ĐỀ SỐ 5

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1. A. book B. pool C. school D. soon
Question 2. A. thank B. those C. thick D. through
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. adviceB. machine C. Chinese D. listen
Question 4. A. consider B. develop C. embroider D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 5. The life of a teenager these days is _____ than that’s in the past.
A. more stressful B. stressful
C. most stressful D. much stressful
Question 6. Mrs. White never goes to work by bus, _____?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. doesn’t she D. does she
Question 7. We decided _____ in Ho Chi Minh City for three days.
A. stay B. staying C. to stay D. to staying
Question 8. I wish I _____ a chance to meet BTS - a famous music band next year.
A. can have B. have C. have had D. would have
Question 9. The children came to class late _____ it rained heavily.
A. in spite of B. although C. because D. because of
Question 10. We like the food in Hoi An because it is delicious and _____.
A. expensive B. exciting C. affordable D. fashionable
Question 11. Visiting the old quarters in Hanoi is my _____ experience during my stay here.
A. believable B. typical C. forgettable D. memorable
Question 12. “Could you help me to get some water?” - “_____.”
A. It doesn’t matter B. With pleasure C. It’s a pleasure D. Never mind
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to
16.
Welcome to Hoi An villages in Quang Nam, Viet Nam! Hoi An villages are famous for their
beautiful vegetable and herb gardens. They are also well-known (13) _____ the coconut
palms near Thu Bon River and traditional crafts such as (14) _____ lanterns. Here in Hoi An
villages, you can spend the morning gardening on the local farms. (15) _____ leisure
activities include riding bicycles through the villages, travelling on basket boats and visiting
craft villages. We offer an eco-tour to Hoi An villages, and tourists are encouraged to use
green transport such as bicycles to avoid polluting the environment. You can also buy local
products and beautiful (16) _____ to help local businesses! Call us at 0929292929 and book
your tour today!
Question 13. A. in B. with C. by D. for
Question 14. A. colourful paper B. paper colouful
C. colour paper D. paper colour
Question 15. A. Another B. Other C. Others D. The other
Question 16. A. lacquerwares B. potteries
C. sculptures D. crafts
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a
logical text.
I had a brilliant experience by the sea with my class last year. _____
a. In the afternoon, an instructor taught some of us snorkelling and it was exhilarating.
b. It was also wonderful to see a coral reef and many types of colourful fishes swimming
around.
c. We joined team-building activities in the morning.
A. a-c-b B. c-a-b C. b-a-c D. c-b-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most
appropriately.
A. It’s the best experience I’ve ever had.
B. I enjoy swimming very much.
C. Therefore, I want to have a team building activity again.
D. Besides, I am really interested in swimming.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19
to 24.
Different countries have different traditional clothes. Ao Dai is known as the traditional
Vietnamese clothes. It can be (19) _____ with various colors, and patterns such as flowers,
nature and others. Wearing Ao Dai, women find themselves more (20) _____. Ao Dai
symbolizes many personalities of Vietnamese women: gentleness, diligence, kindness and
bravery. Therefore, it's very proud for women to put (21) _____ the special clothes. Students
and teachers wear Ao Dai on Mondays to join in the ceremony. Moreover, y it is on wedding
days that the brides and grooms wear Ao Dai to represent the tradition of Vietnam. Not only
Vietnamese (22) _____ also foreign tourists try wearing Ao Dai when they visit Vietnam.
They have good comments and congratulations on it. Protecting and preserving its beauty and
nature are the duties of all Vietnamese citizens. Besides, Ao Dai is a beneficial and
comfortable (23) _____ women can choose for any event and party. Although there are a
large number of new trends in fashion, Ao Dai always (24) _____ an important role in the
spiritual life of Vietnamese people.
Question 19. A. designing B. design C. designed D. to design
Question 20. A. attract B. attractive C. attractively D. attraction
Question 21. A. on B. off C. out D. in
Question 22. A. so B. as C. but D. and
Question 23. A. custom B. fashion C. costume D. clothes
Question 24. A. brings B. plays C. puts D. takes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Tom asked his classmate: “Are you joining US for the party this weekend?”.
A. Tom asked his classmate if he is joining them for the party that weekend.
B. Tom asked his classmate if was he joining them for the party that weekend.
C. Tom asked his classmate if he was joining them for the party that weekend.
D. Tom asked his classmate if is he joining them for the party that weekend.
Question 26. I do not visit my grandparents very often because they live far away.
A. If my grandparents do not live far away, I would visit them very’ often.
B. If my grandparents did not live far away, I would visit them very often.
C. If my grandparents live far away, I will not visit them very’ often.
D. If my grandparents did not live far away, I will visit them very often.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made
from the given cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. It / generous / Tommy / pay / all / meals / we / have / yesterday.
A. It was very generous on Tommy to pay for all the meals we had yesterday.
B. It is very generous of Tommy to pay for all the meals we have yesterday.
C. It is very generous of Tommy paying for all the meals we had yesterday.
D. It was very generous of Tommy to pay for all the meals we had yesterday.
Question 28. My father / prefer / read / newspaper / watch TV.
A. My father prefers to read newspapers more than watching TV.
B. My father prefers reading newspapers to watch TV.
C. My father prefers reading newspapers than watching TV.
D. My father prefers reading newspapers to watching TV.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You can use this door anytime you want to enter.

