Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

Physics 3. A cubical block of mass m, and side a, is

pulled on a horizontal plane by means of a
1. Consider a thin circular ring (A), a circular horizontal force F , acting at its centre. The
disc (B), a hollow cylinder (C) and a solid force of kinetic friction opposing the forward
cylinder (D) of the same radii R and of the F
motion is . The torque due to friction is
same masses. 2
(about its centre):

(A) (B)

1. F a
Fa
2.
2
(C) (D) Fa

If IA , IB , IC and ID are their moments of 3. 4

inertia about the axis shown, then choose the Fa
correct answer from the options given below: 4.
2 √2
1. IA = IC and 2IB = ID
2. IA = 2IB and 2IC = ID 4. A closed tube partly filled with water lies in a
3. 2IA = IC and IB = 2ID horizontal plane. The tube rotates about a
4. IA = IB = IC = 2ID perpendicular bisector with angular velocity ω.
If the tube stops rotating, the moment of inertia
of the system:
2. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at 1. increases.
rest is free to turn about an axis that is 2. decreases.
perpendicular to its plane and passes through 3. remains constant.
its centre. It is subjected to a torque that 4. depends on the sense of rotation.
produces a constant angular acceleration of
2 2
2.0 rad/s . Its net acceleration in m/s at the

end of 2.0 s is approximately:

1. 7 2. 6
3. 3 4. 8

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

5. A beam positioned on a fulcrum is 6 m long. 7. Two identical uniform rods of mass m,

It has a weight of 300 N attached to one end length L (each) are joined at their centres at
and a weight of 250 N attached to the other right angles, as shown in the figure. The
end. moment of inertia of the system about an axis
passing through A, perpendicular to the plane
of the rods is:

To establish mechanical equilibrium, the

fulcrum must be placed:
1. 2.87 m from the 250-N weight
2. 3.00 m from the 250-N weight
3. 3.27 m from the 250-N weight
4. 5.67 m from the 250-N weight 2 5
1. 2
mL 2. 2
mL
3 12

5 7
6. A (2 × 2) square sheet is cut out from a 3. mL
2
4. mL
2

(4 × 4) square sheet as shown in the figure.

6 6

The shift in centre-of-mass would be:

(Assume length and breadth are measured in
meters.) 8. A projectile is fired with a constant speed v,
at an angle θ above the horizontal. The angular
momentum of the projectile about the point of
projection, measured at the instant the
projectile is at its highest point,
is: (A : constant)
1. A sin θ cos θ
2. A sin θ cos θ
2

3. A sin θ cos2 θ
4. A(sin θ + cos θ)

9. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius

√2 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of
1. 2. 2 √2 m
3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π
m
3
revolutions is:
√74
3. m 4. 1 m 1. 2 × 106 N-m
3 −6
2. 2 × 10 N-m
3. 2 × 10−3 N-m
4. 12 × 10−4 N-m

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

10. For the uniform T shaped structure, with 12. Given below are two statements:
mass 3M , the moment of inertia about an axis The centre-of-mass of a system
normal to the plane and passing through O of particles lying on a straight
Statement I:
would be: line must lie between the two
extreme particles.
The centre-of-mass of a system
of bodies moving with different
Statement II:
velocities, cannot be moving
with constant velocity.

Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is

2 1.
1. Ml
2
2. Ml
2
correct.
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2 2 2.
3.
Ml
4.
Ml correct.
3 2 Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
incorrect.
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
11. Two masses A and B, each of mass M are 4.
incorrect.
fixed together by a massless spring. A force acts
on the mass B as shown in the figure. If mass A
starts moving away from mass B with 13. A block of mass m slides down the smooth
acceleration a, then the acceleration of mass B inclined surface of a wedge of mass M starting
from rest. The wedge is at rest on the horizontal
surface beneath it, due to friction. The
will be: acceleration of the center of mass of the system
M a−F MF
of the block and the wedge is:
1. M
2. F +M a

F +M a F −M a
3. M
4. M

mg sinθ mg cosθ
1. 2.
m + M m + M

3. g sinθ 4. zero

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

14. A uniform rod AB, lying on a smooth 16. A cubical block of mass m, and side a, is
horizontal plane, (the plane of the paper; here, pulled along a horizontal plane by means of a
is horizontal!) is given an impulse P at the end horizontal force F , acting at its centre. The
A, perpendicular to itself. The mass of the rod force of friction opposing the forward motion
is m, and its length L. Then: F
equals . The torque due to normal reaction
2
on the block is (about its centre):

a
1. zero 2. mg ⋅
2
a
The velocity of the centre-of-mass of the rod 3.
Fa
4. (mg − F )
1. P 4 2
is .
m

