeth in the gear divided by the which the point of contact moves during the action
Answer: a number of teeth in the opinion. of the tooth profile.
a. Ratio factor a. Length of action
24. The actual torque of a gear set divided by its b. Gear ratio b. Line of action
gear ratio. c. Transmission ratio c. Line of contact
a. Coefficient of performance d. None of these d. None of these
b. Transmission ratio
c. Ratio factor Answer: b Answer: a
d. Efficiency
35. The helical angle that a helical gear tooth makes 45. The ratio of pitch diameter in millimeters to the
Answer: d the gear axis. number of teeth.
a. Helix angle a. Addendum
25. When it rolls along the outer side another circle, b. Lead angle b. Diametral pitch
is called: c. Pressure angle c. Module
a. Cycloid d. Tooth angle d. None of these
b. Hypocycloid
c. Epicycloid Answer: a Answer: c
d. Trochoid
36. When it rolls along the inner side of another 46. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces acts a point
Answer: c circle, it is called: of contact and perpendicular to the pitch plane.
a. Cycloid a. Axial plane
26. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical b. Epicycloid b. Central plane
surface. c. Hypocycloid c. Normal plane
a. Annular gear d. Trochoid d. Diametral
b. External gear
c. Idler Answer: c Answer: c
d. Spur gear
37. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top 47. The distance between similar equally spaced
Answer: b of the teeth on an internal gear. tooth surfaces in a given direction and along a
a. Pitch diameter given curve or line.
27. That surface of the tooth, which is between the b. Internal diameter a. Module
pitch circles to the top of the tooth is known as _____. c. Root diameter b. Pitch
a. Face width d. Dedendum diameter c. Addendum
b. Tooth flank d. Involute
c. Face of tooth Answer: b
d. Top land Answer: b
38. A gear with teeth on the inner cylindrical surface.
Answer: c a. Pitch gear 48. The angle subtended by the arc on the pitch
b. Internal gear equal in the length to the circular pitch.
28. The length of the teeth in axial plane. c. Idler a. Pitch angle
a. Face of tooth d. Spur gear b. Pressure angle
b. Face width c. Helix angle
c. Circular pitch Answer: b d. Lead angle
d. Chordal thickness
39. The curve formed by the path of a point on a Answer: a
Answer: b straight line called their generatrix, as it rolls along a
convex base curve. 49. Of meshing gears, _____ is the point of tangency
29. The surface of the tooth between the pitch a. Involute to the pitch circle.
cylinder and the addendum cylinder. b. Cycloidal a. Pitch point
a. Face c. Cycloid b. Pitch of contact
b. Flank d. Trochoid c. Pitch
c. Top land d. Reference point
d. Bottom land Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: a 40. The top surface of the tooth.
a. Tooth face 50. In a pair of gears, it is the plane perpendicular to
30. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it b. Tooth surfaces the axial plane and tangent to the axial plane and
joins the bottom of the toot space. c. Top land tangent to the pitch surfaces.
a. Toot curve d. Tooth flank a. Normal plane
b. Involute b. Central plane
c. Fillet radius Answer: c c. Pitch plane
d. Fillet curve d. Tangent plane
41. The surface of the gear between the fillets of
Answer: d adjacent teeth. Answer: c
a. Space width
31. The maximum tensile stress in the gear tooth fillet. b. Backlash
a. Gear stress c. Bottom land Test 19
b. Contact stress d. Tooth space 1. One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is
c. Fillet stress the unbalanced load on one end of breakage is the
d. Fillet curve Answer: c unbalanced load on one end of the tooth that
results in the higher stress than when the load is
Answer: c 42. The distance of a helical gear or worm would evenly distributed. To minimize this problem, the
thread along its axis one revolution of it was free to face width “b” should not be greater that the
move axially.

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thickness of the tooth. In the absence of test values, Answer: a
the following can be guide. Answer: d
a. 2.5 Pc < b < 4 Pc 11. The width of tooth measured along the pitch
b. 2.0 < b < 4 Pd circle. 21. They are cylindrical in form operate on parallel
c. 2.5 Pd < b < 4 Pd a. Tooth space axes and have straight teeth parallel to the axis.
d. 2.0 Pc < b < 4 Pc b. Tooth thickness a. Helical gears
c. Backlash b. Bevel gears
Answer: a d. Tooth face c. Spur gears
d. Worm gears
2. Any perpendicular to a gear axis is called: Answer: b
a. Plane of action Answer: c
b. Plane of rotation 12. An arbitrary modification of a tooth profile
c. Normal plane whereby a small amount of material is removed 22. The design stress based upon the ultimate
d. Transverse plane near the tip of the gear tooth. strength of the material with a factor of safety of
a. Chamber about _____.
Answer: b b. Tip relief a. 2
c. Under cut b. 3
3. The angle between the tooth profile and radial d. None of these c. 4
line at its pitch point. Involute teeth the angle d. 5
between the line of action and line tangent to the Answer: b
pitch circle. Answer: b
a. Roll angle 13. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a point or line
b. Pitch angle of contact. 23. Safe working stresses for common gear materials
c. Helix angle a. Normal plane operating at very low velocities are usually assumed
d. Pressure angle b. Pitch plane to be _____ the ultimate strength.
c. Tangent plane a. One-fourth
Answer: d d. Axial plane b. One-third
c. One-half
4. The radial distance from the addendum circle to Answer: c d. Two-third
the working depth circle.
a. Total depth 14. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the Answer: b
b. Full depth bottoms of the tooth spaces.
c. Whole depth a. Addendum circle 24. To avoid charring by the heat of friction, rawhide
d. Working depth b. Pitch circle gears should not be operated of pitch line velocities
c. Base circle greater than _____
Answer: d d. Root circle a. 2500 fpm
b. 3000 fpm
5. The total depth of a tooth space equal to Answer: d c. 35000 fpm
addendum plus dedendum also equal to working d. 4000 fpm
depth plus clearance. 15. The angle subtended at the center of the base
a. Full depth circle from teeth origin of an involute to the point of Answer: a
b. Working tangency of the generation from any point of the
c. Whole depth same involute. 25. The outside diameter of the hubs of larger gears
d. None of these a. Root angle should be _____ the bore for steel.
b. Roll angle a. 1.5 times
Answer: c c. Pitch circle b. 1.6 times
d. Base circle c. 1.7 times
6. It is a condition in generated gear teeth when any d. 1.8 times
part of the fillet curve lies inside of a line drawn to Answer: b
the working profile as the lowest point. Answer: d
a. Medium cut 16. _____ gear with teeth spaced along a straight
b. Under cut and suitable for straight line motion. 26. The couple diameter of the hubs of larger gears
c. Over cut a. Helical should be _____ the bore for cast iron.
d. Hidden cut b. Bevel a. 1.5 times
c. Rack b. 1.8 times
Answer: b d. Worm c. 2.0 times
d. 2.5 times
7. The curve formed by the path of a point on the Answer: c
extension of the radius of a circle as it rolls along the Answer: c
curve or line. 17. The pitch plane, axial plane and transverse
a. Cycloids plane, all intersect at a point and mutually 27. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for
b. Epicycloids perpendicular to the: single helical gears.
c. Hypocycloid a. Principal reference plane a. 10 and 18
d. Trochoid b. Principal reference axis b. 12 and 20
c. Principal reference point c. 15 and 23
Answer: d d. Principal reference line d. 18 and 28

8. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and to Answer: a Answer: c

the pitch plane.
a. Norma plane 18. A device for engaging and disengaging gears. 28. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for
b. Pitch plane a. Gear shift double helical gears.
c. Tangent plane b. Gear train a. 15 and 25
d. Transverse plane c. Gear wheel b. 20 and 30
d. Gear motor c. 25 and 40
Answer: d d. 30 and 45
Answer: a
9. The total width dimensions of a gear blank to the Answer: d
pitch plane. 19. For spur gear, the speed ratio is customary to limit
a. Total face width the reduction of: 29. A _____ is a spur gear of infinite diameter.
b. Effective face width a. 3:1 a. Hypoid
c. Addendum b. 4:1 b. Herringbone
d. Transverse plane c. 5:1 c. Annular
d. 6:1 d. Rack
Answer: a
Answer: d Answer: d
10. The space between the teeth measured along
the pitch circle. 20. For helical and herringbone gears, the speed 30. It is standard practice to assume that the
a. Tooth space ratio is limited to: thickness of the tooth measured around the pitch
b. Tooth thickness a. 3:1 circle is exactly _____ of a circular pitch.
c. Backlash b. 5:1 a. One-fourth
d. Tooth face c. 6:1 b. One-half
d. 10:1 c. One-third

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 d. Two-third 41. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth
spaces is called: Test 20
Answer: b a. Addendum circle 1. Which type of gear is a cylinder, wheel or disk
b. Base circle on the surface of which is cut parallel teeth?
31. It occurs under heavy loads and in adequate c. Pitch circle a. Bevel gear
lubrication. d. Root circle b. Helical gear
a. Pitting c. Spur gear
b. Honing Answer: d d. Worm gear
c. Scoring
d. Tooth breakage 42. The surface between the flanks of adjacent
Answer: c
teeth.
Answer: c a. Bottom land
b. Top land 2. Which type of gear has a ratio of 1:1?
32. In order to get benefit helical-gear action the c. Pitch surface a. Herringbone gears
face width should be at least _____ the axial pitch. d. Space width b. Miter gear
a. Once c. Internal gear
b. Twice Answer: a d. Spur gear
c. Thrice
d. Minimum 43. The usual ratio of miter gear is: Answer: b
a. 1:1
Answer: b b. 1:2 3. The distance between similar sides of
c. 1:3 adjacent teeth measured on the pitch line is called:
33. The outside diameter of the worm gear d. 1:4 a. Diametral pitch
measured on the central plane. b. Linear pitch
a. Addendum diameter Answer: a
c. Circular pitch
b. Throat diameter
c. Pitch diameter 44. The angle between the element of the face d. Axial pitch
d. Root diameter cone and its axis equals pitch angle plus addendum
angle. Answer: c
Answer: b a. Cutting angle
b. Face angle 4. In rack gear, circular pitch is called:
34. For worms mating with gears having 24 teeth or c. Pitch angle a. Linear pitch
more the _____ pressure angle is recommended. d. Front angle b. Base pitch
a. 14.5 degrees c. Diametral pitch
b. 20 degrees Answer: b d. Axial pitch
c. 22.5 degrees
d. 25 degrees 45. The apex of the pitch cone Answer: a
a. Cone center
Answer: b b. Vertex
5. __________ is equal to twice the
c. Pitch point
35. The axes intersect and the teeth are curved and d. Apothem addendum.
oblique is called: a. Tooth flank
a. Skew bevel gears Answer: a b. Tooth thickness
b. Straight bevel gears c. Whole depth
c. Spiral bevel gears 46. The portion of the tooth surface adjacent to the d. Working depth
d. Zerol bevel gears involute lying inside a radial line passing through an
imaginary intersection of an involute and the base Answer: d
Answer: c circle/
a. Excessive cut 6. The meaning of module in a gearing
36. A type of gear of non-parallel and non- b. Over cut system is:
intersecting and the teeth are straight. c. Under cut a. Distance
a. Hypoid gears d. None of these
b. Addendum
b. Skew bevel gears
c. Spiral bevel gears Answer: c c. Measure
d. Zerol bevel gears d.
47. In spur gearing system, the preferred pressure
Answer: b angle is: Answer: c
a. 14- ½ deg
37. For worm gears, Buckingham recommends face b. 20 deg 7. Refers to the portion of the tooth surface
width. c. 22- ½ deg adjacent to the involute lying inside a radial line
a. 0.2 Dwo d. 25 deg passing through an imaginary intersection of the
b. 0.3 Dwo involute and the base circle.
c. 0.4 Dwo Answer: b a. Over cut
d. 0.5 Dwo b. Under cut
48. Hub length usually vary from: c. Tip relief
Answer: d a. 1.05 Ds to 1.7 Ds
d. None of these
b. 1.25 Ds to 2 Ds
38. For worm gears, circular pitch is equal to: c. 1.35 Ds to 2.5 Ds
a. Axial pitch d. 1.35 Ds to 3.0 Ds Answer: b
b. Diametral pitch
c. Normal pitch Answer: b 8. In a pair of gears, spur or bevel, the
d. Traverse pitch smaller is often called:
49 The service factor for heavy shock is: a. Rack
Answer: a a. 1 to 1.25 b. Pinion
b. 1.25 to 1.50 c. Worn
39. The service factor of heavy shock, rolling mill and c. 1.50 to 1.75 d. Idler
rock crushes. d. 1.75 to 2.0
a. 1.25 - 1.35
Answer: b
b. 1.35 - 1.50 Answer: d
c. 1.50 - 1.80
d. 1.75 -2.00 50. A gear wheel with cured teeth that mesh with a 9. Which of the following gears that are of
worm. the same and transmit motion at right angles?
Answer: d a. Worm wheel a. Herringbone gears
b. Rack gear b. Spur gears
40. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis is called: c. Spiral gear c. Miter gears
a. Transverse axis d. Herringbone gear d. Rack gears
b. Conjugate axis
c. Plane rotation Answer: a Answer: c
d. Axis of rotation
10. The cone, which represents in bevel
Answer: c gears the original friction surfaces are called
a. Back cone

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 b. Length of cone Answer: a
c. Pitch cones 29. Which gears are used to connect
d. Cone distance 20. The shape of the curve on the side of parallel shafts lying in the same plane?
gear is termed as: a. Worm gears
Answer: c a. Stub b. Bevel gears
b. Involute c. Herringbone gears
11. Which of the following angles equal the c. Trochoid d. Spiral gears
pitch angle? d. Cycloid
a. Back angle Answer: c
b. Front angle Answer: a
c. Face angle 30. Which of the following is used to
d. Root angle 21. The distance in a straight line from one connect the shafts at an angle but lying in the same
side of a tooth to the side at points where the pitch plane?
Answer: b circle passes through the tooth. a. Helical gears
a. Circular pitch b. Worm and worm wheel
12. The surface between the flanks of b. Pitch c. Spur gears
adjacent teeth. c. Chordal thickness d. Herringbone gears
a. Top land d. Tooth length
b. Tooth flank Answer: b
c. Tooth face Answer: c
d. Bottom land 31. The product of circular pitch and
22. The _______ of a bevel gear is equal to diametral pitch is:
Answer: d the altitude of the pitch cone. a. 2π
a. Length of cone b. π
13. The portion of the common tangent to b. Vertex distance c. 3π
the base circles along which contact between c. Length of hub d. 4π
mating involutes occurs. d. Thickness
a. Line of action Answer: b
b. Pitch line Answer: b
c. Arc of action 32. A line drawn through all the points at
d. Angle of action 23. The _______ of a worm is the distance which the teeth touch each other.
between the center of one tooth and the center of a. Angle of contact
Answer: a an adjacent tooth, measured perpendicular to the b. Arc of contact
teeth. c. Path of contact
14. The intersection between the axes of the a. Diametral pitch d. Arc of approach
line of centers and the common tangent to the b. Circular pitch
base circles, c. Axial pitch Answer: c
a. Pitch line d. Normal pitch
b. Pitch circle 33. The length of the gear tooth measured
c. Pitch point Answer: d along an element of the pitch surface is called:
d. Pitch surface a. Acting flank
24. The _______ of a worm gear is the b. Face width
Answer: b concave surface of the gear tooth. c. Flank of the tooth
a. Radius d. Tooth space
15. The angle between the element of the b. Throat
face cone and its axis. c. Pitch Answer: b
a. Face angle d. Addendum
b. Back angle 34. The ________ is equal to the tooth
c. Front angle Answer: b thickness plus the space width.
d. Increment angle a. Normal pitch
25. A type of gear, which is used for heavy b. Axial pitch
Answer: a duty work where a large ratio of speed is required. c. Diametral pitch
a. Worm gear d. Circular pitch
16. Refers to a portion of the small end of the b. Bevel gear
tooth. c. Spur gear Answer: d
a. Heel d. Miter gear
b. Toe 35. The _________ is the arc of the pitch circle
c. Sole Answer: a where the tooth profile cuts the pitch circle when a
d. Corner pair of teeth first comes in contact until they are in
26. A _________ is a cylinder with teeth contact as the pitch point.
Answer: b resembling those of acme thread. a. Arc of recess
a. Pinion b. Arc of approach
17. The apex of the pitch cone. b. Spur c. Arc of contact
a. Cone vertex c. Worm d. Arc of action
b. Cone distance d. Bolt
c. Cone radius Answer: b
d. Cone center Answer: c
36. The _________ traced by the outermost
Answer: d 27. The _________ is the angle at which the corner of one tooth on the plane of the other gear.
teeth of a helical gear are slanted across the face a. Cycloid
18. Gear pump used in hydraulic system are of the gear. b. Hypocycloid
used for: a. Lead angle c. Epitrochoid
a. Low and medium pressure b. Helix angle d. Trochoid
b. Medium and high pressure c. Pressure angle
c. Low and high pressure d. Pitch angle Answer: c
d. Medium and not high pressure
Answer: b 37. An imaginary circle passing through the
Answer: a points at which the tooth of the meshing gears
28. A __________ is one thicker in proportion contact each other.
19. In machine tool drive, the modulus for to its length than the involute tooth. a. Pitch circle
gears is usually selected between: a. Hypoid b. Base circle
a. 10 ≥ μ ≥ 1 b. Cycloidal tooth c. Addendum circle
b. 2≥μ1 c. Stub tooth d. Dedendum circle
c. 20 ≥ μ ≥ 1 d. Spiral
d. 5≥μ≥1 Answer: a
Answer: c

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38. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical 47. The depth of the tooth inside of the pitch 6. The cutting tool used the shaper are similar to
surface. line is called: turning tools _______ machine.
a. Rack gear a. Working depth A. Planer
b. Zerol gear b. Dedendum B. Broaching
c. Miter gear c. Total depth C. Boring
d. External gear d. Whole depth D. Lathe

Answer: d Answer: b Answer: A

39. The diameter of a circle coinciding with 48. The amount by which the dedendum in 7. The blades for hacksaw have number of teeth
the top of the teeth of an internal gear. a given gear exceeds the addendum of its mating range of:
a. Dedendum diameter gear. A. 15 – 38 teeth
b. Pitch diameter a. Whole depth B. 14 – 32 teeth
c. Base diameter b. Clearance C. 12 -30 teeth
d. Internal diameter c. Backish D. 12 – 32 teeth
d. Working depth
Answer: d Answer: B
Answer: b
40. It is standard practice to assume that the 8. __________ no part of the headstock.
thickness of the tooth measured sound the pitch A. Back gear
circle is exactly ________ the circle path. 49. The outside diameter of the worm B. Spindle
a. One half measured on the central plane. C. Anvil
b. One third a. Dedendum diameter D. Motor
c. One fourth b. Addendum diameter
d. One fifth c. Throat diameter Answer: C
d. Pitch diameter
Answer: a 9. __________ is a lathe carriage part the bridge
Answer: c across the bed to carry the cross slide and tool
41. The helix angles for the herringbone rest.
gears are used from ______for industrial gears. 50. The circle from which the involute is A. Automatic feed
a. 10 to 15 generated. B. Apron
b. 15 to 20 a. Base circle C. Compound rest
c. 20 to 30 b. Pitch circle D. Saddle
d. 25 to 45 c. Working depth circle
d. Addendum circle Answer: C
Answer: c
Answer: a 10. What is the recommended cutting speed
42. The distance parallel to the axis from the range for bronze in fpm?
pitch circle to the face of the shoulder or hub. A. 60/70
a. Back one Test 21 B. 200/250
b. Backing 1. Fast process of analyzing all elements and a C. 80/60
c. Crown height chemical components of steel casting is: D. 100/110
d. Apex distance A. Pyrometer
B. Carbon analyser Answer: B
Answer: b C. Wet analyser
D. Spectrometer 11. For ordinary turning drilling and milling on low
43. A machine that makes gear teeth by strength steel the cutting fluid applied have
means of a reciprocating cutter that rotates slowly Answer: D soluble oil with consistency of part oil to
with the work. _______ parts water.
a. Gear forming 2. Which of the following is not a kind of A. 10 to 30
b. Gear hobber mandrel? B. 10
c. Gear shaper A. Expanded C. 5 to 10
d. Gear cutter B. Extended D. 10 to 20
C. Contraction
Answer: c D. Taper Answer: A

44. A type of gear wheels connecting non- Answer: C 12. The five principal parts of the shaper are the
parallel, non-intersecting shafts usually at right table, tool slide, base, ram and _______.
angles. 3. A cutting tool angle between the side cutting A. Column
a. Helical gear edge and the plane perpendicular to B. Vise
b. Herringbone gear direction of feed travel is _______ angel. C. Drive motor
c. Hypoid gear A. Side relief D. Apron
d. Bevel gear B. Side cutting edge
C. Lead Answer: B
Answer: c D. Side rake
13. In drilling soft materials use cutting angle as
45. The angle between the plane of the Answer: D low as 40 degrees but for extremely hard
pitch circle and a plane tangent to the end of the material up to _____________ degree is
tooth. 4. A section in a machine shop operation is recommended.
a. Foot angle called: A. 80
b. Back angle A. Core making B. 65
c. Dedendum angle B. Machining C. 75
d. Face angle C. Fitting D. 70
D. Pattern
Answer: b Answer: A
Answer: B
46. The circle containing the bottoms of the 14. An act of cutting out a piece of metal at a
tooth spaces. 5. The tool bit made of tool blank consists of desired shape and size.
a. Root circle face, nose, shank, and ________. A. Broaching
b. Working depth circle A. Cutting edge B. Blanking
c. Base circle B. None of these C. Slitting
d. Pitch circle C. Round nose D. Dinking
D. Nose
Answer: a Answer: B
Answer: D

