Microbiology final

Isolation of Pseudomonas aeruginosa from a mucoid sputum specimen obtained from a

patient with cystic fibrosis is usually done by standard culture method. After the incubation,
mucoid bacterial colonies can be seen on the agar media which have a grape - like odor, what
are the best growth temperature and incubation period for the given bacteria?

 42 degree Celsius for 48 hours

 37 degree Celsius for 48 hours
 42 degree Celsius for 24 hours
 37 degree Celsius for 42 hours
What may the negative result for a glucose test on the API 20E strip indicate? (****)

 The tested bacterium did not grow in this microtube

 The tested bacterium is not from the Enterobacteriaceae family
 The tested bacterium belongs to Enterobacteriaceae
 Both a and b are correct
Some of the tubes of the API 20E strip need to be filled with the bacterial suspension right to
the very top and including the cupule area. Which are these tubes?

 CIT, H2S, VP
 ADH, CIT, VP
 ADH, LDC, ODC
 CIT, VP , GEL
The Elementary body outer membrane is similar to that of Gram negative organism, most
prominent component is the

 Vacuole
 Mitochondria
 Major outer membrane protein
 Ribosome
Which of following bacteria has been extensively used for insect pest control (by producing
toxic protein ystals)? (****)

 Staphylococcus aureus
 Escherichia coli
 Penicillum notatum
 Bacillus thuringiensis
Which of the following is NOT a complication of infections caused by S. pyogenes (quiz)

 Rheumatic fever
 Joint inflammation
 Heart valve damage
 Enterocolitis
 Glomerulonephritis
Which of the following is true about the structure of Gram positive cell wall

 is composed of thin peptidoglycan layer

 periplasmic space is absent
 include significant amount of teichoic and lipoteichoic acids
 include outer membrane
laboratory diagnosis of Leptospires using either Blood or CSF requires the urine to be prior to
inoculation on Fletcher's medium in the Dark

 Evaporated
 Diluted
 Sterilized
 Concentrated
What were the symptoms of the Black Death?

 Black swellings the size of eggs on the armpits or groin

 Fever, headaches, and vomiting
 Dark spots on the skin
 White spots on the skin
Which of the following statements about drug resistance is TRUE? (quiz)

 It may be carried on a plasmid

 It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation
 It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics
 It is found only in gram-negative bacteria
 It may be due to increased uptake of a drug.
Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE

 It may be carried on a plasmid

 it may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation
 it may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics
 it is found only in gram-negative bacteria
 it may be due to increased uptake of a drug
What is the minimum recommended number and timing of specimens for the diagnosis of
pulmonary TB? ‫السل الرئوي‬

 Three carty morning sputum specimens

 Two sputum specimens collected one hour apart
 Three sputum specimens taken on the same day
 One early morning sputum plus one blood sample
A patient receiving medical treatment for an active tuberculosis infection asks when she can
starting going out in public again. You respond that she is no longer contagious when:

 She has 3 negative sputum cultures

 Her signs and symptoms improve
 She has completed the full medication regime
 Her chest x-ray is normal
 She has been on tuberculosis medications for about 3 week
People at risk of developing cholera include

 People with low immunity

 People with blood group A
 Young adults
 None of the above
Which of the following methods of physical control non-specifically alters proteins and
nucleic acids?

 Gamma radiation
 Electron radiation
 Ultraviolet radiation
 Electron beam radiation
 Non-ionizing radiation
The skin's normal microbiota contain large numbers of

 gram-positive bacteria
 gram-negative bacteria
 fungi.
 acid-fast bacteria
All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT

 Streptococcus
 Micrococcus
 Staphylococcus
  Propionibacterium
 Corynebacterium

Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria

because

 It grows in disinfectants.
 It is a gram-negative rod.
 it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients.
 It causes melioidosis.
 Its rRNA sequence is similar to that of other Burkholderia betaproteobacteria.
A system for giving each organism a two-word scientific name that consists of the genus
name followed by the species name, is called

 Theory of biogenesis
 Spontaneous generation
 Binomial nomenclature
 Germ theory of disease
 Bioremediation
Food most often associated with an emetic type of food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus,
is

 Meat
 Rice ‫زر‬
 Milk
 Eggs
What is the primary purpose of keeping doors and windows closed during the laboratory
session? (version)

 To reduce the incidence of contamination from microbes traveling in the air

 To reduce noise levels
 To maintain the temperature within the optimal growth range for the bacterial cultures
 To limit the access to the lab during the laboratory session
Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be diagnosed from the pigment, known as

 Pyocyanin
  Pyoverdin
 Pyomelanin
 Pyorubrin

The bacteria which is novobiocinsensitive is

 S. aureus
 S.epidermidis
 S.saprophyticus
The process of complete removal of all life froms including endospores is called (version )

 Pasteurization
 Fermentation
 Sterilization ‫التعقيم‬
 Bioremediation
Scientist, who provided the experimental steps to prove that a specific microbe causes a
specific disease, and specifically linked anthrax to Bacillis anthracis, was (0.35)

 Robert Hook
 Robert Koch
 Louis Pasteur
 Paul Ehrlich
 Alexander Fleming
Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched for Gram reaction?

 Lyme disease gram-negative spiral organisms

 Tularemia gram-negative rods
 anthrax gram-positive rods
 Rocky Mountain spotted fever gram-negative spiral organisms
 Plague gram-positive rods
In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike? (quiz)

 Both are broad spectrum.

 Both are resistant to penicillinase.
 Both are resistant to stomach acids.
 Both are bactericidal.
  Both are based on B-lactam
In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike ?(quiz )

 Both are broad spectrum

 Both are resistant to penicillinase
 Both are bactericidal
 Both are based on B-lactam
The microorganisms that grow best in a low-oxygen environment is called a

 aerobe
 anaerobe
 facultative
 microaerophile
What does B. cereus produce that causes symptoms associated with food poisoning, such as
vomiting and diarrhea?

 Toxins
 Poisons
 Endospores
 Bacteria
Dysentery may be caused by

 enteropathogenic Escherichia coli

 enteroinvasive E. coli
 enterotoxigenic E. coli
 verotoxigenic E. coli
Human pathogens are

 Halophiles
 Psychrophiles
 Mesophiles
 Thermophiles
 Extreme thermophiles
Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram-positive bacterial
infections due to

 A-B toxins
 lipid A
 membrane-disrupting toxins
  superantigens
 erythrogenic toxin
The ratio of the velocity of light in a vacuum to its velocity in a specified medium is

 magnification
 illumination
 glycemic index
 refractive index
Which of the following is mismatched?

 Corynebacterium gram-positive rod

 Mycobacterium acid-fast rod
 Bordetella gram-positive pleomorphic rod
 Haemophilus gram-negative rod
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal
infections?

 amphotericin B
 bacitracin
 cephalosporin
 penicillin G.
 Tetracyclines
 polymyxin
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is frequently associated with the hospital-acquired bacterial A
spore differs from an actively replicating bacterium in that the spore

 is produced during a process involving asymmetric division

 is able to withstand more extreme conditions than the replicating cell
 is metabolically inactive
 is metabolically active
A spore differs from an actively replicating bacterium in that the spore

 is produced during a process involving asymmetric division

 is able to withstand more extreme conditions than the replicating cell
 is metabolically active
 is metabolically inactive **
Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT (quiz)

 strep throat
  scarlet fever
 rheumatic fever
 pharyngitis
 epiglottitis
Which of the following is colonizing majority of insects?

 Wolbachia
 Bdellovibrio
 Azomonas
 Pseudomonas
Which respiratory pathogen produces a highly potent exotoxin inhibiting protein synthesis? Q

 Streptococcus pneumoniae
 Corynebacterium diphtheriae
 Mycobacterium tuberculosis
 Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is frequently associated with the hospital-acquired bacterial
infection, mostly affecting immunocompromised patients. Which of the following is/are
example/examples of the various means by which bacteria can transfer and cause infection
to the susceptible patient?

 Healthcare workers
 Contaminated equipment
 Air droplets
 All of the above
Which of the following infection(s) can be caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? (quiz)

 Urinary tract infection

 Wound and burn infection
 Respiratory
 tract infection
 All of these
Which of the following is true of undernutrition and TB?

 Undernutrition is a risk factor for TB

 Tuberculosis can lead to undernutrition
 Undernutrition worsens severity of tuberculosis
 Undernutrition is associated with adverse outcomes in TB patients
 All of the above
Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription? (quiz)

 a new strand of DNA

 rRNA
 tRNA
 MRNA
 None of the answers are correct; all of these are products of transcription.
TB cannot occur in the :

 Upper lobes
 Lower lobes
 Lingula
 RML
 None of the above
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Neisseria? (version)

 Diplococci
 gram-negative
 Some species have capsule
 None of them are pathogenic to humans
The reaction(s) that is/are usually positive in Escherichia coli, is/ are

 Glucose fermentation
 Indole reaction
 Methyl red reaction
 Urease and citrate utilization
 oxidase-positive
Which of the following is true about mycoplasma?

 Multiplication is by binary fission

 Resistant to antibiotics targeting cell wall synthesis 0.30
 Eukaryotes.
 Obligately parasitic
 Can't be grown on cell - free media.
The substance(s) which can be produced by strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is / are

 Exotoxins A and S
 Elastase
 Haemolysins
 Coagulase
Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to which of the following *****

 antibiotic resistance.
 climatic changes.
 new strains of previously known agents.
 ease of travel.
Which of the following are characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

 rod-shaped.
 gram-positive cell wall
 resistance to many types of disinfectants and antibiotics.
 growth in moist environments.
 production of pyocyanin.

All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT

• rod-shaped.
• gram-positive cell wall
• resistance to many types of disinfectants and anbiotics.
• growth in moist environments
• production of pyocyanin
Involving Chlamydia trachomatis, which form starts the growth cycle by infecting a
susceptible host cell by inducing energy - requiring active phagocytosis (quiz )

 Elementary Body
 Reticulate body
Lag phase is a period following the introduction of microorganisms into fresh culture medium
when there is no increase in cell numbers or mass during batch culture

 True
 false
Interferon-gamma release assays (e.g., TB Gold) and Mantoux skin test cannot distinguish
between latent infection and active (pulmonary or extrapulmonary) disease. True or False?

 True
 False
Botulinum toxin works by preventing release of acetylcholine by synaptic vesicles,

 true
 false
Coxiella burnetti is the cuasative agent of Q fever. (quiz)

 True
 False
Cholera is spread through intake of contaminated water or food in places that lack adequate
sanitation facilities. (quiz)

 true
 false
The flagella is a structure which allows substances in and out of the bacteria.

 true
 false
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is diphtheria toxin: an A-B
exotoxin; inhibits protein synthesis.

 true
 false
Streptococcus pyogenes is the most common and most important bacteria responsible for
pharyngitis ‫(االتهاب البلعوم‬version )

 True
 false
Hektoen enteric agar and Salmonella-Shigella agar, are Selective media for the isolation of
Shigella.

 True
 False
P. multocida is the most common cause of wound infections after dog or cat bites.

 true
 false
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
epidemiology. ‫علم االوبئة‬

 true
 false
Oral cholera vaccines provide life-long immunity.

 true
  false
Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects. ‫( اشياء متحركة‬version)

 true
 false
Size of bacteria is best measured in nanometers. (micrometers)

 True
 false
The least severe of the rickettsial infections is Rocky Mountain fever.

 true
 false
Patients with respiratory anthrax show flu - like symptoms, eventually causing respiratory
distress

 true
 false
The darkfield microscope is best used for observing the surfaces of bacterial cells and viruses.

 True
 false
Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that that
intoxications can be treat antibiotics (version (Have shorter incubation times)

 true
 false
DNase test is used to differentiate S.epidermidis from S.aureus

 true
 false
DNase test is used to differentiate S.epidermidisfrom S.saprophyticus

 True
 False
Most common stains used in gram staining is crystal violet and methyl blue.

 True
 False
Two names of microorganisms – genus and a specific epithet( species) both are capitalized.

 True
 False
The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by Lister.

 True
 False

Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?

 nucleus
 mitochondrion
 Golgi complex
 vacuole
 cell wall
Which of the following staining procedures use(s) heat to drive the stain in?

 acid-fast stain 0.20

 Gram stain 0.0
 endospore stain
 capsule stain
 Both acid fast and endospore stains 0.0
The main constituent of a Gram positive cell wall is Peptidoglycan.

 True
 False
Immersion Oil is used to clean the lenses of a microscope.

 True
 False
When first focusing your microscope you should use the High power objective.

 True
 False
Some organisms can synthesize organic molecules from inorganic nutrientsand are termed as

 Lithotrophs 0.35
 Autotrophs 0.0025
 Phototrophs
 Chemotrophs
 Photoorganotrophs 00
A plate count method in which inoculum is spread over the surface of a solid culture medium

 streak plate method

 pour plate method
 spread plate method
 filtration method
If 85 colonies are on the plate of 1/10000 dilution per ml, then what would be the number of
cells per ml in the initial sample?

 8500
 85000
 850000
 8500000
Media contain ingredients such as sodium thioglycolate that chemically combine with
dissolved oxygen and deplete the oxygen in the culture medium is reducing medium

 True
 False
Which of the following techniques may be performed quantitatively to determine the
number of bacteria of a particular type?

 Pour plate **
 Spread plate 0.30
 Streak plate technique
Which of the following is bactericidal?