The rod undergoes translation as well as

2.
rotation. 17. The moments of inertia of four bodies, all
The rod undergoes rotational motion in the having the same mass and radius, are reported
3. as follows:
clockwise direction.
4. All of the above are true. Moment of inertia of thin circular ring about
I1
its diameter
Moment of inertia of circular disc about an
15. The radius of gyration for a solid sphere of I 2 axis perpendicular to the disc and going
radius R and mass M rotating about an axis through the centre
passing through its centre is: Moment of inertia of solid cylinder about its
I3
2 2 axis
1. R 2. R
5 3 Moment of inertia of solid sphere about its
I4
diameter
2 2
3. √ R 4. √ R
5 3 Which of the following relationships is correct?
1. I1 + I3 < I2 + I4
5
2. I1 + I2 = I3 +
2
I4

3. I1 = I2 = I3 > I4

4. I1 = I2 = I3 < I4

18. A motor that is switched on, accelerates

uniformly from rest to a maximum speed of
600 rpm in 20 s. The angular acceleration is:
2
1. 30 rad/s
2
2. 30 rev/s
2
3. 1 rev/s

1 2
4. rev/s
2

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

19. A massless metre stick sits on a fulcrum at 21. Which of the following statements are
its 0.4 m mark. A 6 kg mass sits on the metre correct?
stick at 0.2 m mark. What mass is required to centre of mass of a body always coincides
sit at the 0.9 m mark in order to have torque (a) with the centre of gravity of the body .
balance? (take g = 10 m/s2) centre of gravity of a body is the point
1. 2.4 kg 2. 4.5 kg (b) about which the total gravitational torque
3. 10 kg 4. 15 kg on the body is zero.
a couple on a body produce both
(c)
translational and rotation motion in a body.
20. A uniform rod (AB) of mass 3m and length mechanical advantage greater than one
l, is pivoted at A so that it can rotate freely in a (d) means that small effort can be used to lift a
vertical plane. The rod is initially in the vertical large load.
position, hanging under gravity. A bullet of
mass m, travelling horizontally with a velocity 1. (a) and (b) 2. (b) and (c)
v, strikes the rod at the end B and gets 3. (c) and (d) 4. (b) and (d)
embedded in it.

22. Given below are two statements:

If the same mass is drawn into
the making of a solid sphere
and a hollow sphere, the
Assertion (A): moment of inertia about the
diameter of a hollow body is
greater than that of a solid
body.
During the collision with the bullet, the impulse The moment of inertia depends
by the hinge is: on the mass distribution from
mv the axis of rotation and in a
1. in the backward direction Reason (R):
2
hollow sphere, more of the
mv mass is further away from the
2. in the forward direction axis of rotation.
2
mv
3. in the backward direction Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
4 1.
mv correct explanation of (A).
4. in the forward direction Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4 2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

23. A particle is moving along a straight line

with increasing speed. What happens to its
angular momentum about a fixed point on this
line?
1. It continuously increases.
2. It continuously decreases.
It may either increase or decrease depending
3.
on the direction of motion.
4. It remains zero.

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

24. A body is rotating with kinetic energy, E. If 27. A circular platform is mounted on a
the angular velocity of the body is increased to frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R = 2 m
three times of the initial angular velocity then and its moment of inertia about the axle is
kinetic energy becomes nE. What would be the 2
200 kg m . It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man
value of n? stands on the edge of the platform and begins
1. 3 to walk along the edge at the speed of 1 ms−1
2. 7 relative to the ground. The time taken by man
3. 9 to complete one revolution is:
4. 5 3π
1. 2
s

25. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 2. 2π s

π
500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm 3. 2 s
mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the 4. π s

rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass m is

suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as 28. Three identical spheres, each of mass M ,
shown in the figure. What would be the value are placed at the corners of a right-angle
of m such that the rod is in equilibrium? triangle with mutually perpendicular sides
(Take g = 10 (m/s )
2 equal to 2 m (see figure). Taking the point of
intersection of the two mutually perpendicular
sides as the origin, find the position vector of
the centre of mass.

