lOMoARcPSD|55903010

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. CD-95 is a marker of
(a) death receptor (b) MHC complex (c) T helper cells (d) NK cells

2. Major fibril protein in primary amyloidosis

(a) AA (b) AL (c) transthyretin (d) procalcitonin

3. Which is a feature of reversible cell injury

(a) nuclear fragmentation (b) loss of membrane integrity (c) increased lysosomal enzyme (d) cellular swelling
release

4. Osmotic fragility is increased in

(a) Sickle cell anemia (b) thalassemia (c) hereditary spherocytosis (d) chronic lead poisoning

5. The strain used for demonstration of reticulocyte is

(a) wright stain (b) brilliant cresyl blue (c) alcian blue (d) giemsa stain

6. What is the primary effect of ROS on cellular components

(a) decreased lipid peroxidation (b) increased protein synthesis (c) oxidative damage to DNA (d) enhance membrane stability

7. HLA-B27 is associated with

(a) ankylosing spondylitis (b) rheumatoid arthritis (c) chronic active hepatitis (d) diabetes

8. What is not associated with DIC

(a) thrombocytopenia (b) increased PT (c) hyperfibrinogenemia (d) increased FDP

9. Cloud swelling is due to

(a) accumulation of water (b) fat accumulation intracellularly (c) lysosome degeneration (d) glycogen accumulation
intracellularly intracellularly

10. What is the hallmark of acute inflammation

(a) fibrosis (b) neutrophilic infiltration (c) angiogenesis (d) collagen deposition

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Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. 58-year-old female met with a road accident, she had multiple fractures which were operated upon and reduced and
fixed. On 5th post operative day, she developed gram negative septicemia. A day later she went into shock.
i. What type of shock would you classify this as?
ii. Discuss in detail, pathogenesis of this shock
iii. Classify shock
iv. Discuss management and complications of shock

b. A 2-year-old male child admitted to hospital with complaints of fever, weakness and bleeding. His CBC shows [Hb =
7.5gm%, TLC = 150000/mm3, DLC: Neutrophil = 2% Lymphocyte = 3% Blast cells = 95% Platelets = 4200/mm3] blasts show
high N:C ratio, large round nuclei with scanty basophilic cytoplasm containing rod shaped granules
i. What is your probable diagnosis?
ii. Classify the condition
iii. Draw labeled diagram of peripheral smear and bone marrow findings
iv. Discuss prognosis of condition

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Discuss pathogenesis & draw labelled diagram (Peripheral smear) of megaloblastic anaemia
b. Why P53 gene is known as Guardian of Genome?
c. What are different morphological patterns of tissue necrosis?
d. Name the different types of Antibodies which is present in patient of Systemic lupus erythematosus
e. Discuss role of Complement system in inflammation.
f. What is empathy, what is the role of empathy in patient care?

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Enumerate different stains used in amyloidosis

b. Draw labelled diagram of blood peripheral smear of iron deficiency anemia
c. What are the components of Virchow’s triad
d. Fat necrosis
e. Name different types of cellular adaptation
f. Draw a well labelled diagram of tubercular granuloma
g. Usefulness of tumour markers
h. M proteins
i. Rachitic rosary

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Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Medullary carcinoma in Thyroid is associated with increase in

(a) Calcitonin (b) Thyroglobulin (c) T3 (d) T4

2. Most common germ cell tumor of ovary is

(a) Dysgerminoma (b) Benign teratoma (c) Immature (d) Endodermal
teratoma sinus tumor

3. Most common soft tissue sarcoma is

(a) Fibrosarcoma (b) (c) Liposarcoma (d) Malignant
Rhabdomyosarcoma fibrous
histiocytoma

4. Bronchogenic Carcinoma has increased incidence in the following Pneumoconiosis

(a) Coal Worker (b) Silicosis (c) Asbestosis (d) Berylliosis
Pneumoconiosis

5. Macronodular cirrhosis is considered once nodule diameter is greater than -

(a) 1 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 4 mm

6. The most frequent form of primary glomerular disease in children is:

(a) Minimal (b) Acute (c) (d) Membranous
change disease glomerulonephritis Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
glomerulonephritis

7. Dystrophic calcification is seen in

(a) Rheumatic heart (b) Renal (c) Atheroma (d) Milk Alkali
disease Osteodystrophy Syndrome

8. Neuroendocrine lesion of lung is

(a) Carcinoid tumor (b) Alveolar (c) Hamartoma (d) Asthma
carcinoma

9. Tamm-Horsfall protein is produced by

(a) Ureter (b) Collecting duct (c) Loop of Henle (d) Distal tubule

10. Microdeletion lead to instability of DNA, causing the cell to undergo degeneration is seen as marker in which
cancer?
(a) Colon Cancer (b) Breast cancer (c) Small cell lung (d) Melanoma
cancer