 Membrane filtration
 ionizing radiation
 Freeze-drying
 Deep freezing
A(n)____is used to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogen growth on animal
tissues.
  bacteriostatic agent
 disinfectant
 antiseptic
________ is the suffix that indicates a chemical or process inhibits growth or multiplication of
bacteria.

 –a
 -stat
 -cide
Wolbachia infects over a million species of

 Insects;
 mammals;
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation

 replicates DNA
 transfers DNA vertically, to new cells
 transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation
 transcribes DNA to RNA
 copies RNA to make DNA
Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both
eukaryotes and prokaryotes use codons to determine polypeptide sequences.

 True
 False
A genus can best be defined as a taxon composed of one or more species and below family

 True
 False
The ID50 is

 a measure of pathogenicity
 the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population
 the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population
 the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population
Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?

 toxin production
 evasion of host defenses
 numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host
  numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses
 numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and
toxin production
Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection?

 the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection

 the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by coli
 the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection
 the fever, nausea, and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection
 the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection
Droplet transmission-microbes are spread in mucus droplets on short distances( <1m)

 True
 False
Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?

 using syringes more than once

 normal microbiota on the operating room staff
 errors in aseptic technique
 antibiotic resistance
Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against

 viruses.
 bacteria.
 fungi.
 protozoa.
 All of the answers are correct.
Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against viruses.

 True
 False
Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against bacteria

 True
 False
In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because

 it lacks a cell wall.

 it plasmolyzes.
  it undergoes lysis.
 it lacks a cell membrane.
 its contents leak out.
An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of
activity.

 True
 False
Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in synergism because they display the same
mode of action.

 True
 False
Penicillin and streptomycin display the same mode of action.

 True
 False
All of the following organisms causing meningitis are transmitted via the respiratory route
EXCEPT

 Neisseria meningitidis.
 Haemophilus influenzae. 0
 Listeria monocytogenes. 0.0025
 Cryptococcus neoformans. 0.0
 None of the answers is correct; all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory
route.
Anthrax mostly affects animals such as pigs, cattle, horses, camels and goats.

 True
 False
_____________ is the most common and most important bacteria responsible for
pharyngitis?

 Corynebacterium diphtheriae
 Haemophilus influenzae (type B)
 Staphylococcus aureus
 Streptococcus Pyogenes (group A B-hemolytic)
__________ test is used to differentiate Staphylococci from Enterococci

 CAMT test
  Coagulase test
 Citrate test
 Catalase Test
The reagent used to distinguish staphylococci from streptococci is Oxidase

 True
 False

The bacteria involved in the production of dental caries is/are

 S sanguis
 Streptococcus mutans 0.0025
 Streptococcus aureus
 Streptococcus epidermidis
One of the microorganisms involved in the formation of dental caries is:

 S. aureus 0
 S. epidermidis 0
 S. pyogenes 0
 S. mutans 0.0055
 S sanguis

Campilobacter Jejuni

 Belongs to family vibrio

 Is Rod-shaped and curved Gram , Ox -, Aerotolerant anaerobe, Psychrophilic 0.0
 Is Rod-shaped and curved Gram , Ox +, obligate anaerobe, mesophils 0.0025
 Belongs to family Enterobacteriaceae
 Is Rod shaped and curved, Gram , ox -, Microaerophilie, Thermophilic
Which of the following Gram-negative rod is not a blood-borne bacterial pathogen?

 Escherichia coli
 Burkholderia glanders
 Shigella spp

Traveller's diarrhea is caused by entero toxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

  True
 False
Each of the 3 virulence factors of Bacillus anthracis i.e. the capsule, edema toxin and lethal
toxin can affect the activity of macrophages.

 True
 False
Human pathogenic bacteria is/are

 All of these
Pseudomonas aeruginosa can infect plants as well as humans?

 True
 False
P. aeruginosa is motile by several peri-trichous flagellae?

 True
 False
The most pathogenic Brucella spp for man is

 B melitensis
How did the European population become infected by the plague?

 Any of these

Humans become infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis most frequently by

 inhalation
 ingestion
 contact
Hot tubs are a high risk environment for Legionella growth.

 True
 False
In the natural environment, Legionella lives within amoebae such as Acanthamoeba spp

 True
 False
Borrelia is made up of several species of spirochetes, similar in morphology but different in
pathogenic properties. Borrelia burgodorferi causes Lyme disease.

 True
 False
Borrelia is made up of several species of spirochetes, similar in morphology but different in
pathogenic properties. Borrelia recurrentis causes _________
Relapsing fever

Chlamydia has two unique growth cycle with two distinct forms. The reticulate body is the
noninfectious form.

 True
 False
Chlamydia increases the risk of which of these other diseases in women?

 HIV
 Cervical cancer
 Leukemia

How do all viruses differ from all bacteria?

 Viruses are filterable

 viruses are obligate intracellular parasites;
 Viruses do not have any nucleic acid:
 Viruses are not composed of cells
Which dilution of household bleach must be used for decontamination of spilled body fluids

 1:1 for 10 minutes

 1:10 for 10 minutes
 1:100 for 10 minutes
Regarding Louis Pasteur’s experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following
statements is TRUE?

 Air exchange was involved.

 A food source was provided.
 The possibility of contamination was removed.
  All preexisting microorganisms were killed.
According to Koch’s postulates the first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease
is to inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy
animal.

 True
 False
Some viruses can contain both DNA and RNA.

 True
 False
Which of the following organisms contain 70S ribosomes?

 Mitochondria
 Prokaryotes
 Chloroplasts
 Animal cells
The bacteria deficient in cell wall is

 Mycoplasma
The Magnification of commonly used modern light microscopes is

 1500x
 100x
Why does immersion oil improve resolution?

 It decreases the working distance.

 It allows light to travel at a uniform speed on its way to the lens.
 It increases the angle of refraction of the light
The outer membrane contains porins.

 True
 False
Essential organic compounds an organism is unable to synthesize

 Peroxide anion
 Trace elements
 Organic growth factors
 Biofilm
Is the pictured graph growth, decay, or linear or none?

 Growth
 Decay
 None
 Linear
Chemotrops are organisms which

 use carbon dioxide as a carbon souree

 use organic compounds as a carbon source
 use light as an energy sour
 depend on oxidation-reduction reactions of inorganic or organic compounds for energy
Trypticase soy broth or TSB is a liquid media

 True
 False
Generation time is the time required for a microbial population to double in number

 True
 False
Which of the following does not kill endospores?

 Plastic bags
 Autoclave
 Incineration
 Hot air sterilization
 Pasteurization
Autoclaving uses ________ to sterilize.

 steam and pressure.

A disinfectant is normally used on the skin.

 True
 False
Bacterial cell-to-cell contact is required for transduction to occur.

 True
 False
The arrangement of organisms into taxa shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.

 True
 False
The plasmid-mediated properties is/are

 fermentation of lactose
 production of enterotoxin
 resistance to antibiotics
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

 Leukocidins destroy neutrophils

 Hemolysins lyse red blood cells
 Hyaluronidase breaks down substance between cells
 kinase destroy fibrin clots
 coagulase destroy blood clots
All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT

 M protein.
 ligands.
 fimbriae.
 capsules.
 A-B toxins.
Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE?

 It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes.

 It is found on fimbriae.
 It is heat- and acid-resistant.
 It is readily digested by phagocytes.
 It is a protein.
The M protein enhances the virulence of Streptococcus by preventing phagocytosis.
• True
• False
A nosocomial infection is
  always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.
 acquired during the course of hospitalization.
 always caused by medical personnel.
 only a result of surgery.
 always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
The spread of disease agents via contaminated water is an example of vehicle transmission

 True
 False

A disease acquired by many people in a given area in a relatively short period of time is called
pandemic.

 True
 False
The stage of disease that is characterized by early and mild symptoms is called the period of
illness.

 True
 False
Antimicrobial peptides work by

 disrupting the plasma membrane.

 inhibiting cell-wall synthesis.
Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?

 aminoglycosides
 cephalosporins
 polyenes
 rifampins
 penicillin
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because

 Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.

 They replicate inside human cells.
 They don't have ribosomes.
 They don't reproduce.
 They have more genes than bacteria.
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because their cells are structurally
and functionally similar to human cells.

 True
 False
Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?

 Antiprotozoan drugs
 antihelminthic drugs
 antifungal drugs
 nucleotide analogs
 semisynthetic penicillins
 ethambutol
Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of anthrax?

 cutaneous
 inhalational
 septic
 gastrointestinal
 None of the answers are correct; all of these are recognized forms of anthrax.
Lifelong immunity is conferred once an individual has had botulism and recovered

 True
 False
Clostridium difficile causes antibiotic-accociated diarrhea, antibiotic-associated
pseudomembrane colitis

 True
 False
Which of the following is predominantly proteolytic?

 C. histolyticum
 C. speticum
 C. sporogenes
What is the most serious pathogen within the genus Staphylococcus?

 Staphylococcus epidermidis
 Staphylococcus saprophyticus
 Staphylococcus hominis
 Staphylococcus aureus
  Staphylococcus capitis
___________ test is used to confirm the presence of S. aureus

 CAMP test
 Coagulase test
 Catalase Test
 Citrate test
Cluster of spherically shaped cell, High salt tolerance, facultative anaerobes or
microaerophils, motile, catalase positive( ) are all characteristics of Streptococcus spp.

 True
 False
Coagulase test is used to differentiate S.epidermidisfrom S.saprophyticus

 True
 False
Which of the following applies to typhoid fever?

 Causative microorganism multiplies inpatient phagocytes.

 Enterotoxin spreads via the blood.
 It is acquired via ingestion of contaminated meat.
What is the purpose of filling the bottom tray of the API strip holder with water?

 To dissolve reagents biochemical tests

 To provide a humidified chamber for the biochemical test
 The bottom tray of the API strip holder does not need to be filled with water
 None of the above
Which of the following determine the pathogenicity of Yersinia pestis?

 V and W antigens
 F1 envelope antigen
 Production of pigmented colonies on haemin containing media
Gram-negative, rod-shaped, facultatively anaerobic, positive for catalase; oxidase-negative
non-motile bacteria S.typhiis cause agent of shigelloses.

 True
 False
S typhimurium and S enteritidis can cause gastroenteritis

 True
  False
The isolation of this gram-negative bacteria associated with cystic fibrosis can be done by
culturing the specimen in selective media containing colistin. A sputum sample is taken and
cultured, colonies appear only after 72 hours of the incubation period, these bacteria are
oxidase-positive and further identification is done by using molecular methods, which
bacteria is this?

 Enterobacter aerogenes
 Burkholderia cepacia
 Pseudomonas aeruginosa
 Acinetobacter johnsonii
What is the incubation period for cholera?

 A few hours to 5 days

 4 to 21 days
People with reduced immunity, malnourishment, children and people with blood group O
have been found to be at a higher risk for developing cholera.

 True
 False
A characteristic symptom of bubonic plague is

 small red spots on the skin

 rose-colored spots
 recurrent fever
 swollen lymph nodes
 nausea and vomiting
All of the statements given below are correct about the diagnosis of Yersinia
pseudotuberculosis related infection in humans, EXCEPT

 Appendicitis-like symptoms may be observed

 Presented as mesenteric lymphadenitis
 Tuberculosis like symptoms may be seen in laboratory animals after bacterial
inoculation
 Genetic features are similar to Yersinia enterolitica
One of the characteristic symptoms of brucellosis is rise of a temperature up to 40°C each
evening

 True
 False
B. pertussis causes the disease plague, which takes three main forms: pneumonic, septicemic,
and bubonic.

 True
 False
Mycoplasma is the smallest of known free-living, self-replicating prokaryotic cells

- 125-250 nm in size , comparable to chlamydias or large viruses.

 True
 False
Tuberculin skin test – the Mantoux test uses PPD (purified protein derivative) which is
injected just under the skin.

 True
 False
You’re teaching a group of long-term care health givers about the signs and symptoms of
tuberculosis. What signs and symptoms will you include in your education?*

 Cough for a minimum of 6 weeks

 Night sweats
 Hemoptysis
 Fever
 Chest pain
 chillis
Ticke-borne B. recurrentis has shorter louse-borne infection.

 True
 False
The name of Edward Jenner is associated with

 Fermentation
 Vaccination
 Aseptic surgery
 The cell theory
Spontaneous generation theory means that living things come from nonliving things

 TRUE
 False
Robert Koch won the Nobel prize for identifying the cause of the disease tetanus.
  True
 False
When studying a chemical it is important to touch, taste, and smell it so that you know a lot
about it.

 True
 False
You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of
the counterstain. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?

 Purple
 Red
 Colories
 Brown
The term obligate anaerobe refers to an organism that

 doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it

 is killed by oxygen
 uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent
 prefers to grow without oxygen
Generation time of Escherichia coli is

 20 minutes
 20 hours
 20 days
 200 hours
What is the range that represents a psychrophile?

 cold
 med
 warm
The microbiological medium exact chemical composition of which is unknown is Complex
medium

 True
 False
Psychrotrophs is a microorganism with a growth optimum around 20 to 45 ° C , a minimum of
15 to 20 ° C , and a maximum about 45 ° C or lower
• true
 • False
Thermophile is a microorganism with a growth optimum around 20 to 45°C, a minimum of 15
to 20°C, and a maximum about 45°C or lower.