B. This door is only for use in emergencies when you need to leave quickly.
C. Everyone should use this door to enter the building.
D. This door is locked and cannot be opened at all.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

"No cell phones allowed in this area.

Please turn off your phone or put it on silent."

A. You must have permission to use the phone in this area.

B. You may not turn off your phone if you are not using it.
C. Cell phones are only for emergency use here.
D. Cell phones must be turned off or silenced in this area.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Chu Van An High School is one of the oldest and most prestigious state schools in Viet
Nam. Established in 1908 by the French, the school was located beside the West Lake, and
was originally named after the location it was in. It is a very pleasant, spacious school with
great views of the lake from the classroom windows.
In 1943, the school was moved to Ninh Binh, and was not moved back to Ha Noi until 1945.
In that year, the school was renamed Chu Van An, after a famous Vietnamese Confucianism
teacher of the Tran Dynasty. Professor Nguyen Gia Tuong became the first Vietnamese
principal of the school. Many famous people like ex-Prime Minister Pham Van Dong,
DoctorTonThatTung, and poet Xuan Dieu used to be the school's students.
Today the school is still located in the same area, and has maintained its prestige, as well as
its reputation as one of the top schools in Ha Noi. It is very difficult to be admitted to the
school. Every year, there are around three thousand applicants but only about five 2 hundred
are admitted.Those applicants have to take an entrance examination conducted 2 by the
Department of Education and Training of Ha Noi.
Question 31. The passage mainly discusses _____.
A. Chu Van An, the teacher B. Chu Van An School in the future
C. Chu Van An School: Then and now D. How to establish Chu Van An High school
Question 32. When was the school established?
A. in 1908 B. in 1943 C. in 1945 D. in 1990
Question 33. All of the following are true about the school EXCEPT _____.
A. the school was originally named after the location it is in.
B. the school admits three thousand students every year.
C. the school has a view of the West Lake.
D. the school is large.
Question 34. The word “prestigious” in the 1st paragraph is CLOSEST meaning to _____.
A. respectful B. famous C. spectacular D. generous
Question 35. Who used to be Chu Van An High school’s student?
A. Professor Nguyen Gia Tuong B. Doctor Ton That Tung
C. Poet Tran Dang Khoa D. Artist To Ngoc Van
Question 36. The word “admitted “in the last paragraph is OPPOSITE meaning to _____.
A. allowed B. rejected C. permitted D. considered
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question,
mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 40.
The Dolomites - Paradise at Your Feet
If you haven't decided on where to travel this holiday, consider the Dolomites!
The Dolomites are a mountain range in Italy. (37) _____ in 2009. The Dolomites are part of
the Alps, stretching from the Adige River to the Piave River valley. This mountain range has
a total area of about 141,900 hectares. (38) _____. It is easy to get access to most parts of the
Dolomites.
The Dolomites are a majestic site. They are widely regarded as being (39) _____. There are
steep rocky cliffs, sharp peaks, narrow and deep valleys, and white snow on the mountaintop.
(40) _____.
The Dolomites are a popular place for winter skiing, mountain climbing, hiking, and cycling
any time of the year. An annual bicycle race covering seven mountain passes on the
Dolomites occurs in the first week of July.
So do not hesitate to book a tour to the Dolomites to see and do these things for yourself!
A. It has 18 peaks over 3,000 metres high
B. It was recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site
C. Their natural scenery attracts tourists from many parts of the world
D. among the most attractive mountain landscapes in the world
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