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Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 12 Years old girl was brought with complaints of fever and joint pains of 5 days duration. She had pain and
swelling of left knee and also had a history of sore throat 3 weeks ago. On examination patient have
tachycardia and apical pansystolic murmur. (2+7+7+5)
I. What is your probable diagnosis?
II. Describe the etiopathogenesis of above condition.
III. Write about the cardiac lesion and lab findings seen in this case?
IV. List the complications of this Disease.

b. A 50 years old male presents to General Surgery Outpatient with complaints of gross painless hematuria and
pain in right flank. There is also history of loss of 10 kg weight in the last 6 months. On physical examination, a
right-sided flank mass is palpable on bi-manual examination.
I. What is the probable diagnosis?
II. Discuss the clinical correlation with pathogenesis of the features.
III. How will you investigate and confirm the diagnosis?

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. CIN
b. List the causes of nephrotic syndrome with its pathophysiology.
c. Write down about pathogenesis underlying Diabetes with its complication?
d. Describe the gross and microscopic findings in patient with lobar pneumonia with likely complication.
e. Describe the contrasting features of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Disease.
f. How do you investigate a case of Myocardial Infarction?

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Asbestos bodies.
b. Seminoma.
c. Carcinoid syndrome.
d. Goodpasture syndrome.
e. Enumerate four gross and microscopic findings of bronchiectasis.
f. Write four differences between typhoid ulcer and tubercular ulcer of intestine.
g. Write four differences between unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin.
h. Enumerate four liver function tests.
i. Enumerate four gross and microscopic findings of leiomyoma of uterus.
j. Enumerate four CSF findings of tubercular meningitis.

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Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

MBBS Second Professional Examination April-2024
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Caseation necrosis occurs in

(a) Infective hepatitis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Amoebiasis (d) Glomerulonephritis

2. Eosinophilia occurs in
(a) Viral infections (b) Fungal infections (c) Acute pyogenic (d) Parasitic infections
infections

3. Healing by first intention requires

(a) Clean wounds (b) Minimal loss of tissue (c) No foreign bodies (d) All of the above

4. All of the following are mediators of inflammation except-

(a) Tumor necrosis factor- (b) Interleukin-1 (c) Myeloperoxidase (d) Prostaglandin
alpha

5. Vasoactive amine involved in inflammation is -

(a) Histamine (b) Rennin (c) Angiotensin (d) Endothelin

6. Zeihl Neelsen stain detects-

(a) Gram negative bacilli (b) Gram positive bacilli (c) Acid fast bacilli (d) Gram positive cocci

7. Factor VIII deficiency causes-

(a) Hemophilia A (b) Hemophilia B (c) Hemophilia c (d) Hemophilia D

8. Iron absorption is increased by -

(a) Phytates (b) Tannates (c) Plant food (d) Ascorbic acid

9. True about apoptosis are all except-

(a) Inflammation is present (b) Chromosomal (c) Clumping of chromatin (d) Cell shrinkage
breakage

10. Morphologic changes in necrosis include

(a) Damage of cell (b) Pyknosis (c) Karyorrhexis (d) All of the above
membrane

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Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 20-year-old girl complains of weakness, easy fatigability and breathlessness of 6 months duration. She also
complains of heavy menstrual bleeding every month. On examination, she is pale and has spoon shaped
brittle nails and cheilosis.

I. What is provisional diagnosis?

II. Discuss its etiopathogenesis.
III. Describe the peripheral and bone marrow findings.
IV. Describe laboratory investigation.

b. A 55year old male patient presents with progressive fatigue, weight loss and edema in legs. Laboratory tests
reveal elevated levels of protein in urine, Congo red was used to diagnose it in abdominal fat aspirates.
Deposits in spleen show sago spleen and lardaceous spleen. On physical examination, he has hepatomegaly
and macroglossia.

I. Identify the clinical condition

II. What are its types and classification?
III. What is its pathogenesis
IV. Systemic features on different organs

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Define inflammation. Describe the vascular changes in acute inflammation.

b. Define necrosis. Describe its types with suitable examples
c. Define and describe the pathogenesis of AIDS.
d. Difference between metastatic and dystrophic calcification
e. Define hypersensitivity reaction and its different types, with 1 example each
f. Define shock with pathogenesis of septic shock.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Virchow's triad
b. Paraneoplastic syndrome
c. Embolism
d. Pancytopenia
e. Enumerate giant cell
f. Difference between intravascular and extravascular hemolysis
g. Enumerate factors that influences tissue repair
h. Enumerate 4 microscopic findings of granuloma
i. Write differences between myeloblasts and lymphoblasts
j. Causes of chronic granulomatous inflammation

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Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

MBBS Second Professional Examination August-2024
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which virus is not transmitted parenterally -