 True
 False
When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted
bacteria but permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as

 differential medium
 enriched medium
 enrichment medium
 selective medium
Sweet and salty foods frequently don't require refrigeration to prevent spoilage because they
have

 insufficient nutrients
 low pH
 high concentration of solutes
 toxic alkaline chemicals
What term is defined as a chemical agent that is applied directly to body surfaces, wounds,
and surgical incisions to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens?

 Bacteriostatic agent
 Fungicide
 Disinfectant
 Sanitizer
 Antiseptic
Disinfectants are chemical substances that destroy or inhibit the growth of microorganisms in
living tissues.

 True
 False
Dry Heat is the most widely used of the physical methods of microbial control

 True
 False
Which of the following is true about fungi

 Eukaryotes
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

 by a bacteriophage
 as naked DNA in solution
 by cell-to-cell contact
 by crossing over
 by sexual reproduction
In A-B exotoxins, the A component binds to the host cell receptor so that the B component
can enter the cell.

 True
 False
Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections.

 True
 False
To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what
genus?

 Streptomyces
 Penicillium
 Paenibacillus
 Cephalosporium
 Bacillus
Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?

 cephalosporins
 macrolides
 natural penicillins
 semisynthetic penicillins
 vancomycin
Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin?

 Helminths
 Streptococcus pyogenes
 Penicillin’s-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae
 Candida albicans
 Mycoplasma
Drug resistance occurs
  when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
 All of the answers are correct.
Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides.

 True
 False
Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?

 aminoglycosides
 cephalosporins
 griseofulvin
 polyenes
 bacitracin
Which of the following best describes an endospore?

 A form of bacteria that is resistant to heat and UV radiation, but cannot replicate.
How likely is a person to die from cutaneous (skin) anthrax without treatment?

 10%
 20%
 50%
 80%
 99%

The CSF from a 2-week-old infant with meningitis shows rods with tumbling motility. These
bacteria are found to be Gram-positive and do not form spores. What is the most likely
agent?

 Actinomyces
 Bacillus
 Clostridium
 Corynebacterium
 Listeria
Cutaneous anthrax is the most severe form of anthrax which produces very painful skin
lesions.

 True
 False
Hepatic disease can be a side effect of tetanus anti-toxin given to horses.

 True
 False
Which of the following is true to prevent botulism from smoked fish?

 The fish should be heated at its coolest part to at least 82°C for 30 min during or after
smoking
 Fish should be immediately frozen after packaging and kept frozen
 Good sanitation should be maintained throughout production and handling
 The fish should be heated at its coolest part to at least 100°C for 5 min during or after
smoking
Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT

 carbuncles.
 Acne
Which of the following is the predominant pathogen associated with recurrent acute otitis
media

 Haemophilus influenzae
 Chlamydia trachomatis
 Moraxella catarrhalis
 Staphylococcus aureus
 Streptococcus pneumoniae
A mannitol salt agar is designed for the isolation of Streptococcus spp.

 True
 False
Streptococcus pyogenes can be differentiated from other haemolytic Streptococci on the
basis of Bacitracin sensitivity.

 True
 False
Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE?
  It is a bacterial infection.
 Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested.
 A healthy carrier state exists.
 The mortality rate is high.
 It is often associated with poultry products
Transmission of bubonic plague is by rat flea.

 True
 False
Intake of raw oysters has been associated with cholera.

 True
 False
Cholera can be transmitted by flies?

 True
 False
Human transmission of Brucellae occurs by

 ingestion of contaminated meat

 direct contact with animal tissues
 ingestion of infected milk
 All of these
All of the following bacterial pathogens given below are the example of major zoonotic
diseases, EXCEPT

 Bacillus anthracis
 Borrelia burgdorferi
 Yersinia pestis
 Leishmania tropica
Whooping cough is treated by macrolides, for example erythromycin.

 True
 False
Brucella spp. are the cause of brucellosis, which is a zoonosis transmitted by ingesting
contaminated food (such as unpasteurized milk products), direct contact with an infected
animal, or inhalation of aerosols.

 True
 False
The genus Legionella is a pathogenic group of Gram-negative bacteria that includes the
species L. pneumophila, causing legionellosis

 True
 False
Etiological agent for disease known as Primary Atypical Pneumonia (“Walking Pneumonia”) is
Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

 True
 False
Your patient is diagnosed with a latent tuberculosis infection. Select all the correct
statements that reflect this condition:*

 “The patient will not need treatment unless it progresses to an active tuberculosis
infection.”
 “The patient is not contagious and will have no signs and symptoms.”
 “The patient will have a positive tuberculin skin test or IGRA test.
 “The patient will have an abnormal chest x-ray.”
 “The patient’s sputum will test positive for mycobacterium tuberculosis.”
All pathogenic borreliae are _______-borne.

 Arthropod
 Air
 Water
What sugar is fermented by the coliforms that is NOT fermented by most enteric pathogens?

 Fructose
 Glucose
 Lactose
 Sucrose
A culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface but clear throughout the rest of the tube
indicating that the

 organism should be grown in an anaerobic chamber

 organism cannot tolerate oxygen
 Organisim are aerobic
 organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase and / or catalas
A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive
tuberculin skin test. Gram - positive cocci are isolated from the sputum . The patient most
likely has (***)
 tuberculosis
 influenza
 pneumococcal pneumonia
 mycoplasmal pneumonia
 the common cold
Which enterobacteriaceae are lactose fermenters ? version

 klebsiella, shigella, yersinia

 salmonella, shigella, yersinia
 eschericia, klebsiella, enterobacter
 Salmonella, shigella, Citrobacter
Precursor (undifferentiated form) of a Macrophage is

 T - lymphocyte
 Monocyte
 Neutrophil
 B - Lymphocyte
Antiviral drugs do not affect eukaryotic cells.

 true
 false
Antifungal drugs do not affect eukaryotic cells

 True
 False
Never remove chemicals, specimens, or other equipment from the laboratory

 true
 false
What is the most prevalent Enterobacteriaceae found in central nervous system infections?

 Escherichia
 Klebsiella
 Salmonella
 Yersinia
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is caused by a

 West nile virus

 Prion
 Yeast
 Streptococcus pyogenes
The framework of the bacterial cell wall is ?

 cellulose
 glucan
 chitin
 peptidoglycan
Drug resistance can be developed only in gram-negative bacteria.

 True
 False
in mosquito's digestive tract, gametocytes of Malarian Plasmodium unite to formzygote

 True
 False
A Culture Medium containing a solidifying agent called Broth medium

 True
 False
Which one of the following contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?
• antibiotic resistance
• lapse in aseptic techniques
• lack of handwashing
• lack of insect control
A drug that inhibits mitosis, would be more effective against

 Grem-postive bacteria
 Grem-negative bacteria
 Fungi.
 Wall-less bacteria
 Mycobacteria.
__________test is used to differentiate Staphylococci from Streptococci

 CAMT
 Coagulase test
 Citrate test
 Catalase Test
In classification, the taxonomic category below kingdom, members of which all have a similar
general body plan, is

 Family
 Phylum
 Order
 Genus
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis ? quiz

 is aerobic
 is gram - positive
 forms endospores
 found in soil
 produces endotoxins
Which organism produces a toxin that causes scalded skin syndrome ? quiz

 Streptococcus
 Pseudomonas aeruginosa
 Staphylococcus aureus
 Mycobacterium ulcerans
The temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is 121 degrees Celsius and 2atm
pressure.

 true
 false
A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination,
she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the
following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT

 Clostridium botulinum 0
 Listeria monocytogenes
 Haemophilus influenza
 Streptococcus pneumoniae 0
 Any of these organisms could be the causative agent 0
The elementary body form of Chlamydia trachomatis infects host cells which are primarily
what?

 Nonciliated columnar cells

 Transitional epithelial cells
 Ciliated cells
Borreliae are suseceptible to many antibiotic but-------------- is drug of choice.

 Quinone
 Tetracycline
 Penicillin ‫غلط‬
 Metrocylin
Which of these statements is NOT true about chest radiology for TB diagnosis?

 Chest x-rays are highly specific for TB

 All persons with radiographic abnormalities suggestive of TB should have sputum
specimens submitted for microbiological examination
 Treatment of TB purely on the basis of x-rays can result in significant over-treatment
 HIV infection can alter the radiological appearance of TB

The ideal clinical specimen for pulmonary TB diagnosis is:

 Blood
 Sputum
 Urine
 Tissue
Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens .

 true
 false
Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system

 Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains

 There are three distinctly different Gram reactions
 Some bacteria live in extreme environments
 There are three distinctly different types of nuclei
Rice water stools" are characteristic of

 salmonellosis
 cholera
 amebic dysentery
 amebic dysentery
 tapeworm infestation
Rickettsias differ from chlamdias in that Rickettsias

 are gram -negative

  are intracell pa for transmission
 require an anthropoid for transmission
 form elementary bodies
 are enteric
Bacteria of family Enterobacteriaceae belong to the

 Gram-positive bacteria
 Gammaproteobacteria
 Green sulfur bacteria
 Spirochetes
 actinomycetes
All of the following are true about the MANNITOL SALT AGAR (MSA) medium EXCEPT

 It is selective
 it is differential
 It is chemically defined media
 It is both selective and differential
 It contains 7.5% sodium chloride
The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is

 microbe
 bacterium
 virus
 pathogen
 infection
The phylum Actinobacteria is defined as a low G C gram-positive bacteria

 True
 False
Fluorescence Microscopy uses dyes to bind to specimen for emitting visible light after
absorbing shorter UV rays

 True
 False
Catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin susceptible, bacitracin resistant, no
hemolysis → Streptococcus agalactiae
• True
• False
Catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin resistant → Staphylococcus saphrophyticus
• True
• False
α- hemolysis, catalase negative, optochin resistant- Streptococcus pneumoniae

 True
 False
β-hemolysis, catalase negative, Bacitracin susceptible → Streptococcus viridians

 true
 false
Radiation is the most widely used of the physical methods of microbial control

 True
 False
Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection

 True
 False

how many levels of BSL exists?

 1
 2
 3
 4
Which of the following items could be sterilized by dry heat sterilization?

 Intravenous solution
 Plastic bags
 Glass pipettes
 rubber gloves
A major difference between EHEC and EPEC is

 EHEC secretes a Shiga-like toxin and EPEC does not

 EHEC possesses a type lll secretion system and EPEC does not
 EPEC rearranges host cell actin and EHEC does not
 EPEC passes through the placenta to infect the fetus and EHEC does not
Which methods achieve sterility? ‫تاكد من يامن بكره‬

 autoclaving,
 filtration,
 inceneration,
 radiation
 boiling
 pasteurization
Growth are referring to the number of cells, not the size.

 true
 false
Select from all the options below that are commonly used as preventive measures to control
the plague.

 Patients diagnosed should be isolated

 The specimens should be handled in the biological safety cabinet
 The control of rodents should be done by finding its habitat and destructingit
 Prophylactic antibiotic therapy should be given to individuals who have been exposed to
the person who is diagnosed with plague

Which of the following can be used to differentiate between classical and El Tor biotypes of
Vibrio cholerae?

 Sensitivity to Mukerjee's group IV phage

 Agglutination of fowl RBCS
 Sensitivity to polymysin B
 Catalase test
Massive human-to-human transmission of plague is usually result of unsanitary conditions

 true
 false
Type of electron microscope which is used to study internal structure of cells is

 scanning electron microscope

 transmission electron microscope
 light microscope
 compound microscope
 Which microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state (without staining) ?
 Answer:
 phase-contrast microscope

The negative stain is used to visualize endospores

 True
 False
The elementary body of Chlamydia trachomatis outer membrane is similar to that of Gram
Negative organisms.

 True
 False

Use this typical bacterial growth curve to answer the following question: Which section
shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying exceeds the number of cells dividing?

 A
 B
 C
 D
 A and C
Bacteria reproduce this way (quiz)
  budding
 fragmentation
 binary fission ‫االنشطار الثنائي‬
 vegetative propagation
The following tubes (ADH, LDC, ODC, H2S, URE )are underlined. Why?

 These tubes are required to be filled with the bacterial suspension at the top area
(cupule)
 These tubes are required to have oil added at the top (cupule)
 The tests within these tubes require anaerobic conditions
 Both b and c are correct
Depending on Oxygen requirement the jar in the figure is used to grow what type of bacteria?

 Obligate Anaerobes
 Facultative Anaerobes
 Obligate Aerobes
 Aerotolerant Aerobes.
In Figure 2, which diagram shows a cell wall that is not decolorized by alcohol ?
  a
 b
 both a and b
 neither a nor b
 The answer cannot be determined based on
 the information provided
One of the first chemicals used by Lister to prevent surgical infections was:

 alcohol
 iodine
 carbolic acid
 mercury
 soap

Which of the following best describes a microbial control protocol that inhibits the growth of
molds and yeast?

 bacteriostatic
 fungicidal 0.0
 bactericidal
 fungistatic 0.0
The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea and enteropathogenic E. coli are examples of

 Adhesins
 ligand
 receptors.
 Adhesins and ligands
All of the following organisms produce exotoxins EXCEPT

 Salmonella typhi.
  Clostridium botulinum.
 Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
 Clostridium tetani.
 Staphylococcus aureus.
All of the following bacteria release endotoxin EXCEPT

• Clostridium botulinum
• Salmonella typhi
• Neisseria meningitidis
• Haemophilus influenzae.
Which of the following properties are the characteristics of tetanospasmin?