ĐỀ SỐ 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1. A. spreadB. cream C. bread D. head
Question 2. A. pleasure B. seafood C. surprise D. bus
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. village B. mountain C. island D. arrange
Question 4. A. remember B. generate C. assignment D. pollutant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 5. Tom can speak three languages, ______?
A. can he B. doesn’t he C. can’t he D. isn’t he
Question 6. Techniques to make conical hats in this village have been ______ from
generation to generation.
A. got on B. given up C. passed down D. taken in
Question 7. I have lived in this town ______ two years.
A. in B. for C. ago D. since
Question 8. Tourists are impressed by the ______ of Ha Long Bay.
A. beauty B. beautify C. beautiful D. beautifully
Question 9. If I were you, I ______ harder to pass the entrance exam.
A. will study B. would study C. studied D. can study
Question 10. My uncle ______ his car when it started to rain.
A. was washing B. has washed C. washes D. washed
Question 11. It’s said that Ha Long Bay is one of the ______ of Vietnam.
A. cultures B. wonders C. things D. parts
Question 12. John: “Would you like to go Olli for dinner with my family?” - Peter: “______”
A. I agree with you B. Yes. I’d love to C. Never mind D. That’s right
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to
16.
CITY MUSEUM - Holiday job
Do you want to (13) ______ some extra money this summer? Do you speak (14) ______
language?
We need French, Spanish (15) ______ German speakers to work for us (16) ______ the City
Museum shop from Tuesday to Saturday.
Send your CV to citymuseum@shopjob.lkj.
Question 13. A. do B. earn C. gain D. achieve
Question 14. A. some B. a C. another D. any
Question 15. A. and B. or C. with D. nor
Question 16. A. at B. to C.by D. in
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a
logical text.
I haven't had many exciting experiences like that before. ______
a. We put up the tents and did unforgettable team-building activities.
b. We got to a beautiful site in Ninh Binh.
c. We also hired bikes and cycled around the area.
A. b-c-a B. a-c-b C. b-a-c D. a-b-c
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most
appropriately.
A. It was so relaxing.
B. I am looking forward to seeing them.
C. I will come back in the future.
D. I will never forget it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19
to 24.
Today, childhood is spent mostly indoors watching television, playing video games and (19)
______ the Internet. When children go outside, it tends to be for scheduled events like a
soccer match or a fishing derby. These events are held under the watch of adults.
The shift to an indoor childhood has accelerated in (20) ______ past decade, with a
significant decline in spontaneous outdoor activities such as bike riding, swimming and touch
football, according to some studies by the National Sporting Goods Association. (21) ______,
a child is six times more likely to play a video game on a typical day than to ride a bike.
Indoor childhood has brought about some changes which can be seen in children's bodies. In
the 1960s, 4% of kids were obese. Today, 16% are overweight. The changes can also be seen
in their (22) ______. Studies indicate that children (23) ______ spend plenty of time outdoors
have a longer attention span than those who watch (24) ______ television and play video
games.
Question 19. A. surfing B. taking C. looking D. making
Question 20. A. an B. the C. ∅ D. a
Question 21. A. Although B. Before C. Because D. In addition
Question 22. A. muscles B. bodies C. thoughts D. brains
Question 23. A. whom B. who C. he D. they
Question 24. A. a lot of B. some C. many D. few
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “Please don’t tell anyone my new address, Tom,” said Jane.
A. Jane asked Tom not to tell anyone her new address.
B. Jane told Tom to tell everyone her new address.
C. Jane reminded Tom to tell everyone her new address.
D. Jane didn’t want Tom to know her new address.
Question 26. The girl is my younger sister. You talked to her yesterday.
A. The girl whose you talked to yesterday is my younger sister.
B. The girl whom you talked to yesterday is my younger sister.
C. The girl that is my younger sister you talked to yesterday.
D. The girl is my younger sister which you talked to yesterday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made
from the given cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. She / give / scholarship / have / excellent / results.
A. Because of she had excellent study results, she was giving a scholarship.
B. Although she was given a scholarship, she had excellent study results.
C. She was given a scholarship because of his excellent study results.
D. She was given a scholarship because of her excellent study results.
Question 28. He / worked / this / company / five years.
A. He has worked in this company for five years.
B. He worked in this company for five years.
C. He has worked in this company five years ago.
D. He has worked in this company for five years ago.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. Anyone, including visitors and staff, can park here without restrictions.
B. Only employees or staff members are allowed to park in these spaces.
C. Parking is not allowed in this area under any circumstances.
D. The parking area is open to all people, without any specific rules.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