(a) Hepatitis B (b) Hepatitis C (c) Hepatitis G (d) Hepatitis E

2. In which condition are Aschoff bodies seen -

(a) Rheumatoid arthritis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Rheumatic heart (d) Sarcoidosis
disease

3. Which of the following is the most common primary site for bone metastasis -
(a) Prostate (b) Breast (c) Lung (d) Kidney

4. Most Common type of Renal stone is -

(a) Calcium Oxalate (b) Uric acid (c) Phosphate (d) Cystine

5. In which of the following conditions is Reed-Sternberg cells seen -

(a) Non-Hodgkin (b) Hodgkin lymphoma (c) Chronic lymphocytic (d) Multiple myeloma
lymphoma leukemia

6. The most common primary sites for the origin of Paget's disease is -
(a) Nipple (b) Anal canal (c) Liver (d) Penis

7. Diabetes Insipidus is -
(a) Excess ADH (b) Excess cortisol (c) Decrease Cortisol (d) Decreased ACTH

8. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by -

(a) Inflammation of the (b) Chronic inflammation (c) Autoimmune disorder (d) Malabsorption
small intestine of the colon affecting the esophagus syndrome

9. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that affects the -

(a) Brain (b) Spinal cord (c) Peripheral nerves (d) Muscles

10. Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children is -

(a) RPGN (b) PSGN (c) Minimal change disease (d) Focal GN

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Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 68-year-old man complains of cramping abdominal pain, recent change in bowel habits and significant
weight loss. Hematological investigations show microcytic hypochromic anemia. Colonoscopy reveals a
circumferential growth in the sigmoid colon.

I. What is the diagnosis in this case? (5marks)

II. Discuss briefly the etiopathogenesis of this condition. (5marks)
III. Describe the morphology of this condition. (5marks)
IV. Premalignant condition associated with this disease. (5marks)

b. A middle-aged known smoker presented with persistent cough with expectoration and evening raise in
temperature in the last two weeks. Chest x ray identified consolidation in the lower portion of the upper lobe
of right lung. Hilar lymphadenopathy was noted. Sputum examination detected acid fast bacilli.

I. What is the most probable diagnosis? (5marks)

II. Discuss briefly the etiopathogenesis of this condition. (5marks)
III. Describe the gross and microscopic findings. (5marks)
IV. Describe two complications. (5marks)

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. What are the common causes of anemia, and how are they classified based on their morphology and
etiology?
b. Discuss the diagnostic pathologic criteria of rheumatic heart disease.
c. How does pneumonia lead to consolidation?
d. Discuss the renal changes in diabetes mellitus.
e. Mention four important differences between Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis.
f. Enumerate the CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Wilms Tumor.
b. What is peptic ulcer.
c. Describe bronchitis.
d. Carcinoid tumor.
e. Paraneoplastic Syndrome.
f. Write the gene involved in retinoblastoma.
g. Enlist histopathological features of Papillary of Carcinoma thyroid.
h. Mention four causes of Congenital Hyperbilirubinemia.
i. Polyps of intestine.
j. Basal cell carcinoma.

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Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

MBBS Second Professional Examination January-2025
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. The anticoagulant of choice for performing coagulation studies is:

(a) EDTA (b) Heparin (c) Trisodium citrate (d) Double oxalate

2. All of the following findings are seen in DIC except:

(a) Prolonged PT and APTT (b) Thrombocytopenia (c) Raised plasma (d) Presence of fibrin
fibrinogen levels degradation products

3. Malignant neoplasm of epithelial cell origin is known as:

(a) Sarcoma (b) Papilloma (c) Carcinoma (d) Adenoma

4. Good Prognosis of ALL:

(a) Hyperdiploidy (b) Hypodiploidy (c) T-cell line (d) Philadelphia
Chromosome

5. Pigments involved in free radical injury:

(a) Lipofuscin (b) Melanin (c) Bilirubin (d) Hematin

6. In Hemodialysis associated amyloidosis, the biochemical type of amyloid is:

(a) AL type (b) AA type (c) A-Beta 2M (d) ATTR

7. What is the chromosomal translocation in AML M3:

(a) T(18,21) (b) T(15,17) (c) T(8,21) (d) T(9,11)

8. UV-radiation:
(a) Prevent formation of (b) Stimulate formation of (c) Purine dimers (d) None
pyrimidine dimers pyrimidine dimers

9. Mallory bodies contain:

(a) Vimentin (b) Cytokeratins (c) Keratins (d) Collagens

10. Lead poisoning causes the following except:

(a) Uroporphyrinuria (b) Sideroblastic Anemia (c) Basophilic Stippling (d) Macrocytic Anemia

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Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 62-year-old woman presented with Anaemia, mild jaundice, Glossitis, Peripheral Neuropathy, anorexia and
weight loss. Her laboratory findings are: Hb 8gm/dl, TRBC count 2.4 million/cumm, MCV120fl, MCH54pg,
MCHC25g/dl.