 It is a heat-stable protein 0
 It is a neurototoxin 0
 It is a heat-labile protein 0.2
 It can be toxoided 0.2
 All of these 0.0025
A gram-positive coccus that grows in pairs or short chains and that is alpha-hemolytic and
optochin-sensitive is

 Streptococcus agalactiae
 Staphylococcus aureus
 S . pnemoniae 0.0025
What percentage of people die from severe, untreated cholera?

 25%
 50
 100%

Which of the following can be identified by milk ring test?

 Brucellosis
 Salmonellosis
 Bovine tuberculosis
 All of these
The bacteria which is microaerophilic on primary isolation, is
  M fortuitum
 Mycobacterium tuberculosis
 M bovis
 none of these
A 55-year old male patient is admitted with an active tuberculosis infection. The nurse will
place the patient in ___________________ precautions and will always wear
_____________________ when providing patient care?

 droplet, respirator
 airborne, respirator
 contact and airborne, surgical mask
 droplet, surgical mask
Which statement is correct regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis?

 This bacterium is an anaerobic type of bacteria

 It is an alkali bacterium that stains bright red during an acid- fast smear test
 It is known as being an aerobic type of bacteria
 It's an acid-fact bacterium that stains bright green during an acid-fast smear test
A 52-year old female patient is receiving medical treatment for a possible tuberculosis
infection. The patient is a U.S. resident but grew-up in a foreign country. She reports that as a
child she received the BCG vaccine (bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine). Which physician’s order
below would require the nurse to ask the doctor for an order clarification?

 PPD (Mantoux test)

 Chest X-ray
 QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT)
 Sputum culture
Scrub typhus is caused by _______________.

 Ehrlichia chaffeensis
 Orientia tsutsugamushi
 R. prowazekii
 Bartonella
Chlamydia is called the silent disease because it often goes undetected. What portion of
infected men and women have symptoms of chlamydia?

 1 in 2 men, and 4 in 5 women

 3 in 10 men, and up to 1 in 2 women
 1 in 10 men, and up to 3 in 10 women
 Up to 5 in 100 men, and 1 in 10 women
A microorganism measures 4,5 μm in length. Its length in mm would be

 0.45 mm
 0.0045 mm
Bleach is an example of which group of chemicals used for disinfection?

 Heavy
 Halogens
 Quats
 Bisbiguanides
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for “Malta fever” in humans which is caused
primarily by contact with animals or animal products?
brucella spp
 Francisella tularensis
Which of the following diagnostics tests is intended for latent tuberculosis infection?

 Sputum smear microscopy

 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
 Interferon-gamma release assay (lGRA)
 ELISAfor TB antibodies
How did the plague enter into Europe?

 from the Black Sea docked at the Sicilian port of Messina.

 From slaves who originated from Africa

Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be

prevented by

 Boiling food prior to consumption.

 Administering antibiotics to patients.
 Not eating canned food.
 Preventing fecal contamination of food.
 Filtering the food.
Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following
can be concluded from these data?

 The two organisms are related.

 The two organisms are unrelated.
 The organisms make entirely different enzymes.
  Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize.
 None of the answers is correct.
Relapes that occur in Borrelia recurrentis are caused by antigenic variation; ____________ are
changed during the course of an infection which allows them to evade the host response.

 Surface Antigens
 Chromosomes
Which is the most common type of plague?

 Pneumonic Plague
 Bubonic plague
Which of the following is the most common form of plague which causes swelling of the
lymph nodes?

 Bubonic plague
 All of the above
Group I C. botulinum strains generally includes in

 all types of strains (non-proteolytic) E and F

 all types of strains (proteolytic)A, B and F

Period of equilibrium in which the growth rate slows, the number of microbial deaths
balances the number of new cells, and the population stabilizes

 Death phase/logarithmic decline phase

 Stationary phase
Which of the following tests requires a blood sample for the diagnosis of active pulmonary
TB?

 Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)

 There is no approved blood test for the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB
 None of the above

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are

 Aminoglycosides
 chloramphenicol
 penicillin G.
 macrolides
 tetracyclines
The motility of Leptospires are
  Slow and straight
 Rapid and rotational
 Rapid and straight
 Slow and rotational
In the spotted fever group what organism is both the principal vector and the reservoir?

 Mosquito
 Tick
 Rat
 Bird
The most toxic exotoxin is

 tetanus toxin
 diphtheria toxin
 botulinum toxin
 cholera toxin
Transmission of pneumonic plague from man to man is through

 droplet infection
 all of these
The test(s) used for the assay of cholera toxin is/are

 Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

 All of the above
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Among the most important emerging diseases in the last decade was

 H1N1 influenza
Working distance is the:

 a distance the microscope nosepiece travels using the coarse focus knob.
 distance from the bottom of the objective lens to the specimen
 distance the specimen can travel across the microscope stage.
 distance between condenser and oil-immersion lens
The scanning, low, and high power objectives are mounted on the:

 revolving nosepiece
 stage
 arm
  eyepiece
Which of the following is(are) (a) magnifying lens(es)?

 objective
 ocular
Ribosomes are found in viruses.

 True
 False
When first focusing in low power, bring the lens as close to the slide as possible.

 True
 False
The organism which obtain their energy from chemicals are designated as

 Prototrophs
 Chemotrophs
 Organotrophs
 Autotrophs
A microbiology student noticed that a culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface and
turbid throughout the rest of the tube. She can conclude that the
• organisms are facultative anaerobes.
• Organism should be grown in an anaerobic chamber.
• Organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase and/or catalase.
• Organism cannot tolerate oxygen.
• Broth is sterile.
The purpose of an incubator is to recreate the proper growth conditions of a bacterial sample
in order to promote bacterial growth

 True
 False
Alkalophile is a microorganism that requires high levels of sodium chloride for growth.

 True
 False
The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that will inhibit the visible growth of a
microorganism after overnight incubation is

 MIVC
  Synergy
 MBC
 MIC
which of the following describes the effect of ionizing radiation on microbes?

 Changes the 3-dimensional structure of proteins to a sional form

 substantially decreases matic activity, slowing microbial reproduction
 Induces electrons to jump out of the molecules of the microbe
 None of the above
For the selection of endospore-forming bacteria, a mixed culture can be heated at
• 80°C for 10 minutes
• 70°C for 10 minutes
• 60°C for 10 minutes
• 90°C for 10 minutes

Lister developed his ideas on prevention of infection during medical procedures after
studying the work of

 Fleming
 Pasteur

The bacterium Helicobacter pylori, common cause of peptic ulcers, belongs to which of the
following:

 Betaproteobacteria
 Furmicutes
 Non-proteobacteria
 Epsilonproteobacteria
 None of those
All gram-negative bacteria are classified as proteobacteria

 True
 False
The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules
and evade destruction by the host’s antibodies is called

 antigenic variation.
 lysogenic conversion.
 virulence.
 cytopathic effect.
  cytocidal effect.
Most pathogens that gain access through the skin

 can penetrate intact skin.

 just infect the skin itself.
 enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
 must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.
 must be injected.

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?

 they are more potent than endotoxins

 they are composed of proteins
 they are resistant to heat
 they have specific method of action
 they are produced by gram-positive bacteria
In general, the LD50 for exotoxins is much greater than the LD50 for endotoxins.

 True
 False
Which of those are Koch’s postulates
• Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
• Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
• The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure cultur
• the pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the
original organism
• The pathogen from the pure culture must cause the disease when it is inoculated
into a healthy, susceptible laboratory animal.
• The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture.

Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

 It was the first antibiotic

 It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells
 It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis
 It has selective toxicity
 It kills bacteria
 None of the above
Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong to Firmicutes?
 • Escherichia
• Lactobacillus
Which of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others?
• Halobacterium
• Halococcus
• Methanobacterium
• Staphylococcus
• Sulfolobus
Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?

 Monobactam
 Staphylococcus
Which one of the following does NOT belong to the Proteobacteria?

 Coxiella
 Ehrlichia
 Rickettsia
 Staphylococcus
 Wolbachia
Which one of the following does NOT belong to Alphaproteobacteria?

 Rickettsia
 Ehrlichia
 Staphylococcus
Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses. Lamisil's method of action is similar to
that of

 polymyxin
 azole antibiotics.
 echinocandins.
 griseofulvin.
 bacitracin.
One of the advantages of using two antibiotics together is that this can prevent drug
resistance

 True
 False
Anthrax spores can survive in dry places such as soil for how long?
  8 to 10 weeks;
 At least 50 years
Which of the following toxin causing botulism is less toxic to human beings?

 Type A
 Type B
 Type C
 None of these
The method of successful treatment of botulism prior to the appearance of botulism
symptoms involve the administration of

 antibiotic
 analgesic
 antitoxin
 antipyretic
Tetanospasmin is responsible for clinical manifestations of tetanus.

 True
 False
The erythrogenic toxin produced by a strain of Streptococcus pyogenes that was lysogenized
causes
 scarlet fever
 whooping cough
 epiglottitis
 otitis media
Streptolysin O is
• antigenic
• oxygen-labile
• heat-labile
Cystitis is most often caused by: ‫االتهاب المثانة‬

 Escherichia coli
 Leptospira interrogans
 Candida albicans
 Neisseria gonorrhoea.
 Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever the incubation period is
much longer

 True
 False
Verotoxin 1 of Escherichia coli is similar to shiga toxin.

 True
 False
Burkholderia pseudomallei is aerobic, gram-negative, motile, aerobic, saprophytic bacteria. It
grows at 42-degree celsius in standard agar media forming mucoid colonies, cream to orange
in color.
• Burkholderia pseudomallei
Which of the following gram-negative bacteria is a plant pathogen?
• Chryseobacterium spp
• Pseudomonas syringae patho- vars (pvs.)
Agglutination test for Brucella mainly identifies which class of antibodies?

 IgG
 IgM
 IgA
 IgE
What is the recommended drug regimen for Yersinia enterocolitica infections?
• Doxycycline with aminoglycoside
Pasteurella multocida is a Gram-negative, nonmotile, penicillin-sensitive coccobacillus of the
family Pasteurellaceae.

 True
 False
Bordetella pertussis is a Gram-negative, aerobic, pathogenic, encapsulated coccobacillus of
the genus Bordetella, and the causative agent of pertussis or whooping cough.
• True
• False
Both M. tuberculosis and M. bovis can cause Tb

 True
  False
Spirochaetes exhibit
• flexion and extension motility
• all of the above
Dogs, rats and other rodents are the principle animal reservoirs of Leptospires. The organism
is excreted in the

 Blood
 CSF
 Urine
 Stool
This causes cat-scratch disease.
• Coxiella burn
• etti
• Bartonella henselae
In the U.S., chlamydia occurs more often than any other sexually transmitted infection (STI).
Who can be infected with chlamydia?
• Any sexually active person
Pinta is caused by T. carateum, found in tropical areas of Central and South America.

 True
 False
Rickettsia Organisms are short, nonmotile, Gram negative rods.

 True
 False
Which statement is TRUE about temperature and bacterial growth?

 Bacteria grow between a temperature range

 Maximum growth occurs at the optimum temperature 0.20
 Metabolic rate increases with temperature
An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is

 RNA polymerase
 DNA ligase
 DNA polymerase.
Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases?
 malaria
 ADIS
 tuberculosis
 Diabetes
 typhoid fever
The drug salvarsan, the first chemotherapeutic agent to treat syphilis, was developed in
1908-1910 by

 Paul Ehrlich
 Louis Pasteur
It’s Okay to pick up broken glass with your bare hands as long as the glass is placed in the
trash.

 True
 False
Which of the following statements regarding Corynebacterium diphtheriae are true?

 It can be identified by using tests for toxigenicity

 The toxin inhibits protein synthesis
 Toxin has adverse effects on cardiovascular and nervous systems
 Native chromosome is responsible for toxin production
Which of the following structures allows a cell to survive adverse environmental conditions?

 capsule
 carboxysome
 endospore
 gas vacuole
Which structure acts like an “invisibility cloak” and protects bacteria from being
phagocytized?

 slime layer
 cell wall
 capsule
 cell membrane
 fimbriae
Which of the following stains is used for visualizing Mycobacterium?

 Negative stain
  Endospore stain
 Gram stain
 Acid-fast stain
An organism has an optimal growth rate when the hydrogen ion concentration is very high.
This organism is

 Osmotolerant
 Acidophile
 Neutrophile
 Aerotolerant anaerobe
Which of the following types of media is designed to suppress the growth of unwanted
bacteria and encourage the growth of desired microbes?

 Differential media
 Enrichment media
 Reducing media
 Selective media
 None of them
Streaks plate was performed from a broth culture. After incubation confluent growth in all
sectors was observed. Which of the following errors could NOT explain this result?

 forgot to pick a colony from the plate

 forgot to flame the loop between sectors
 picked additional culture from the plate after the first sector
 crossed over the previous streak too many times at the beginning of a new sector.
Tolerance referring to the survival of bacteria under condition in which they cannot grow.

 True
 False
Aerotolerant anaerobes are microorganisms that grow equally well whether or not oxygen is
present.

 True
 False
What is the goal of sterilization?

 The destruction of bacterial endospores

Agents which kills bacteria are called bacteriocidal and agents which only inhibited its growth
are called bacteriostatic.
  True
 False
Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?

 A-B toxin
 hemolysin
 leukocidin
 streptolysin O
 streptolysin S
Houseflies, as biological vectors, can transmit important diseases.

 True
 False
Normal microbiota can benefit the host by preventing the overgrowth of harmful
microorganisms. This is called microbial antagonism.