1 1
1. kg 2. kg
6 12

1 1
3. kg 4. kg
2 3

26. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m 1. 2(^

i + ^
j)

and 2m with moments of inertia IA and IB 2. ^

i + ^
j
(IB > IA ) have equal kinetic energy of 2
3. ^ ^
( i + j)
rotation. If LA and LB be their angular 3
4

momenta respectively, then: 4. 3

^ ^
( i + j)

LB
1. LA =
2
29. What is the value of linear velocity, if the
2. LA = 2LB

3. LB > LA
angular velocity vector is ω → = 3^i − 4^j + k ^

4. LA > LB →
and the position vector is r ^ ^ ^
= 5 i − 6 j + 6k?

1. −18^ ^ ^
i − 13 j + 2k

2. 18^ ^ ^
i + 13 j − 2k

3. 6^
i + 2^ ^
j − 3k

4. 6^
i − 2^ ^
j + 8k

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

30. Four rings, each with mass M and radius R, 32. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg
are arranged as shown in the figure. The respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat.
moment of inertia of the system about the axis The length of the boat is 3.0 m and weighs
yy is:
′
100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg

man and sits with him. If the boat is in still

water, the centre of mass of the system shifts
by:
1. 3.0 m
2. 2.3 m
3. zero
4. 0.75 m

33. Given below are two statements:

For a body under translatory as well as
Assertion (A): rotational equilibrium, net torque about
any axis is zero.
1. 2M R2
2. 3M R2 Together ΣF→i → →
= 0 and Σ (r i × F i ) =

3. 4M R2 Reason (R):
→i
implies that Σ (r
→
→
− r0 ) × F = 0 .
4. 5M R2

31. An object of mass m is attached to a rod of

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
negligible mass and length L. The rod is fixed 1.
correct explanation of (A).
to the ground at point O and lifted in such a
way that the rod is nearly vertical position. The Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
rod was then dropped to the ground, taking a correct explanation of (A).
semi-circular path back to the ground. If the 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
rod makes an angle θ with the horizontal, at an 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
instant as it falls, what is the torque about point
O?

34. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It

explodes into three fragments having masses in
the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal
masses fly off along mutually perpendicular
directions with speed v, the speed of the third
(lighter) fragment is:
1. 3√2v 2. v

3. √2v 4. 2√2v

1. Lmg sinθ
2. Lmg cosθ
3. mg sinθ
4. mg cosθ

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

35. The moment of inertia of a uniform 38. Two identical solid spheres, each with a
triangular lamina about its base BC is: (where mass of 1.0 kg and a radius of 5.0 cm, are fixed
m ≡ mass of the lamina, ha ≡ its altitude) at the ends of a light rod. The separation
between the centers of the spheres is 40.0 cm.
The moment of inertia of the system about an
axis perpendicular to the rod, passing through
its midpoint is:
1. 2 × 10−3 kg-m2 2. 41 × 10−3 kg-m2
3. 82 × 10−3 kg-m2 4. 82 × 10−2 kg-m2
2
mha
1. mha
2
2.
2
2 2
39. A uniform metre stick of mass M is hinged
3.
mha
4.
mha at one end and supported in a horizontal
3 6 direction by a string attached to the other end.
What should be the initial acceleration (in
rad/sec2) of the stick if the string is cut?
36. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is 1. 3 g 2. g 3. 3g 4. 4g
fixed, so that it is free to rotate in its own plane, 2

about the centre O. A force F is applied

tangentially to the disc, continuously, for one
complete revolution, starting from rest. 40. What is the ratio of the radius of gyration of
a solid sphere to that of a solid cylinder, given
that both objects have the same mass and
radius?

The angular acceleration (α) of the disc is:

F F
1. 2.
2M R MR

2F 3F
3. 4.
MR 2M R

2
37. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg 1. 2.
√5

respectively are attached to the two ends of a √5 2

rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible 2 2

mass. The centre of mass of the system from the 3. √ 4.
5 √3
5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of:

1. 50 cm
2. 67 cm
3. 80 cm
4. 33 cm

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

41. A uniform beam 3.0 m long, of weight 43. Two identical blocks are connected by an
100 N has a 300 N weight placed 0.5 m from ideal spring and the system is allowed to
one end. The beam is suspended by a string oscillate, when undergoing horizontal
1.0 m from the same end. A diagram of the displacements in opposite directions, with the
weights placed on the beam is given below: centre-of-mass at rest. O is the mid-point of the
spring, A is the left end point, B is the right
end-point. The motion of A is described by:
x = A0 sin ωt (displacement is taken to be
A

positive rightward).
Then, the motion of the point B is described
by:

How far from the other end must a weight of

80 N be placed for the beam to be balanced?

1. 0.75 m 2. 2.25 m
3. 1.25 m 4. 1.875 m
1. xB = A0 sin ωt 2. xB = A0 cos ωt

42. The 2 kg block is connected by a light rope 3. xB = A0 sin(ωt + π) 4. xB = A0 cos(ωt + π)

which wraps around the pulley. The pulley has
a radius of 50 cm and a moment of inertia of
2
0.5 kg-m . Assuming that the rope does not
44. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a
slip on the pulley, the acceleration of the 2 kg fixed point, its angular momentum is directed
along:
block is:
1. a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
the line making an angle of 45∘ to the plane
2.
of rotation
3. the radius
4. the tangent to the orbit

45. The ratio of the moments of inertia of two

g 2g spheres, about their diameters, having the
1. 2. same mass and their radii being in the ratio of
2 5
g 1 : 2, is:
4g
3. 4. 1. 2 : 1 2. 4 : 1
3 5
3. 1 : 2 4. 1 : 4

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

Chemistry 50. The energy of an electron is given by – 2.178

Z
2

46. Given below are the quantum numbers for ×10 ) . The wavelength of light
−18
J(
2
n
two cases:
1
required to excite an electron in a hydrogen
(a) (n = 4, ms = − 2 ) atom from level n = 1 to n = 2 will be (given, h =
(b) (n = 3, l = 0) 6.62 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1):
How many electrons in an atom can have these 1. 1.214 × 10–7 m
quantum numbers, respectively?
2. 2.816 × 10–10 m
1. 16, 3 3. 6.500 × 10–17 m
2. 18, 2 4. 8.500 × 10–13 m
3. 16, 2
4. 2, 16 51. In which of the following transitions of
hydrogen atom, radiation of minimum
47. According to Bohr's model, how does the frequency is emitted ?
radius of the third orbit compare to the radius 1. n2 = ∞ to n1 = 1
of the first orbit? 2. n2 = 2 to n1 = 1
1. Equal to the radius of the first orbit 3. n2 = 3 to n1 = 2
2. Three times the radius of the first orbit 4. n2 = ∞ to n1 = 3
3. Five times the radius of the first orbit
4. Nine times the radius of the first orbit 52. A ball weighing 10 g is moving with a
velocity of 90 ms–1. If the uncertainty in its
48. Which of the following statements is/are not
velocity is 5 %, then the uncertainty in its
correct?
(a) Isotones differ in the number of neutrons. position is X × 10–33 m. The value of X will be :
Isobars contain the same number of [Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js]
(b) neutrons but differ in the number of 1. 1.17
protons. 2. 1.37
3. 1.67
(c) No isotope of hydrogen is radioactive.
4. 1.97
The density of the nucleus is much greater
(d)
than that of an atom. 53. Which of the following statements about
Choose the correct option: visible light is correct?
1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (b), (c) and (d) The product of wavelength and frequency is
1.
3. (b) and (c) 4. All of the above. a constant for visible light in a vacuum.
As the wavelength of light increases, the
2.
energy of a photon increases.
49. The total number of lines in Lyman series of As the wavelength of light increases, its
H spectrum will be: 3.
amplitude also increases.
(where n = no. of orbits) Green light has a higher frequency than blue
1. n 2. n -1 4.
light.
3. n - 2 4. n(n + 1)