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15. A research agency handling assistance to all
foundry, machine shop and metallurgical 24. Which of the following is an unsafe condition Answer: D
plant operation. in operating a lathe machine?
A. MIRDCC A. Wearing denim pants/safety shoes 33. Lathe operator to remove the taper shank
B. NOI B. Wearing a canvass apron from the taper hole uses drift. It is also called:
C. DOST C. Operating with safety gloves A. Tong
D. All of these D. Wearing safety goggles/hearing aid B. Morse Taper
C. Chuck Taper
Answer: A Answer: B D. Tapered Key

16. Web is a part of drill and is usually thicker 25. Relief angle of a single-point cutting mild steel Answer: B
__________. cast iron and another average work as
A. Beside the land recommended should be in the range of 34. It is the best instrument for measuring a
B. Nearing the shank _________ degrees for high speed tools. thousand of an inch.
C. Close to the future A. 8 to 12 A. Micrometer
D. At the tip portion B. 10 to 5 B. Tachometer
C. 5 to 7 C. Caliper
Answer: B D. 12 to 16 D. Pyrometer

17. It is a symbol ___________ that the work Answer: A Answer: A

surfaces should be machine-finished and
placed on the line that represents the surface 26. Tap not used for cutting thread ___________. 35. What tool will be used in making wood pattern
to be machined. A. Tapping tap in the foundry shop?
A. f B. Bottoming tap A. Band Saw
B. 5 C. Plugging tap B. Drill Machine
C. 20 D. Taper tap C. Saw and Chisel
D. F.A.O D. Hammer
Answer: A
Answer: A Answer: C
27. Which of the following tools does not belong
18. Safety features that must be placed and to the group? 36. The usual ration of water to soluble oil used as
maintained at machine, black welding and A. Hermaphrodite caliper cutting fluid is _________.
foundry shops called: B. Divider A. 50% water to 50% oil
A. Walkway shops C. Double VEE block B. 2 water to 1 oil
B. Safety goggles D. Trammel C. 3 water to 1 oil
C. Safety notices D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil
D. Safety notices in Markers / Boards Answer: C
Answer: D
Answer: D 28. In Machine Shop had forging operation of
lengthening a piece of stock while reducing 37. Machine tool used for laying straight lines on
19. It is axially located rectangular groove in a the cross-sectional area of work is called: metal surfaces made of sharp tool steel is
hub and shaft. A. Bloating called:
A. Key Seat B. Upsetting A. Plain Scriber
B. Cotter Pin Seat C. Spreading B. A Trammel
C. Flute D. Draining C. Hermaphrodite caliper
D. Set Screw Point D. Divider
Answer: B
Answer: A Answer: A
29. Which of the following services is not
20. In a cutting tool, the cutting end can also be considered to be a work of a machinist? 38. A lathe machine threading mechanism is
generally called: A. Reboring called:
A. End cutting edge B. Grinding A. Reverse Gear and lever
B. Nose C. Over Hauling B. Spindle Gear
C. Back rake D. Honing C. Changed Stud Gear
D. Side rake D. All of these
Answer: C
Answer: B Answer: B
30. Type of chuck wherein the work piece with
21. What factors can modify the recommended standard diameter or size could be attached 39. Which of the following is not used to resemble
cutting speed of known work piece? fast and quick specially small size work of mass the shape of tool bit?
A. Rough cutting of work piece production called: A. Round nose
B. Modify the shape of the cutting tools A. Lathe Drive Plate B. Center cut
C. Use correctly shape of the cutting B. Clamp Toe Dog C. Thread cutting
tools C. Collet Attachment D. Square nose
D. Depth of cut D. Steady Center Rest
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: C
40. A lathe with multiple cutting stations is called:
22. Machine shop equipment that can flatter 31. This particular cutting tool material could with A. Turret lathe
horizontally, vertically or angular plane called: stand cutting temperature of 1800 F and B. Engine lathe
A. Shaper Machine higher at cutting speed beyond possible with C. Manual lathe
B. Welding Machine other cutting tool materials called: D. None of these
C. Drill Machine A. Titanium carbide
D. Power Saw B. Ceramic Answer: A
C. Carbide grade
Answer: A D. Cubic boron nitride 41. Device used to measure accurately speed
called:
23. It is a petroleum by-product used as Answer: D A. Speedometer
electrodes in an electric arc furnace melting B. Dial Indicator
operation. 32. Common defects encountered in a foundry C. Tachometer
A. Anthracite coke shop steel casting operation and also in D. Dial gage
B. Foundry coke welding practices.
C. Graphite Electrode A. Cracks Answer: C
D. Bituminous coke B. Cold shot
C. Parting line 42. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in
Answer: C D. Blow / pin holes a machine tool is called:

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 A. Universal chuck B. The shaper can perform slotting
B. Slooter operation while planer cannot 10. Which of the following is not the work of a
C. Dividing head C. The shaper handles large pieces while machinist?
D. Indexing the planer handles only small pieces A. Reboring
D. The tool of the shaper moves in B. Overhauling
Answer: C reciprocating motion while the tool in C. Grinding
the planer move in rotary motion. D. Boring
43. Recommended best cutting angle of drill for Answer: B
work on steel or cast iron is ___________ Answer: A
degrees. 11. The machine, which can flatter surface on
A. 48 horizontal, vertical or angular plane.
B. 63 Test 22 A. Drilling Machine
C. 59 1. Safety features that must be placed and B. Shaper Machine
D. 50 maintained at machine, blacksmith, welding and C. Power Saw
foundry shop is called: D. Lathe Machine
Answer: C A. Safety Goggle
B. Walkway Guide Answer: B
C. Safety Notices in Markings
44. What is the common shop practice to prevent
D. All of these 12. Which of the following is not part of a lathe
solder from running away from surface to be
machine?
joined? Answer: C a. Fan
A. All of these b. Carriage
B. Surround the work with clay 2. Test sometimes referred to as upsetting test c. Headstock
C. Introduce around the work rolled wet called: d. Tail Stock
cloth A. Bend
D. Put asbestos sheeting around the work B. Flaring Answer: a
C. Flange
Answer: A D. Crush 13. One important skill that operates of machine
tools must have an understanding of
45. Name the type of chuck commonly used for Answer: A measurements, which demands:
holding work piece in a lathe operation. A. Speed
3. The machine used for testing of very thin steel or B. Precision
Example 3-jaw universal chuck, 4-jaw surface layers
independent chuck. C. Sociability
A. Charpy Test D. Neatness
A. Magnetic jaw chuck B. Izod Test
B. 2-jaw independent C. Description Test Answer: D
C. 8-jaw-universal D. Rockwell Test
D. Combination 14. Which tool does not belong to the group?
Answer: D A. Vice Grip
Answer: D B. Feeler Gage
4. _____ is a test for pipe used for coiling in sizes 2 C. Torque Wrench
46. A machinery operation whereby done with inches. D. Adjustable Wrench
the work accurately fastened has a A. Flaring
reciprocating motion and the tool head is B. Crush Answer: A
C. Flange
stationary is called:
D. Bend 15. A machinery operation whereby the tool
A. Shaping
rotates while the feed is stationary.
B. Planning Answer: D A. Shaping
C. Turning B. Milling
D. Reaming 5. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a single point C. Turning
cutting tool called D. Reaming
Answer: B a. Dividing Head
b. Slotting Attachment Answer: B
47. What happens to a drill if the operating speed c. Circular Pitch
is too fast? d. Circular Milling Attachment 16. Which of the following is not part of the
A. Drill will crack headstock?
Answer: b A. Anvil
B. Drill will become overheated and will
blend B. Spindel
6. Milling machine accessories are used to hold C. Motor
C. Drill will become overheated and will milling cutter in the milling machine called:
drawn from steel D. Back Pressure
a. Spindel – Nose Tooling
D. Drill will become very dull and wear b. Milling Machine Size Answer: A
dust c. Vertical Milling Attachment
d. Milling Machine Arbors 17. A machining operation whereby the tool
Answer: C reciprocates while the feed is stationary.
Answer: d A. Planing
48. Which do not belong to foundry or metal B. Shaping
casting shop? 7. An important accessory of milling machine. C. Turning
A. Shake – Out Machine A. Milling Machine Vise D. Reaming
B. Molding Machine B. Cutter
C. Core making C. Ram Answer: B
D. Vertical Milling Attachment
D. Forging
18. ____ is a kind of center, which is being attached
Answer: B and meshed to the tailstock spindle, which is also
Answer: D
static while the rack is rotating.
8. A machine used in testing steel generally strikes A. Dead Center
49. It is an arbitrary modification by moving a small the specimen with an energy from 22- t0 265 ft-lb/ B. Live Center
portion of a tooth material at the tip of the A. Izod Test C. Focal Center
gear tooth. B. Charpy Test D. Work Center
A. Tip removal C. Rockwell Test
B. Tip under cut D. Test Blocks Answer: A
C. Tip relief
D. Pressure angle cut Answer: B 19. A machine used in shaping metal by means of
abrasive wheel of the removal of metals with an
Answer: C 9. The area of the machine shop whose metal is abrasive is called:
being melted to form a new shape is the: A. Planer Machine
A. Foundry Area B. Power Saw
50. What is the difference between the shaper B. Tool and Die Area C. Shaper Machine
and the planer? C. Welding Area D. Grinding Machine
A. The tool of the shaper moves while the D. Mass Production Area
plane is stationary Answer: D
Answer: A

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 Answer: B 39. It is an operation of sizing and finishing a hole
20. A machine tool in which an abrasive wheel is by means of cutting tool having several cutting
used as cutting tool to obtain a very smooth finish. 30. A kind of chuck, which should not be used edges.
A. Broaching Machine where accuracy is required called: A. Notching
B. Planer A. Collet Chuck B. Piercing
C. Tool Grinder B. Magnetic Chuck C. Turning
D. Milling Machine C. Four Jaw Chuck D. Reaming
D. Universal Chuck
Answer: C Answer: D
Answer: D
21. A machine tool used principally to machine flat 40. The hop term used to include the marking of
or plane surfaces with a single pointed tool 31. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, inscribing of center points circles area of straight
A. Shaper which could be adjustable separately called: lines upon metal surfaces, either curve or flat, for
B. Planer A. Collet Chuck the guidance of the worker called:
C. Drill B. Independent Chuck A. Shaping
D. Power Saw C. Four Jaw Chuck B. Hobbing
D. Magnetic Chuck C. Laying Out
Answer: A D. Shaping
Answer: B
22. A tool with hardened steel points used for Answer: C
scribing or laying of distances. 32. A tool which when pressed into a finished hole
A. Plain Scriber in a piece of work, provides centers on which the 41. It is used to true and align machine tools fixtures
B. Divider piece may be turned or otherwise machines and works to test and inspect size trueness of
C. Trammel called: finished work, and to compare measurements
D. Hermaphrodite A. Mash either heights or depths or many other
B. Butt measurements.
Answer: B C. Mandrel A. Dial Gage
D. Wobble B. Dial Indicator
23. _____ used to machine flat or curved surfaces C. Tachometer
with a tool, which moves in a reciprocating motion. Answer: C D. Speedometer
A. Planer
B. Shaper 33. A machine tool, which is very similar to a shaper Answer: B
C. Grinder except that the ram reciprocates vertically rather
D. Lathe than horizontally. 42. A toll used for measuring diameters.
A. Lathe A. Caliper
Answer: B B. Grinder B. Manometer
C. Planer C. Tachometer
24. _____ used in the production of flat surfaces on D. Slotter D. Pyrometer
pieces too large or too heavy to hold in a shaper.
a. Planer Answer: D Answer: A
b. Shaper
c. Grinder 34. A cylindrical bar of steel with threads formed 43. The process of forming metals by the use of dies
d. Shaver around it and grooves or flutes running lengthwise after the metal is heated to its plastic range.
in it, intersecting with the threads to form cutting A. Rolling
Answer: a edges. It is used to cut internal threads. B. Forging
A. Grooves C. Turning
25. A machine tool used to produce a variety of B. Lap D. Casting
surfaces by using a circular type cutter with C. Tap
multiple teeth called: D. Flute Answer: A
A. Lathe Machine
B. Milling Machine Answer: C 44. A machine tool used to out metal parts a lift,
C. Broaching Machine medium and large section using a reciprocating
D. Grinding 35. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in hacksaw blade.
a machine tool called: A. Tool Grinder
Answer: B A. Slotter B. Shaper
B. Chuck C. Planer
26. A cutting tool used to finish internal and C. Dividing Head D. Power Saw
external surfaces by the use of a cutter called D. Indexer
broach, which has a series of cutting edges of Answer: D
teeth Answer: C
a. Lathe Machine 45. A cold chisel is made of:
b. Broaching Machine 36. The operation of machining the end of a work A. Cast Iron
c. Planer piece to make the end square with the axis. B. German Silver
d. Shaper A. Squaring C. High Carbon Steel
B. Buffing D. High Speed Steel
Answer: b C. Lapping
D. Honing Answer: C
27. The method of cold working by compression.
A. Broaching Answer: A 46. Trimming is a process associated with:
B. Lapping A. Electroplating
C. Piercing 37. The operation of enlarging a hole by means of B. Forging
D. Reaming an adjustable cutting tool with only one cutting C. Machining of Metals
edge. D. Press Work
Answer: C A. Drilling
B. Broaching Answer: B
28. A group of thin steel strips used for measuring C. Milling
clearances. D. Boring 47. Foundry crucible is made of
A. Feeler Gage A. Graphite
B. Tachometer Answer: D B. German Silver
C. Micrometer C. Lead
D. Caliper 38. The operation of making a cone-shaped D. Mild Steel
enlargement of the end of a hole, as for a recess
Answer: A for a flat head screw. Answer: A
A. Counter Sinking
29. The process of working metals by the B. Knurling 48. Formed milling operation of cutting gears can
application of sudden blows or by a steady C. Squaring be used for cutting which type of gears?
pressured called: D. Performing A. Spur
A. Rolling B. Worm
B. Forging Answer: A C. All of the above
C. Casting D. Bevel
D. Turning
Answer: C

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 B. To decrease the melting
49. Select the one that is gear finishing process. 9. Ornaments are cast by: temperature of a cast metal
A. Gear Shaving A. Continuous Casting C. To change the chemical
B. Gear Shaping B. Die Casting composition of a cast metal
C. Gear Hobbing C. Gravity Casting D. To modify the structure and
D. Gear Milling D. Presses Casting properties of a cast metal

Answer: A Answer: C Answer: D

50. Broaching operation is generally used in 10. In such casting process: 18. Tumbling is done so as to:
automobile industry as: A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in A. Clean the surface of small parts
A. It is a mass production machine metallic mould by gravity B. Get surface finish
B. It is an automatic machine B. Metal is poured into die cavity and C. Stress relieve the components
C. Operation is completed in one stroke after a predetermined time the D. Plate the surface
D. Semi-skilled operators can be employed mould is inverted to permit a part of
metal still in the molten state to flow Answer: A
Answer: D out of cavity
C. Cavity is filled with a pre- calculated 19. What is referred to as gate?
quantity of metal and core or A. A passage through which metal is
Test 23 plunger inserted to force the metal poured into mould
1. Point angle of 135° on drills is used for: into cavity B. A passage through which metal rises
A. Bakelite hard rubbers and fibrous D. Metal is forced into mould under high the mould is filled
plastics pressure C. A passage that finally leads molten
B. Hard steels and nickel alloys metal from the runner into the
C. Thin sheets metal Answer: B mould cavity
D. B and C D. A vent hole to allow for the hot
11. In Carthias process gases to escape
Answer: D A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in
metallic mould by gravity Answer: D
2. A twist drill is specified by: B. Metal is poured into die cavity and
A. Its diameter and lip angle after a predetermined time the 20. A sprue is:
B. Its shank and diameter mould is inverted to permit a part of a. A tool used in mould repairing
C. Shank, material and diameter metal still in the molten state to flow b. A process of cleaning casting
D. Shank, material and flute size out of cavity c. A chemical that is added to
C. Cavity is filled with a pre- calculated molten materials for sound
Answer: C quantity of metal and core or castings
plunger inserted to force the metal d. A vertical passage through the
3. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is: into cavity cope and joining the pouring
A. 30° D. Metal is forced into mould under high basin to the runner
B. 60° pressure
C. 110° Answer: a
D. 120° Answer: C
21. Hacksaw blade that has the same number
Answer: A 12. What is the purpose of riser? of teeth as given below are available. Which
A. Feed the casting at a rate consistent one would you chose for cutting brass?
4. The helix angle on a high speed steel twist with the rate of solidification A. 18 teeth
drill for drilling cast iron is the order of: B. Act as a reservoir for molten metal B. 24 teeth
A. 12-22° C. Help feed the casting until all C. 28 teeth
B. 24-32° solidification takes place D. 31 teeth
C. 35-40° D. Feed molten metal from pouring
D. 40-45° basin to gas. Answer: B

Answer: B Answer: C 22. A plug gauge is used to measure

A. Cylindrical bores
5. Dressing is 13. The mould for casting ferrous materials B. Screw thread
A. An inspection method for castings A. Copper C. Spherical holes
B. A method of cleaning the castings B. High carbon steel D. Taper bores
C. A method of deoxidizing of molten metal C. Low carbon steel
D. The formation of oxides on them molten D. Medium carbon steel Answer: A
metal surface
Answer: A 23. When large number of components are
Answer: D turned and parted off a bar the chuck
14. Dilatometer is use to find out which generally used is the _____.
6. Sweep pattern is used for molding parts property of molding sand? A. Collet chuck
having: A. Fineness B. Four Jaw chuck
A. Complicated shape having intricate B. Hot Strength C. Magnetic chuck
details C. Moisture Content D. Two jaw chuck
B. Rectangular shape D. Permeability
C. Uniform symmetrical shape Answer: C
D. None of the above Answer: A
24. Which of the following is the cutting speed
Answer: C 15. Select the one that is not an angle of brass?
measuring device A. 30 m/min
7. Which of the following processes that A. Angle Iron B. 40 m/min
hydraulic fluid acts as transfer media. B. Bevel protector C. 50 m/min
A. Electron Beam Machining C. Combination D. 60 m/min
B. Electro – discharge Machining D. Sine bar
C. Iron Beam Machining Answer: B
D. Water Jet Machining Answer: A
25. Under cutting is:
Answer: D 16. The darft allowance on metallic pattern as A. An operating of cutting extra deep
compared to wooden ones is: groove
8. Wiping is the process of A. More B. An operation of cutting a groove
A. Applying flux during welding B. Same next to a shoulder on a piece of work
process C. less C. Cutting from the of work piece
B. Cleaning the welded surface after D. More/less depending on size D. An operation of cutting extra wide
the welding operation is over threads
C. Connecting load pipes by Answer: C
soldering alloy Answer: C
D. Low temperature welding 17. The pressure of inoculation is used:
A. To clean the casting 26. Permeability of foundry sand is:
Answer: C A. The capacity to hold moisture

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 B. Distortion of binder in sand A. Clearance between mating parts A. Cut gears
C. Fineness of sand B. Pitch of screw threads B. Cut threads
D. Porosity to allow the escape of C. Radius of curvature C. Give desired direction of movement
gases D. Thickness of plates to the lathe carriage
D. Reduce spindle speeds
Answer: A Answer: A
Answer: C
27. Quick return mechanism is used in a 38. Chuck used on turret lathe is
A. Drilling machine A. Collet chuck 49. For machining the flange elbow on a lathe
B. Grinder B. Four jaw self-centering chuck which of the following holding devices is used?
C. Lathe C. Magnetic chuck A. Angle plate
D. Shaper D. Three jaws independent chuck B. Catch plate
C. Face plate
Answer: D Answer: D D. lathe plate

28. Draft on a pattern is provided for. 39. Routing prescribes Answer: C

A. Facilitating pattern making A. Inspection of final product
B. Easy lifting of the casting B. Proper utilization of machine 50. Which of the following is not part of
C. Facilitating withdrawal of the pattern C. Proper utilization of man power combination set?
from the mould D. The flow of materials in the joint A. Bevel protractor
D. Providing for shrinkage of the coating B. Dial gage
Answer: D C. Scale
Answer: D D. Try square
40. Cope foundry practice refers to
29. Mandrel are used to hold A. Bottom half of molding box Answer: C
A. Cutting tools B. Coating on the mold face
B. Drill bits C. Middle portion of the molding box
C. Face plate D. Top half of molding Test 24
D. Hollow work pieces 1. A sine bar cannot be used without a/an
Answer: D A. Angle gage
Answer: D B. Micrometer
41. A vent wire is used in
30. The operation of enlarging a hole is called: A. Foundry C. Slip gage
A. Boring B. Hot forging D. Vernier Caliper
B. Counter Sinking C. Cold forging
C. Drilling D. Fitting Answer: A
D. Reaming
Answer: B 2. The tooth life is affected to the maximum
Answer: A
extent by
42. The purpose of chaplets is to:
31. In up cut milling the work piece is fed A. Ensure directional solidification A. Gear grinding
A. Against the rotating cutter B. Function a lower and upper parts of B. Gear Shaping
B. At an angle 60° to the center the molding box C. Gear shaving
C. At right angle to the cutter C. Provide efficient venting D. Milling
D. In the direction of the cutter D. Support the cores
Answer: A
Answer: A Answer: A

32. Sprue is the passage provided for the 43. Angle plate is used for 3. The operation of finishing a drilled hole to the
A. Out flow A. Cutting tapers in a lathe correct size is known as
B. In flow B. Cutting gears in a shaper A. Counter boring
C. Smooth flow C. Cutting gears in a milling B. Counter sinking
D. Solidification of the molten material D. Fixing job outs angle in a grinder C. Reaming
D. Spot facing
Answer: B Answer: B