 True
 False
Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?

 inhibition of protein synthesis

 inhibition of cell wall synthesis
 injury to plasma membrane
 competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase
 competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis
Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection.

 True
 False
Due to its target, rifamycins can be effective over a broad spectrum

 True
 False
Which one of the following produces the most potent exotoxin?

 Streptococcus pyogenes
 Bordetella pertussis
 Corynebacterium diphtheriae
 Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Anthrax is a non-contagious disease; it does not usually spread from one person to another.
The person is infected only when exposed to the infectious spores, or infected animals or
their products.

 True
 False
You can use mouse inoculation to detect tetanus in animals

 True
 False
A technician swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate.
The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram positive cocci. You
advise him that he should next look for:

 an acid-fast reaction.
 a coagulase reaction.
 conidiospores.
 pseudohyphae.
 pseudopods.
Which test is used to differentiate S.epidermidis S.saprophyticus

 Novobiocin Sensitivity test

Which of the following Staphylococcal haemolysins does not cause lysis of human RBCs?

 β haemolysin
 γ haemolysin
 α haemolysin
 δ haemolysin
Bacitracin test is used for presumptive identification of group A streptococci

 True
 False
Latex Agglutination test is modern diagnostic method for identification of S. aureus.

 True
 False
Coagulase test is modern diagnostic methodfor identification of S. aureus.
• True
• False
Citrat test is modern diagnostic method for identification of S. aureus.
• true
• false
CAMT test is modern diagnostic method for identification of S. aureus
• True
• False

Which of the following condition is non-suppurative sequelae of Streptococcus pyogenes

infections?

 Acute rheumatic fever

 Acute glomerulonephritis
 Erythema nodosum
 Toxic shock syndrome
If the number of positive tests (including the GLU test) before adding the reagents is less than
3 the strip must be reincubated for a further 24 hours (± 2 hours) without adding any
reagents.

 True
 False
Ureasatest is used to differentiate Escherichia coli and Proteus vulgaris

 True
 False
Which of the following does not cause wound infection following exposure to sea water or
infected shellfish?

 Vibrio vulnificus
 V. alginolyticus
 V. cholerae
 Aeromonas
Nearly 80% of cholera cases can be treated with oral rehydration solution alone. Intravenous
fluids are required for people with severe dehydration.

 True
 False
All of the statements given below about the Yersinia enterocolitica is correct, EXCEPT

 The bacteria is gram negative, non-motile

  Consist of bipolar staining property
 The most common serotypes causing human gastroenteritis is O:1
 Most commonly transmitted to humans through infected food, water and animals
A 48-year old homeless man, who is living in a local homeless shelter and is an IV drug user,
has arrived to the clinic to have his PPD skin test assessed. What is considered a positive
result?*

 5 mm induration
 15 mm induration
 9 mm induration
 10 mm induration
Borreliae are cultured using what medium?

 Kelly medium
Borrelia recurrentis when it recurs several days to weeks later is less severe but similar in
course.

 True
 False
Which of the following is best used for long term storage of microbial samples when carried
out properly ?

 Storage in a freezer at -10 ° C

 Storage in a freezer at ultra low temperatures ( -80 ° C )
 Storage in a refrigerator on an agar slant
 Storage on a petri plate at room temperature
Which of the following pairs is mismatched ? quiz

 malaria – vector
 salmonellosis – vehicle transmission
 syphilis – direct contact
 influenza – droplet infection
 None of the pairs is mismatched
The coagulase test is used to differentiate

 Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis

 Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
 Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
 Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
What are the factor that shifting the phase to the decline phase ?

 Condition in the medium become less but cell still have the ability to divide
 Condition in the medium become less and cell lose their ability to divide
 Number of live cells increases at a logarithmic rate
During the Lag Phase, bacteria are

 Doubling the number of cells every generation.

 Creating new cells at the same rate as cells are dying.
 making proteins, ribosomes, obtaining nutrients.
 dying at a faster rate than they are being produced.
Which of the following property(ies), shown by the organisms belong(s) to the family
Enterobacteriaceae?

 They are catalase-positive

 They are oxidase-negative
 They ferment glucose
 They are oxidase-positive
Clostridium botulinum food poisoning is due to

 invasion of bacteria in the intestine

 preformed toxin
 both (a) and (b)
 none of the above
The rapidly developing discipline field) that is based on the use of microorganisms to produce
some common foods and chemicals, is called

 Bioremediation
 Gene therapy
 Epidemiology
 Biotechnology
 Ciassification
Which of the following(s) is/are obligate anaeorbes?

 C septicum
 C novyi
 C tetani
 C botulinum
Generation time is
 time required for the population to double
 time required for the initial adjustment
 obtained by expression t/n, where t time interval, n = number of generation
Peptidoglycan, a backbone of a bacterial cell wall, is also known as

 N-acetyl muramic acid

 murein mucopeptide
 N acetylglucosamine
 mesodiaminopimetic acid
During the stationary phase, bacteria are

 Dying at a faster rate than reproduction.

 Doubling in number every generation.
 Reproducing at the same rate as they are dying.
 making proteins, ribosomes, and obtaining nutrients.
Acinetobacter baumannii is one of the most……….. gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria.

 Multidrug-resistant
 Fastidious
 Active
 Infectious
Which of the following statements is TRUE?

 Endospores are for reproduction.

 Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes.
 Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain.
 A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing.
 A cell can produce many endospores.
50S ribosomal subunits are found in

 Bacteria
 Fungi
 Prions
 Protozoa
 Viruses
Which of the following pathogen can be transferred to human and cause infections from the
bite of dogs and cats?

 Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
 Pasteurella multocida
 Yersinia enterolitica
 Pasteurella pneumotropica
Which of the following statements about biofilms is true ?

 Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics.

 Biofilms in your body protect mucous membranes from harmful microbes.
 Biofilms on medical devices cause infections.
Pathogenic treponemes are thin, spiral organisms. Spiral are regular with to spirals per
organism.

 5-10
 9-20
 1-2
 4-14
Which of the following statements is FALSE about chest X-rays for TB diagnosis:

 Chest X-rays have good sensitivity, but poor specificity

 Chest X-rays can help determine the severity of lung damage
 Chest X-rays alone is sufficient to diagnose pulmonary TB
 Chest X-rays can look similar in patients with old, inactive TB and those with curently
active TB disease
Multiple factors play an important role in the mechanism of pathogenesis by Pseudomonas
aenuginosa, one of the main vinulent structural components is p which helps the bacteria to
adhere to the cell surfaces Which one is not the virulence factor Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

 Hemyina
 Pigments
 PhopholaseB
 Extraocular protease
exotoxins are produced by all of the following gastro-intestinal pathogens EXCEPT

 Clostridium perfringens
 Vibrio cholerae
 Shigella dysenteries
 Staphylococcus aureus
 Clostridium botulinum
In Figure, which diagram of is a gram-positive cell wall
  a
 b
 both a and b
 neither a nor b
 The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
The Gram stain differentiates between bacteria based on the composition of their nucleus

 True
 False
The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome. The effect is to

 Prevent attachment of DNA

 Prevent peptide bond formation
 Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA
 Interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex
A member of a large group of unicellular microorganisms lacking organelles and an organized
malleus including some that can cause disease is

 Fungus
 Protozoa
 Algae
 Bacteria
 Archae
The antibiotic cycloheximide binds to the 6oS subunit of the rbosome, as shown in Figure 2.
The effect is to
  prevent mRNA-bosome binding in ukaryoles
 prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes
 prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

 Yersinia pestis- gram-positive rods

 Haemophilus influenzae virulence due to capsule
 Mycobacterium leprae --Acid- fast rods
 Streptococcus pyogenes --rhoumatic fever
 Epstein Barr virus -- Burkitt's lymphoma
Great majority of Bacteria reproduce by

 mitosis;
 spore formation
 binary fission
 Budding
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? (quiz)

 endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population

 epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world
 pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
 sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally
 incidence number of new cases of a disease
The classification system based on the cellular organization of organisms determines three
domains consisting of :

 Animalia
 Plantae
 Eukarya
 archea
 Bacteria

The classification system based on the cellular organization of organisms determines three
domains consisting of Bacteria, Archaea, and
• Eukarya.
Robert Koch identified the cause of

 smalipox
 tuberculosis
 AIDS
 influenza
Which of the following has peptidoglycan as a leading constituent part of

 Gram-negative bacteria
 Gram-positive bacteria
 Fungi
 None of these
Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis ? quiz

 gastroenteritis
 relapsing fever
 undulant fever
 pneumonia
 jaundice
The process of making an object free from living organisms including bacterial and fungal
spores and viruses is known as

 pasteurization
 antisepsis
 disinfection
 sterilization
Germ theory of disease—the idea, that infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms, or
germs, was developed by ignaz semmewleis

 True
 False
Germ theory of disease the idea that infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms , or
germs , was developed by Josef Lister
• true
• false
The limit of resolution of the Transmission Electron Microscope is approximately 10,0 nm.
• true
• false
Milk is pasteurized in batch method by keeping it at
• 63-66 o C for 30 minutes
• 72-75 o C for 60 seconds
• 74-76 o Cfor 30 seconds
• 55-60 o C for 30 minutes
Which of the following is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?
• Dry heat
• Autoclave
• Membrane filtration
• Pasteurization
Which of the following is suitable for use on tissues for microbial control to prevent
infection?

 Water
 Antiseptic
If we discover a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan we have to
attribute this organism to the Archea

 True
 False
Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?

 a sick person
 a healthy person
 a sick animal Ick
 a hospital
 None of the answers is correct ;all of these can be reservoirs of infection
Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT

 Haemophilus meningitis
 Neisseria meningitis
 rabies
 botulism
general characteristics of all Enterobacteriaceae

 Gram negative rods, Glucose fermenters, Oxidase negative, Facultative anaerobes

 Gram negative rods, lactose fermenters, Oxidase negative, Facultative anaerobes
 Gram positive rods, Glucose fermenters, Oxidase negative, Facultative anaerobes
 Gram negative rods, Glucose fermenters, Oxidase positive, Facultative anaerobes
The selective medium for Enterobacter is

 Tryptic soy agar

 Mannitol salt agar
 Sabouraud agar
 MacConkey agar
EHEC secretes a Shiga-like toxin and EPEC does not.

 True
 False
The stool of a cholera patient resembles –

 Rice water
 None of the above
A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT

 flagella.
 a nucleus.
 ribosomes.
 a cell wall.
 a cell membrane.
After using an inoculating loop or needle, how they have to be sterilized

 Clean the inoculating loop or needle with soap and ethyl alcohol
 Wipe the inoculating loop or needle with a paper towel
 Heat the inoculating loop or needle with the alcohol burner flame until it becomes red
 Carefully place the inoculating loop or needle onto bench top
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?

 Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.

 They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
 They typically have a circular chromosome.
 They reproduce by binary fission.
 They lack a plasma membrane.
Organisms do not increase significantly in number and produce large quantities of energy in
the form of ATP.Which of the phase in the exponential growth curve explains these
statements ?
 Lag phase
 Stationary phase
 Log phase
 Decline phase

Blood agar is unable to cultivate the fastidious microorganisms

 True
 False
3 examples of moist heat:, ,

 autoclaving
 boiling
 pasteurization
Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by

 mutation.
 conjugation.
 transduction.
 transformation.
 All of the answers are correct.
Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours
after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream
sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is

 botulinum toxin.
 aflatoxin.
 staphylococcal enterotoxin.
 erythrogenic toxin.
 cholera toxin.
Inapparent or subclinical infections can be detected only by demonstrating a rise in antibody
titer or by isolating the organism.

 True
 False
Which of the following antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects?

 streptomycin
 chloramphenicol
 penicillin
 tetracycline
 erythromycin

Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?

 uracil
 thymine
 flucytosine
 guanine
 penicillin
Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together?

 It can prevent drug resistance.

 It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs.
 Two are always twice as effective as one.
 It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis.
 All of these are advantages of using two antibiotics together.
Community-acquired MRSA is typically more virulent than healthcare-associated MRSA.

 True
 False
If a microbial drug prevents microbes from growing, its action is termed bactericidal

 True
 False
The Bacillus cereus causes gasteroenteritis by the production of an exoenterotoxin which is
released in food as a result of

 cell growth
 cell autolysis
 cell permeation
 cell damage
Descending tetanus uses retrograde axonal transport to spread.

 True
 False
Staphylococcus aureus produce the hydrolytic enzyme DNase.

 True
 False
Growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa always requires the presence of oxygen?

 True
 False
B. pertussis infects its host by colonizing lung epithelial cells.

 True
 False
Most Mycobacteria grow best in 5-10% CO2 and at 35-370 C.

 True
 False
Leptospires cannot be readily stained but can be covered with ______ and then seen.

 Platinum
 Bronze
 Gold
 Silver
Yaws is caused by T. pallidum ssp. pertinue.

 True
 False
What is the simple staining used for?

 To determine cell wall structure.