’’The restroom is temporarily closed for

maintenance.
It will open as soon as the work is finished"
A. The restroom is closed for maintenance and will open later.
B. The restroom is open but being cleaned.
C. The restroom is always open.
D. You can use the restroom in a different building.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Obesity increases a person's risk of cancer, heart disease and other diseases. About 2.6 billion
people globally - 38% of the world population - are already overweight or obese. But on
current trends that is expected to rise to more than 4 billion people (51%) in 12 years' time,
according to research by the World Obesity Federation.
Obesity among children and young people is likely to increase faster than that among adults.
By 2035 it is expected to be at least double the rate seen in 2020 - it will rise by 100% among
boys under 18, but go up even more sharply, by 125%, among girls the same age.
Switzerland, Norway, Finland, Iceland and Sweden are among the best prepared countries to
deal with obesity while Niger, Nigeria, Somalia and Central African Republic s are examples
of the world's poorest countries that are the least prepared. Professor Louise Baur, the
federation's president, says that the sharpest increases in obesity will be seen in low- and
middle-income countries where lack of preparedness and resources will create a perfect storm
that will negatively impact obese people the most.
The rising obesity globally is caused by factors such as climate change, Covid restrictions
and chemical pollutants, as well as the promotion of unhealthy foods. It is suggested that
governments should restrict the marketing of foods that are high in fat, salt or sugar, and
provide healthy food in schools.
Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The great future of overweight young children
B. More than half of people to be obese by 2035.
C. How the world’s poorest countries flight against obesity?
D. The reasons why many children are obese now.
Question 32. How many percentage of the world population are obese now?
A. 51% B. 38% C. 49% D. 62%
Question 33. Which of the following is true according to the passage, EXCEPT ______?
A. Obesity increases a person’s risk of cancer.
B. Girls are more likely to be obese than boys.
C. There are the sharpest increases in obesity will be seen in low- and middle-income
countries.
D. The rising obesity globally is only caused by Covid restrictions.
Question 34. According to paragraph 3, which countries have prepared best to deal with
obesity?
A. Finland B. Niger C. Japan D. Central African
Republic
Question 35. The word “obese” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. too fat B. overweight C. heavy D. skinny
Question 36. The word “restrict” in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. support B. permit C. limit D. increase
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question,
mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 40.
The two most popular types of tours now are package and self-guided tours. When you buy a
package tour, (37) ______. You will get a notice about the places of, your visit, the detailed
itinerary, and the cost. They will protect you if something goes J wrong during the trip. (38)
______. It offers a convenient option for people who are elderly, who do not want to spend
much time searching on their own, or who are not confident about using online apps. One
disadvantage of this type is you have to follow a fixed itinerary.
Nowadays, (39) ______which require them to do everything on their own. They have to look
for a destination, work out an itinerary, and estimate the cost. They then hunt for tickets and
accommodation, usually homestay. This type of holiday may require people more time and
effort, but it is cheaper and more flexible than a package holiday. (40) ______. However, to
have a smooth trip and avoid trouble, these travellers should be good at using apps.
A. more young people choose self-guided tours
B. a travel agency takes care of almost everything for you
C. This type of holiday saves time and reduces stress for travellers
D. It gives travellers more freedom to decide where to go and how much time and money to
spend at a place
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________
 ĐỀ SỐ 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1. A. child B. fill C. milk D. pink
Question 2. A. technique B. chemist C. children D. headache
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. enjoy B. consist C. beauty D. succeed
Question 4. A. capable B. different C. difficult D. delightful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 5. Hurricane Andrew swept through southern Florida ______ 1992.
A. for B. on C. at D. in
Question 6. I ______ from her since she left school.
A. don’t hear B. haven’t heard C. didn’t hear D. hasn’t heard
Question 7. Of all the shoes that I have tried on, these ones are ______.
A. comfortable B. less comfortable
C. more comfortable D. the most comfortable
Question 8. If more chemicals are released into the environment, many species ______
extinct.
A. will become B. are becoming
C. becomes D. became
Question 9. This shopping mall, which ______ two years ago, attracts a lot of shoppers.
A. built B. was built C. will be built D. was building
Question 10. Giving lucky money to the young at Tet is a common ______ in many Asian
countries.
A. practice B. behaviour C. tradition D. habit
Question 11. This restaurant is ______ for its excellent dishes and service.
A. proud B. certain C. famous D. different
Question 12. Mary: “That’s a very nice skirt you’re wearing.” - Jolie: “______”
A. You’re welcome. B. That’s all right.
C. Don’t mention it. D. Thank you.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to
16.
8 TIPS TO STAY SAFETY ONLINE
1. Be nice (13) ______ people online
2. Take care with what you share
3. (14) ______ personal information private
4. Check your privacy settings
5. Know how (15) ______ posts
6. Keep your password (16) ______
7. Never meet anyone in person you have only met online
8. If you see anything online that you don't like or you find upsetting, tell someone you trust
Question 13. A. to B. with C. of D. for
Question 14. A. Make B. Keep C. Remain D. Sustain
Question 15. A. reporting B. report C. to report D. reported
Question 16. A. safe B. safeless C. safeness D. unsafe
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a
logical text.
I had a hard 10-day course in an army camp in Son Tay last summer. Everything was
different from my life at home. ______
A. We had to wake up at 5 a.m. and attend classes which were like training courses for
soldiers.
B. In the evening, we read books or worked in teams with many exciting activities.
C. We also joined a performance that had the theme: environmental protection.
A. b-c-a B. c-b-a C. a-b-c D. a-c-b
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most
appropriately.
A. After that, I attended such a strict but exciting course like this.
B. Finally, I can attend an exciting course.
C. I also felt disappointed about it.
D. I have never attended such a strict but exciting course like this.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19
to 24.
Owning a pet can be a great (19) ______. It is a chance to love and care for a living creature.
By watching and looking at its growth and behavior, you will discover that having a pet can
be exciting and (20).
It is also said that owning a pet reaps benefits to your health. You will have lower blood
pressure and lower cholesterol levels. Owning a pet gives you a greater sense of well-being
and (21) ______ your stress level.
Different types of pets need different kinds of care. Some pets are easy to look (22) ______
while others are difficult. Pets are not toys and a certain amount of work is needed if you
want to take care of (23) ______ properly. You must be willing to spend a part of each day to
meet your pet's needs.
(24) ______ pets, big or small, depend on their owners for food, housing and protection.
Although love is very important, it alone is not enough.
Question 19. A. activities B. way C. task D. pleasure
Question 20. A. amusing B. amuse C. amused D. amusingly
Question 21. A. decreases B. make C. increase D. cause
Question 22. A. at B. for C. after D. into
Question 23. A. it B. them C. they D. their
Question 24. A. A B. Much C. All D. Any
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “What time did you go to bed last night, Mike?” his mother asked.
A. Mike’s mother asked him what time he had gone to bed last night.
B. Mike’s mother asked him what time he has gone to bed the previous night.
C. Mike’s mother asked him what time he had gone to bed the previous night.
D. Mike’s mother asked him what time he went to bed last night.
Question 26. The house belongs to my grandparents. It was built in 1975.
A. The house which it belongs to my grandparents was built in 1975.
B. The house who belongs to my grandparents was built in 1975.
C. The house which belongs to my grandparents was built in 1975.
D. The house what belongs to my grandparents was built in 1975.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made
from the given cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Linda / go / cooking class / every Wednesday evening.
A. Linda went to the cooking class every Wednesday evening.
B. Linda goes the cooking class every Wednesday evening.
C. Linda will go to the cooking class every Wednesday evening.
D. Linda goes to the cooking class every Wednesday evening.
Question 28. She / tell / me / quiet / because / baby / sleep.
A. She tells me to be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
B. She told me be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
C. She told me to be quiet because the baby is sleeping.
D. She told me to be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You can make noise and talk loudly in this area.