33. Feed in a lathe is expressed in 44. Cores are used in mould to make it Answer: C
A. mm A. Hollow
B. mm per degree B. Smooth 4. When the extreme outer corners of the
C. mm per revolution C. Strong cutting edges of a drill wear away too
D. rpm D. Symmetrical rapidly, it is an indication of
A. Not enough speed
Answer: C Answer: A
B. Too much rake angle
34. Raping allowance is provided on a pattern 45. Pipes subjected to high pressures are C. Too high a speed
to take care of generally made by D. B or C
A. Shrinkage A. Centrifugal casting
B. Machining B. Extrusion Answer: D
C. Distortion C. Pressure casting
D. Easy withdrawal D. Slush casting
5. Carbon steel drill should be operated at
Answer: D Answer: A A. Speed greater than that when using a
high speed drill
35. Upsetting is the term used in one of the 46. In a typical lathe machining, discontinuous B. Speeds less than that when using a
following operations chips of _____ are formed when machining high speed drill
A. Casting A. Carbon steel C. The same speed as that using a high
B. Drilling B. Copper steel
speed drill
C. Forging C. Copper
D. Turning D. Steel at high speeds D. None of the above

Answer: C Answer: C Answer: B

36. One of the material used for making 47. Permeability, in relation to molding sands, 6. Removing the sharp edges from a piece of
surface plate is: is high for stock is referred to as
A. Brass A. Coarse grains
A. Polish material
B. Granite B. Fine grains
C. Stainless steel C. Medium grains B. Roughen Material
D. Wood D. Round grains C. Sharpen Material
D. Smooth Material
Answer: B Answer: A
Answer: B
37. Feeler gages are used for measuring the: 48. The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe is to:

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7. Knurling is done to __________. C. Heated Answer: C
A. Boring D. Roughened
B. Chamfering 25. Which of the following information is
C. Planning Answer: A necessary when ordering a file
D. Turning A. Size
16. A scriber is made from B. Shape
Answer: B A. Carbon steel C. Type of teeth
B. Cold-rolled steel D. All of the above
8. When cutting material in a lathe, the harder C. Hot-rolled steel
the material being cut, the tool bit should D. Top steel Answer: D
have
A. Less side rake Answer: D 26. When filling a piece of metal in a lathe if short
B. More side rake quick strokes are used the finished piece will
C. More top rake 17. Copper is annealed by hunting to a cherry probably
D. No side rake red color and A. Be out of round
A. Cooling slowly in air B. Be perfect
Answer: A B. Dousing in cold water C. Have small flat areas on the surfaces
C. Dousing in hot water D. A and C
9. When turning a piece of round metal in a D. Dousing in oil
lathe, the front clearance should be smaller Answer: D
for Answer: A
A. Cutting angles 27. the best procedure when filling a piece of
B. Large-diameter cutting 18. When drilling a hole in a piece of work held metal in a lathe is to take _________
C. Small-diameter cutting in a lathe chuck one would use the A. A long fast stroke
D. None of these A. Head stock B. Long slow stroke
B. Compound rest C. Short even stroke
Answer: C C. Cross-feed D. Short fast stroke
D. Tailstock and drill chuck
10. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting edge Answer: B
should be Answer: D
A. Case hardened 28. The safe edge of a file is
B. Rubbed with emery cloth 19. When using a drill press, the work should be A. The end opposite the handle
C. Rubbed with crocus cloth held with B. The one with a handle
D. Stoned with an oilstone A. A pair of pliers C. The edge with the handle
B. A vise clamp D. None of these
Answer: D C. Gloves on
D. The hand Answer: C
11. When cutting material in a lathe, the softer
the material being cut, the tool bit should Answer: B 29. Small pieces of metal clogged between the
have teeth on a file are called
A. Any of these 20. When a lathe is put into back gear, it will go A. Bumps
B. Double top rake A. At a slower speed backwards B. Clogs
C. Less top rake B. At the same speed backward C. Flats
D. More top rake C. Faster D. Pins
D. Slower
Answer: C Answer: D
Answer: D
12. A piece of cast iron hold against an emery 30. Finishing off a piece of metal with a real
wheel will give of 21. On a lathe, the dead center is used after smooth finish can be done by
A. Bright shiny sparks A. Boring A. Draw – filing
B. Dull yellow sparks B. Center-drilling B. Fat – filing
C. Red sparks C. Drilling C. Milling – filing
D. No sparks D. Reaming D. Side – filing

Answer: B Answer: B Answer: A

13. The alignment of coupling faces can be 22. To remove metal stock rapidly the file to use 31. For finishing a piece of work to size the file to
checked by is a use is the
A. Inserting a feeler gage between the A. Double-cut bastard A. Crossing file
coupling faces at various points B. Double - cut coarse B. Double – cut fine – tooth file
around the circumference C. Rasp C. Mill file
B. Inserting a thermometer D. A and C D. Single – cut fine – tooth file
C. Rotating and measuring to nearest
permanent fitting Answer: D Answer: D
D. Using an inside micrometer
23. The best file to use when finishing sharp 32. For filing lead or babbit, use a
Answer: A corners or slots and grooves is the A. Lead float life
A. Jeweler’s file B. Mile file
14. A drill bit has B. Knife file C. Vixen file
A. No flutes C. Mill file D. A or C
B. 2 flutes D. Square file
C. 3 flutes Answer: A
D. 4 flutes Answer: B
33. A hacksaw blade with 32 TPI is best suited for
Answer: B 24. Never use a file cutting
A. That is dirty A. Small tubing
15. Before applying layout for blue on a piece of B. With a tang B. Conduit
metal, it must be C. Without a handle C. Sheet metal under 18 gage
A. Cleaned D. Without oiling D. Any of these
B. Cold

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 Answer: D Answer: D
3. When facing off a piece of material in the
34. A coolant is usually used when cutting 43. A hacksaw blade can be placed in a frame in lathe chuck the bit must be set
material in a power hacksaw to A. One position A. Above center
A. Absorb heat of friction B. Two positions B. At the center
B. Prevent the blade from overheating C. Three positions C. Below the center
D. Four positions
C. Prevent the blade from losing D. Off center
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Answer: B
Answer: D
44. All hard hacksaw blade is one that
A. Has a hard back and flexible teeth 4. Before applying layout blue on a piece of
35. A hacksaw blades with 18 teeth per inch is B. Has a flexible back and hard teeth metal, it must be
best suited for cutting C. Has the entire blade hardened A. Cleaned
A. Aluminum D. Will only fit a solid frame hacksaw B. Cold
B. Cast iron C. Hot
C. Solid iron Answer: C D. Roughened
D. Any of these
45. Hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best suited for Answer: A
Answer: D cutting
A. Brass and copper
5. Tool steel can be hardened by
B. Sheet metal over 18 gages
36. When cutting a long thing piece of metal A. Heating red hot and plunging into a water
C. Tubing
A. Set the blade in the frame with the teeth B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of
D. Any of these
facing toward you dry air
B. Turn the blade at right angles to the Answer: D C. Heating red hot and plunging into line
frame seed or cotton seed oil
C. Turn the blade upside down in the frame 46. Hacksaw blades are made of D. Any of the above, depending on the type
D. Use a blade with fewer teeth per inch A. High speed and use
B. Tool steel
Answer: B C. Tungsten alloy steel Answer: D
D. Any of these
37. The hacksaw blade should be placed in the 6. A piece of mild steel held against an emery
frame with Answer: D wheel give off
A. One end looser than the other end A. Bright shiny sparks
47. A flexible back hacksaw blade is one that has
B. The teeth facing in any direction B. Green sparks
A. A movable back
C. The teeth pointing backward C. Light straw – colored sparks
B. Flexible ends
D. The teeth pointing forward D. No sparks
C. Only the back hardened
D. Only the teeth hardened
Answer: D Answer: C
Answer: D
38. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch 7. Another name for hydrochloric acid is
should be used for cutting 48. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best suited to A. Acetic acid
A. Brass work on B. Muriatic acid
B. Cast iron A. Aluminum C. Nitric acid
C. Heavy B. Channel D. Sulfuric acid
D. Thin wall tubing C. Tubing
D. Any of these Answer: B
Answer: D
Answer: A 8. A flexible hacksaw blade has a tendency to
39. The best instrument for measuring A. Snap easy
49. When lathe tool bit burns, it means that the
thousandths of an inch is the: B. Buckle or run out of line when too much
A. Speed is too low
A. Caliper pressure is supplied
B. Speed is too fast
B. Micrometer C. Material is too hard C. Cut too fast
C. Pyrometer D. Material cannot be cut D. Cut on a slant
D. Tachometer
Answer: B Answer: B
Answer: B
50. The lathe compound is used for 9. A pillar file is used for
40. All hard hacksaw blade is best suited for work A. Angle cutting A. Filing against a shoulder
on B. Grooving B. Filing keyways
C. Facing
A. Brass C. Filing slots
D. Any of these
B. Cast iron D. Any of these
C. Tool steel
Answer: D
D. Any of these Answer: D

Answer: D
Test 25 10. The length of a file is measured from

1. A universal chuck cannot be used to cut A. End to end

41. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best suited for A. An eccentric B. Heel to end
cutting B. A round stock C. Point to end
A. Cold rolled steel C. A cam D. Point to heel
B. Hot rolled steel D. A and C
C. Structural steel Answer: D
D. Any of these
Answer: D
11. In general, files are divided into two classes,
Answer: D 2. The jaw of a standard vise is namely:
A. Hard A. Fine and coarse
42. Files are divided into two general classes, namely
B. Semi – hard B. Rough and smooth
A. Flat shapes and round shapes C. Single – cut and double – cut
C. Semi-soft
B. Large and small D. Shapes and sizes
C. Rough and smooth D. Soft
D. Single – cut and double - cut
Answer: A Answer: C

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 C. Ring gage B. 50°
12. A pillar file has D. Thread gage C. 59°
A. One safe edge D. 65°
B. Three safe edges Answer: C
C. Two safe edges Answer: C
D. A and C 21. The operation of truing a grinding wheel is
known as 30. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut at
Answer: D A. Centering different angles
B. Dressing A. The drill will not cut
13. The tang of a file is the part that C. Rounding B. The hole will be larger than the drill
A. Does the cutting D. Sizing C. The hole will be smaller than the drill
B. Fits into the handle D. None of these
C. Has no teeth Answer: B
D. Is opposite the handle Answer: B
22. The cutting angle on a drill for mild steel
Answer: B should be 31. If a drill speed is too great, it will
A. 39° A. Cut faster
14. One of the factors involved in the choice of B. 49° B. Close its temper
a grinding wheel is C. 59° C. Out slower
A. The kind of material to be ground D. 69° D. Not cut
B. The amount of stock to be removed
C. The kind of finish required Answer: C Answer: B
D. All of these
23. Which of the following is not a common drill 32. Soda added to water is used for cooling
Answer: D shank instead of plain water because
A. Bit A. It reduces the amount of heat generated
15. The main difference between a planer and B. Fluted B. It improves the finish
a shaper C. Straight C. It overcomes rusting
A. The planer has offset table and the shaper D. Taper D. All of these
has a horizontal table
B. The shaper has a rotating table and the Answer: B Answer: D
planer has a horizontal table
C. The table of a planer has a reciprocating
24. Tapered shanks are used on a large drill 33. If the angle on a drill is less than 59°
motion past the total head while the table
presses so that A. The drill will make a larger hole
of the shaper is stationary and the tool
A. The drill can be centered more easily B. The drill will make a smaller hole
head has a reciprocating motion
B. The drill can be easily forced out of the C. The hole will take longer to drill and more
D. One is larger than the other
sleeve with a drift power is required to drive the drill
C. The shank can be reground when worn D. The drill will not center properly
Answer: C
D. The shank will not turn when cutting
Answer: C
16. A piece of tool steel held against an emery Answer: B
wheel will give off
34. The name of a taper shank used to drill is
A. White sparks with stars on the end 25. When using a drill press the work should be A. Miller
B. Yellow sparks held with B. Morse
C. No sparks A. The hand
D. Green sparks C. Starrett
B. A gloved hand D. Stanley
C. A vise or clamp
Answer: A D. Pliers Answer: B

17. If you use a dry grinding wheel for sharpening Answer: C 35. The tool used to cut threads on pipe is called
tool bits, dip the end of the bit in water
frequently to prevent a
26. A tool bit for cutting an American National A. Pipe tool
A. Annealing the cutting edge of the bit Thread should be ground with a B. Pipe stock
B. Burning your fingers A. 30° angle C. Pipe vise
C. Hardening of the tip B. 45° angle D. Pipe cutter
D. The tip from crystallizing C. 60° angle
D. 90° angle Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: C 36. The instrument used for reshaping a grinding
18. The tool used to check internal pipe threads
wheel that is grounded or cut of round is
is called 27. Center drilling is the operation of called
A. Gear center A. Drilling a center in an odd-shaped of metal
B. Gear cutter A. Wheel aligner
B. Drilling and countersinking with a tool B. Wheel dresser
C. Gear hob C. Centering with one tool and drilling with C. Wheel emery
D. Gear threader another D. Wheel cutter
D. Drilling a center in a piece of stock in a drill
Answer: C press Answer: B

19. The tool used to check internal pipe threads Answer: B

is called 37. The instrument used to remove old packing
from packing glands and stuffing boxes are
A. Pitch gage 28. When cutting a drill , it will squeal due to called
B. Plug gage A. Drill being ground improperly A. Packing tools
C. Ring gage B. Drill being too hot B. Packing bits
D. Thread gage C. Insufficient lubrication C. Gland box clearance
D. Any of these D. Packing screw
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: A
20. The tool used to check external pipe threads
is called a 29. The correct cutting angle on a drill for 38. Before drilling a hole in a pipe of metal it
A. Pitch gage ordinary work is
B. Plug gage should be
A. 45° A. Center punched

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 B. Marked with chalk D. Broaching D. Packing
C. Protracted
D. Scribed Answer: D Answer: D

Answer: A 48. The non chip removal process is called 7. Which of the following is not a common term
A. Grinding relating to the classification of fits?
A. Tunking
39. When measuring a drill for size, measure B. Spinning on lathe
B. Snug
across the C. Thread cutting
C. Medium Force Fit
A. Flutes D. Drilling
D. Bound
B. Margins
C. Points Answer: B Answer: D
D. Shanks
49. A twist drill has its point thinned in order to 8. The total permissible variation in the size of a
Answer: B A. Reduce the hole diameter dimension the difference between the limits
B. Increase the rake angle of the size.
40. The tool used in precision work to smooth on C. Locate in the center punch mark A. Tolerance
enlarge holes is called a D. Reduce the axial feed pressure B. Fits
A. Drift pin C. Allowance
B. Reamer Answer: D D. Clearance
C. Round out
D. Protractor 50. A reamer is used to correct the Answer: A
A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
Answer: B B. Size and position of a drilled hole 9. A device used to prevent leakage of media.
C. Finish and position of a drilled hole A. Seal
D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole B. Packing
41. The size of a drill is stamped on the C. Teflon
A. Flute D. Graphite
Answer: A
B. Margin
C. Point Answer: A
D. Shank
Test 26
1. _____________ to prevent leakage in dynamic 10. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if
Answer: D seal. A. Lips of drill are of unequal length
A. Gaskets B. Fed is too high
42. The tool used for cleaning files is called B. Seals C. Insufficient coolant is used
A. File cleaner C. Packing D. Cutting speed is too high
B. File card D. Felts
C. File oilstone Answer: A
D. Scraper Answer: C
11. Cemented carbide tipped tools can
2. Plus or minus of the tolerance is also called: machine metal even when their cutting
Answer: B
A. Total Tolerance elements get healed up to the temperature
B. Unilateral Tolerance of ___________.
43. The metal cutting wedge is fundamental to
C. Bilateral Tolerance A. 1650 C
the geometry of B. 1400 C
D. None of these
A. Head of tools only C. 1000 C
B. Power driven tools only D. 1800 C
Answer: C
C. Sheet metal cutting tools only
D. All cutting tools 3. Is the permissible variation of the size of a Answer: C
dimension?
Answer: A A. Tolerance 12. Cemented carbide tools are usually
B. Allowance provided with
44. Continuous chips are formed when cutting C. Clearance A. Positive back rake angle
A. Brittle materials D. Interference B. Neutral back rake angle
B. Ductile materials C. Negative back rake angle
C. Amorphous plastic materials Answer: A D. Depth of cutter
D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
4. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will Answer: C

Answer: B take pressure to put the parts together. The

allowance is said to be negative and is 13. Friction between chip and tool may be
termed reduced by
45. What is the function of rake angle of a A. Increased sliding viscosity
A. Negative tolerance
cutting tool? B. Increased shear angle
B. Negative allowance
A. To control the chip formation C. Negative fits C. Use of low tool finish
B. To prevent rubbing D. Interference of metal D. None of these
C. To determine the profile of too
D. To determine whether the cutting Answer: B Answer: A
action is oblique or orthogonal
5. It is used in conjunction with circular cross 14. The studs used as a coolant in general
Answer: A sectional members to retain oil and prevent machine stop consist of
dirt, foreign particles and moisture and to A. A solution of detergent and water
permit pressure differential between exterior B. A straight mineral oil
46. Back rake angle for a high speed steel point
and interior of the applied part. C. An emulsion of oil and water
cutting tool to machine free cutting brass is
A. Seal D. A chemical solution
A. 0°
B. 5° B. Gasket
C. Safety shield Answer: C
C. 10°
D. Packing
D. 15° 15. Milling cutter is sharpened on
Answer: A A. Tool and cutter grinder
Answer: A B. Center less grinder
6. Flexible material used to seal pressurized C. Cylindrical grinder
47. The chip removal process is called fluids, normally under dynamic condition. D. Surface grinder
A. Extruding A. Nylon
B. Forging B. Seal Answer: A
C. Rolling C. Teflon

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16. Two major factors, which determine the rpm 25. Twist drills are usually considered suitable for 34. A tolerance where the size of a part may be
of milling cutter, are the material being cut machining holes having a length less than larger only or smaller only, than the given
and _________. A. Two times their diameter dimension
A. Number of teeth in cutter B. Five times their diameter A. Bilateral
B. Diameter less grinder C. Ten times their diameter B. Unilateral
C. Time allowed to complete the job D. Fifteen times their diameter C. Lateral
D. Depth of cutter D. None of these
Answer: B
Answer: C Answer: A
26. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for
17. Gear pumps used in hydraulic system are grinding 35. _________ are generally used on those
used for _________. A. Hard materials dimensions involved in a fit
A. Low and medium pressure B. Soft materials A. Bilateral
B. Medium and high pressure C. Both hard and soft materials B. Unilateral
C. Low and high pressure D. None of these C. Lateral
D. None of the above D. None of these
Answer: B
Answer: A Answer: B
27. The relative motion of work piece in planning
18. Electron beam machining process is quite is 36. The ASA fits are based on the
suitable for a material having A. Rotary A. Basic Number System
A. High melting point and high thermal B. Translator B. Basic Hole System
conductivity C. Rotary and translator C. Basic Size System
B. High melting point and low thermal D. None of these D. Unit System
conductivity
C. Low melting point and low thermal Answer: B Answer: B
conductivity
D. Low melting point and high thermal 28. In quick return mechanism of shaping 37. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will
conductivity machine the ram stroke length is take a force or pressure to put the cold part
proportional to together. The allowance is said to be
Answer: B A. Slotter arm length negative and is termed as:
B. Crank length A. Negative fits of metal
19. Energy is a/an C. Ram length B. Positive fits
A. Artificial abrasive D. None of these C. Interchangeable
B. Natural abrasive D. Interference of metal
C. Type of cloth Answer: B
D. None of these Answer: D
29. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in
Answer: B quick return mechanism of shaping machine 38. Is the relatively finely spaced irregularities on
is the surface
20. Grinding is what type of operation? A. 3:2 A. Smoothness
A. Metal fusing operation B. 6:8 B. Lay
B. Metal powdering operation C. 3:1 C. Waviness
C. None of these D. 5:2 D. Roughness
D. Metal finish operation
Answer: A Answer: D
Answer: D
30. The amount of metal removed by honing 39. It is the irregularities or departures from the
21. Grinding is done wherever process is less than __________. nominal surface of greater spacing than
A. Other machining operations cannot be A. 0.125 mm roughness
carried out B. 0.255 mm A. Roughness
B. A large amount of materials is to be C. 0.015 mm B. Lay
removed D. 0.315 mm C. Smoothness
C. High accuracy is required D. Waviness
D. None of these Answer: A
Answer: D
Answer: C 31. The type and number of bearing to be used
for spindles of machine tool depend on 40. It is the direction of the predominant surface
22. Laser beam machining process is used to A. Type of spindle pattern
machine __________. B. Type of machine tool A. Lay
A. Thicker materials C. Load on the bearing B. Roughness
B. Thinner materials D. None of these C. Smoothness
C. Heavier materials D. Waviness
D. None of these Answer: C
Answer: A
Answer: B 32. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of the
order _______ in machining work could be 41. The surface finish of micrometer anvils in
23. The size of abrasive grains in an abrasive jet permitted. ______ rms.
machining varies from A. -+0.020 A. 1
A. 60 to 100 microns B. -+0.010 B. 8
B. 10 to 50 microns C. -+0.09 C. 16
C. 1 to 5 microns D. -+0.05 D. 32
D. 110 to 150 microns
Answer: B Answer: A
Answer: B
33. A tolerance where the size of a part is 42. The surface finish of heavy cuts and coarse
24. The Young’s modulus of carbide tools is permitted to be either large or smaller than feed
about ________. the given dimension. A. 80 rms
A. Three times than for steel A. Bilateral B. 200 rms
B. Six times than for steel B. Unilateral C. 400 rms
C. Nine times than for steel C. Lateral D. 500 or greater rms
D. None of these D. None of these
Answer: D
Answer: A Answer: B
43. The outbreak of fire can be avoided by
preventing