 To stain the spores
 To determine morphological shapes
 To determine arrangements of bacterial cells
 For background staining.
 False
Your patient with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis infection needs a bronchoscopy. During
transport to endoscopy, the patient will need to wear?*

 N95 mask
 Surgical mask
 No special PPE is needed
 Face mask with shield
A prokaryotic species is defined as a

 population of cells with similar characteristics

 population of cells with different characteristics
 group of closely related organisms that can interbreed
 group of organisms that are not composed of cells
Patients with cystic fibrosis infection suffer from a chronic lung infection caused by
Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The bacterial growth results in…………..formation and clogs the
lung airways.
 Pigment
 Biofilm
 White blood cells
 Endotoxin
The nonsense codon(s) is/are

 GGG
 UGA
 UAA
 UAG
Which organism in Table 1 most easily causes an infection?

 coli O157:H7
 Legionella pneumophila
 Shigella
 Treponema pallidum
 The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
All of the following statements for Pseudomonas aeruginosa are true, except:

 It is oxidase positive
 It does not grow well at 42c
 It is an opportunistic pathogen
 It contains fimbriae
The bacteria which is predominant flora of the human gut is

 Escherichia coli
 Clostridium perfringens
 Bacteroides and Bifidobacterium.
Advantages of culture for TB compared to sputum microscopy alone include all of the
following EXCEPT:
• Culture has a higher sensitivity than smear microscopy for diagnosing TB
• Culture, particularly by liquid media, can be faster than smear microscopy Point: 0.35

Yaws resembles what in the early stages?

 Chicken pox
 HIV
 Syphilis

C. trachomatis is a major cause of ____ in the U.S.

 Asthma
 Sterility
 For a two year old child with suspected TB, the best clinical specimen for pulmonary
TB diagnosis is:
 Sputum
 Gastric aspirate

In Table 1, the minimal bactericidal concentration of antibiotic X is

 The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

 15 ug --ml
A 36-year-old man presents with focal central nervous system signs. Imaging shows

a brain abscess. The dominant organism is an anaerobe normally found as part of the

oral flora. Which of the following best fits that

description?

 Mycobacterium
 Nocardia
 Actinomyces

This drug is used to treat late stages of Borrelia burgdorferi.

 Tetracycline
 Amoxicillin
 Ceftriaxone

___ assays are usually the last way Chlamydia infections are diagnosed although for LGV it is
sometimes used.

 Nucleic Acid Hybridization

 Serologic
  Which of the following is an obligatory intracellular pathogen?
 Neisseria
 Rickettsia

Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE?

 It is a superantigen.
 It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines

Koch's postulates were satisfied for the first time with

 Corynebacterium diphtheriae
 Bacillus anthracis

There are two recognize species of Leptospires. L.interrogans and L. biblexa. L.interrogans are
_______.

 Saprophytic
 Pathogenic

Endemic syphilis or bejel is caused by T. pallidum. It is transmitted by direct contact or

sharing contaminated __________.

 Water
 Food
 Eating utensils

In the name Streptococcus pyogenes , the word pyogenes is the

 genus name.
 specific epithet ( species).

Which of the following is the correct drug regimen for a newly diagnosed patient with
pulmonary tuberculosis?
• 2 months of Streptomycin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol
followed by 4 months of Rifampicin and Isoniazid
• 8 months of Rifampicin, Isoniazid and Ethambutol
• 2 months of Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol followed by 4 months of
Rifampicin and Isoniazid

Which of the following is false regarding adverse reactions to TB drugs?

• The elderly and those with pre-existing liver disease are more susceptible to drug
induced hepatitis
• Joint pains are an adverse reaction to pyrazinamide and usually respond well to non-
steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• Jaundice is a common adverse effect and is selflimiting

The tetanus vaccine is a(n)

 inactivated whole-agent vaccine

 toxoid

Which of these high-risk populations should be targeted for LTBI screening and treatment?

 People living with HIV/AIDS

 All of above

---------------------------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------------------------

Questions after that are not important that much, just reading

Long hair must be secured to the back of your head

 true
 false
The majority of urinary nosocomial infections are associated with

 urinary catheters
 contaminated hands
 antibiotic use
 poor hygiene.
What type of immunity results in a patient with botulism after treatment with the specific
serum containing anti - botulinum toxin antibodies ?

 naturally acquired active immunity

 naturally acquired passive immunity
 artificially acquired active immunity
 artificially acquired passive immunity
The eclipse phase in the virus one - step growth curve can be described as a period where
there are no infectious virus particles in the cells or in the culture

 true
 false
During the phage infection and replication bacteriophage derived amino acids and
nucleotides from the host cell

 true
 false
The pH of skin that is believed to discourage the growth of many microorganisms is

 6 to 7
 3 to 5
 1 to 3
 8 to 9
A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite ?

 miracidium
 cyst
 adult
 larva
 All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following is lactose negative ? quiz

 Salmonella
  Escherichia
 Klebsiella
 Enterobacter
You have isolated a prokaryotic cell .The first step in identification is a (n)

 Gram stain.
 lactose fermentation test.
 endospore stain
 flagella stain.
 DNA fingerprint
Majority of available antimicrobial agents are effective against protozoa

 true
 false
What should you do if you suspect a patient has tuberculosis ?

 check for motility

 perform an acid - fast stain
 perform a Gram stain
 look at a wet mount
All different forms of Toxoplasma gondii can be present in the body of ..............

 Cat
 Human
 Mice
 Cow
A type of cell culture that can reproduce for an extended number of generations and is used
to support viral replication is a

 primary cell culture

 Continuous cell line
 Cell strain
 Diploid fibroblast cell
 Connective tissue
All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum

 true
 false
Fixed macrophages are those which roam the tissues and gather at the sites of infection or
inflammation

 true
 false
Dental plaque is an example of

 a pellicle
 a biofilm
 gingivitis
 lesion
 vesicle
Viral meningitis is much more common than bacterial meningitis and tends to cause far
milder form of disease

 True
 false
Contact with cats or ingesting rare or raw meat is the primary mode of transmission of
toxoplasmosis.

 True
 False
The triple sugar-iron agar test is designed to differentiate among the different groups or
genera of the Enterobacteriaceae, which are all gram negative bacilli capable of fermenting
glucose with the production of acid , and to distinguish them from other gram negative
intestinal bacilli

 True
 False
Diagnosing Tuberculosis includes following except

 Tuberculin skin test

 Culturing of sputum
 Streaking nasopharyngeal swabs on Blood agar
 Chest X-ray
 Acid - fast stain of sputum
Before you use your reagents to stain the bacteria, you need to heat fix your sample first by
waving the slide through the blue flame on a Bunsen bumer a few times.Why do you do this ?

 So that the bacteria will react to the stain

  So that the bacteria will be arranged in the clusters
 So that the bacteria will not die
 So that the bacteria will not be washed off
Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease ?

 Toxoplasmosis
 Trichomoniasis
 Giardiasis
 Malaria
 Balantidiasis
The CAMP Test is used to differentiate

 S. aureus from S. epidermidis

 S. pyogenes from S.galactiae
 S. viridans from S. pneumonia
 None of these
Cystitis is inflammation of

 the urethra
 the kidneys
 the bladder ‫المثانة‬
 the glomeruli of the kidneys
Why Serology is important ?

 A harmful antigen can be detected

 Rise in amount of antibody is an indicator of exposure , can confirm a diagnosis
 Antibodies bind , precipitate or agglutinate
 All answers are correct
Lipopolysaccharide is found in the cell wall of

 Gram positive bacteria

 Gram Negative bacteria
 Both
 Fungi
Which test is used to differentiate enterococci and group D streptococci from non - group D

 Bacitracin Sensitivity test

 Snyder test
 CAMP test
  Bile esculin test
Giardiasis involves

 a protozoan that does not form cysts.

 infection of the large intestine
 symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea.
 All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following requires treatment with both antibiotics and antitoxins ?

 diphtheria
 tuberculosis
 whooping cough
 scarlet fever
 psittacosis
Conidia are multinucleate spores produced in

 Gametangia
 Basidia
 Sporangia
 Ascus
 None of the above
Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells ?

 Granzymes
 hapten
 Lysozyme
 IL - 2
 Perforin
Which of the following lacks a cell wall?

 Borrelia
 Mycoplasma
 Mycobacterium
 Clostridium
 Nocardia
Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE ?

 Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes

 All protozoa cause disease
  Most protozoa reproduce asexually
 Protozoa are common in water and soil
 Some protozoan pathogens
 are transmitted by arthropod vectors ,
Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by

 Treponema pallidum.
 Chlamydia trachomatis.
 Neisseria gonorrhoeae
 Virus type 2
what is the most common cause agent of a urinary tract infection( UTI)?

 S.agalactiae
 S.aureus
 E.coli
 None of the above
Amount of bacteria indicative of infection in UT

 Bacteruria in urine greater than 10 8 cells/mL

 Urine containing up to 10 3 cells/mL
 Bacteruria in urine greater than 10 5 cells/mL
 enal counts between 10 3 and 10 5 cells/mL
All organisms require at least small amounts of carbondioxide, However as

 Autotrophs
 Phototrophis
 Chemotrophs
 Poto-organotrophs
Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? (quiz )

 bacitracin – inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

 ethambutol – inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
 streptogramin – inhibits protein synthesis
 streptomycin – inhibits protein synthesis
 vancomycin – inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
Which of the following is an infectious particle that does not contain nucleic acid

 virion
 all infectious particles must contain some form of nucleic acid
  retroviruses
 prion

Which of the following diseases is caused by a prion?

 Rabies
 Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
 Poliomylitis
 Wound botulism
Nicodamid prevents ATP generation in mitochondria You would expect this drug be a

 gram-negative bactena
 gram-positive bacteria
 helminths
 um tuberculosis
 viruses.
Organisms using organic compounds as both an energy source and a

 Autotrophs
 Chemotrophs
 Lithotrophs
 Photoheterotrophs
 Chemoheterotrophs
In what stage of syphilis do gummas develop?

 primary
 secondary
 tertiary
 latent
Which of the following statements about Neissonia meningitis is FALSE?

 A healthy carrier state can exist.

 It is encapsulated.
 it is typically transmitted by droplet aerosols or direct contact with
 Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash.
 it is a gram-positive anaerobe
Which of the following arlicles can be sterilized in an autoclave?
 Gloves
 Culture media
 Dressing matenial
 All of these
Oral Thrush and vaginitis are caused by

 herpesvirus.
 Chlamydia trachomatis.
 Candida albicans.
 Staphylecoccus aureus.
 Streptococcus pyogenes
The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the convention of----------to ------------by bacteria.

 glucose, ethanol
 protein, acelic acid
 glycogen lactic acid
 mucosal cells, lactic acid
 urine, lactic acid
All of the following are used as among 4 first-line drugs for treating tuberculosis EXCEPT

 ethambutol
 isoniazid.
 tetracyclines
 rifampin
 pyrazinamide
Which is not a part of the second line of defense?

 lymphocyte
 erythrocyte
 monocyte
 neutrophil
 eosinophil

Warts caused by

 papillomavirus.
 poxvirus.
 herpesvirus.
 parvovirus.
 Staphylococcus aureus.
Which of the following pairs is +?

 leprosy-direct contact
 meningococcal meningitis- respiratory route
 poliomyelitis - respiratory route
 rabies- direct contact
 listernosis- ingestion
Which of the following does NOT cause otitis media?

 Streptococcus pneumoniae
 Haemophilus influenzae
 Streptococcus pyogenes
 Coxiella burnetii
Who used first time the scrapings from the cowpox blisters to prevent smallpox in humans?

 Robert Koch
 Josef Lister
 Edward Jenner
 Louis Pasteur
 Alexander Fleming

In a scanning electron microscope, objects are generally magnified

 100 to 100,000x.
 100 to 10,000x.
 1000 to 100,000x.
 1000 to 10,000x
Which shape of viruses contains 20 equilateral triangles?

 Cylindrical
 lcosahedral
 Binal symmetry
 Triangular
 Circular
Indole test helps to identify enteric bacteria based on the ability of the microbes: (version )

 to produce Gas
  to produceAlkaline products
 To breakdown amino acid Tryptophan
 to produce Neutral products
To which of the following antimicrobial drugs Mycobacterium tuberculosis would be
selectively susceptible ?

 Ampicillin* inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

 Chloramphenicol * inhibits protein synthesis
 Polymixin * leads to injury of plasma membrane
 Lzoniazid * inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
What factor differs the 4 classes of Protozoa?

 How they reproduce

 How they move
 Some are prokaryotic and some are eukaryotic
 Some are autotrophs and some are heterotro
Mueller- Hinton tellurite agar is a differential medium used for distinguishing:

 Neisseria spp
 Haemophilus spp
 Clostridium spp
 Corynebacterium spp
What are the four classes ofProtozo?

 Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, and Protista

 Chordata, Arthropoda, Orthonectida, and Hemichordata
 Sarcodina, Ciliophora, Mastigophora, and Sporozoa
 None of these
"Naked" viruses lack which of the following?

 nucleocapsid
 envelope
 DNA
 RNA
 Helical capsid
What is this technique?
  Streak plate method
 Pour plate method
 Spread plate method
 None of those
Classification of viruses is based on type of nucleic acid, strategy for replication and
morphology.

 true
 false
How can you usually determine the pathogenicity of enteric bacterium?

 by its ability to metabolize glucose; non-fermenters are usually pathogenic, while the
fermenters are not
 by its ability to metabolize sucrose; non-fermenters are usually pathogenic, while the
fermenters are not
 by its ability to metabolize lactose: non-fermenters are usually pathogenic, while the
fermenters are not
 by its ability to hydrolyze urea: non-hydrolyzers are usually pathogenic, while the
fermenters are not
 All answers are correct
Under favorable conditions most protozoa reproduce asexually , by binary fission or
schizegoty

 True
 False
Innate immunity ‫مناعة فطرية‬

 is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.

 is nonspecific and present at birth.
 involves a memory component.
 involves T cells and B cells.
 provides increased susceptibility to disease.
What test allows for the differentiation of Group B streptococci from other- ßhemolytic
streptococci?