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

54. Which orbital has the maximum number of 58. A particular station of All India Radio, New
total nodes? Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz
1. 5s (kilohertz). The wavelength of the
2. 5p electromagnetic radiation emitted by the
3. 5d transmitter is: [speed of light, c = 3. 0 × 108
4. All have the same number of nodes. ms
−1
]
1. 2192 m 2. 21.92 cm
55. What is the maximum number of electrons
3. 219.3 m 4. 219.2 m
that can be associated with the following set of
quantum numbers?
n = 3, l = 1 and m = –1.
1. 6 59. Consider the given two statements:
2. 4 No two electrons in an atom can
3. 2 Assertion (A): have the same values of four
4. 10 quantum numbers.
No two electrons in an atom can
be simultaneously in the same
56. Which of the following statements about Reason (R): shell, same subshell, same
cathode ray discharge tubes is correct? orbitals, and have the same
spin.
The electrical discharge can only be In light of the above statements, choose the
1. observed at high pressure and at low answer from the options given below:
voltage. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
In the absence of an external electrical and correct explanation of (A).
2. magnetic field, cathode rays travel in straight Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
lines. correct explanation of (A).
The characteristics of cathode rays depend 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3.
upon the material of the electrodes. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
The characteristics of cathode rays depend
4.
upon the gas present in the cathode ray tube.
60. How many orbitals are occupied by one or
two electrons in Cr (Z = 24)?
57. The incorrect statement about spectra is: 1. 10
Atomic spectra can be used in chemical 2. 12
1. 3. 14
analysis to identify unknown atoms.
Each element in the gaseous state has a 4. 15
2.
unique line spectrum.
61. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is
The number of lines in the spectrum is the
3. 13.6 eV. What is the ionization energy of a Li²⁺
same as the number of electrons in the atom.
ion?
The splitting of spectral lines in the presence
1. 54.4 eV 2. 122.4 eV
4. of an electric field is known as the Stark
effect. 3. 13.6 eV 4. 3.4 eV

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

62. What is the nature of the graph between the 64. In Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, if
kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and uncertainty in the position (Δx) is equal to the
the frequency of the incident radiation, based uncertainty in the momentum (Δp) then
on Einstein's photoelectric equation? uncertainty in the velocity (Δv) will be:
1 h 1 h
1. √ 2. √
m 2π 2m π

1 h 1 h
3. √ 4. √
1. m π 2m 2π

65. The number of d -electrons in Fe2+ (atomic

number Z = 26) is different from the number
of:
1. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
2. p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)
2. 3. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
4. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)

66. The variation of radial probability density

R2(r) as a function of distance (r ) of the
electron from the nucleus for 3p-orbital is
captured in which of the following graphs?

3.
1. 2.

3. 4.
4.

67. Bohr's atomic model provides explanations

for:
1. The spectrum of hydrogen atoms only.
63. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of
The spectrum of an atom or ion containing
mass 6.63 g moving with a velocity of 100 ms−1 2.
is: only one electron.
1. 10
−33
m
3. The spectrum of hydrogen molecule.
2. 10
−35
m
4. The solar spectrum.
3. 10
−31
m

4. 10
−25
m

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

68. Identify the graph that correctly depicts the 71. The energy of electron in the ground state
variation of momentum with the de-Broglie (n = 1) for He+ ion is -xJ , then that for an
wavelength of a particle. 3+
electron in n = 2 state for Be ion in J is :
x
1. − 2. −4x
9

4
1. 2. 3. − x 4. −x
9

72. Two electrons occupying the same orbital

are distinguished by:
1. Magnetic quantum number
2. Azimuthal quantum number
3. 4. 3. Spin quantum number
4. Principal quantum number

73. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr

orbit is −13.6 eV. Based on this information, it
can be concluded that the energy of Be3+ in the
69. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength first excited state will be:
663 nm is just sufficient to ionize the atom of 1. − 30.6 eV
metal A. The ionization energy of metal A in kJ 2. − 40.8 eV
3. − 54.4 eV
mol–1 is: (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
4. + 40.8 eV
[h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, c = 3.00 × 108 ms–1 , NA =
6.02 × 1023 mol–1] 74. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr
1. 189 2. 175 orbit of H atom is –13.6 eV. The possible energy
3. 181 4. 185 value (s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in
Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are):
1. –3.4 eV
70. Consider the given statements: 2. –4.2 eV
The energy of an electron is 3. –6.8 eV
Assertion (A): mainly decided by its principal 4. +6.8 eV
quantum number.
75. How many of the given metals will show
The principal quantum number
photoelectric effect when a light of 400 nm falls
(n) is a measure of the most
Reason (R): on them?
probable distance of finding the
Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag
electrons around the nucleus.
W(eV) 2.42 2.3 2.25 3.7 4.8 4.3
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 1. 4
1. 2. 3
correct explanation of (A).
3. 6
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. 4. 2
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