B. This area is for quiet and no loud noises are allowed.
C. Making noise is encouraged and allowed in this area.
D. The area is not watched, so noise is not controlled.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

Seavista Restaurant
Opening this
weekend.
Free food for children.
A. The restaurant is old.
B. The restaurant has great food.
C. Guests don’t have to pay for children’s meals.
D. The restaurant is only open at the weekend.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Ke Ga Cape, which is about twenty-five kilometres from the city of Phan Thiet, is often
overlooked by the majority of travellers coming to Viet Nam. Therefore, the peacefulness of
this coastal area has been preserved. If you want to experience the 'real', unspoiled side of
Viet Nam, we highly recommend that you add Ke Ga Cape to your 'places' to visit' list.
Once you've arrived at Ke Ga Cape, its attractions are immediately obvious. Most j travellers
are attracted by the sight of its untouched cliffs spreading out along the coast J and the sound
of the casuarina trees rustling in the breeze. On sunny days, you will be enthralled by the
harmonious tones of the sea and sky, and the sight of clouds embracing the mountain peaks.
You can also admire the splendid sunrise, and later go for a walk to enjoy the mesmerizing
sunset. The red-yellow rays of the sun reflected in the waves paint an enchanting picture of
the pristine Ke Ga Cape. Sometimes, it may be hard for you to distinguish where the sky ends
and the sea begins.
If you want to get to Ke Ga Lighthouse, taking a canoe is highly recommended because it is
quick, convenient, and safe. Ke Ga Lighthouse is worth a visit during your Viet Nam tour, if
you want to experience daily life in a fishing village. The locals are very friendly, warm-
hearted, and sincere. Not surprisingly, they will often invite you to join them for a meal of
their freshly caught seafood, which will definitely awaken your taste buds.
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Ke Ga Cape - a travel destination in Vietnam.
B. The ways to preserve Ke Ga Cape.
C. How Ke Ga Cape attract tourists from all over the world.
D. Some interesting activities in Ke Ga Cape.
Question 32. What attracts most travellers to Ke Ga Cape?
A. the harmonious tones of the sea and sky.
B. the sight of clouds embracing the mountain peaks.
C. cliffs spreading out along the coast.
D. The red-yellow rays of the sun reflected in the waves.
Question 33. If you want to get to Ke Ga Lighthouse, you are highly recommended to take
______.
A. a bus B. a train C. a plane D. a canoe
Question 34. What are the locals in Ke Ga Lighthouse like?
A. loyal and funny B. warm-hearted and quick
C. friendly and sincere D. safe and convenient
Question 35. The word “enchanting” is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. attractive B. ugly C. special D. exciting
Question 36. The word “warm-hearted” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. kind B. useful C. gentle D. unfriendly
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question,
mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 40.
Braj Kachru was a Professor of Linguistics (37) ______. The term refers to the fact that
English has become a global means of communication with a lot of varieties.
In 1985, Kachru proposed a model of the different uses of English around the world. (38)
______. The first of these circles is the Inner Circle, which consists of the traditional English-
speaking countries, (39) ______. In these regions, English is the first language, and their
speakers provide the standards of English.
The next circle is the Outer Circle where English is not the first language but the second or
official language. The countries in this circle include India, Singapore, the Philippines,
Pakistan, Malaysia, etc. The speakers of these places follow the standards which the countries
in the Inner Circle provide.
The last circle is the Expanding Circle. (40) ______. Some of the countries in the Expanding
Circle are Brazil, Japan, Russia, and Viet Nam. Speakers of English in these places follow the
rules which the people in the Inner Circle have established.
A. who invented the term 'World Englishes'
B. People in this circle speak English as a foreign language
C. such as the UK, the USA, Australia, New Zealand, and Canada
D. There are three concentric circles in the model
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