I. What is the most likely diagnosis?

II. What are the possible causes?
III. Write morphological findings in peripheral smear and bone marrow.
IV. What other investigations required in this case?

b. A 55-year-old male patient presents with progressive fatigue, weight loss and edema in legs. Laboratory tests
reveal elevated levels of protein in urine, Congo red was used to diagnose it in abdominal fat aspirates.
Deposits in spleen show sago spleen and lardaceous spleen. On physical examination he has hepatomegaly
and macroglossia.

I. Identify the clinical condition

II. What are its types and classification?
III. What is its pathogenesis
IV. Systemic features on different organs

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. Paraneoplastic syndrome
b. Diagnostic criteria of Multiple myeloma.
c. Hemophilia
d. Role of compliments in inflammation.
e. Define hypersensitivity reaction. Write in detail about Type-I hypersensitivity reactions.
f. Blood Transfusion reactions.

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Draw a labelled diagram of peripheral blood smear in iron deficiency anemia.

b. Leukemoid Reaction.
c. Vitamin C.
d. Tumor Markers.
e. Enumerate childhood round cell tumor.
f. Turner’s syndrome.
g. Bence-jones proteins.
h. Virchow's triad
i. Embolism
j. Difference between intravascular and extravascular hemolysis.

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Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

MBBS Second Professional Examination January-2025
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- II (new scheme)
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

1. Which virus is not transmitted parenterally?

(a) Hepatitis B (b) Hepatitis C (c) Hepatitis G (d) Hepatitis E

2. In which condition are Aschoff bodies seen?

(a) Rheumatoid arthritis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Rheumatic heart (d) Sarcoidosis
disease

3. The most common primary site for the origin of Paget's disease is:
(a) Nipple (b) Anal canal (c) Liver (d) Penis

4. Which of the following is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?

(a) Hypertension (b) Coronary artery (c) Aortic stenosis (d) Pulmonary embolism
thrombosis

5. In which of the following conditions are Reed-Sternberg cells seen?

(a) Non-Hodgkin (b) Hodgkin lymphoma (c) Chronic lymphocytic (d) Multiple myeloma
lymphoma leukemia

6. Hypothyroidism is associated with all of the following except:

(a) Cretinism (b) Autism (c) Cold intolerance (d) Weight gain

7. Not a germ cell tumor:

(a) Seminoma (b) Yolk sac tumor (c) PNET (d) Dysgerminoma

8. Tamm-Horsfall protein is produced by:

(a) Distal tubules (b) Ureter (c) Loop of Henle (d) Collecting duct

9. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that affects the:

(a) Brain (b) Spinal cord (c) Peripheral nerves (d) Muscles

10. Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children is:

(a) RPGN (b) PSGN (c) Minimal change disease (d) Focal GN

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Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40

a. A 52-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her right breast. On examination, the lump is hard,
irregular, and fixed to the underlying tissue. There are palpable axillary lymph nodes. A mammogram shows a
mass with micro calcifications. A biopsy is performed.

I. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most likely histological diagnosis? (05
Mark)
II. What are the key prognostic factors for breast carcinoma? (05 Mark)
III. Describe the significance of immune histochemical staining in the diagnosis and prognosis of breast
carcinoma. (05 Mark)
IV. What are the histological features of Paget's disease of the breast? (05 Mark)

b. A middle-aged known smoker presented with persistent cough with expectoration and evening raise in
temperature in the past two weeks. Chest x ray identified consolidation in the lower portion of the upper lobe
of right lung. Hilar lymphadenopathy was noted. Sputum examination detected acid fast bacilli.

I. What is the most probable diagnosis? (5marks)

II. Discuss the pathogenesis. (5marks)
III. Describe the gross and microscopic findings (5 marks)
IV. Mention two complications (5marks)

Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30

a. What are the common causes of anemia, and how are they classified based on their morphology and
etiology?
b. Discuss the diagnostic pathologic criteria of rheumatic heart disease
c. Enumerate the CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis
d. Describe in detail about melanoma?
e. How does hypertension lead to left ventricular hypertrophy?
f. Enlist the Classification of ovarian tumors

Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

a. Describe various types of giant cells?

b. Paraneoplastic Syndrome
c. Enlist histopathological features of Papillary of Carcinoma thyroid
d. Explain the characteristic renal histopathological finding in diabetic nephropathy and its clinical significance.
e. Mention four causes of Congenital Hyperbilirubinemia
f. Write the gene involved in retinoblastoma?
g. Enumerate HPV associated malignancies
h. Write all the parameters of complete blood count report (CBC)?
i. Write the battery of test for viral hepatitis?
j. Wilms Tumor

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