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 A. Fuel 3. In which screw thread the side = width of flat C. Nominal and lower limit
B. Heat = width of space = 0.5p is termed as D. Nominal and upper limit
C. Oxygen A. Acme
D. Any of these
B. Buttress Answer: B
Answer: D C. Knuckle
D. Square 13. Lapping is done
44. The square head of a combination set is used for A. To finish the job to a fine degree of
marking or checking the engine. Answer: D accuracy
A. 90° only B. To get high quality of surface finish
B. 90° and 45° 4. A stud is one which: C. To control the size
C. 45° only
A. Has threads on one end D. All of these
D. Any angle between 0-180°
B. Inserted in a plane hole
Answer: C. Requires a nut Answer: D
D. None of these
45. Angle plate is made of 14. In which method a bore is finished to a very
A. Cast steel Answer: D close tolerance
B. Closed grain cast iron A. Lapping
C. High speed steel
5. 18-8” stainless steel means: B. Honing
D. Tool steel
A. 18% Tungsten and 8% Chromium C. Grinding
Answer: B B. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel D. Turning
C. 18% Nickel and 8% Chromium
46. The eye hole of a hammer head is made in an D. 18% Chromium and 8% Cobalt Answer: B
oval shape and taper towards center because
A. It is easy for production Answer: B 15. Jig bushing are generally made of
B. It is specifically design by experts
A. Mild steel
C. It accommodates the handle and a
wedge for preventing it 6. Which is the lightest metal B. Cast iron
D. None of the above A. Aluminum C. Brass
B. Cast iron D. Tool steel
Answer: C C. G. I. sheet
D. Lead Answer: D
47. The jaws of a long vice are opened
A. Parallel to each other
Answer: A 16. Fixture clamps are generally made of
B. In V form
C. In both “A” and “B” A. High carbon steel
D. Neither “A” nor “B” 7. Hardened steel parts have B. Case hardened mild steel
A. Coarse grain C. High speed steel
Answer: B B. Fine grains D. Alloy steel
C. Medium grains
48. For general work the cutting angle of a cold fist
D. None of these Answer: B
chisel is ground at an angle of
A. 35°
B. 60° Answer: B 17. Successfully designing of jigs and fixtures
C. 70° depend upon
D. 80° 8. Concentricity of an outside diameter can be A. Clamping arrangement
checked by B. Tool guiding elements
Answer: B A. Dial test indicator C. Manufacturing conditions
B. Outside micrometer D. All of these
49. A new hacksaw blade should not be used to old
C. Vernier caliper
cut because
A. The blade is very costly D. Tube micrometer Answer: D
B. The blade has very sharp teeth
C. The space is not sufficient to play the new Answer: A 18. When an external gear is meshed with an
blade in the old cut internal gear the gears will rotate in
D. None of these 9. Which micrometer has no anvil A. Opposite direction
A. Depth micrometer B. Same direction
Answer: C
B. Outside micrometer C. Will not rotate
C. Screw thread micrometer D. None of these
50. Which part of the file is not hardened
A. Body D. Digit micrometer
B. Heel Answer: D
C. Point Answer: A
D. Tang 19. While soldering the flux is used because
10. Which micrometer is available with extension A. It assists for quick melting and
Answer: D
rods increasing the fluidity of solder
A. Outside micrometer B. It saves the part from oxidation
Test 27 B. Inside micrometer C. It takes the molten metal on all surfaces
1. In case of a flat scraper, the depth of cut s C. Screw thread micrometer D. All of these
verified D. Combi micrometer
A. Changing its inclination Answer: D
B. Changing the convexity of the cutting Answer: B
edge 20. A usual ration of soluble oil and water used in
C. Changing its weight 11. Which gauge is used to check the internal coolant is
D. None of these threads A. 1:10
A. Plug gauge B. 1:20
Answer: A B. Ring gauge C. 10:1
C. Thread plug gauge D. 20:1
2. Generally spiral fluted reamer has spirals of D. Thread ring gauge
A. Left hand Answer: B
B. Right hand Answer: C
C. Straight 21. For a given rpm, if the diameter of a twist drill
D. None of these 12. Limit gauge is made to the _________ sizes of increases, then cutting speed will
the work to be measured A. Decrease
Answer: A A. Actual and nominal B. Increase
B. Minimum and maximum C. Same

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 D. None of these D. 3:2
Answer: D
Answer: B Answer: D
31. For the accurate measurement of bores , the
22. An advance motion along the longitudinal best instrument is 40. A tipped tool is more useful than H.S.S. tool
axis of a twist drill is called A. Vernier caliper because
A. Speed B. Inside micrometer A. It can resist more heat
B. Feed C. Plug gauge B. It can keep the cutting point sharp
C. Cutting speed D. Dial test indicator C. Cutting speed can be increased
D. None of these D. All of these
Answer: B
Answer: B Answer: D
32. Under sine principle the length of sine bar
23. In internal cylindrical grinding, the grinding takes the place of 41. The feed in shaper takes place at
wheel and the work rotate in A. Opposite side A. At the beginning of return stroke
A. Sam direction B. Adjacent side B. The beginning of cutting stroke
B. Opposite direction C. Hypotenuse C. The middle of return stroke
C. Neither A or B D. Height D. The end of return stroke
D. Both A and B
Answer: C Answer: D
Answer: B
33. In a hydraulic driven shaper the metals is 42. Which of the following quick return
24. For grinding materials having low tensile removed at mechanisms is most widely used in most of
strength which abrasive is used A. Lower speed the slotters
A. Corrundum B. Higher speed A. Slotter linl and gear mechanism
B. Aluminum oxide C. Average speed B. Slotter disc mechanism
C. Emery D. None of these C. Hydraulic mechanism
D. Silicon carbide D. Whitworth mechanism
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: D
34. In a shaper the cutting speed (metric) is
25. The size of a grinding wheel is taken from expressed in 43. In a slotter the cutting speed depends upon
A. Diameter of wheel A. Meter per minute A. Material to be cut
B. Bore size B. Meter per second B. Material of the slotter tool
C. Width of face C. Meter per hour C. Finish required
D. All of these D. None of these D. All of these

Answer: D Answer: A Answer: D

26. Which center is used for supporting open 35. Amount of automatic feed in shaper is 44. Convex shaped slotter tools are used for
end of pipes, shells etc. while turning or increased by taking the crank pin machining
thread cutting in a lathe A. At the center of crack disc A. Concave surface
A. Ball center B. Towards the center of crack disc B. Conical surface
B. Half center C. Away from the center of crack disc C. Flat surface
C. Female center D. none of these D. Convex surface
D. Pipe center
Answer: C Answer: A
Answer: D
36. In a shaper the feed (metric) is usually 45. The clamping block to be used in a slotter to
27. When outside diameter of a job is turned in expressed in support the end of the strap is made of
relation to the internal hole, the job should be A. mm/ stroke A. H. S. S.
held B. mm/revolution B. High carbon steel
A. In three jaw chuck C. meter/minute C. Lead
B. Between center D. none of these D. Wood
C. On face plate
D. On lathe mandrel Answer: A Answer: D

Answer: D 37. for cutting gear teeth in a shaper, the 46. The table of the slotter has feeding
_________ tool is use movements
28. The included angle of a dead center is A. form A. Longitudinal
A. 30° B. “V” shape B. Cross
B. 45° C. Round nose C. Rotary
C. 60° D. Gooseneck D. All of these
D. 90°
Answer: A Answer: D
Answer: C
38. Shaper tool bit should not exceed in tool 47. Divided table planer has
29. Main alloying element to H.S.S is holder beyond A. One table
A. Chromium A. 5mm B. One housing
B. Tungsten B. 15mm C. Two tables
C. Vanadium C. 25mm D. Two housing
D. Nickel D. 50mm
Answer: C
Answer: Answer: B
48. In a planer the feed is provided
30. The value of one micron is 39. The standard ratio of cutting in return stroke A. At forward stroke
A. 1.00 mm in shaper is B. At return stroke
B. 0.10 mm A. 3:1 C. In between forward stroke
C. 0.001 mm B. 1:3 D. In between return stroke
D. 0.001 mm C. 2:3

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Answer: B C. During up cut milling with a straight tooth
Answer: A cutter
49. In a planer the cutting speed depends upon D. When using spiral tooth cutter
A. Material of job, material of tool and 8. In a straddle milling operation how many
feed rate cutters are used to mill the work Answer: C
B. RPM of ball gear A. One
17. Taps are re-sharpened by grinding
C. Depth of cut B. Two
A. Threads
D. None of these C. Three or more
B. Flutes
D. Any one of these
C. Diameter
Answer: A D. Relief
Answer: B
50. The planer tool differs from lathe tool Answer: B
because it has 9. For gear cutting which cutter is used
A. Less front and side clearance A. End mill cutter 18. Grinding fluids are used to
B. More front and side clearance B. Form relief cutter A. Reduce the friction between the wheel
C. Less rake angle C. Plain milling cutter face and the job
D. More rake angle D. All of these B. Lubricate
C. Prevent loading of wheel
D. All of these
Answer: A Answer: B

Answer: D
10. In a slotter, the table gets ______ different
Test 28 feeds
19. Balancing of grinding wheel is done to:
1. A planer which has a cutting action in both A. One
A. Make the outside diameter concentric with
strokes in B. Two the bore
A. Open side planer C. Three B. Make the sides of the wheel parallel
B. Double housing planer D. None of these C. Equalize the weight in very portion of the
C. Pit planer wheel
D. universal planer Answer: C D. None of these

Answer: D 11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is 5°, the Answer: C

lip (wedge) angle in 75°, the rake angle will
2. the straddle milling is done by means of two: be 20. A grinding wheel which has got the marking °C,
A. side milling cutters is made with the abrasive
A. 10°
B. plain milling cutters A. Aluminum oxide
B. 70°
C. face milling cutters B. Silicon carbide
C. 80°
C. Combination of A and B
D. form cutters D. None of these D. Corrundum

Answer: A Answer: A Answer: B

3. in a standard dividing head the ration 12. The approximate hardness of HSS end mill 21. Which bond is suitable for wet grinding
between the worm wheel and the worm is cutter is: A. Rubber
A. 10:1 A. 45 HRC B. Shellac
B. 20:1 B. 52 HRC C. Silicate
C. 30:1 C. 62 HRC D. None of these
D. 40:1 D. 72 HRC
Answer: C
Answer: D Answer: C
22. Which kind of bond is commonly used
4. In a standard dividing head 3 inches in 27 A. Vitrified
13. The over arm of a milling machine is used to
B. Rubber
holes circle will index: support C. Shellac
A. 1° A. Arbor D. Silicon
B. 4° B. Spindle
C. 2° C. Column Answer: A
D. 6° D. Table
23. The grade is of grinding wheel depends upon:
Answer: A Answer: A A. Grain size
B. Hardness of bond
5. There are two different movements of the 14. Where does the feed motion takes place in C. Kind of abrasive
crank in: a slotting machine D. Structure
A. Simple indexing A. During the cutting motion
B. Compound indexing Answer: B
B. After each forward stroke
C. Differential indexing C. At the end of the return motion
D. Angular indexing 24. One of the causes of grinding wheel glazing is
D. After each double stroke
A. Grain size is too fine
B. Wheel is hard
Answer: B Answer: D C. Wheel speed is too fast
D. “A” and “B” both
6. In a vertical milling machine the spindle is 15. Which of the following conditions may cause
attached ________ to the work table error during knurling Answer: D
A. Horizontal A. Surface speed too low
B. Angular B. Clamped length and toll too short 25. Which of the following is used in cleaning the
C. Vertical C. Too much longitudinal feed gage blocks before and after use
D. None of the above D. Unnecessary support with tool stock A. Brush
center B. Chamois leather or linen cloth
Answer: C C. Cotton waste
Answer: C D. None of these
7. Planer type milling machine is built up for
16. Mark the milling method during which the Answer: B
__________ work of:
formation of chatter marks is very likely:
A. Heavy duty
A. During down cut milling with a straight 26. Internal and external taper on cylindrical jobs
B. Light duty tooth cutter are ground in
C. Medium duty B. During face milling with a straight tooth A. Plain cylindrical grinding machine
D. None of these cutter

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 B. Universal cylindrical grinding machine A. It is easy for machinery
C. Internal grinding machine B. It is cheaper Answer: A
D. Centerless grinding machine C. It has less wear and tear
D. All of these 44. A device used to fix two or more parts
Answer: B A. Jigs
Answer: D B. Fixtures
27. Mark the cutter which works simultaneously with
C. Fastener
the up cut and down cut process
36. The common measuring tools are D. Clamp
A. Side milling cutter
A. Steel rule
B. Shell and milling cutter
C. Semi – circular milling cutter B. Vernier caliper Answer: C
D. Plain milling cutter C. Micrometer
D. All of these 45. A machine element inserted parallel to the
Answer: B axis of a shaft
Answer: D A. Fastener
28. What happens if the job is loosely fitted between B. Cotter
centers in cylindrical grindings? 37. It is an operation of stretching or spreading C. Key
A. The job will be out of round over the metal by means of the plane of the D. None of these
B. The job will be oversize
hammer
C. The job will be thrown out
A. Peening Answer: C
D. The job will not rotate
B. Swaging
C. Bending 46. A machine element inserted at right angle to
Answer: A
D. Upsetting the axis shaft is known as
A. Fastener
29. Where does the relieved cutters are
Answer: A B. Cotter
reground
A. On the circumstances C. Key
B. Relieved cutters are not reground 38. The good quality of a measuring tool D. Clamp
A. Should be easy to handle
C. On the flank
B. Should be easy to read Answer: B
D. On the side faces
C. Should be wear resistance
D. All of these 47. The process of extracting iron in a blast is
Answer: C
called
30. Used for scribing large radius of circles and Answer: D A. Sintering
B. Smelting
arcs
39. The flatness of surface can be checked C. Casting
A. Compass
A. By using a straight edge D. Manufacturing
B. Protractor
C. Ruler B. By using a surface plate
D. Trammel C. By using a dial test indicator Answer: B
D. All of these
Answer: D 48. Which of the following is a product of blast
Answer: D furnace
A. Wrought iron
31. Which of the following has its angle 30° and
is used for giving impression on soft metals? 40. It is an operation in which round rod is placed B. Cast iron
A. Center punch between the top and bottom swages and C. Pig iron
B. Dot punch hammered to remove the bends and marks D. Gray iron
C. Prick punch A. Bending
B. Peening Answer: C
D. Hollow punch
C. Swaging
D. Upsetting 49. A type of iron, which contains 3 to 3.5 %
Answer: C
carbon either in combined form or in free
32. Which of the following has its angle 60° and Answer: C state
A. Wrought iron
is used for dotting after marking the lines on
41. A notching/ holding device which is used to B. Cast iron
general works?
hold, or grip work place while filing, chipping C. Pig iron
A. Center punch
or any other bench work or when machining D. Gray iron
B. Dot punch
C. Hollow punch or drilling them
D. Prick punch A. Vise Answer: B
B. Clamp
C. Grip 50. Which of the following furnace is used for
Answer: B
D. Pressed manufacture of cast iron

33. Which of the following has its angle 90° and A. Cupola furnace
is used to give deep marks to the location of Answer: A B. Crucible furnace
drill C. Electric furnace
42. A multi pointed hand anything tool used to D. all of these
A. Center punch
remove material from metallic non- metallic
B. Dot punch
work places to match withdrawing shape Answer: D
C. Hollow punch
D. Prick punch and size
A. Cold chisel
Answer: A B. File Test 29
C. Hacksaw 1. A product of padding furnace, which
D. none of these contains less than 0.10% carbon, is called
34. It is used on soft metals and non-metals for A. Wrought Iron
making holes B. Cast Iron
Answer: B
A. Center punch C. Pig Iron
B. Dot punch D. Gray cast Iron
C. Hollow punch 43. a side cutting tool used for accurately
finishing the straight or tapered holes already
D. Prick punch Answer: A
drilled or bored
A. Reamer
Answer: C 2. Which of the following is a property of
B. Swaging
C. Peening wrought iron?
35. Reasons why cast iron is selected for the
D. Tapping A. Ductile
manufacture of surface plate
B. Brittle

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 C. Cannot be forged
D. Can be easily cast into different shapes 11. It is a process to soft the steel part by Answer: B
removing the internal stress
Answer: A A. Normalizing 20. __________ is the difference between the
B. Annealing high and low limit of size
3. Which of the following gives greater C. Tempering A. Clearance
hardness, cutting toughness and fine grain D. Hardening B. Allowance
structure? C. Tolerance
A. Chromium Answer: B D. Fits
B. Nickel
C. Tungsten 12. It is process to make the steel part to its Answer: C
D. Vanadium normal range
A. Annealing 21. It is the intentional difference in the sizes of
Answer: A B. Normalizing mating parts
C. Case Hardening A. Allowance
4. Which of the following gives greater D. Tempering B. Clearance
hardness, cutting toughness and resistance C. Limits
to wear and tear? Answer: B D. Tolerance
A. Chromium
B. Tungsten 13. It is the process for making the outer surface Answer: A
C. Nickel harder of the steel part
D. Vanadium A. Flame Hardening 22. It is an operation of finishing the flat and
B. Hardening cylindrical surfaces to a fine degree of
Answer: D C. Case Hardening accuracy
D. Carburizing A. Lapping
5. Which of the following raises the tensile B. Shaping
strength, protects from corrosion and Answer: C C. Planing
improves wearing property? D. Honing
A. Cobalt 14. It is a case hardening process by which the
B. Nickel carbon content of the steel near the surface Answer: A
C. Molybdenum of a part is increased
D. Tungsten A. Nitriding 23. It is an operation of finishing the flat and
B. Tempering cylindrical surfaces to a fine degree of
Answer: B C. Carburizing accuracy by means of abrasive sticks
D. Flame Hardening A. Lapping
6. ___________ gives greater hardness and B. Planing
resistance to forging and drawing Answer: C C. Shaping
A. Molybdenum D. Honing
B. Vanadium 15. It is a case hardening process in which work
C. Tungsten piece is heated in a stream of ammonia at Answer: D
D. Cobalt 500 to 550°C
A. Carburizing 24. It is a device, which hold the job in position
Answer: A B. Nitriding and guide the cutting tool.
C. Tempering A. Clamp
7. __________ improves the cutting quality and D. Normalizing B. Jig
gives excellent magnetic property in the C. Vise
steel Answer: B D. Grip
A. Cobalt
B. Molybdenum 16. The size by which it is referred to as a matter Answer: B
C. Nickel of convenience called
D. Chromium A. Basic size 25. It is a device, which hold the job firmly
B. Actual size A. Clamp
Answer: A C. Nominal size B. Grip
D. Effective size C. Fixture
8. It is an operation involving heating and D. Jig
cooling of metals to change the properties Answer: C
A. Annealing Answer: C
B. Nitriding 17. The size in relation to which all limits of
C. Tempering variation is made. 26. The movement of belt upon the face of rim
D. Heat Treatment A. Actual size or outer of the driver and driven pulleys
B. Basic size within the area of arc of contact is called
Answer: D C. Effective size A. Slip
D. Nominal size B. Creep
9. It is a process to impact maximum hardness C. Crowning
to the steel part. Answer: B D. Dressing
A. Hardening
B. Tempering 18. The relation between two mating parts with Answer: B
C. Annealing reference to ease the assembly is called
D. Normalizing A. Allowance 27. If the belt is loosely fitted on pulleys, _________
B. Clearance slips down.
Answer: A C. Tolerance A. Creep
D. Fits B. Crowning
10. It is a process to reduce some brittleness and C. Dressing
to induce some toughness in the steel part Answer: D D. Slip
A. Case Hardening
B. Normalizing 19. Two extreme permissible sizes of a dimension Answer: D
C. Annealing A. Boundary
D. Tempering B. Limits 28. It is the outer surface of face or rim of the
C. Tolerance pulley and made in convex form to keep the
Answer: D D. Allowance belt in center when it is in motion