ĐỀ SỐ 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1. A. natural B. pagoda C. landscape D. damage
Question 2. A. sauce B. skirt C. sugar D. steam
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. college B. degree C. language D. subject
Question 4. A. contestant B. destruction C. paradise D. appearance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 5. She had to prepare a lot for the meeting, ______?
A. had she B. didn’t she C. hadn’t she D. did she
Question 6. When I was a child, I ______ fly a kite in the field near my house.
A. use to B. am used to C. was used to D. used to
Question 7. I wish I ______ able to speak more than a language.
A. is B. were C. am D. was
Question 8. The bicycle ______ my parents gave me on my birthday was stolen yesterday.
A. which B. who C. what D. whom
Question 9. She suggested that we ______ money for the poor in the neighbourhood.
A. raising B. should raise C. to raise D. would raise
Question 10. She has just won the first prize in the singing contest. She is ______ about that.
A. out of this world B. once in a blue moon
C. the sky’s the limit D. over the moon
Question 11. My father loves ______ sightseeing in new places in the central part of
Vietnam.
A. making B. going C. looking D. taking
Question 12. Nga: “How about going to the movie theater tonight?” - Hieu: “______.”
A. I am glad you like it B. Great idea
C. You’re welcome D. Well done
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to
16.
GREAT BARRIER REEF TOUR, AUSTRALIA
* Dive with us to (13) ______ the most beautiful coral reef in the world
* Swim in (14) ______ with colourful fish
* Watch 3D documentaries (15) ______ about sea animals and the coral reef, and what you
can do to (16) ______ it
* Price: Only $99/adult & $59/child
* Time: 9 a.m. - 5 p.m. every day
Question 13. A. investigate B. discover C. explore D. detect
Question 14. A. deep blue sea B. blue deep sea C. sea blue deep D. blue sea
deep
Question 15. A. learn B. to learn C. learning D. to
learning
Question 16. A. reserve B. conserve C. maintain D. protect
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a
logical text.
You can do a lot of things with this small smartphone! ______
a. Besides standard text messaging and phone calls, it can keep you connected through
emails, video calls, and social networking apps.
b. Its camcorder will record important moments, so you can share them with friends.
C. This light, stylish phone has a special self-portrait feature that helps you send great photos
of yourself right away.
A. b-a-c B. c-b-a C. c-a-b D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most
appropriately.
A. To sum up, smartphones bring a lot of benefits to our lives.
B. Moreover, smartphones also have some disadvantages.
C. However, smartphones may cause many troubles.
D. Then, smartphones bring a lot of benefits to our lives.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19
to 24.
Traditionally, rural villages in Vietnam (19) ______ handicrafts when they were not busy
(20) ______ planting or harvesting crops. Over time, (21) ______ villages developed the
expertise to make specialized products and so particular villages became famous for such
things as weaving, woodwork, lacquer work and metal products. With I industrialization,
many villagers moved to the cities but maintained their craft skills and networks to produce
products for the city market, (22) ______, craft villages make furniture, grow flowers or
make utensils for the urban population. Other villages changed from (23) ______ traditional
crafts to producing different products desired by an industrialized (24) ______.
Question 19. A. produced B. produce C. have produced D. will produce
Question 20. A. in B. with C. of D.by
Question 21. A. much B. lot of C. many D. a
Question 22. A. however B. so C. for example D. and
Question 23. A. make B. to making C. to make D. making
Question 24. A. society B. social C. sociable D. socially
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. She said to him, “You should stop smoking.”
A. She warned him not to stop smoking.
B. She said to him you should stop smoking.
C. She advised him to stop smoking.
D. She asked him if he should stop smoking.
Question 26. No game show on VTV3 is as popular as “Olympia".
A. “Olympia" is not the most popular game show on VTV3.
B. "Olympia" is not as popular as other game shows on VTV3.
C. "Olympia" is the most popular game show on VTV3.
D. "Olympia" is as popular as other game shows on VTV3.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made
from the given cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. The woman / live / next door / donate / thousands of dollars / local charities /
every year.
A. The woman who lives next door donates thousands of dollars to local charities every year.
B. The woman lives next door donates thousands of dollars to local charities every year.
C. The woman who lives next door donating thousands of dollars to local charities every
year.
D. The woman which lives next door donates thousands of dollars to local charities every
year.
Question 28. Those students / volunteer / provide meals / schoolchildren / remote areas.
A. Those students volunteered to provide meals with schoolchildren in remote areas.
B. Those students volunteered to provide meals for schoolchildren in remote areas.
C. Those students volunteered provide meals for schoolchildren in remote areas.
D. Those students volunteered providing meals for schoolchildren in remote areas.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?
A. Dogs are welcome everywhere and can go anywhere.
B. Dogs are not allowed to enter or be in this area.
C. You may bring dogs here if they are on a leash.
D. Only small dogs are allowed in this area.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