 Optchin Sensitivity
 CAMP Test
 Coagulase Test
 Bacitracin Sensitivity
The negative stain is used to

 visualize endospores
 determine Gram reaction
 determine flagella arrangement
 visualize capsules
 determine cell size.
A toxic anion (O2-) with an unpaired electron is

 Ozone
 Peroxidase
 Superoxide radicals
 Superoxide dismutase
Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi.

 True
 False
Which one of the following contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?

 antibiotic resistance
 lapse in aseptic techniques
 lack of handwashing
 lack of insect control
 all of those contribute
Which of the following is a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates?

 Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.

 Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
 Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
 Some diseases are not caused by microbes.
 All are exceptions
What sugar is fermented by all members of the family Enterobacteriaceae
 Fructose
 Glucose
 Lactose
 Sucrose
What is a Sporozoans method of movement?

 Flagella
 Cilia
 No movement
 Pseudo pods
An example of the condition similar to lysogeny in animal cells would be

 Slow viral infection

 Latent viral infection
 T-even bacteriophage infection
 Infections resulting in cell death
 None of the above
Franchesko Redi demonstrated that maggots appeared only in decaying meat that had been
exposed to flies-this was experiments in support of the biogenesis theory

 True
 False
Which of the following antibiotics dose not interfere with cell wall synthesis?

 cephalosporins
 macrolides
 natural penicillins
 semisynthetic penicillins
 vancomycin

Which of the following genera is anaerobic gram-negative rod shape bacteria

 Escherichia
 Staphylococcus
 Bacteroides
 Treponema
 Neisseria
The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat.
What is etiology of symptoms
 bordetella pertussis
 haemophilus influenza
 Corynebacterium diptheriae
 mycobacterium tuberculosis
 The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
The ability of a virus to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the type of viral nucleic
acid.

 True
 Fasle
Koplik spots are a diagnostic for rubella

 True
 False
What is the test that determines susceptibility to dental caries?

 Catalase test
 citrate test
 Snyder test
 Latex agglutination
Standard microbiological practice in BSL 1 requires that you wear :

 gloves and Lab coats any time you work with microbes
 gloves when you work with small quantities of Level 2 organisms
 a face mask at all times in the laboratory
 it is not obligatory to wear gloves, if the work is conducted under biosafety cabinet
Classical pathway of complement activation is antibody mediated

 True
 False
Cytopathic effects are changes in the host cells due to

 viral infections
 protozoans
 fungal infections
 bacterial infections
 helminthic infections
The lowest concentration of antimicrobial that will prevent the growth of an organism after
subculture on to antibiotic-free media is
 Additive effect
 Synergism
 MIVC
 MBC
When phenol red broth ( fermentation broth) turns yellow it indicates:

 carbohydrate fermentation
 pH is lower than 6.8
 Starch hydrolyses
 Only a and b
 Creation of alkaline environment
Which is the correct order of events for sexual reproduction in fungi?

 meiosis, plasmogamy, karyogamy

 plasmogamy, karyogamy, meiosis
 karyogamy, plasmogamy, meiosis
 karyogamy, meiosis, plasmogamy
When performing the Gram stain, what type of specimen is used?

 Live
 Heat-fixed
 Unstained
 Metal-coated

which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular
pathogens?

 T helper cells
 B cells
 Antibodies
 Complement
 T cytolytic cells
The birth of modern chemotherapy is credited to the efforts of

 Alexander Fleming
 Paul Ehrlich.
 Robert Koch
 Louis Pasteur
The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that

 microorganisms are present in a diseased animal

 diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another,
 microorganisms can be cultured.
 microorganisms cause disease.
 microorganisms are the result of disease
…………………..are examples of drugs that are derived from the metabolism of microorganisms

 Salvarsan
 Prontosil
 Penicillin
 A-C are correct
Which of the following is characteristic of innate immunity ?

 It can elicit slow immune response

 B cells originate in bone marrow.
 T Cells are processed in the thymus gland.
 Monocytes are developed into macrophages
Viruses range in size ( diameter) from:

 1-100 nm
 25-300 nm
 10-100 um
 400-1000 nm
 1-10 um
Match the following innate immune system cell types with their function: Macrophages

 Phagocytosis and bacteriocidal mechanisms

 Lysis of some virally infected cells
 Killing parasites
 Release of histamine and other mediators
Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of

 Lactobacillus.
 Streptococcus.
 Mycobacterium.
 Neisseria.
 Candida.
test is used to differentiate group D streptococci from other groups.

 CAMP Test
 Bacitracin Sesitivity
 Catalas Test
 6.5% sodium chloride broth Test
Which of the following statements about parasitic helminths is FALSE?

 They are heterotrophic.

 They are multicellular animals.
 They have eukaryotic cells.
 Their digestive system is more complex than in free-living helminths
 Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.
Which of the following is not an DNA virus?

 Herpesvirus
 Poxvirus
 Papilomavirus
 Adenovirus
 Rubellavirus
Which of the following bacteria causing sexually transmitted disease can not be grown on
artificial media? (version )

 Neisseria gonorrhoeae
 Chlamydia trachomatis
 Treponema pallidum
 Treponema pallidum and Chlamydia trachomatis
When a localized area exhibits increased capillary filtration, hyperemia, and swelling, it is an
indication that

 antibodies are phagocytizing target cells;

 fever is developing:
 antigens are present,
 an immune response is underway Inflammation is occurring
Which of the following is not an effect that a virus can have on the host?
 Subclinical disease
 Induction of cancer
 acute clinical disease
 induction of chronic progressive disease
 All choices are possible
Which of the following Are the cells with the highest phagocytic activity?

 Erythrocytes
 Natural Killers
 Macrophages
 Basophils
 Eosinophils
Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?

 sucrose
 lysozyme
 lactic acid
 crevicular fiuid
The process of eliminating immature T-cells, preventing the body from attacking its own
tissues, is called Thymic Selection

 true
 false
Entamoeba histolytica primarily invades the

 liver
 large intestine
 small intestine
 lungs
----------------------------test is used to differentiate group A streptococci from other groups.

 CAMP Test
 Bacitracin Sesitivity
 Bile esculine Test
 Catalas Test
In the Triple Sugar-Iron Agar Test yellow butt and red slant indicates:
‫صورة محلول‬
 fermentation of glucose has occurred, acid has been produced,does not ferment either
lactose or sucrose
 no fermentation of glucose, lactose or sucrose
 ferments lactose and/or sucrose
 fermentation of glucose has occurred and H2S has been produced

The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT

 competition with the normal flora of the lungs

 IgA antibodies.
 mucous secretions
 the ciliary escalator
 alveolar macrophages.
All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they

 are hermaphroditic.
 are flattened
 have highly developed digestive and nervous systems
 can be divided into flukes and tapeworms
 are multicellular animals
For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or
greater than mortality rates.

 True
 False
Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a
human host?

 lice
 fleas
 houseflies
 mosquitoes
 kissing bugs
DFA test consists of a monoclonal antibody, specific for the A antigen of 01
lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of V,cholerae O1, that is directly labeled with
Fluorescein-Isothio-Cyanate (FITC) for rapid detection and enumeration of V. cholerae in
food, water and stool samples.

 true
 false
Nucleic acids and phospholipids can be conjugated with proteins or polysaccharides to
become better immunogens

 true
 false
The role of classical complement pathway is to lyse invading microbes

 true
 false
Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver?

 Salmonella enterica
 Shigella spp.
 hepatitis A virus
 Vibrio cholerae
 Escherichia coli
TSIA tube does not show fermentation of lactose.

 true
 false
During the process of pasteurization, food is

 decontaminated
 sterilized.
 reduced in the number of organisms that can cause spoilage
 None of these

Which urinary tract bacterium can cause headaches, muscular aches, fever, and possibly
kidney failure as a complication?

 Escherichia coli
 Staphylococcus saprophyticus
 Leptospira interrogans
 Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Parasitic helminthes have the following characteristics except

 are multicellular animals

 have a definitive host where the adult form lives
 have developmental forms that include cysts
 include roundworms
 include tapeworms
Diseases that are referred to as Emerging infectious diseasess have only been discovered in
the past fifty years.

 true
 false
Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or
body fluid?

 lysozyme – tears and saliva

 mucociliary escalator – intestines
 very acidic pH– stomach
 keratin and tightly packed cells – skin
 cerumen and sebum - ear
Nonspecific immune mechanisms do not include

 chemokines
 complement;
 defensins
 memory cells;
 Interferon type

The common word for bacteria which are helically curved rods is

 Cocci
 Pleomorphic
 Bacillus
 Spirilla
The primary victims of the influenza pandemic of 1918-1919 were

 members of the military;

 infants and the elderly;
 residents of Spain; therefore, it was known as the "Spanish Flu."
 young adults;
 US residents
A pregnant ladies has been advised to give her cat away because she could contract

 plague.
 Brukitt's Lymphoma
 toxoplasmosis.
 listeriosis.
 infectious mononucleosis.
What enzyme is responsible for making a DNA copy of the virus genome in a retrovirus?

 DNA polymerase;
 DNA polymerase ll
 RNA polymerase
 Reverse transcriptase
 Reverse polymerase
------,------- and ----------are the three most abundant antibodies in blood: and

 IgA, IgD, and IgE

 IgA, IgE, and IgG
 lgG, IgA, and IgM
 lgE, IgG, and IgM
 IgD, IgE, and IgM
An individual who has never been infected with varicella can get shingles as an adult.

 true
 false

A chemical component that is NOT found in all viruses is:

 Protein
 Lipid
 DNA
 RNA
Poultry products are a likely source of infection by

 Helicobacter pylori.
 Salmonella enterica
 Vibrio cholerae
 Shigella spp
 Clostridium perfringens
Which of the following regulations should be observed in order to aveid injry and infection

 Wash hands with bad dere ahacterl sop

 Tie hack long hair
 Wash handa with detergent, te back long hair speak quietly and avoid unnccessary
movements around while in the laboratory
A child with pus-filled vesicles and scabs on his face, throat, and back most likely has Chicken
pox , caused by a herpesvirus infection

 True
 False
Viroids are composed of

 single-stranded DNA
 double-stranded DNA
 Shingle-stranded circular RNA
 double-stranded circular RNA
 DNA and RNA
Exfoliative toxin of Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for

 otitis externa
 impetigo
 fever blisters
 scalded skin syndrome
 thrush
What is cell deterioration due to viral infections termed

 transformation
 transduction
 cytopathic effect
 plaque
Urinary infection may be caused by an unusually diverse group of microorganisms that
includes bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses

 True
 False
Fixed macrophages that are found in the liver are called

 alveolar macrophages
 microglial cells
 Kupffer's cells
 peritoneal macrophages
Fungi

 Do not contain chloroplasts

 Do not make their own food
 Have cell wall that contain chitin
 All of above
Administration of anti-toxic antibodies is not an effective method for treatment of tetanus

 True
 False
Basidiospores are borne on the ends of

 Primary mycelia
 basidiocarps
 Oidiophore
 Basidium

Humoral immunity is mediated by antibodies from…………and is involved in the elimination of

………….pathogms Cell mediated immunity is mediated by……….. and is involved in the
elimination of………….. pathogens

 B lymphocytes, Intracellular, T lymphocytes, Extracellular

 B lymphocytes, Extracellular, T lymphocytes, Intracellular
 T lymphocytes, Intracellular, B lymphocytes Extracellular
 T lymphocytes, Extracellular, B lymphocytes; Intracellular
While removing a clean glass tube from its box, you accidentally drop the tube, and it
shatters on the floor Which of the following best describes what should you do?

 Sweep up the broken glass, and dispose of it in a designated container for broken glass
 Sweep up the broken glass, and dispose of it in a biohazard waste container
 Sweep up the broken glass, and put it in a designated area lo be autoclaved.
 Soak the broken glass with disinfectant for at least 20 minutes, then sweep up and
dispose of it in a designated container for broken glass
Bacteriophage are readily counted by the process of

 immunoassays
 ELISA
 Plaque assays
 tissue cell culture
 Electron Microscopy
Viruses multiply inside living cell using viral mRNA, IRNA and ribosomes

 True
 False
Put the following units of measurement in order, from largest to smallest:
I. Millimeter

II. Centimeter
III. Micrometer
IV. Meter
V. Nanometer

 V, II, I, II, IV
 IV, II, I, III, V
 V, III, II, I, IV
 II, V, I, II, IV
A 60-year-old woman is hospitalized following a stroke and develops a high-grade fever with
chills. She is catheterized due to urinary incontinence and receives cephalosporin for
treatment of pneumonia. Blood cultures and Gram stain are performed by the laboratory.
The organisms isolated are gram-positive cocci that are catalase-negative and capable of
growth in 6.5% sodium chloride. Which of the following is the most likely causal agent?

 Enterococcus faecalis
 Streptococcus pyogenes
  Staphylococcus epidermidis
 Staphylococcus aureus
 Viridans streptococci
What is true regarding lag phase ?

 Microorganisms increase in size of cell and metabolic rate

 The cells start dividing and their member increase by geometric progression
 Rate of multiplication and death becomes almost equal
 Population of the cells decreases
Free- living protozoan usually have complex life cycles that take place in a host.