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 A. Crowning A. Compound rest
B. Dressing 37. It is a process by which the length of a work B. Apron
C. Creep place is increased by reducing its cross C. Saddle
D. Slip section area. D. Carriers
A. Drawing out
Answer: A B. Drifting Answer: A
C. Jumping
29. To avoid slip or creep, the resin powder or D. Upsetting 46. A holding device used to hold the job
paste is poured in between the outer surface properly when turning the outer surface truly
of pulley and belt for increasing at tension. Answer: A with the finished hole called
This process is known as A. Clamp
A. Crowning 38. It is a process by which the length of a work B. Fixture
B. Dressing piece is reduced C. Jig
C. Creep A. Upsetting D. Mandrel
D. Slip B. Drawing out
C. Drifting Answer: D
Answer: B D. Jumping
47. The center that is fitted in headstock spindle
30. It is used to transmit motion at high speed Answer: D called
without producing noise A. Dead Center
A. Bevel gears 39. Refers to the process of bulging on one end B. Live Center
B. Hypoid Gears of a work piece to bring a required shape C. Above Center
C. Helical Gears A. Bending D. Below Center
D. Worm Gears B. Upsetting
C. Drifting Answer: B
Answer: C D. Jumping
48. A center, which is fitted in tailstock spindle
31. It is used to transmit motion at high speed Answer: B called
with heavy load without producing noise A. Dead Center
A. Worm gear 40. It is a process of enlarging and smoothening B. Live Center
B. Herring bone gear the punched hole by means of tapered drifts C. Above Center
C. Bevel gear of various sizes and shapes D. Below Center
D. Spur gear A. Drifting
B. Jumping Answer: A
Answer: B C. Drawing out
D. Upsetting 49. It is a machine tool used to produce flat
32. It is used to connect and disconnect the surfaces, which may be horizontal, vertical
driving and driven units Answer: A or inclined
A. Brake A. Planer
B. Spring 41. It is a machine tool used to remove metal B. Slotter
C. Clutch from a work piece to give it the required C. Shaper
D. Coupling shape and size D. Milling
A. Drill press
Answer: C B. Lathe Answer: C
C. Shaper
33. It connects the shafts with soft materials such D. Planer 50. Which of the following gives shearing action
as rubber, leather and canvas A. Slide rake
A. Universal coupling Answer: B B. Top rake
B. Flexible coupling C. Side clearance
C. Rigid coupling 42. It is a set of gears fitted in different positions D. Front clearance
D. Oldham coupling on a plate, which are controlled by a lever
A. Gear train Answer: D
Answer: B B. Stud Gear
C. Tumbler Gear
34. What is used to connect the shafts whose D. Differential Gear Test 30
axes are intersecting 1. What supports the top rake?
A. Rigid coupling Answer: C A. Front Clearance
B. Oldham coupling B. Side Clearance
C. Flexible coupling 43. It moves on the lathe bed with cutting tool C. Slide Rake
D. Universal coupling according to the rotation of lead screw or by D. None of these
hand traversing wheel
Answer: D A. Apron Answer: A
B. Compound rest
35. It is generally used on high speed with light C. Saddle 2. What supports for free feeding
load because it has point contact D. Mandrel A. Side rake
A. Ball bearing B. Side clearance
B. Roller bearing Answer: C C. Front clearance
C. Metal bearing D. Top rake
D. Wood bearing 44. It acts the carriage or compound rest
through the mechanism lifted inside the Answer: B
Answer: A __________
A. Saddle 3. Which of the following reduces the rubbing
36. It is generally used on high speed with heavy B. Apron action?
load because it has line contact C. Compound A. Front clearance
A. Plastic bearing D. Mandrel B. Side clearance
B. Metal bearing C. Slide rake
C. Roller bearing Answer: B D. Top rake
D. Ball bearing
45. It gives the cutting tool longitudinal feed, Answer: A
Answer: C cross feed or angular feed

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4. It is a type of reciprocating type machine 12. It is an attachment to the milling machine, to the work piece at the point of contact
tool used for machining flat, cylindrical, and which helps to divide the job periphery into a with the tool
irregular surfaces. number of equal divisions A. Clearance angle
A. Planer A. Index B. Wedge angle
B. Shaper B. Dividing head C. Rake angle
C. Slotter C. Slotting D. Cutting angle
D. Lathe D. Universal spiral
Answer: A
Answer: C Answer: B
21. The best method of avoiding accident is by
5. Which of the following is used for all general 13. It is an operation to produce narrow slots or observing __________ related to job, machine
purposes? grooves using a slitting saw milling cutter and work piece.
A. Production process A. Saw milling A. Emery
B. Puncher slotter B. Form milling B. Opponent
C. Tool room slotter C. End milling C. Safety precautions
D. None of these D. Side milling D. Cleanliness

Answer: B Answer: A Answer: C

6. A machine tool used for large construction 14. It is an operation to produce irregular 22. The size of try square is measured from the
A. Planer contours using a form cutter inner edge of stock to the end of its _______.
B. Shaper A. Face milling A. Base
C. Slotter B. Form milling B. Blade
D. Lathe C. Side milling C. Edge
D. End milling D. Body
Answer: A
Answer: B Answer: B
7. It is a machine tool used to machine plane
curved surfaced, slots, grooves, teeth, with 15. It is an operation to divide the periphery of 23. Angle of center punch is
fast rotating multipoint cutter the job into number of equal parts A. 30°
A. Milling accurately B. 45°
B. Planer A. Dividing head C. 60°
C. Shaper B. Indexing D. 90°
D. Grinder C. Slotting
D. None of these Answer: D
Answer: A
Answer: B 24. Mallets are made of ________.
8. It is also known as conventional milling in A. Hardwood
which the rotation of the cutter is in the 16. The angle formed between the face of a tool B. Soft wood
direction opposite to the direction of the and the work surface or tangent to the work C. Steel
table movement at a point of contact with the tool called D. Cast iron
A. Down-milling A. Clearance angle
B. Up-milling B. Cutting angle Answer: A
C. Standard milling C. Rake angle
D. Gang milling D. Wedge angle 25. The size of the bench vise is measured from
the ______ of its jaws
Answer: B Answer: B A. Width
B. Length
9. It is also known as climb milling in which the 17. It is a device, which is used to change the C. Thickness
rotation of the cutter and the movement to shape of a piece by removing material in the D. Curvature
the table is in the same direction form of chips
A. Gang milling A. Cutting tool Answer: A
B. Down milling B. Machine tool
C. Up milling C. Chisel 26. For cutting oil grooves in bearing _____ chisel
D. Straddle milling D. Hacksaw is used
A. Full round nose
Answer: B Answer: A B. Half round nose
C. Square nose
10. It is an operation of milling the complex 18. The angle formed the face and the normal D. Rectangular
surfaces with the help of a group of cutters to the work piece at the point of contact
mounted on the same arbor with the tool Answer: B
A. Gang milling A. Clearance angle
B. Straddle milling B. Cutting angle 27. Staggering of hacksaw blade teeth on both
C. Climb milling C. Wedge angle sides alternatively is called
D. Down milling D. Rake angle A. Positioning to teeth
B. Arrangement of teeth
Answer: A Answer: D C. Setting of teeth
D. None of these
11. It is an operation of milling two opposite sides 19. The angle formed between the face and the
of work piece at a time by using two side clearance surface Answer: C
milling cutters on the same arbor A. Wedge angle
A. Gang milling B. Rake angle 28. The size of a flat file is measured from ________
B. Straddle milling C. Clearance angle to heel of the file
C. Side milling D. Cutting angle A. Edge
D. Face milling B. Base
Answer: A C. Tip
Answer: B D. Body
20. The angle formed between the clearance
surface and the work surface or the tangent Answer: C

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29. The triangular scraper has _______ sharp Answer: A C. Lead and tungsten
cutting edges D. Lead and antimony
A. One 38. A __________ gage is used to check the size
B. Two of hole/bore Answer: B
C. Three A. Feeler
D. Four B. Plug 47. Flash point is the __________ at which the
C. Tap sufficient vapor is given off from the oil
Answer: C D. Dial without actual setting fire to the oil
A. Gage temperature
30. Reamer should also be turned in _________ Answer: B B. Lower temperature
direction when taking it out C. Higher temperature
A. Same direction 39. The difference between the high limit and D. Absolute Temperature
B. Opposite direction the low limit of a size is called
C. Clockwise direction A. Allowance Answer: B
D. Counterclockwise B. Clearance
C. Boundary 48. When hard material is to be drilled, the
Answer: C D. Tolerance cutting angle of the drill should be _____ 118°
A. Less than
31. It is the distance measured to the axis from a Answer: D B. Equal to
point on a screw thread to the C. More than
corresponding point on the next thread 40. An intentional difference between the hole D. Either more than or less than
A. Lead and the shaft dimension for any type of fit is
B. Pitch called Answer: C
C. Linear A. Allowance
D. Chord B. Clearance 49. If the taper shank of the drill is too large as
C. Tolerance compared to the spindle hole, the __________
Answer: B D. Range is used.
A. Drill socket
32. Cupola furnace is used to produce _______. Answer: A B. Planer
A. Cast iron C. Electric drill
B. Cast steel 41. The material for taps should always be D. Copping saw
C. Aluminum _________ than the material of part to be
D. Stainless steel tapped Answer: A
A. Harder
Answer: A B. Shorter 50. What is the lip clearance angle of twist drill
C. Softer for generated work?
33. Percentage of carbon in high carbon steel is D. Longer A. 3 – 6°
A. 0.10% to 0.50% B. 8 – 10°
B. 0.70% to 1.5% Answer: C C. 12 – 15°
C. 3% to 7% D. 18 – 22°
D. 5% to 10% 42. Jigs are generally used for holding the job
and __________ the tool Answer: C
Answer: B A. Support
B. Guide
34. It is done to decrease the brittleness and to C. Control Test 31
increase the toughness D. Regulate 1. A machine for shaping a work piece by gripping
A. Annealing it in a holding device and rotating it under power
B. Normalizing Answer: B against a suitable tool for turning, boring facing or
C. Tempering threading.
D. Nitriding 43. Measuring and other selling methods can be A. Shaper
eliminated by using _________ and fixtures B. Lathe
Answer: C A. Guide C. Planer
B. Support D. Engine Lathe
35. Ratchet stop is attached with micrometer to C. Jigs
measure the accurate reading by applying D. Structure Answer: B
_______ pressure irrespective of users skill and
strength Answer: C 2. A machine for the removal of metal by feeding
A. Atmospheric a work piece through the periphery of a rotating
B. Gage 44. When two or more tools are to be used circular cutter.
C. Uniform through the same hole then __________ A. Milling Machine
D. Variable bushes are used in jigs B. Milling Planer
A. Positive slip C. Milling Cutter
Answer: C B. Negative slip D. Milling Shaper
C. Friction
36. A hole, which is drilled for a particular size of D. Slip Answer: A
a tap, is called
A. Drilling hole Answer: D 3. It is a machine tool used for cutting flat-on-flat
B. Reaming hole an-toured surfaces by reciprocating a single-point
C. Tapping hole 45. The __________ gears are used for changing tool across the work piece.
D. Plugging hole the plane direction A. Planer
A. Spur B. Shearing machine
Answer: C B. Helical C. Shaper
C. Worm D. Slab cutter
37. A ___________ gage is used to check the D. Bevel
clearance between the mating parts Answer: C
A. Feeler Answer: D
B. Plug 4. It is the machine used for shaping of long, flat or
C. Tap 46. Solder is an alloy of _________ flat contoured surfaces by reciprocating the work
D. Dial A. Lead and zinc piece under a stationary single-point tool or tools.
B. Lead and tin A. Planer
B. Shaper

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 C. Lathe B. Helical cutter D. Coupling
D. Turret Lathe C. Angle cutter
D. Asphalt cutter Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: C 21. A portable sanding tool having a power-driven
5. It is the machine used for shaping of metal or abrasive coated continuous belt is called
plastic by pushing or pulling a broaching across a 13. Milling surfaces that are flat and at an angle to A. Bench sander
surface or through an existing hole in a work piece. the axis of the spindle of the milling machine called B. Belt heightener
A. Planning A. Hammer milling C. Gear sander
B. Shaping B. Helical milling D. Belt sander
C. Broaching C. Angular milling
D. Milling D. Circular milling Answer: D

Answer: C Answer: C 22. A machine for bending a metal or wood part

by pressure is known as
6. It is a device, usually motor-driven, fitted with an 14. It is a hole in revolving cutter or grinder wheel A. Pressing machine
end cutting tool that is rotated with sufficient for mounting it on an arbor. B. Bending machine
power either to create a hole to enlarge an A. Hole saw C. Forming machine
existing hole in a solid material. B. Arbor hole D. Shaping machine
A. Drill jigs C. Star drill
B. Drill press D. Peep hole Answer: B
C. Drill chuck
D. Drilling machine Answer: B 23. A machine, which simultaneously molds and
cures a pneumatic tire is called
Answer: D 15. A machine used for forcing an arbor or a A. Bladder press
mandrel into drilled or bored parts preparatory to B. Crank press
7. It is a machine tool designed to machine internal turning or grinding C. Automatic press
work such as cylinders, holes in castings, and dies, A. Automatic press D. Manual press
types are horizontal, vertical jig, and single. B. Bladder press
A. Boring machine C. Arc press Answer: A
B. Broaching machine D. Arbor press
C. Drilling machine 24. A file whose edges are parallel is known as
D. Boring mill Answer: D A. Crochet file
B. Cross cut file
Answer: B 16. A solids grinder and the product is a fine C. Equaling file
powder D. Blunt file
8. It is a milling method in which parts placed in a A. Atomizer mill
row parallel to the axis of the cutting tool end are B. Autogenous mill Answer: D
milled simultaneously. C. Attrition mill
A. Abreast milling D. Ball mill 25. Slightly rounding a cutting edge to reduce the
B. Angular milling probability of edge chipping is referred to as
C. Helical milling Answer: A A. Broaching
D. None of these B. Butting
17. A machine in which material are pulverized C. Blunting
Answer: A between two toothed metal disks rotating in D. Bleaching
opposite directions.
9. A core drill with hardened steel shot pellets that A. Attrition mill Answer: B
revolve under the rim of the rotating tube, B. Tumbling mill
employed in rotary drilling in every hard ground. C. Ball mill 26. A rigid tool holder to machine internal surfaces
A. Automatic drill D. Beater mill is called:
B. Double core barrel drill A. Boring bar
C. Flat drill Answer: A B. Boring mill
D. Adamantine Drill C. Broaching machine
18. A straight brace for bits whose shank comprises D. Corrugated bar
Answer: D a coarse-pitch screws sliding in a threaded tube
with a handle at the end of the device is operated Answer: A
10. The part of a machine for wood planning that by pushing the handle called
carries the cutters. A. Automatic capacity 27. Which of the following is a boring machine tool
A. Adz stock B. Automatic drill used particularly for large work piece, types are
B. Adz block C. Automatic regulator horizontal and vertical?
C. Head stock D. Automatic stocker A. Boring mill
D. Heel block B. Burrstone mill
Answer: B C. Cage mill
Answer: B D. Chile mill
19. A press in which mechanical feeding of the
11. A grinding mill of large diameter with either work is synchronized with the press action. Answer: A
lumps of ore, pebbles, or steel balls as crushing A. Dial press
bodies the dry lead is swept to remove mesh B. Punch press 28. A flat-ended twist drill designed to convert a
material. C. Automatic press cone at the bottom of a drilled hole into a cylinder
A. Aero fall mill D. Manual press is called
B. Aero motor A. Churn drill
C. Aerial speed Answer: C B. Core drill
D. Ball mill C. Bottoming drill
20. A supporting member that carries a wheel and D. Spiral drill
Answer: A either rotates with the wheel to transmit
mechanical power to or from it, or blows the wheel Answer: C
12. A tool-steel cutter used for finishing surfaces of to rotate freely on it is called
angles greater or less than 90° with its axis of A. Shaft 29. A tap with a chamfer 1-1½ threads in length
rotation is called ________. B. Axle A. Center tap
A. Circular cutter C. Bushing B. Bottom tap

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 C. Taper tap B. Return B. Rough
D. Plug tap C. Backward C. Soft
D. Forward D. Smooth
Answer: B
Answer: B Answer: B
30. A small portable hand drill customarily used by
hand setters to drill holes in breast called 39. Generally, shaper tool cuts metal on the ______ 48. Carbide and ceramic tools are ground on
A. Diamond drill stroke. ______ grinding wheel.
B. Spiral drill A. Backward A. Fine grain
C. Churn drill B. Cutting B. Hard
D. Breast drill C. Forward C. Soft
D. Return D. Diamond
Answer: D
Answer: C Answer: D
31. In _________ type shaper, the reciprocating
movement of the arm is affected by means of a 40. Generally, shaper is used for machining 49. The term ________ means that particle of metal
rack and pinion. ________ surfaces. are adhering to the cutting faces of the grinding
A. Gear A. Curve wheel.
B. Thread B. Flat A. Loading
C. Screw C. Rough B. Feeding
D. Bolt D. Smooth C. Rating
D. Grinding
Answer: A Answer: B
Answer: A
32. In hydraulic shaper the reciprocating 41. Shaper tools are made of
movement of the arm is obtained through ______ A. Mild steel 50. In ________ jaw chuck each jaw can be
pressure. B. Cast iron adjusted independently.
A. Mercury C. High speed steel A. Five
B. Oil D. Wrought iron B. Two
C. Water C. Three
D. Alcohol Answer: C D. Four

Answer: B 42. For machining cast iron in shaper, the tool Answer: D
ground with ______ rake angle.
33. A job, which is fixed away from the table, can A. Negative
be machined by B. Positive Test 32
A. Running head C. 30° 1. Refers to the unit that can be moved
B. Moving head D. 45° longitudinally along the swivel table and is clamped
C. Traveling head in position by two bolts one on either side of the
D. Static head Answer: C base.
A. Foot stock
Answer: C 43. Which of the following best describe a milling B. Head stock
machine? C. Tail stock
34. The stroke positioning lever is located on the A. It is a machine equipment D. Cross stock
_________ of shaper. B. It is a machine tool
A. Lever C. It is a machine device Answer: B
B. Table D. It is a machine apparatus
C. Ram 2. An instrument used for determining the relative
D. Chunk Answer: B hardness of materials by a drop and rebound
method.
Answer: C 44. The quick return mechanism is slotter is A. Scleroscope
provided in order to save the time in ________ B. Rockwell Hardness Tester
35. The length of a shaper stroke is the length of the stroke. C. Universal Testing Machine
job plus _________. A. Backward D. Brinell Hardness Tester
A. Displacement B. Forward
B. Tolerance C. Cutting Answer: A
C. Allowance D. Return
D. Clearance 3. An instrument used for measuring the degree of
Answer: D surface roughness in micro inches.
Answer: D A. Caliper
45. An arbor is used to _______ an drive the milling B. Micrometer
36. Rocker arm is a _______ part of shaper cutter. C. Profilometer
A. Oscillating A. Guide D. Scleroscope
B. Reciprocating B. Hold
C. Moving C. Control Answer: C
D. Running D. Support
4. Refers to the portion of the circumference of a
Answer: A Answer: B grinding wheel touching the work being ground.
A. Area of contact
37. In a shaper, the _______ strokes takes place. 46. A puncher slotter is used for ______ stock B. Arc of contact
A. Backward removal. C. Angle of contact
B. Forward A. Light D. Contact ratio
C. Return B. Heavy
D. Cutting C. Small Answer: B
D. Large
Answer: D 5. The spindle of the grinding machine on which the
Answer: B wheel is mounted
38. In shaper, the tool is fed at the end of _______ A. Bushing
stroke. 47. Snagging is the form of ________ grinding. B. Arbor
A. Cutting A. Hard C. Bearing
D. Fluting

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Answer: B Answer: B Answer: A

6. A device for holding grinding wheels of special 15. The process of checking the surface of a piece 24. A type of bonding material, which is made of
shape or the working piece being grounded. by rolling depressions into the surface. clay and water.
A. Head stock A. Honing A. Resinoid bond
B. Fixtures B. Knurling B. Vitrified bond
C. Jigs C. Snagging C. Shellac bond
D. Chuck D. Reaming D. Rubber bond

Answer: D Answer: B Answer: B

7. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or tap. 16. The groove providing for the cutting faces of the 25. The process of producing an extremely accurate
A. Fluting threads or teeth, chip passage and lubrication. highly finished surface.
B. Flaring A. Heel A. Lapping
C. Lapping B. Land B. Buffing
D. Honing C. Flute C. Polishing
D. Thread relief D. Honing
Answer: A
Answer: C Answer: A
8. The dulling of the cutting particles of a grinding
wheel resulting in a decreased rate of cutting is 17. The process of cutting internal threads by means 26. It is surface finishing process by which scratches
called. of a cutting tool. and toll marks are removed with a polishing wheel.
A. Grinding A. Tapping A. Honing
B. Glazing B. Reaming B. Lapping
C. Fluting C. Chamfering C. Polishing
D. Lapping D. Honing D. Buffing

Answer: B Answer: A Answer: C

9. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues from casting is 18. The operation of producing a circular hole by 27. It is used for holding straight shank drills in the
termed as removing solid metal. spindle of the machine when drilling.
A. Honing A. Knurling A. Drill chuck
B. Tumbling B. Reaming B. Chuck key
C. Snagging C. Boring C. Floating holder
D. Truing D. Drilling D. Magic chuck

Answer: C Answer: D Answer: A

10. The process of increasing the cross-sectional 19. The surface below the cutting edge 28. Continuous chips are formed when cutting
area of a given portion or possibly of the whole A. Face A. Brittle materials
piece. B. Flank B. Ductile materials
A. Forging C. Nose C. Amorphous plastic materials
B. Upsetting D. Side relief D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
C. Spreading
D. Drawing Answer: B Answer: B

Answer: B 20. The surface below over which the chip flows. 29. The rake angle of a cutting tool.
A. Face A. Controls the chip formation
11. The process of lengthening a piece of stock while B. Flank B. Prevents rubbing
the cross-sectional area is being reduced. C. Nose C. Determine the profile of load
A. Tapping D. None of these D. Determine the whether the cutting
B. Honing action is oblique or orthogonal
C. Drawing Answer: C
D. Upsetting Answer: A
21. It measures the downward slope of the top
Answer: C surface of the tool from the nose to the rear along 30. Back rake angle for HSS single point cutting tool
the longitudinal. to machine free cutting brass is
12. An alloy of copper, tin and antimony. A. Side cutting edge angle A. 0°
A. Bearing B. End relief angle B. 5°
B. Babbit C. Side rake angle C. 10°
C. Iconel D. Back rake angle D. 15°
D. Tantanium
Answer: D Answer: A
Answer: B
22. Which one is the hardness material? 31. In the list of process given below, the chip
13. Sometimes used for soldering bright tin. A. Steel removal process is the
A. Tallow B. Diamond A. Die casting
B. Sal ammonia C. Bronze B. Extruding
C. Tinning D. Brass C. Forging
D. Rosin D. Broaching
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: D
23. It measures the slope of top surface of the tool to
14. A very effective flux for soldering galvanized iron the side in a direction perpendicular to the 32. The twist drill has its point thinned in order to
and zinc. longitudinal axis. A. Reduce the hole diameter
A. Soldering pastes A. Side rake angle B. Increase the rake angle
B. Muriatic acid B. Side cutting edge angle C. Locate in the center punch mark
C. Zinc chloride C. Side relief edge angle D. Reduce the axial pressure
D. Cut acid D. End relief angle