IMPORTANT NOTICE
Class 10A English is in Room 4
today.
(2.30 start, as usual)
A. This lesson is in a different place today.
B. This lesson is not happening today.
C. This lesson begins a bit later today.
D. This lesson is only for class 10A.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Bamboo is an amazing plant. Did you know it is actually grass? In fact, giant bamboo is the
largest member of the grass family. Some types can grow an incredible 90 centimetres in just
one day. Some bamboo plants can grow to over 30 metres tall, which is as tall as a gum tree.
You probably know that bamboo is the favourite food of pandas, but chimpanzees, gorillas
and elephants eat it too.
Bamboo is also extremely useful to people. It is a very valuable construction material
because it is so strong. In fact, whole houses can be built from bamboo. In some parts of the
world, bamboo is used as scaffolding (the frame used to support building work).
The range of things that can be made from bamboo is huge. Furniture, cooking utensils, and
musical instruments can all be made from bamboo. Bamboo fibres can be used to produce a
soft, cotton-like material for T-shirts and underwear. Bamboo fibres are also used to make
paper. Bamboo can even be used to make bicycle frames and boats.
Question 31. Bamboo is a type of ______.
A. tree B. wood C. bush D. grass
Question 32. The word “useful” is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. helpless B. harmful C. helpful D. kind
Question 33. Which of the following are true EXCEPT ______.
A. bamboo plants can grow to over 30 metres tall
B. gorillas and elephants like to eat bamboo
C. bamboo can be used to make furniture, cooking utensils, and musical instruments
D. people use bamboo fibers to make boats
Question 34. According to the text, which part of a bicycle can be made from bamboo?
A. the frame B. the wheels C. the pedals D. the seat
Question 35. The main purpose of this text is.
A. to encourage people to use bamboo more often
B. to list everything that can be made from bamboo
C. to give interesting facts and uses for bamboo
D. to outline where bamboo is mainly grown and used
Question 36. The word “huge” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. various B. limited C. different D. small
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question,
mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 40.
If you want to learn English more quickly, lots of reading is important. When you read i in
English, (37) ______.
When you read, try to figure out the meaning of a new word from the words around it. Even
if you are not always correct, it is good to practise thinking about what a new word might
mean. (38) ______. The more words you understand, the better you will be able to read. A
dictionary - hard copy or online version - (39) ______. You should keep a list of new words,
their definitions, and a sentence for each word which shows how to properly use it. You can
keep this vocabulary list in a notebook you always have with you. (40) ______.
A. You may need to learn the meaning of a word or phrase
B. you can improve your vocabulary, grammar, and: writing at the same time
C. This helps you to revise what you have learnt wherever you are
D. can help you find the meanings of words which are new to you
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

ĐỀ SỐ 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 1. A. park B. start C. card D. catch
Question 2. A. culture B. student C. distance D. mistake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. protect B. offer C. reduce D. persuade
Question 4. A. position B. family C. century D. wonderful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 5. She went to Tay Ho village in Hue ______ she could buy some bai tho conical
hats.
A. although B. so that C. so as to D. therefore
Question 6. There are a lot of people who ______ work in remote areas nowadays.
A. voluntarily B. volunteers C. volunteered D. voluntary
Question 7. Simon hasn’t read that book before, ______?
A. did he B. does he C. is he D. has he
Question 8. She’s the woman ______ sister looks after the baby for us.
A. which B. who C. that D. whose
Question 9. After the spacecraft ______ into space, the crew started to observe the Earth.
A. travels B. had travelled C. was travelling D. has travelled
Question 10. Classical music isn’t my ______. I prefer K-pop.
A. cup of tea B. hot potato C. flesh and blood D. piece of cake
Question 11. She gave me a new handkerchief on which she ______ some beautiful flowers.
A. embroidered B. carved C. moulded D. knitted
Question 12.
Laura: Thank you for helping me with my project. - Jenny: “______”
A. It was an excellent project. B. Congratulations!
C. Well, I like it. D. You’re welcome.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to
16.
SAPA TREKKING TOUR, VIET NAM
* A three-day walk of 20 kilometres a day through the mountains (13) ______ the north of
Viet Nam
* Enjoy some of (14) ______ scenery
* Stay with local people (15) ______ about their culture and (16) ______ local food
* Price: $80/adult (children not allowed)
* Starts every Wednesday and Sunday
Question 13. A. on B. at C. during D. in
Question 14. A. the country’s most beautiful B. the most country’s beautiful
C. country’s most beautiful D. most country’s beautiful
Question 15. A. learning B. learn C. to learn D. learnt
Question 16. A. enjoy B. try C. prepare D. exchange
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a
logical text.
My mum first learnt sewing skills from my grandmother. She got her job as a tailor when she
was 16. ____________
a. Now she owns a small tailor shop in the village.
b. Though sometimes she has to work late at night, she finds her job rewarding because she
can satisfy her customers.
c. She has such an excellent sense of style that many ladies love the clothes she makes.
A. b-c-a B. a-c-b C. c-b-a D. a-b-c
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most
appropriately.
A. I think my mum has had a successful career in tailoring.
B. My mum is a very talented tailor.
C. This job gives my mum a lot of money.
D. Finally, my mum can make her own clothes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19
to 24.
There are a lot of disadvantages of living in a big city, and air pollution is among (19) ______
most serious problems. Firstly, air pollution comes from the factories in the city. Big cities
attract a lot of both inside and outside investments, (20) ______ the number of factories is
increasing quickly. This makes the air extremely (21) ______ by smoke from factories.
Secondly, that there are too many means of transportation also makes this problem worse.
Exhaust from cars, and motorbikes is one of the factors (22) ______ make the air polluted. To
conclude, air pollution, which is expected (23) ______ more and more people get many
serious (24) ______ such as lung cancer, tuberculosis and so on, is a big drawback of city
life.
Question 19. A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 20. A. therefore B. however C. so D. but
Question 21. A. pollutants B. pollute C. pollution D. polluted
Question 22. A. that B. where C. who D. when
Question 23. A. to making B. making C. make D. to make
Question 24. A. happiness B. diseases C. benefits D. accidents
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Because of the bad weather, the plane couldn’t touch down.
A. As the weather was not bad, the plane could touch down.
B. Because the weather was bad, the plane couldn’t touch down.
C. Since the weather is bad, the plane couldn’t touch down.
D. The plane could touch down due to the bad weather.
Question 26. You can improve your English pronunciation by talking to native English
speakers.
A. Unless you improve your English pronunciation, you can talk to native English speakers.
B. If you talk to native English speakers, you can improve your English pronunciation.
C. Unless you talk to native English speakers, you can improve your English pronunciation.
D. If you improve your English pronunciation, you can talk to native English speakers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made
from the given cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. They / very happy / share / stories / family and neighbors.
A. They are very happy sharing their stories with their family and neighbors.
B. They are very happy to share their stories with their family and neighbors.
C. They are very happy share their stories with their family and neighbors.
D. They are very happy that to share their stories with their family and neighbors.
Question 28. I / wish / there / not / environmental / problems / city.
A. I wish there won’t be environmental problems in our city.
B. I wish there hadn’t environmental problems in our city.
C. I wish there aren’t environmental problems in our city.
D. I wish there weren’t environmental problems in our city.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You are allowed to eat and drink here without any restrictions.
B. Eating and drinking are not permitted in this area at all times.
C. You can bring drinks but not food into this area.
D. Food is permitted but drinks are not allowed in this area.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