 True
 False
Flu viruses change constantly that requires a new vaccine to be produced each year

 True
 False
Fixed phagocytic cells in the epidermis are called

 lysozymes
 goblet cells
 B-cells
 antigens
 dendritic cells
Which one of the following causes a discase characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal,
convalescent stages?

 Bordetella pertussis
 Corynebacterium diphtheriae
 Mycobacterium tuberculosis
 Streptococcus pyogenes
 respiratory syncytial virus
Long hair in the Lab mt be

 Cut short
 Held away from the experiment with the hand
 Tied back or kept entirely out of the way with a band, band hair pins or other confining
device
 Always neatly groomed
If the following re placed in the order of occurrence, which would be the third step

 Chemotaxis
 Formation of a phagosome
 digestion
 Formation of a phagolysosome
 ingestion
E.coli tum red/ pink on MacConkey(MAC) aga giving a positive reaction

 True
 False
Methyl Red Test detects the ability of microorganism to ferment glucose to produce acidic
end products

 True
 False

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza

 fever
 chills
 headache
 diarrhea
 muscle aches
Pathogenic dimorphic fungi are mold -like at 37C and yeast-like at 25C

 True
 False
Many of the same organisms that infect upper respiratory system can also infect the lower
respiratory system

 True
 False
What is not characteristic for IgM antibody

 Primary antibody in response to challenge

 most efficient for complement fixation
 Efficient for bacterial and viral agglutination
  Monomer with low molecular weight
B cell mature in the………….while T cells mature in the

 Thymus bone marrow and gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)

 Spleen bone marrow and GALT
 bone marrow and GALT/Thymus
 Liver/ Kidneys
In urinary tract infections gender can be considered a viable predisposing factor

 True
 False
Typical monomer antibody consists of two heavy chains

 True
 False

Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched

 vector - Anopheles
 etiology -Plasmodium
 found in liver-sporozoites
 diagnosis presence of merozoites
 treatment – antibacterial antibiotics
Long hair, hanging jewelry, and loose clothing can be dangerous in lab

 True
 False
Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE

 It is contracted during the first trimester of pregnancy

 it may be fatal to the unborn child
 It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation
 it does not occur with subclinical infections
 it can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy.
How do moldsreproduce
  Schinogony
 Budding
 Conjuga
 Sporulation
On the image, which letter represents the objective?

 A
 B
 C
 E
Neutrophils respond to infection by releasing antibody proteins into the blood

 True
 False
The TLR's and Antimicrobial peptides, but not the complement system are involved in innate
immunity

 True
 False

Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1?

 cold sores
 herpes gladiatorum
 herpes whitlow
 herpes encephalitis
 all answers are correct
S.pneumoniacan be differentiate from other a hemolytic Streptococci on the basis of

 CAMP Test
 Bacitracin Sensitivity
 Optochin Sensitivity
 Bile esculin Test
Which of the following is not possible?

 single-stranded DNA virus

 double-stranded DNA viras
 One single-stranded RNA and one single-stranded DNA in same virus
 single-stranded RNA virus
  double-stranded RNA virus
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

 teleomorph- produces both sexual and asexual spores

 dermatomycosis-fungal infection of the a grows as a yeast or a mold
 dilemmic fungus-grows as a y body organs
 system mycosis-fungal infection of body organ
 coenocytic hyphae-hyphae with cross-walls
Respiratory mucus contains IgG antibodies.

 True
 False

In the brain, cerebrospinal fluid flows through the

 subdural space
 subarachnoid space.
 arachnoid mater
 pia matter
The bacterial cell wall may be a potential target for antibiotics

 True
 False
Negative staining requires use of:

 Basic stain
 Acidic stain
 Multiple stains
 Neutral stain
Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?

 The pathogen reproduces in the vector

 The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces.
 Houseflies, as biological vectors, can transmit important diseases
 The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector
 The pathogen may require the vector as a host
A 8 year patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She
most likely has

 measles
 mumps
 chickenpos
 rubella
 smallpox
Indirect ELISA or Indirect immunosorbent assay -is used for detection of test antibodies(Ab)

 True
 False
What type of device is used to sterilize solid or liquid media

 Bacticinerator
 Laser beams
 Autoclave
 Alcohol Burners
The first successful recorded experimental variolation with cow pox was carried out by:

 Louis Pasteur
 llia Metchnikoff
 Edward Jenner
 Lady Montague
The Clostridiales- the endospore-producing rod-shaped obligate anaerobs, belong to Gram-
positive bacteria with the low G C content

 True
 False
Naturally acquired active immunity would be most likely acquired through which of the
following processes?

 Vaccination
 drinking colostrum
 natural birth
 infection with disease causing organism followed by recovery
the organ of locomotion of bacteria is

 capsule
 slime layer
 flagella
 capsule
A positive test for leukocyte esterase indicates an active infection

 True
 False
Agglutination involves the clumping together of insoluble molecules.

 True
 False
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are classified agranulocytes

 True
 False
Which of the following was the first widely used antiseptic and disinfect

 Chlorine
 Phenol
 iodine
 Alcohol

Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne

 True
 False
A urinary tract infection might involve the

 kidney
 urethra
 bladder
 All of the above
All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT

 they are a type of lymphocyte

  they are found in tissues of the lymphatic system
 they have the ability to kill infected body cells and some tumor cells
 they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis
 they release toxic substances that cause cell lysis or apoptosis
MHC-Il molecules are expressed on all nucleated cells

 True
 False
Representatives of free-living protozoa can be easily found in pond water and characterized
under the life microscope using

 Gram staining technique

 Wet Mount technique
 Spread plate technique
In the direct ELISA test the antigen will attach to

 the antigen
 the enzyme-linked antibody
 the wall of the microtiter well
 a and e are the true answers
 b and e are the true answers
What term refers to fungal infections deep within the body

 systemic mycoses
 cutaneous mycoses
 subcutaneous mycoses
 superficial mycoses

The stage of HIV virus replication where the envelope is being acquired and the virus is
leaving the host cell known as budding

 True
 False
A foreign non-immunogenic substance that has a low molecular weight in called

 allergen
 hapten
 antigenic determinant
 dimer
A 24-year-old female presents with dysuria, as well as urinary urgency and frequency . A
urine dipstick test is positive for both leukocyte esterase and nitrites. What genus or family is
noted for the production of nitrite

 Escherichia
 Staphylococcus
 Streptococcus
 Vibrio
Media that make it easier to distinguish colonies of the desired organism from other colonies
growing on the same plate is enrichment medium

 True
 False
Which of the following is NOT controlled by a mosquito eradication program?

 chikungunya fever
 yellow fever
 dengue fever
 rheumatic fever
 malaria
In CAMP test the strain of B-hemolytic--------------- streptococci is used to increase the
hemolytic effect of Group B streptococci

 S. epidermidis
 S. capitis
 s. saprophyticus
 S. aureus
The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms?

 Corynebacterium
 Rhinovirus
 Bordetella
 Streptococcus
 The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
Herpesviridae are

 Single-stranded DNA vins

 Single-stranded RNA virus
 Double-stranded DNA virus
 Double-stranded RNA virus
A discase acquired by many people in a given area in a relatively short period of time is called

 pandemic
 epidemic
 sporadic
 endemic
Which Class of antibody is most common in the blood and can cross the placenta

 lgM
 IgE
 IgA
 IgG
 lgD
What is the bacterial name causative agent of the Pneumonic and Bubonic Plague

 Yersiniaenterogelitica
 Yersiniapseudontuberculosis
 Yersiniapesitis
 Yersiniaintermedia
Saliva and lacrimal fluids contain this enzyme that destroys bacteria

 Reverse transcriptase
 pepsin
 amylases
 trypsin
 lysozyme
A Solution credited to Louis Pasteur and intended to prevent food for spoilage, has ben
termed

 Disinfection
 Aseptic technique
 Pasteurization
 Sterilization
 Filtration
Which of the following pairs is mismatched

 Chickenpox * poxvirus
 conjunctivitis *Chlamydia trachomatis
 keratitis * Acanthamocba
 otitis extrema - Pseudomonas
  Buruli ulcer * Mycobacterium

A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT

 total number of white blood cells

 number of each type of white blood cell
 number of platelets
 leukocytosis
 leukopenia
Which of the following statements regarding symbiosis is TRUE

 At least one member must not benefit in a symbiotic relationship

 Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
 A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host
 Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other
 At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship
Dark ground microscopy is used for detection of

 spirochetes
 fungi
 chlamydia
 virus
The only protozoan that causes an STI, which affects mostly women, is

 Trichomonas vaginalis
 Gardnerella vaginalis
 Mycoplasma hominis
 Haemophilus ducreyi
All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT

 infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water

 initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine
 most cases result in severe muscle paralysis
 the majority of cases are asymptomatic.
 the oral polio vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus
The indigestible material in the phagolysosome is called the
  Golgi body
 residual body
 phagosome
 lysozyme
Which of the following organisms causes bloody diarrhea ?

 Giardia lamblia
 Salmonella enterica
 Taenia spp
 Vibrio parahaemolyticus
 Entamoeba histolytica
Cell wall of fungi contains following substances EXCEPT

 Chitin
 Glucan
 Mannan
 Peptidoglycan
Which of the following inference(s) indicate(s) the ability of an organism to utilize citrate as a
sole source of carbon in Simcoe’s citrate medium?

 Blue colour and Appearance of growth

 Green colour and Appearance of growth
 Red colour and Appearance of growth
 Yellow colour and Appearance of growth
 None of these
Genital candidiasis is a disease that only affects women.

 True
 False
A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and surmounted
by capsid

 True
 False
Bacturcult is sterile plastic tube coated with a special medium. For the presumptive
identification of bacteria, the medium contains two substrates, sucrose and urea, and the pH
indicator.

 True
 False
Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay ?

 plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel,

decay in tooth pulp
 decay in dentin, plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay
through enamel ,decay in tooth pulp
 plaque accumulation, destruction of tooth pulp, advancement of decay through
enamel, decay in dentin
 destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, plaque accumulation,
decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp
Clostridium difficile - scand diarrhea is usually preceded by

 eating contaminated food

 a blood transfusion
 extended use of antibiotics
 improper food storage
 travel to an underdeveloped country
The actor which can ferment mannitol is

 Epidermidis
 Saprophyticus
 Saurous
 S Pyogenes
In opsonization, antigens that are coated with antibodies are susceptible to

 B cells
 T helper cells
 phagocytosis
 complement
The male urethra is typically store

 true
 false
The most effective control of mosquito-bone disease is

 treatment of infected humans

 treatment of infected wild animals
 emanation of the most population
 avoidance of endemic areas
 treatment of uninfected humans
Receiving antibodies through breast a name of active

 True
 false
More than half of the antibiotics used in the medical practice are

 produced by fungi
 produced by bacteria
 synthesized in laboratories.
 produced by eukaryotic organisms.
Indolo test helps to identity enteric bacteria based on the midity of the microbes to produce
Gas A ( B )
to produceAlkaline products

To breakdown amino acid Tryptophan

to produce Neutral products
Steam exposure of a material at 100 - C for 20 minutes for three consecutive days is known as


 Tyndallization
 autoclaving
 none of these

Which of the two sean punct with animante

 Charachi
 Morakelia tara
 Staphylocos Sur
 Streptococcus pneumonia
What is the most common cause of acuto upper respiratory diseases ?

 Bacteria
 Fungi
 Viruses
 parazites
 all of the above
Staphylococcus Musproduce the lonelytic enzyme DNA

 true
 false
The fungi have a nucleus and cell wall

 true
 false
The name of Alexander Fleming wisated with

 fermentation
 cination
 copie urge
 Antibacterial
 Chemotherapy

Each of the following orgon me is an important ca efnary techos except

 Klebsiella pneumoniae
 Escherichia coli
 Bacteriodes fragilis
 Proteus mirabilis
The cradication of smailigawan is posible because

 it was a relatively mild disease

 insect vectors were eliminated
 there are no animal reservoirs of the virus
 it can be prevented with the same vaccine used to prevent chickenpox
 it occurs only in the tropics
Mixed Cultures are suitable for the study of their cultural, morphological and biochemical
properties

 true
 false
Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE ?

 It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin

 It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food.
  It can be prevented by heating foods at 50 ° C for 15 minutes
 It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms
Chlamydia , Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma cause non gonococcal uthentis

 true
 false
Amebiasis symptoms include bloody , mucustod stools verdad

 true
 false.
Which Microorganism is responsible for otitis externa ?

 Staphylococcus aureus
 Streptococcus pyogenes
 Propionibacterium spp
 Micrococcus spp
 Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV - 1 ?

 cold sores
 herpes gladiatorum
 herpes whitlow
 herpes encephalitis
 all answers are correct
Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gone ?

 capsid proteins
 ONA polymerase
 envelope process
 spike proteins
 lysozyme
Most yeast reproduction cours by

 budding
 conidia
 ascospores
 basidiospores
The si o T cell maturation is the

 Thymus
 Spleen
 Appende B
 Payer's patches
Adenoviridae and Poxviridae are similar by content of

 Single - stranded RNA

 Double - stranded DNA
 Double - stranded RNA
 Single - stranded DNA
20% of infections in non hospitalized patients in caused by

 P. aeruginosa
 Konytova
 S marcescens
 Eco

The most effective of motorne disease is

 treatment of infected humans

 treatment of infected wild animals
 elimination of the mosquito population
 avoidance of ander areas
 treatment of uninfected humans