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Answer: D Answer: C A. Other machining operation cannot
be carried out
33. In the list of process given below, the non-chip 42. The major factors, which determine the rpm of B. A large amount of material is to be
removal process is milling cutter, are the material being cut and the removed
A. Grinding ________. C. High accuracy is required
B. Spinning on lathe A. Number of teeth in cutter D. None of these
C. Thread cutting B. Diameter of cutter
D. Milling C. Time allowed to complete the job Answer: C
D. Depth of cutter
Answer: B
Answer: C Test 33
34. A reamer is used to correct the 1. The recommended value of the rake angle for
A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole 43. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced machining aluminum with cutting tools made up of
B. Size and position of a drilled hole by cemented carbide tool
C. Finish and position of a drilled hole A. Increasing sliding A. 5°
D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole B. Increased shear angle B. 10°
C. Use of low tool finish C. 15°
Answer: A D. None of these D. 25°

35. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if Answer: A Answer: C

A. Lips of drill are of unequal length
B. Feed is too high 44. The studs used as a coolant machine shop 2. Laser beam machining process is used to
C. Insufficient coolant is used consists of machine
D. Cutting speed is too high A. Solution of detergent and water A. Thicker materials
B. A straight mineral oil B. Thinner materials
Answer: A C. An emulsion of oil and water C. Heavier materials
D. A chemical solution D. Stronger materials
36. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine
metal even when their cutting elements get heated Answer: C Answer: B
up to a temperature of
A. 1650°C 45. The recommended value of rake angle for 3. The size of abrasive grains in abrasive a jet
B. 1000°C machine aluminum with cutting tools made up of machining varies from
C. 1400°C high speed steel tool. A. 60 to 100 microns
D. 1800°C A. 5° B. 10 to 50 microns
B. 10° C. 1 to 5 microns
Answer: B C. 15° D. 20 to 40 microns
D. 35°
37. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided Answer: B
with: Answer: D
A. Positive back rake angle 4. In collet, the included angle of taper is usually
B. Neutral back rake angle 46. Milling cutter is sharpened on A. 10°
C. Negative back rake angle A. Tool and cutter grinder B. 20°
D. None of these B. Cylindrical grinder C. 30°
C. Centerless grinder D. 40°
Answer: C D. Surface grinder
Answer: C
38. The point angle of twist drill to machine is Answer: A
A. 112° 5. Straight fluted drill are used to drill _________
B. 116° 47. Electron beam machining process is quite materials
C. 118° suitable for a material having A. Soft
D. 120° A. High melting point and high thermal B. Hard
conductivity C. Thin
Answer: C B. High melting point and low thermal D. Thick
conductivity
39. The cutting speed of HSS twist drill to machine C. Low melting point and low thermal Answer: A
gray cast iron is conductivity
A. 10-20 m/min D. Low melting point and high thermal 6. Twist drills are made usually considered suitable
B. 15-25 m/min conductivity machining holes having a length less than
C. 20-30 m/min A. Two times their diameter
D. 25-40 m/min Answer: B B. Five times their diameter
C. Ten times their diameter
Answer: D 48. A process can be considered as a hot working D. Twenty times their diameter
process if the material is heated
40. The recommended value of rake angle for A. Below recrystallization temperature Answer: B
machining aluminum with cutting tools made up of B. Above recrystallization temperature
diamond tool. C. Below normal temperature 7. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for
A. 0° D. Above normal temperature grinding
B. 15° A. Hard materials
C. 35° Answer: B B. Soft materials
D. 45° C. Both materials
49. Grinding is D. None of these
Answer: A A. Metal fusion operation
B. Metal powdering operation Answer: B
41. The cutting speeds of HSS milling cutter to C. Metal finishing operation
machine aluminum is D. None of these 8. The relative motion of work piece in planning is
A. 140-200 m/min A. Rotary
B. 160-220 m/min Answer: C B. Translatory
C. 180-240 m/min C. Rotary and translator
D. 200-260 m/min 50. Grinding is done wherever D. None of these

Answer: B

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 18. Cemented carbide and ceramic cutting tools A. Size or length
9. The accuracy obtained by the grinding process are usually provided with B. Shape
can be of the order of A. Positive rake angle C. Grade and cut
A. 0.25 mm B. Negative rake angle D. All of these
B. 0.025 mm C. Positive cutting edge angle
C. 0.0025 mm D. Negative cutting edge angle Answer: D
D. 0.00025 mm
Answer: B 28. How are rivets made?
Answer: D A. Cold pressing
19. Coefficient of friction in anti-friction guide ways B. Rolling
10. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine, is: C. Drawing
the ram stroke length is proportional to A. High D. None of these
A. Slotter arm length B. Low
B. Crank length C. Medium Answer: A
C. Ram length D. None of these
D. None of these 29. It is a case hardening process in which work
Answer: B piece is heated in a stream of ammonia at 500 to
Answer: B 550°C.
20. Nitriding process of surface treatment for steel A. Quenching
11. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in tools is used for taking B. Annealing
quick return mechanism of shaping machine is A. Light cuts C. Tempering
A. 3:2 B. Heavy cuts D. Nitriding
B. 3:1 C. Medium cuts
C. 3:4 D. None of these Answer: D
D. 3:5
Answer: A 30. It is used to measure gap between two mating
Answer: A parts to set the job and machine in alignment and
21. At very low cutting speeds the tool wear is due to measure clearance of piston and cylinder in
12. The amount of metal removed by honing to automobiles.
process is less than A. Plowing action A. Compound gauge
A. 0.125 mm B. Transfer B. Feeler gauge
B. 0.225 mm C. Material C. Inspection gauge
C. 0.325 mm D. Temperature D. Workshop gauge
D. 0.425 mm
Answer: A Answer: B
Answer: A
22. Are mixture of lard, cotton seed or rape-seed 31. The movement of belt upon the face of rim or
13. In ECM process thermal current requirement is oils and mineral oils. outer surface of the driver and driven pulleys within
A. 100 amps/cycle of work piece area A. Cutting oils the area of arc of contact.
B. 200 amps/cycle of work piece area B. Cooling oils A. Slip
C. 500 amps/cycle of work piece area C. Heating oils B. Creep
D. 800 amps/cycle of work piece area D. Emulsion C. Interference
D. Crowning
Answer: D Answer: A
Answer: B
14. The voltage applied between tool (cathode) 23. How is aluminum work piece marked?
and work piece (anode) in ECM process is A. Ball pen 32. The temperature at which an oil gives off
A. 30-50 V B. Lead pencil sufficient vapor without actually setting fire to the
B. 60-90 V C. Crayon oil.
C. 3-20 V D. Chalk A. Flash point
D. None of these B. Fire point
Answer: B C. Pour point
Answer: C D. Cloud point
24. How is the height of a bench vice adjusted?
15. The diameter (D) of a plain milling cutter is A. By using a wooden plate form Answer: A
approximately related to arbor diameter (d) as B. By using a wooden packing piece under
A. D=1.5d to 2d the vice base 33. It is the process by which the length of a work
B. D=2.5d to 3d C. By using a vice adjusting fixture piece is reduced.
C. D=4.5d to 6d D. All of these A. Drawing
D. D=5.5d to 8d B. Drifting
Answer: D C. Jumping
Answer: B D. Upsetting
25. What is the material of hacksaw blade?
16. The type and number of bearings to be used A. High carbon steel Answer: C
for spindles of machine tool depend on the B. High speed steel
A. Type of spindle C. Low tungsten steel 34. It cannot be forged because it will break if
B. Type of machine tool D. Any of these heated and beaten by hammer
C. Load on the bearing A. High speed steel
D. None of these Answer: D B. Tool steel
C. Carbon steel
Answer: C 26. Why hacksaw blade teeth get dull? D. Cast iron
A. Coarse pitched blade is used on hard
17. HSS cutting tools are generally provided with metal Answer: D
A. Positive rake angle B. Too much speed and pressure
B. Negative rake angle C. Pressure is not released in return stroke 35. It is a process of enlarging and smoothing the
C. Positive cutting edge angle D. Any of these punched hole by means of tapered drifts of various
D. Negative cutting edge angle sizes and shapes.
Answer: D A. Drifting
Answer: A B. Drawing
27. Files are classified according to C. Upsetting

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 D. Jumping B. Brass 3. It is the method of grinding cylindrical surfaces.
C. Carbon steel A. Centerless grinding
Answer: A D. Alloy steel B. Plunge-cut grinding
C. Through feed grinding
36. It is the process by which the length of a work Answer: D D. None of these
piece is increased by reducing its cross-sectional
area. 45. The main purpose of ________ is to resist wear Answer: A
A. Flattening and unable it to cut the other metal.
B. Drawing out A. Tempering 4. It is the angle between the side cutting edge
C. Swaging B. Hardening and the longitudinal axis of the tool.
D. Jumping C. Quenching A. Side cutting edge angle
D. Normalizing B. End cutting edge angle
Answer: B C. Side relief angle
Answer: B D. End relief angle
37. Shaper tools are made up of what type of
material? 46. Lip clearance angle for drilling soft materials Answer: A
A. Brass should be ________ that for drilling hard materials.
B. Bronze A. Less than 5. It is a surface finishing process and is used to
C. High speed steel B. Equal to produce a lustrous surface of attractive
D. Babbit C. More than appearance.
D. Zero A. Polishing
Answer: C B. Buffing
Answer: C C. Lapping
38. A _________ is reciprocating type tool used for D. Glazing
machining flat, cylindrical and irregular surfaces. 47. It is also known as slab peripheral milling
A. Shaper A. Form milling Answer: B
B. Planer B. Climb milling
C. Puncher C. Convex milling 6. It consists of surface irregularities, which result
D. Slotter D. Plain milling from the various manufacturing process.
A. Lay
Answer: D Answer: D B. Waiveness
C. Flaws
39. An operation to enlarge the previous drilled 48. In _______ the tool is released in return stroke. D. Roughness
hole A. Shaper
A. Drilling B. Planer Answer: D
B. Boring C. Slotter
C. Reaming D. Reamer 7. A _________ is formed when a shaft rotates in a
D. Broaching bush, lines of the bore of a housing.
Answer: A A. Ball bearing
Answer: B B. Roller bearing
49. It is the process of driving the periphery of the C. Plain bearing
40. An operation to make smaller hole in exact job in degrees. D. Needle Bearing
center for lathe center. A. Direct indexing
A. Broaching B. Plain indexing Answer: C
B. Reaming C. Differential indexing
C. Counter boring D. Angular indexing 8. CNC in machine shop means
D. Center drilling A. Computer Number Control
Answer: D B. Computer Numerical Control
Answer: D C. Communication Network Control
50. It is also known as conventional milling in which D. Computer Network Center
41. It is the operation of beveling the mouth of a the rotation of the cutter is in a direction opposite
hole to the direction of the table movement. Answer: B
A. Counter sinking A. Down milling
B. Counter boring B. Up milling 9. It is the time lost due to break downs, waiting for
C. Spot facing C. Straddle milling tools, minor accident etc.
D. Counter boring D. Gang milling A. Set up time
B. Handling time
Answer: A Answer: B C. Machining time
D. Down time
42. It is the operation of smoothing and squaring
the surface around the hole Test 34 Answer: D
A. Reaming 1. It is also known as climb milling in which the
B. Counter sinking rotation of the cutter and the movement of the 10. Refers to the process of separating or removing
C. Spot facing table is the same direction. the burning of combustible material from the
D. Counter boring A. Down milling neighborhood of the fire.
B. Up milling A. Starvation
Answer: C C. Straddle milling B. Blanketing
D. Gang milling C. Cooling
43. The size of abrasive grains produced by D. None of these
crushing process is called Answer: A
A. Grade Answer: A
B. Grit 2. The _______ is a machine tool used to remove
C. Peebles metal from a work piece to give it the required 11. When does a chisel get blunt
D. None of these shape and size. A. When it is properly heat treated
A. Shaper B. When it is not properly heat treated
Answer: B B. Planer C. When it is properly tempered
C. Lathe D. When it is not properly tempered
44. It is the combination of iron, carbon and other D. Grinder
alloying elements. Answer: B
A. Cast iron Answer: C

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12. What is it necessary to provide tolerance? Answer: B D. Multiple head
A. It saves the labor charges
B. It saves the material from wastage 21. A ______ is used to be test the accuracy of holes Answer: C
C. It saves the time A. Snap gage
D. All of these B. Ring gage 30. The distance between the crest and the brace
C. Plug gage of the thread, measured perpendicular to the axis.
Answer: D D. Depth gage A. Depth of thread
B. Length of engagement
13. It is done then and there by adjusting or Answer: C C. Depth of engagement
repairing the faults come in notice during the work. D. Axis of thread
A. Preventive maintenance 22. A _________ consists of hardened and ground
B. Predictive maintenance steel bar in which two hardened and ground of the Answer: A
C. Routine maintenance same diameter are set.
D. Corrective maintenance A. Caliper 31. Used to permit lever shift for vertical travel of rail
B. Gage block A. Ball crank
Answer: C C. Sine bar B. Clamp plates
D. Micrometer C. Plunger knob
14. A __________ is used between the cutting tool D. None of these
and work piece to minimize the friction heat. Answer: C
A. Lubricant Answer: C
B. Coolant 23. A _________ consists of a slide and swivel vise
C. Water mounted on the compound rest in place of the 32. It is mounted on the top of the column and is
D. Alcohol tool post. guided in perfect alignment by the machine
A. Milling attachment dovetailed surfaces.
Answer: B B. Relieving attachment A. Over arm
C. Grinding attachment B. Spindle
15. Which of the following is NOT a function of D. Reaming attachment C. Arbor
bearings D. Saddle
A. To support the shaft Answer: A
B. To guide the shaft Answer: A
C. To give free rotation to the shaft 24. ________ are hardened steel devices with a
D. To transmit power taper shank on one end and a 60 degree point at 33. Refers to circular milling attachment that is
the other end. bolted to the top of the table of a plain or universal
Answer: D A. Tailstock centers milling machine.
B. Lathe centers A. Slotting attachment
16. It is a process of cleaning the face of grinding C. Live centers B. Rotary attachment
wheel by means of a dresser for removing the D. Dead centers C. Milling attachment
glazing and loading of wheel and to improve the D. Spiral attachment
cutting action of a wheel. Answer: B
A. Dressing Answer: B
B. Polishing 25. It is a work holding device
C. Truing A. Arbor 34. The process of removing burrs and the gates
D. Lapping B. Mandrel and risers left on casting after the molding process.
C. Jigs A. Reaming
Answer: A D. Fixtures B. Snagging
C. Honing
17. What should be the top rake angle to cut Answer: B D. Knurling
brass?
A. 0° 26. The cutting of groove nest to a shoulder on a Answer: B
B. 15° piece of work
C. 30° A. Undercutting 35. The __________ supports the table on the cross
D. 45° B. Necking rail and moves across it from left to right.
C. Grooving A. Apron
Answer: A D. Any of these B. Bearing
C. Spindle
18. It is a long, tapered punch used for loosening Answer: F D. Handle
straight pins, rivets and other small parts being
disassembled. 27. The operation of producing a beveled edge at Answer: A
A. Drive-pin punch a specified angle of the end of a turned diameter.
B. Hand punch A. Chamfering 36. Name of mechanism, which a welding
C. Drift punch B. Knurling operator holds during gas welding and at the end
D. Center punch C. Honing of which the gages are burred to perform the
D. Undercutting various gas welding operation.
Answer: C A. Hose
Answer: A B. Torch
19. A tool used for turning nuts or bolts. C. Gage
A. Plier 28. It is a large casting located on the left end of D. Switch
B. Wrench the bed.
C. Long nose A. Tailstock Answer: B
D. C-Clamp B. Headstock
C. Carriage 37. A tool used for measuring diameters.
Answer: B D. Chuck A. Protractor
B. Scriber
20. A sharp pointed steel tool used to scribe lines Answer: B C. Caliper
on metal being laid out. D. Compass
A. Divider 29. A ___________ is a thread that has a lead equal
B. Scriber to the pitch. Answer: C
C. Trammel A. Right hand thread
D. Hermaphrodite caliper B. Left hand thread 38. A fine grained, salty silica rock used for
C. Single thread sharpening edged tools.

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 A. Oilstone B. Shaper 6. It indicates how many times a volume of material
B. Surface grinder C. Power saw is heavier than an equal volume of water.
C. Rocky oil D. Broaching machine A. Specific gravity
D. None of these B. Specific volume
Answer: C C. Specific weight
Answer: A D. Specific density
48. It is used for external, internal and relieving of
39. Device used to prevent leakage of media. mill cutters and taps Answer: A
A. Gasket A. Milling attachment
B. Seal B. Thread attachment 7. Nickel – Chromium – Molybdenum steel
C. Shield C. Taper attachment designation SAE ______
D. Stopper D. Relieving attachment A. 81xx
B. 74xx
Answer: B Answer: D C. 94xx
D. 64xx
40. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids 49. It is the stretching or spreading of metal by
normally under dynamic conditions. hammering Answer: C
A. Packing A. Peening
B. Gasket B. Flaring 8. Moment of inertia is also called _______
C. Shield C. Upsetting A. Modulus of elasticity
D. Seal D. Bending B. Weep strength
C. Radius of gyration
Answer: A Answer: A D. None of these

41. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts 50. The _______ is the most common of the Answer: D
A. Tensile range standard tapers.
B. Torque wrench A. Brown 9. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal
C. Hooke’s gauge B. Jarno is being heated to a very high temperature then
D. Spring balance C. Sharpe suddenly subjected to rapid cooling to improve
D. Morse hardenability of wear resistance is called:
Answer: B A. Annealing
Answer: A B. Normalizing
42. A hand tool used to measure engine crank web C. Tempering
deflection. D. Quenching
A. Feeler gage Test 35
B. Compound gage 1. What is the lightest known metal? Answer: D
C. Distortion gage A. Mercury
D. Dial gage B. Steel 10. A good general purpose deoxidizer which
C. Chromium promotes fine grain in steel
Answer: C D. Aluminum A. Copper
B. Magnesium
43. A device used for accurately measuring Answer: D C. Molybdenum
diameters. D. Silicon
A. Dial gage 2. Material having a high electrical resistance and
B. Feeler gage should not be used as conductor of electrical Answer: D
C. Caliper current.
D. Micrometer A. Magnesium 11. Treatment process that produces a residual
B. Copper compressive stress at the surface and residual
Answer: D C. Nickel tension on the inside that results in considerable
D. Iron increase in fatigue strength for members on torsion
44. It is used to true and align machine tools, / bending is known as:
fixtures and works. Answer: D A. Partial quenching
A. Dial indicator B. Heavy oil quenching
B. Radial indicator 3. The property that characterizes a material ability C. Quenching
C. Dial gage to be drawn into a wire is known as: D. Shallow quenching
D. Feeler gage A. Plasticity
B. Elasticity Answer: D
Answer: A C. Ductility
D. Utility 12. The flux that should be provided in soldering
45. The operation of making a cone-shaped electrical connection or commutator wires as it
enlargement of the end of a hole, as for a recess Answer: C tends to corrode the connections.
for a flattened screw. A. Sal ammoniac
A. Counter boring 4. Stress relieving is also _________ for the purpose of B. Zinc chloride
B. Counter sinking reducing the internal stress of steel material / C. Stearing
C. Reaming metal. D. Acid fluxes
D. Drilling A. Quenching
B. Normalizing Answer: D
Answer: C C. Tempering
D. Drawing 13. The characteristics of tool steel sustain shocks
46. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, and major impacts is due to its:
which could be adjusted separately. Answer: A A. Toughness
A. Independent chuck B. Stiffness
B. Combination chuck 5. A carbon content in the range of ______ in steel C. Ductility
C. Magnetic chuck readily responds to heat treatment. D. Machinability
D. Universal chuck A. 0.35 to 0.40% C
B. 0.28 to 0.30% C Answer: A
Answer: A C. 0.18 to 0.25% C
D. 0.12 to 0.15% C 14. The application of electrical current to the
47. It is used for cutting long pieces of metals. corrosion circuit to counter the corrosion reaction
A. Planer Answer: A is called:

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 A. Cathodic protection
B. Sacrificial anodes method 23. Non-metallic material of high melting Answer: B
C. Chemical corrosion process temperature being used as furnace lining.
D. Galvanic action A. Quartz bricks 32. It improves red hardness of steel.
B. Refractories A. Chromium
Answer: A C. Silica sand B. Cobalt
D. Dolomite clay bricks C. Boron
15. A major component of cast steel is: D. Lead
A. Silicon Answer: B
B. Iron Answer: B
C. Manganese 24. In greater quantity, this element is harmful to
D. Chromium the molten ferrous metal. 33. What is the SAE specification number of
A. Silicon molybdenum?
Answer: B B. Aluminum A. SAE 2xxx
C. Oxides B. SAE 3xxx
16. Normally, cast iron contains 2% carbon or more D. Sulfur C. SAE 4xxx
and silicon in the range of ______%. D. SAE 5xxx
A. 1 to 3 Answer: D
B. 1 to 4 Answer: C
C. 2 to 3 25. Silicon – manganese steel designation, SAE
D. 1 to 6 ________. 34. Which does not belong to the group?
A. 72xx A. SAE
Answer: A B. 40xx B. AISI
C. 92xx C. SEA
17. The material for engine radiation is usually D. 9xx D. ASTM
made of _________.
A. Yellow brass Answer: C Answer: C
B. Silicon brass
C. Admirally brass 26. Cold drawing is also called: 35. It is the ability of the material of resist
D. Navy brass A. Hard drawn deformation under stress.
B. Oxidized steel A. Plasticity
Answer: A C. Cold lap steel B. Stiffness
D. Strain hardening C. Toughness
18. A problem-by product used as an electrode in D. All of these
an electric arc furnace melting operations is Answer: A
called: Answer: B
A. Anthracite coke 27. The brittleness in steel elevated temperature is
B. Foundry coke known as: 36. Which of the following is not a structural class of
C. Graphite electrodes A. Hard drawn steel?
D. Bituminous coke B. Cold lap A. High speed steel
C. Red shortness B. Tool and die
Answer: C D. Residual stresses C. Low carbon
D. High carbon
19. Which of the following does not affect the Answer: C
tensile strength of steel? Answer: B
A. Sulfur 28. Material may be stretched and still returns to its
B. Cobalt former form / condition upon release of force is 37. Continuous stretching under load even if the
C. Phosphorus called: stress is less than the yield point is known as:
D. Boron A. Plasticity A. Plasticity
B. Modulus of elasticity B. Elasticity
Answer: D C. Ductility C. Creep
D. Elastic limit D. Ductility
20. Alloy steel axle under repeated load / stress will
eventually fail if the load / stress is above the Answer: D Answer: C
endurance for the steel under consideration. The
endurance limit of the steel is: 29. What is the SAE specification number of 38. Killed steel is always associated with:
A. Equal to the allowable stress of the module of molybdenum – chromium – nickel? A. Silicon
elasticity A. 48xx B. Manganese
B. Equal to half of the ultimate strength B. 47xx C. Phosphorous
C. Equal to module of elasticity C. 46xx D. Sulfur
D. Equal to 80% of the elastic limit D. 45xx
Answer: A
Answer: B Answer: B
39. The good deoxidizer in steel melting.
21. Mirror finish has surfaces fitness of _______ rms. 30. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron A. Manganese
A. 1 coated with: B. Silicon
B. 2 to 8 A. Aluminum C. Aluminum
C. 1 to 3 B. Tin D. All of these
D. 2 to 5 C. Zinc
D. Manganese Answer: D
Answer: A
Answer: C 40. Good stabilizer in stainless steel is:
22. Chromium steel to include heat and corrosion A. Columbium
resistant designation. 31. A metal which has a high electrical B. Titanium
A. SAE 56xx conductivity but should not be used for high C. Tantalum
B. SAE 514xx temperature. D. All of these
C. SAE 61xx A. Silicon
D. SAE 9xx B. Zinc Answer: D
C. Chrome Alloy
Answer: B D. Carbide 41. Metals are conductive because:

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 A. The electrons are loosely bound to the nuclei D. 600-700°F
and therefore mobile 50. An alloy that improves strength of steel at high
B. Having characteristics luster temperature application. Answer: D
C. They are on the left side of the periodic table A. Tungsten
D. They are on the left side of the periodic table B. Molybdenum 9. For a high corrosion resistant stainless steel,
D. They have extra electrons as exhibited by C. Chromium what minimum chromium content is required?
normally possible balance state D. All of these A. 8%
B. 4.3%
Answer: A Answer: D C. 1.1%
D. 5.8%
42. The yield strength of the rectangular yellow
brass 65 tp 70% Cu, 30 to 35% Zn can be increased Test 36 Answer: A
/ improved by _____. 1. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in
A. Cold working itself 10. A material that should be avoided in
B. Tempering A. Zinc constructing wood pattern is:
C. Shill casting B. Antimony A. Sap wood
D. Heat treatment C. Babbit B. Kin dried wood
D. Lead C. Heart wood
Answer: A D. Core portion of wood
Answer: C
43. Used as cast condition steel casting with Answer: A
carbon content less that __________ % C. 2. The smallest area at a point of rupture of a
A. 0.26 tensile specimen divided by the original area 11. The gradual chemical reaction by other
B. 0.15 to 0.18 is called: substance such that the metal is converted to
C. 0.20 A. Percentage elongation an oxide or other compounds
D. 0.25 B. Izod test A. Corrosion
C. Charpy test B. Cheeping
Answer: C D. Percentage reduction of the area C. Rusting
D. Weathering
44. Liners are normally made of: Answer: D
A. Cast iron Answer: A
B. Alloyed bronze 3. All are associated with the grade of steel
C. Alloyed steel except: 12. What is the property of a material which resists
D. Alloyed aluminum A. SAE 43xx forces acting to pull the material apart?
B. SAE 13xx A. Shear strength
Answer: A C. SAE 10xx B. Tensile strength
D. SAE 74xx C. Torsional strength
45. A furnace used in melting non-ferrous metals is D. Compressive strength
called: Answer: D
A. Cupola furnace Answer: B
B. Crucible furnace 4. Cold working of steel plates make the metal
C. Induction furnace A. Tougher 13. What is the difference between brass and
D. Tempering furnace B. More ductile bronze?
C. Harder A. Brass is composed of copper and zinc
Answer: B D. More malleable while bronze is composed of copper
and tin
46. A furnace used in melting ferrous metals. Answer: C B. Brass is composed of copper and zinc
A. Annealing furnace while bronze is basically copper and tin
B. Tempering furnace 5. The property that characterizes the material’s plus non-ferrous alloy such as
C. Induction furnace ability to be drawn into a wire is called: manganese, aluminum and chromium
D. Normalizing furnace A. Ductility C. Bronze is reddish in color while brass is a
B. Thermal conductivity mixture of copper and antimony
Answer: C C. Tensile strength D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of copper and
D. Endurance limit tin while brass is a mixture of copper and
47. All are associated with standard material antimony
specified except ________. Answer: A
A. American Iron and Steel Institute Answer: A
B. Society of Automotive Engineers 6. Normal stress relieving temperature for cast
C. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel Institute steel is: 14. A liquid metal is called _________
D. American Society for Testing Materials A. 200 to 300°F A. Mercury
B. 400 to 500°F B. Lead
Answer: C C. 300 to 400°F C. Zinc
D. 450 to 550°F D. Aluminum
48. The ability of metal to be deformed
considerable without rupture is called: Answer: D Answer: Alam mo na!
A. Malleability
B. Elasticity 7. Most effective alloying element for reducing 15. Which of the following elements when large
C. Ductility brittleness of steel at very low temperature quantity is harmful to the ferrous metal?
D. Plasticity A. Manganese A. Sulfur
B. Molybdenum B. Silicon
Answer: D C. Silicon C. Zinc
D. Nickel D. Aluminum
49. Permanent deformation or strain may occur
without fracture is called: Answer: D Answer: A
A. Malleability
B. Elasticity 8. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength and 16. It has molybdenum alloy except:
C. Ductility elasticity significantly of about what A. SAE 43xx
D. Plasticity temperature? B. SAE 41xx
A. 900-1000°F C. SAE 6xxx
Answer: D B. 800-900°F D. SAE 5xxx
C. 700-850°F

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 C. Annealing C. Aluminum
Answer: D D. Quenching D. Cast iron

17. Cast alloy steel for very high temperature Answer: D Answer: B
application
A. Manganese-nickel steel casting 25. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment 34. The cheapest and most abundant
B. High chrome steel casting A. SAE 1060 engineering material is ________
C. Chrome-nickel steel casting B. SAE 1117 A. Aluminum
D. High manganese casting C. SAE 1030 B. Steel
D. SAE 1020 C. Cast iron
Answer: C D. Babbit
Answer: B
18. What heat treatment process can cast steel Answer: C
materials of high chrome high manganese 26. A form of correction that develop on a highly
etc. be subjected for the purpose machining localized area on a metal surface 35. They are usually steel or steel casting
process? A. Crevice A. Mild steel
A. Annealing B. Erosion B. Carbon steel
B. Tempering C. Galvanic C. Fire box steel
C. Normalizing D. Apitting D. Drop-forge-dies
D. Quenching
Answer: D Answer: B
Answer: A
27. The deterioration of organic coating 36. An iron has physical properties closely
19. Galvanized steel plate is: characterized as completely _________ resembling those of mild steel called
A. Aluminum A. Chalking A. Malleable cast iron
B. Tin B. Rusting B. Malleable iron
C. Zinc C. Checking C. White iron
D. Manganese D. Fritting D. Gray iron

Answer: C Answer: A Answer: A

20. Major component of bronze casting is: 28. The temperature above which the alloy is 37. An iron in which most of the carbon is
A. Copper liquid and will run is known as ______ chemically combined with the iron is called
B. Manganese A. Melting point A. Cast iron
C. Zinc B. Flow point B. Gray iron
D. Lead C. Pour point C. White iron
D. Dew point D. Malleable iron
Answer: A
Answer: A Answer: C
21. Alloy steel known for its resistance to corrosion,
abrasion and wear that is usually ideal for mill 29. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous 38. Which of the following metal is non-magnetic?
grinding of ore or cement and concentrator material on the heat-transfer surface A. Manganese steel
application. It is usually combined with A. Low line B. Cast steel
molybdenum to increase the depth B. Pressure drop C. Alloy steel
hardening. C. Fouling D. Cast iron
A. Manganese chromium steel D. Scaling
B. Chromium-moly steel Answer: A
C. Chromium-nickel-moly steel Answer: C
D. Manganese-moly steel 39. Which of the following is not a kind of cast
30. Steel containing large amounts of mild nickel iron?
Answer: B and chromium A. Gray iron
A. Carbon steel B. White iron
22. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material B. Stainless steel C. Malleable iron
available in the market with carbon content of C. Alloy steel D. Lead iron
0.28 to 0.4? D. Cast steel
A. SAE 4132 Answer: D
B. SAE 4320 Answer: B
C. SAE 1030 40. Which of the following is not used to temper
D. SAE 4130 31. The corrosion of iron or iron-base alloy steel?
A. Rusting A. Oil bath
Answer: C B. Crazing B. Brine/salt bath
C. Chalking C. Steam bath
23. Heating of metal above the critical D. Fritting D. Water bath
temperature and then cooling slowly usually in
the furnace to reduce the hardness and Answer: A Answer: C
improve the machinability is called:
A. Normalizing 32. A corrosion occurs within or adjacent to a 41. Which of the following metals is easy to chisel?
B. Annealing crevice formed by contact with another A. Alloy steel
C. Tempering piece of the same or another metal is called: B. Manganese steel
D. Quenching A. Galvanic C. Stainless steel
B. Pitting D. Cast iron
Answer: B C. Erosion
D. Crevice Answer: B
24. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast
metal is being heated to a very high Answer: A 42. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large
temperature then suddenly subjected to rapid amount of
cooling to improve hardenability or wear 33. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony or sometimes A. Manganese
resistance is called: lead B. Carbon
A. Normalizing A. Gold C. Sulfur
B. Tempering B. Babbit D. Phosphorus

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 Answer: B
Answer: B
Test 37
1. Hardening the surface of the iron-based alloys 11. Which of the following is not a classification of
by heating them below the melting point in an iron ore?
43. Which of the following is not a classification of contact with a carbonaceous substance. A. Hematite
iron core? A. Carburizing B. Magnetite
A. Siderite B. Normalizing C. Sulfurite
B. Hematite C. Mar tempering D. Siderite
C. Sulfurite D. Hardening
D. Magnetite Answer: C
Answer: A
12. A soft yellow metal, know since ancient times
Answer: C 2. A special metal formed when two or more as a precious metal which all materials values
metals are melted together. A. Solid’s
44. Stainless steel is obtaining principally by the A. Monel B. Bronze
use of which of the alloying element? B. Alloy C. Gold
A. Chromium C. Solder D. Austenite
B. Nickel D. Hastalloy
C. Carbon Answer: C
Answer: B
D. Tungsten 13. An amorphous solid may be fusing silica with
3. Subjecting a substance to a high temperature a basic oxide
Answer: A below the fusion point usually to make it A. Pearlite
friable. B. Rock
45. Which of the following metals will respond to A. Calcinations C. Silicon
heat treatment? B. Fusion D. Glass
C. Boiling
A. Cast iron
D. Super heating Answer: D
B. Wrought iron
C. Medium carbon steel Answer: A 14. A fine grained salty silica rock used for
D. Low carbon steel sharpening edge tools.
4. Substances having sufficient carbon and/or A. Eutectoid
Answer: C hydrogen for chemical oxidation to produce B. Austenite
exothermally, worthwhile quantities of heat. C. Oilstone
A. Lubrication D. Pearlite
46. The property of steel which resist indention of B. Graphite
penetration is called C. Grease Answer: C
A. Hardness D. Fuels
B. Elasticity 15. A highly transparent and exceedingly hard
C. Ductility Answer: D crystalline stone of almost pure carbon is
D. None of these called
5. The principal materials used in high production A. Gold
metal working tools B. Diamond
Answer: A A. Hyper-eutectoid C. Bronze
B. High speed steel D. Crystalline
47. The ability of metal to stretch bend or twist C. Lead
without breaking or cracking is called D. High speed carbon Answer: B
A. Elasticity
Answer: B 16. A common deoxidizer and cleanser of steel
B. Ductility
forming oxides and sulfates that are carried off
C. Brittleness 6. The softening of metal by heat treatment and in the slag
D. Plasticity most commonly consist of heating the metal A. Manganese
up to near motion state and then cooling it B. Carbon
Answer: B very slowly C. Tungsten
A. Annealing D. Sulfur
48. The ability of material to return to its original B. Indexing
C. Knurling Answer: A
shape after being elongated or distorted
D. Soldering
when the forces are released is called
17. An alloy of copper, tin and small amount of
A. Elasticity Answer: A phosphorous
B. Brittleness A. Chromium
C. Plasticity 7. The operation of cooling a heated piece of B. Bronze
D. Creep work rapidly by dipping it in water, brine or oil. C. Brass
A. Quenching D. Aluminum
B. Annealing
Answer: A
C. Tempering Answer: B
D. Normalizing
49. Material usually ceramics employed where 18. The material used in high speed processes.
resistance to very high temperature is required Answer: A A. High speed
as for furnace linings and metal melting pots is B. Chromium
called 8. A metallic element and only metal that is liquid C. Cast iron
at ordinary temperature. D. Carbon steel
A. Bricks
A. Aluminum
B. Insulator B. Mercury Answer: A
C. Refractories C. Zirconium
D. Clay D. Zinc 19. A material that can wear away a substance
softer than itself is called
Answer: C Answer: Bagsak ka na pag di mo alam toh! A. Abrasive
B. Corrosive
9. A metallic element of copper-tin alloy C. Tungsten
50. Any material that retard the flow of electricity
A. Aluminum D. Alloy
used to prevent or escape of electric current B. Brass
from conductors C. Bronze Answer: A
A. Bricks D. Chromium
B. Insulators 20. The process of heating a piece of steel to a
C. Refractories Answer: C temperature within or above critical range
D. Composite and cooling rapidly.
10. An alloy of copper and zinc A. Normalizing
A. Aluminum B. Hardening
Answer: B B. Brass C. Annealing
C. Bronze D. Tempering
D. Chromium

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 Answer: B 40. Which of the following has the highest specific
Answer: A strength of oil structure materials?
21. The process of checking or producing A. Chromium alloys
checkers on the surface of a piece by rolling 30. The most important element that controls the B. Magnesium alloys
checkered depression into the surface called physical properties of steel is: C. Titanium alloys
A. Knurling A. Carbon D. None of these
B. Hemming B. Chromium
C. Breading C. Silicon Answer: C
D. Embossing D. Tungsten
41. Addition to lead and bismuth to aluminum will
Answer: A Answer: A produce:
A. An improvement of casting characteristics
22. A material used in softening a piece of metal 31. The process commonly used over thermo- B. An improvement of corrosion resistance
that is too hard to machine and is done by plastic materials is: C. One of the best known age and
heating steel slowly above the usual A. Cold forming precipitation hardening system
hardening temperature keeping it at the heat B. Die casting D. An improvement in machinability
for ½ to 2 hours then cooling slowly, preferably C. Injection molding
in a furnace D. Shell molding Answer: D
A. Broaching
B. Quenching Answer: C 42. Hastalloy contains:
C. Normalizing A. Aluminum and nickel
D. Annealing 32. A space lattice found in alpha-iron is called B. Copper and aluminum
the C. Nickel and copper
Answer: D A. Body centered cubic space lattice D. Nickel and molybdenum
B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
23. A manganese steel containing C. Face centered cubic space lattice Answer: D
approximately 0.20% carbon D. None of these
A. SAE 1320 43. In compression, a prism of brittle material will
B. SAE 1230 Answer: A break
C. SAE 2340 A. By forming a bulge
D. SAE 4230 33. A unit cell contains nine atoms is known as the B. By shearing along oblique plane
A. Body centered cubic space lattice C. In a direction along the direction of load
Answer: A B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice D. Into large number of piece
C. Face centered cubic space lattice
24. Heating to some 100F above the D. None of these Answer: B
transformation range with subsequent cooling
to below that range in still air at room Answer: A 44. The maximum hardenability of any steel
temperature to produce uniform structure of depends on __________
metal is termed as 34. A knoop intender is a diamond ground to a A. The alloying elements present
A. Annealing __________. B. The carbon content
B. Hardening A. Cylindrical form C. The chemical composition
C. Normalizing B. Needle form D. The grain size
D. Tempering C. Prismoidal form
D. Pyramidal form Answer: B
Answer: C
Answer: D 45. Steel with 0.80% carbon and 100% pearlite is
25. Heating to a sub-critical temperature about known as:
1,100F to 1300 F and holding at that 35. Which of the following timber is used for sports A. Austenite
temperature for a suitable time for the goods? B. Eutectoid
purpose of reducing internal residual stresses is A. Deodar C. Hyper-eutectoid
called B. Mahogany D. Solidous
A. Annealing C. Mulberry
B. Hardening D. Sal Answer: B
C. Tempering
D. Stress relieving Answer: C 46. Substance that can increase the
machinability of steel
Answer: D 36. Super conductors A. Phosphorous
A. Are non-crystalline B. Phosphorous and aluminum
26. Reheating to a temperature below the B. Are the purest forms of metal C. Silicon and sulfur
transformation range, followed by any desired C. Are the densest of materials is D. Sulfur graphite and aluminum
rate of cooling to attain the desired properties D. Exist at the temperature below 10K
of the metal Answer: A
A. Annealing Answer: D
B. Hardening 47. Compressive strength of a gray cast iron in
C. Tempering 37. Select the one that has the highest specific tone per cm2 is of the order of:
D. Stress relieving gravity A. 3-5
A. Aluminum B. 5-7
Answer: C B. Brass C. 7-10
C. High carbon steel D. 15-22
27. The effect of alloying zinc to copper is D. Lead
A. To increase hardness Answer: B
B. To increase strength and ductility if Answer: D
added up to 10-30 % 48. The presence of sulfur in pig iron makes ____
C. To impact free machining properties 38. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the A. It brittle
D. To improve hardness and strength material used with lead to reduce the risk of B. It easily machinable
seizure is C. It hard
Answer: B A. Iron D. The casting unsound
B. Silver
28. Polyesters belong to the group of: C. Tin Answer: D
A. Phenolics D. Zinc
B. Thermoplastic plastics 49. The hardness of steel increase if it contains
C. Thermo setting plastics Answer: B ___________
D. All of these A. Austenite
39. Age-hardening is related with: B. Pearlite
Answer: C A. Cast iron C. Stalactite
B. Duralumin D. Martensite
29. The imperfection in the crystal structure is C. German silver
metal is known as: D. Stainless steel Answer: D
A. Dislocation
B. Fracture Answer: B 50. Which one is different from the group?
C. Impurity A. Cyaniding
D. Slip B. Nitriding