"Please keep your bus ticket with you at all times.

The transport officers might ask to see it during your
journey."
A. You need to keep your bus ticket with you. Officers might check it.
B. Transport officers will give you a bus ticket.
C. You do not need a bus ticket for the journey.
D. You can get your bus ticket from the transport officers.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Sleep is very important. Did you know that sleep is more important than food? A person who
does not sleep dies at a younger age than a person who does not eat. Let's say you go to sleep
12 hours later than you usually do. It will take your body about three weeks to return to
normal. We spend about one-third of our lives in sleep. That's about 121 days a year!
How much sleep do we need? We are all different. A baby needs 16 hours of sleep every day.
Children 6 to 12 years old need an average of 10 to 12 hours of sleep. A teenager needs ' 9 to
10 hours of sleep. An adult needs an average of 7 to 8 hours a night. There are some people
who need only 3 hours of sleep. Others need 10 hours of sleep. After the age of 50, the
average sleep time goes down to 6.5 hours a night. We need less sleep as we get older. Most
people have some nights when they cannot sleep. About one in three Americans has a
problem with sleep. Many of these people cannot fall asleep or stay asleep. The name of this
problem is insomnia. The word insomnia means "no sleep." Some people say, "I didn't sleep
all night." They may sleep lightly and wake up several times. In the morning, they only
remember the times they were awake, so they think they were awake all night.
This is not a new problem. Many famous people in history had insomnia. Some of these
people had special ideas to make them sleep. Benjamin Franklin, the famous statesman and
inventor, had four beds. He moved from one to the other to fall asleep. King Louis XIV of
France had 413 beds and hoped to fall asleep in one of them. Mark Twain, the famous
American writer, had a different way. He lay on his side across the end of the bed!
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to stay healthy and keep fit.
B. Sleep more to make you healthier.
C. General knowledge about sleep.
D. Different people need different hours of sleep every day.
Question 32. How many hours of sleep do people at the age of 10 need?
A. 16 hours B. 10 to 12 hours C. 9 to 10 hours D. 7 to 8 hours
Question 33. The phrase “goes down” is in OPPOSITE meaning to ______.
A. increases B. decreases C. changes D. improves
Question 34. The phrase “wake up” is in CLOSEST meaning to ______.
A. fall asleep B. stop dreaming C. stop sleeping D. try to sleep
Question 35. According to paragraph 2, which problem do Americans have?
A. insomnia B. sleep too much
C. have a night mare D. stay asleep
Question 36. Which of the following are true, EXCEPT ______.
A. Many famous people in history had insomnia.
B. We don’t sleep much as we get older.
C. Mark Twain moved from one to the other to fall asleep.
D. We spend about 121 days a year to sleep.
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question,
mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 40.
Plants and animals are an essential part of Earth's ecology. When we speak about a specific
habitat and time, we refer to them as flora and fauna. (37) ______. They are fascinating to
study due to their beauty and significance to human life.
First, the flora and fauna on Earth create an ecological balance, making life possible (J for
humans. Flora releases oxygen for humans. The carbon dioxide we breathe out is vital to
plants. Humans also rely on plants and animals for food, medicine, and water.
Second, plants and animals combine to create a food chain. In the food chain, (38) ______.
They feed on plants and, in turn, are the prey of other animals. Their droppings become
fertilisers for plants.
(39) ______. People love and appreciate the natural beauty, the relaxed feeling in green
spaces and water areas.
However, plants and animals are facing habitat loss, pollution, and climate change. To protect
them, we should raise people's awareness of their significance, (40) ______, and build nature
reserves for our wildlife.
A. Flora refers to plants and fauna refers to animals
B. stop hunting, plant more trees
C. the animals play an important part
D. Finally, plants and animals add a lot of beauty to our Earth
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________