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 C. Flame hardening 10. In carbon steel castings B. Screw dislocation
D. Electroplating A. The percentage for alloying C. Solid solution hardening
elements is controlled D. Strain aging
Answer: D B. The percentage of carbon is
between 1.7% to 2% Answer:
C. The percentage of carbon is less
Test 38 than 1.7% 20. The material recovers its original
1. The process of increasing the carbon D. None of the above dimensions when the load is removed, it
content to surface of steel by exposing it is called:
to hot carbonaceous material above Answer: C A. Annealed
the transformation of 1650 to 1750 F B. Brittle
A. Carbonitriding 11. It has a powerful softening effect on cast C. Elastic
B. Case hardening iron and its pressure in cast iron reduces D. Plastic
C. Carburizing the ability of the iron to retain carbon in
D. Induction hardening chemical combination Answer: C
A. Aluminum
Answer: C B. Carbon 21. A body having identical properties all
C. Silicon over is called:
2. In the SAE identification code of steel D. Sulfur A. Ductile
shafting, the 3rd and 4 th digits represents B. Elastic
the content of: Answer: C C. Homogenous
A. % of manganese in the steel D. Isentropic
B. % of alloy 12. Cyaniding is the process of
C. % of carbon content A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat Answer: C
D. % of chromium in the steel treatment of steel to increase its surface
hardness 22. Points of arrest of iron correspond to:
Answer: C B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath A. Stages at which allotropic forms
C. Obtaining cyanide salts change
3. It is associated with nickel steel D. Reacting steel surface with cyanide B. Stages at which further heating
A. Magnesium salts does not increase temperature for
B. Lead sometime
C. Columbium Answer: A C. Stages at which properties do not
D. Tin change with increase in
13. An engineer’s hammer is made of temperature
Answer: D A. Cast iron D. There is nothing like points of arrest
B. High speed steel
4. A non-magnetic steel is: C. Forged steel Answer: A
A. Nodular iron D. Mild steel
B. Manganese steel 23. Delta iron occurs at:
C. Tungsten-molybdenum steel Answer: C A. Temperature above melting point
D. All of these B. Temperature between 1400°C and
14. A cold chisel is made of 1539°C
Answer: B A. Cast iron C. Temperature between 1000°C and
B. High carbon steel 1400°C
5. At small quantity, this alloy is effective for C. High speed steel D. Room temperature
improvement strength at high D. Mild steel
temperature Answer: B
A. Chromium Answer: A
B. Manganese 24. Gamma iron exists at the temperature
C. Selenium 15. Eutectoid steel the percentage of range
D. Molybdenum carbon is A. Between 910°C and 1400°C
A. 0.02% B. Between 1400°C and 1539°C
Answer: A B. 0.30% C. Near melting point
C. 0.63% D. Room temperatue
6. Consist of carbon and alloy used in D. 0.80%
production of precision work tools Answer: A
A. Chrome-manganese Answer: D
B. Titanium 25. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in
C. High speed steel 16. Machining properties of steel can be temperature range of:
D. Chrome-molybdenum improved by adding: A. Below 723 oC
A. Chromium, nickel B. 700 – 910 oC
Answer: C B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus C. 1000-1440 oC
7. In powder metallurgy, the process of D. Vanadium, aluminum D. 1400-1539 oC
heating the cold pressed metal powder
is called: Answer: C Answer: A
A. Deposition
B. Granulation 17. The ability of a material to absorb energy 26. The mould for casting ferrous materials in
C. Precipitation when deformed elastically and to return continuous melting process is made of:
D. Sintering to it when unloaded is known as
A. Low carbon steel
A. Creep
B. Fatigue strength B. Medium carbon steel
Answer: D
C. Hardness C. High carbon steel
8. Electro-forming is especially valuable for D. Resilience D. Copper
A. Decorative items
B. Good conductors of electricity Answer: D Answer: D
C. Non-ferrous components
D. Thin walled parts requiring a high 18. A ductile fracture is characterized by
27. A silver refers to
order of accuracy and internal A. Appreciable plastic deformation
prior to propagation of crack A. The pointed location spot silver
surface finish
B. Fragmentation into more than two plated.
Answer: D pieces B. The point on an instrument dial a
C. Negligible deformation reading beyond which may be
9. Aluminum alloys for pressure die casting D. Rapid rate for crack propagation dangerous for the system.
A. Must possess considerable fluidity C. The temperature at which silver melts.
B. Must not be free from hot shortness Answer: A
D. The temperature of equilibrium
C. Must have iron as one of the
19. ____ of metals wherein strength of between solid silver and liquid silver at
constituents
D. Must be light metal is increased and the ductility normal atmospheric pressure.
increases the heating at a relatively low
Answer: A temperature after cold working Answer: D
A. Cluster

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28. Piston compression rings are made of: B. Cast iron
A. Aluminum C. Medium carbon steel Answer: B
B. Bronze D. Mild steel
C. Cast iron 47. Muntz metal contains which of the
D. White metal Answer: B following alloys?
A. Copper – nickel
Answer: C 38. The main constituent molding sand is B. Copper – zinc
A. Carbon C. Copper – tin
29. One of the materials used for making B. Clay D. Copper – aluminum
surface plate is C. Graphite
A. Brass D. Silicon Answer: B
B. Granite
C. Stainless steel Answer: D 48. A reinforced concrete beam is
D. Wood considered to be made up of:
39. Cobalt is added to high speed steel to A. Clad material
Answer: B A. Increase ductility B. Composite material
B. Increase fatigue strength C. Homogenous material
30. Cast iron contains _____ % carbon. C. Increase hot hardness D. Heterogenous
A. 0.05 to 0.30 D. Increase wear resistance
B. 0.30 to 0.80 Answer: D
C. 0.80 to 1.30 Answer: C
D. 2 to 4 49. In testing the material for endurance
40. During cold working metals are worked strength, it is subjected to
Answer: D A. Below room temperature A. Static load
B. Below the melting point B. Impact load
31. Tungsten in high speed imparts which of C. Below their recrystallization C. Dynamic load
the following characteristics? temperature D. Completely reversed load
A. Corrosion resistance D. Below 200 o
B. Ductility Answer: D
C. Red hardness Answer: C
D. Shock resistance 50. Which of the following is not a sound
41. Copper is annealed by heating to a absorptive material
Answer: C cherry red color and A. Rug
A. Dousing in cold water B. Mirror
32. High carbon steel has a carbon content B. Cooling slowly in water C. Carpet
of: C. Dousing in oil D. Heavy drape
A. 0.05 to 1 % D. Dousing hot water
B. 0.8 to 2 % Answer: B
C. 1 to 3 % Answer: B
D. 2%
42. Tool steel can be hardened by Test 39
A. Heating red hot and plunging into water 1. The ability of a substance to exist in more
Answer: B
B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast than one lattice form is known as
33. During tensile testing on a specimen cup of dry A. Allotropy
and cone formation is observed with C. Heating red hot and plunging into B. Grain
_______. linseed or cotton seed oil C. Crystallization
A. Cast iron D. Any of the above, depending on type D. Diamagnetic
B. Cast steel and use
C. Glass Answer: A
D. Mild steel Answer: D
2. Properties which describe the behavior of
Answer: D 43. The purpose of annealing is to make a the materials under the association of force
metal are called as:
34. Kerosine is used as coolant, while A. Harder A. Physical properties
machining which material? B. Medium hard B. Chemical properties
A. Aluminum C. Softer C. Mechanical properties
B. Cast iron D. Shiny D. Electrical properties
C. Mild steel
D. Stainless Answer: C Answer: C

Answer: B 44. The purpose of tempering is to make the 3. The amount of energy per unit volume which
metal the material will possess when subjected to
35. One of the following materials is A. Harder the elastic limit stress is called:
commonly used for bearings. B. Softer A. Bulk modulus
A. Aluminum C. Less brittle B. Modulus of Resilience
B. Gun metal D. More brittle C. Modulus of Elasticity
C. Steel D. Modulus of Rigidity
D. Zinc Answer: C
Answer: B
Answer: B 45. A scriber is made of
A. Carbon steel 4. ______________ means the resistance to
36. Babbit metal is an alloy of B. Cold-rolled steel penetration
A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead C. Hot-rolled steel A. Hardness
B. Copper, zinc and tin D. Tool steel B. Strength
C. Iron and tungsten C. Toughness
D. Tin, copper, lead and phosphorous Answer: D D. Stiffness

Answer: A 46. Knurling is done to Answer: A

A. Polish material
37. The bed of machine tool is normally B. Roughen material 5. _____________ means the increasing hardness
made of C. Sharpen the material and strength by plastic deformation at
A. Alloy steel D. Smoothen the material

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 temperatures lower than crystallization C. Distillation D. Carburizing
range? D. Sintering
A. Case Hardening Answer: A
B. Strain Hardening Answer: B
C. Nitriding 22. It is one in which some elements other than
D. Stiffness 14. Process which involve the reduction of the carbon has been added to improve change
metal from aqueous solution by the physical properties.
Answer: B replacement or by electrolysis are called: A. Low Carbon Steel
A. Pyrometallurgical Processes B. Alloy Steel
6. The plastic deformation at temperatures B. Electrometallurgical Processes C. Medium Carbon Steel
above the recrystallization temperature. C. Hydrometallurgical Processes D. High Carbon Steel
A. Hot Working D. Amalgamation Process
B. Cold Working Answer: B
C. Normalizing Answer: C
D. Annealing 23. SAE 1020 steel is a carbon steel containing
15. Non-metallic materials of high melting ____ percent carbon
Answer: A temperature used in the construction of A. 20%
furnaces, crucible and so forth are called: B. 0.20%
7. The plastic deformation at temperatures A. Refractories C. 10%
below the recrystallization temperature. B. Ceramics D. 0.10%
A. Hot Working C. Insulators
B. Normalizing D. Grable Answer: B
C. Annealing
D. Cold Working Answer: A 24. SAE 2317 steel is a nickel steel alloy
containing _____percent nickel
Answer: D 16. The flux and gauge when in proper A. 2%
proportions will have a melting temperatures B. 3%
8. A preliminary evaluation of the elevated considerably lower than that of ethane and C. 1%
temperature properties of materials may be the resulting combination is called: D. 7%
secured by means of a A. Lime
A. Stress rupture test B. Residue Answer: B
B. Creep C. Stag
C. Impact test D. Refractories 25. AISI C1095 designates that it is a basic open
D. Modulus of rupture hearth carbon steel having ________percent
Answer: C carbon
Answer: A A. 5%
17. An iron-bearing slate or chert in the form of B. 9%
9. The temperature at which this decrease of compact siliceous rock. C. 95%
impact energy occurs is called: A. Tacomite D. 0.95%
A. Recrystallization temperature B. Hermatite
B. Transition temperature C. Magnetite Answer: D
C. Rupture temperature D. Limenite
D. Ultimate temperature 26. Molybdenum steels are painted ________.
Answer: A A. Green
Answer: B B. Blue
18. A mechanical mixture of very pure iron and C. Red
10. An intimate mechanical mixture of two or a silicate slag D. Orange
more phases having a define composition A. Bronze
and a definite freezing melting point. B. Brass Answer:
A. Allotropy C. Cat Iron
B. Pentectic D. Wrought Iron 27. Used for members of intricate shape that
C. Eutectic would be difficult to manufacture by other
D. Protactic Answer: D methods
A. Forging
Answer: C 19. An alloy of iron and carbon in which the B. Casting
carbon content does not exceed 1.7%. C. Extruding
11. The science which deals with the A. Brass D. Hot Working
preparation and application of metals and B. Steel
alloys. C. Babbit Answer:
A. Manufacturing D. Bronze
B. Metalloids 28. AISI means
C. Metallurgy Answer: B A. Association Iron and Steel Institute
D. Refractories B. African Iron and Steel Institute
20. The structure formed when transformation C. Aluminum Iron and Steel Institute
Answer: C occurs at temperaute down to the knee of D. American Investment for Steel Industry
the curve
12. A combination of minerals which can be A. Pearlite Answer: A
profitably mined B. Bainite
A. Gangue C. Martinsite 29. SAE means
B. Metal D. Limonite A. Society of American Engineers
C. Alloy B. Society of Automotive Engineers
D. Ore Answer: A C. Society of Australian Engineers
D. Society of African Engineers
Answer: D 21. The process producing a hard surface in a
steel having a sufficiently high carbon Answer: B
13. The mechanical treatment by which the content to respond in hardening by cooling
concentration of ores is increased are of the surface. 30. Which of the following metals increases the
called: A. Flame Hardening strength without sacrificing the ductility of the
A. Gravity Separation B. Induction Hardening carbon steels?
B. One dressing C. Cyaniding A. Brass

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 B. Nickel D. Cryaning 47. It is a squeezing operation used for flattening
C. Bronze or surfacing various parts where small
D. Copper Answer: C amount of flow of material is involved
A. Hobbing
Answer: B 39. It is used in steels as an alloying element to B. Stamping
combing hardness obtained C. Coining
31. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing agent A. Vanadium D. Sizing
and promotes the nitriding of steels B. Chromium
A. Aluminum C. Titanium Answer: D
B. Boron D. Molybdenum
C. Copper 48. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal is
D. Brass Answer: B made to flow into dies by the application of
sudden blows to the material
Answer: A 40. The art of making definite impressions in sand A. Drop forging
by means of a pattern for a purpose of B. Press forging
32. It is used to toughen and strengthen the producing a casting C. Extrusion
steel, to reduce the grain size and to act as A. Molding D. Machine forging
a cleanser and degasifier. B. Pattern
A. Nickel C. Extrusion Answer: A
B. Boron D. Die casting
C. Vanadium 49. It is the measure of stiffness
D. Molybdenum Answer: A A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of resilience
Answer: C 41. Products that have cross sections of less than C. Modulus of elasticity
6 inches and that are not in the finished forms D. Modulus of toughness
33. Materials having a high percentage of A. Slabs
alumina or steatite are known as B. Gangue Answer: C
A. Titanium C. Blooms
B. Vanadium D. Billets 50. It is the measure of the total energy-
C. Refractories absorbed capacity of the material and
D. Ceramics Answer: D includes the energy of both elastic and
plastic deformation.
Answer: D 42. It is the process of forging by which the metal A. Modulus of toughness
in the plastic state is made to flow within a B. Modulus of resilience
34. It is a process of hardening the outer portion die by the application of plunger pressure C. Modulus of elasticity
of the metal by prolonged heating free from A. Extrusion forging D. Modulus of rigidity
contact with air while the metal packed in B. Smith forging
carbon in the form of bone char, leather C. Drop forging Answer: A
scraps, or charcoal. D. Press forging
A. Carburizing
B. Cyaniding Answer: A Test 40
C. Nitriding 1. The maximum stress to which a
D. Aging 43. It is a squeezing process used to finish sheet standardized test specimen may be
or bar stock for special purpose subjected without permanent
Answer: A A. Cold forging deformation.
B. Sizing A. Endurance limit
35. The degree to which a material will deform C. Cold rolling B. Proportional limit
before ultimate fracture D. Coining C. Elastic limit
A. Brittleness D. Plastic limit
B. Ductility Answer: C
C. Malleability Answer: C
D. Plasticity 44. The term used for most press operations
A. Glazing 2. The modulus of plasticity is a measure of
Answer: B B. Stamping E. Stiffness
A. Coning F. Toughness
36. The property of a material that indicates its B. Swaging G. Resilience
ability to transfer heat H. Hardness
A. Thermal conductivity Answer: B
B. Electrical resistivity Answer: E
C. Thermal expansion 45. It is a process of shearing in which sheet or
D. Electrical conductivity plate is cut out to a definite outline in a press 3. Aging at moderately elevated
A. Blanking temperature expedites the process and
Answer: A B. Stamping A. Natural aging
C. Spinning B. Artificial aging
37. A group of heat treatable cast iron D. Trimming C. Normal aging
moderate to high strength, high modulus of D. Supernatural aging
elasticity, goal machinery, and good Answer: A
resistance carbon. Answer: B
A. Gray iron 46. It is a special case of drawing in which the
B. Malleable iron work is rotated and formed by means of a 4. It is the tendency to fracture without
C. Ductile tool appreciable deformation
D. White iron A. Spinning A. Ductility
B. Embossing B. Brittleness
Answer: C. Bulging C. Malleability
D. Stretching forming D. Plasticity
38. Steels may be carburized and nitride
simultaneously by the process known as Answer: A Answer: B
A. Nitriding
B. Carburizing 5. It is the characteristic of exhibiting
C. Carbonitriding different properties when tested in
different directions

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 A. Allotropy Answer: A
B. Anisotropy Answer: D
C. Isentropic 23. The material used for commutator
D. Isotropic 14. Which medium has highest value of brushes is mostly
dielectric strength? A. Copper
Answer: B A. Glass B. Mica
B. Mica C. Carbon
6. It is one in which specimen, supported at C. Porcelain D. Cast iron
both ends as a simple beam is broken by D. Quartz
the impact strength of the metal Answer: C
A. Charpy test Answer: B
B. Izod test 24. Generally, the material for
C. Rockwell test 15. Which of the following is a primary cell? thermocouple is
D. Universal test A. Mercury – oxide A. Chrome copel
B. Lead – acid B. Chrome alumei
Answer: A C. Nickel – iron – alkaline C. Platinum rhodum
D. Nickel – cadmium – alkaline D. Any of these
7. Steel that has been deoxidized with
strong deoxidizing agent such as silicon Answer: A Answer: D
or aluminum, in order to eliminate the
reaction between the carbon and 16. Which of the following contact point 25. Select the best conductor of electricity
oxygen during solidification metals has highest melting point A. Carbon
A. Carbon steel A. Silver B. Silver
B. Tool steel B. Tungsten C. Copper
C. Killed steel C. Gold D. Iron
D. Structural steel D. Copper
Answer: B
Answer: C Answer: C
26. Any heating and cooling of steel that
produces a rounded or glocular form of
8. Involves the loss of ductility because of a 17. A material best suited for manufacturing
carbide.
physical or chemical change of the of fuse wire A. Spheroidizing
material is known as A. Aluminum B. Malleability
A. Embrittlement B. Silver C. Graphizing
B. Pitting C. Lead D. Normalizing
C. Cold shortness D. Copper
D. Decarburization Answer: A
Answer: B
Answer: A 27. Steel that has been hammered rolled or
18. The laminations are made from drawn in the process of electricity
9. A material commonly used for shielding A. Low carbon steel A. Wrought steel
or screening magnetism B. Silicon sheet steel B. Rimmed Steel
A. Brass C. Nickel alloy steel stays C. Killed steel
B. Copper D. Chrome steel sheets D. Stainless steel
C. Aluminum
D. Soft iron Answer: B Answer: A

Answer: D 19. Which of the following metals gets 28. Which of the following improves red
deposited to provide an undercut for hardness?
10. A magnet is able to attract chromium? A. Boron
A. Iron, aluminum and brass A. Copper B. Cobalt
B. Iron, cobalt and zinc B. Silver C. Copper
C. Iron, copper and nickel C. Bronze D. Columbium
D. Nickel, cobalt and steel D. Lead
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: C
29. An alloy of nickel and copper
11. Which of the following materials is used 20. In nickel – iron cell, the electrolyte is: A. Monel
for making permanent magnets? A. Dilute sulphuric acid B. Iconel
A. Carbon steel B. Dilute potassium hydroxide C. Titanium
B. Platinum cobalt C. Dilute sodium ammonium hydroxide D. Vanadium
C. Alnico D. Dilute sodium chloride solution
D. All three mentioned Answer: A
Answer: B
Answer: D 30. Commutator segments are made of
21. Which of the following is not a primary A. Zinc
12. Which of the following is the best cess? B. Brass
conductor of electricity? A. Carbon zinc C. Copper
A. Graphite B. Silver oxide D. Nickel
B. China clay C. Silver zinc
C. Porcelain D. Nickel – cadmium Answer: C
D. Ceramics
Answer: C 31. What are the most commonly used
Answer: A materials as photo cathode for the
22. Select from the conductors below that photoelectric emission?
13. Dielectric strength of a material has the least electrical conductivity A. Barium and calcium
depends on the material’s A. Lead B. Cesium and rubidium
A. Moisture content B. Tin C. Arsenic and boron
B. Thickness C. Zinc D. Thorium and tungsten
C. Temperature D. Aluminum
D. All of these Answer: C

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 48. What is used in main condenser to
32. Manganese is an alloy of Answer: D control electrolysis?
A. Copper, manganese and nickel A. Brass plate
B. Copper, aluminum and chromium 40. Imperfections within metallic crystal B. Aluminum plates
C. Copper, zinc and lead structures may be all of the following. C. Zinc plates
D. Copper, chromium and cadmium EXCEPT: D. Bronze plate
A. Lattice vacancies or extra
Answer: A interstitial atom Answer: C
B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
33. The one that is an acceptor impurity C. Displacement of atoms of 49. Which of the following types of packing
element interstitial sites would be used on steam points?
A. Antimony D. Linear defects or slippage A. Asbestos
B. Gallium dislocations caused by shear B. Neoprene
C. Arsenic C. Metallic
D. Phosphorus Answer: B D. A or C

Answer: B 41. When a metal is cold worked, all of the Answer: D

following generally occur, EXCEPT:
34. Which of the following is not a method of A. Ductility decreases 50. The process applied to iron pipe, which
non-destructive testing of steel castings B. Grains become equal-axed retards corrosion
and forging? C. Tensile strength increases A. Galvanizing
A. Radiography D. Slip or twinning occurs B. Annealing
B. Magnetic particle C. Soldering
C. Ultrasonic Answer: B D. Tinning
D. Chemical analysis
42. Hard water is water, which contains Answer: A
Answer: D soluble salts of which of the following
elements? 51. A scriber is made from what steel?
35. All of the following statements about A. Sodium A. Carbon steel
rusting of iron are correct, except: B. Sulfur B. Cold rolled steel
A. Contact with water and oxygen are C. Calcium C. Tool steel
necessary for rusting to occur D. Chlorine D. Hot-rolled steel
B. Contact with a more electropositive
metal reduces rusting Answer: C Answer: C
C. Halides aggravate rusting process
which involves electrochemical 43. Which of the following metals has the
oxidation reduction reaction highest specific heat capacity at 100 C?
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic A. Aluminum
areas and the rust is deposited B. Bismuth
nearby C. Copper
D. Iron
Answer: D
Answer: A
36. If 1080 steel is annealed by very slow
cooling from 1000 C to ambient 44. Aluminum pistons are either cast or
temperature, its microstructure will A. Ground
consist almost solely of: B. Forged
A. Austenite C. Pressed
B. Bainite D. Welded
C. Cementite
D. Pearlite Answer: B

Answer: D 45. Valves and piping in an ammonia

system are made of
37. Steel can be strengthened by all of the A. Iron
following practices, EXCEPT: B. Bras
A. Annealing C. Copper
B. Quenching and tempering D. Bronze
C. Work hardening
D. Grain refinement Answer: A

Answer: A 46. Which of the following gasket materials

should be used on a Freon system?
38. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically A. Metallic
conductive, with electrons as majority B. Asbestos
carriers when adopted with which of the C. Rubber
following? D. A and B
A. Antimony
B. Boron Answer: D
C. Germanium
D. Aluminum 47. The non ferrous alloy corrodes in
ammonia is
Answer: A A. Copper
B. Bronze
39. The linear portion of the stress-strain C. Brass
diagram of steel is known as the : D. All of these
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Plasticity Answer: D
C. Irreversible range
D. Elastic range

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