76. What property identifies two atoms as 80. Heat treatment of muscular pain involves
isobars? radiation of wavelength of about 900 nm.
They have the same atomic number but Which spectral line of H-atom is suitable for
1. this purpose?
different mass numbers.
5 −1 −34
They have the same number of electrons but [RH = 1 × 10 cm , h = 6.6 × 10 Js,
2.
a different number of neutrons. 8 −1
c = 3 × 10 ms ]
They have the same number of neutrons but
3. 1. Paschen, ∞ → 3
different numbers of electrons.
2. Paschen, 5 → 3
The sum of the number of protons and
3. Balmer, ∞ → 2
4. neutrons is the same but the number of
4. Lyman, ∞ → 1
protons is different.
81. What is the angular momentum value
associated with the 'f' orbital?
77. Given the following data: h

(a) Mass of electron: 9.11 x 10-31 kg 1. 0 2. √2

π

(b) Planck's constant: 6.626 x 10-34 Js √3h √3h

3. 4.
π √2π

In light of the data given above, the uncertainty

involved in the measurement of velocity within
°
a distance of 0.1 A will be: 82. A pair that has both isoelectronic and
isotopic;
1. 5.79 x 106 ms-1
(Atomic numbers: Ca=20, Ar=18, K=19, Mg=12,
2. 5.79 x 107 ms-1 Fe=26, Na=11)
3. 5.79 x 108 ms-1 1. 40 Ca2+ and 40 Ar
4. 5.79 x 105 ms-1 2. 39 K + and 40 K +
3. 24 M g 2+ and 25 M g
4. 23 N a and 24 N a+
78. The energy associated with the second orbit
83. The relationship between the energy E1 of
of H e+ ion is
radiation with a wavelength of 8000 Å and the
1. −4.36 × 10
−14
J
energy E2 ​ of radiation with a wavelength of
2. −3.18 × 10
−14
J
16000 Å is:
3. −2.18 × 10
−18
J 1. E1 = 6E2
4. −8.72 × 10
−18
J 2. E1 = 2E2
3. E1 = 4E2
79. Given the wavelengths of different 4. E = 1/2E
1 2
radiations:
λ(A) = 300 nm , λ (B) = 300 µm , λ(C) = 3 nm , λ 84. How many electrons are there in a copper
(D) = 30 Ao. atom (29 Cu), whose (n+l) = 4?
What is the correct sequence of these radiations 1. 6
in increasing order of their energies? 2. 7
1. B < C < A = D 2. B < A < C = D 3. 8
3. A < D < C = B 4. B < A < C < D 4. 4

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85. If the value of m = +3 for an electron, then

the electron must be present in: Biology
1. s subshell 2. p subshell 91. Consider the given two statements:
3. d subshell 4. f subshell A hypothalamic hormone called
Gonadotrophin releasing
Statement I: hormone (GnRH) stimulates the
86. If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is synthesis and release of
gonadotrophins by gonads.
Somatostatin from the
written as 1s2 , 2s
2
it would hypothalamus stimulates the
violate: Statement II:
release of growth hormone from
1. Hund's rule. the pituitary.
2. Paulis exclusion principle. 1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3. Both Hund's and Pauli's principles. correct
4. None of the above. 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect
87. The energy of the second Bohr orbit in the H 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
atom is –3.41 eV. The energy of the second Bohr correct
orbit of He+ ion would be: 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
1. –0.85 eV incorrect
2. –13.6 eV
3. –1.70 eV 92. Consider the two statements:
4. –6.82 eV Electrical synapses allow for faster
Assertion
transmission than chemical
88. Of the following atoms/ions, which one (A): synapses.
contains the greatest number of neutrons? Reason Electrical synapses are rare in our
60 64 +
1. 28 N i 2. 29 Cu (R): system.
64 64
3. 30
Zn 4. 30
2+
Zn
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
1.
correctly explain (A).
89. What is the correct family and electronic Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
2.
configuration for element Z = 114? explains (A).
1. Halogen family, [Rn]5f146d107s27p5 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Carbon family, [Rn]5f146d107s27p2 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. Oxygen family, [Rn]5f146d107s27p4
4. Nitrogen family, [Rn]5f146d107s27p6
93. The thyroid gland:
90. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in is composed of two lobes interconnected
the order of decreasing energy. The correct I: with a thin flap of connective tissue called
option is: isthmus.
1. 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p 2. 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d II: is composed of follicles and stromal tissues.
3. 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d 4. 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p is located in the mediastinum, ventral to
III:
aorta.
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

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94. Consider the given two statements: 97. In a dorsiventral [dicotyledonous] leaf:
Glycolysis can occur in the The abaxial epidermis generally bears more
Assertion (A): I:
absence of oxygen. stomata than the adaxial epidermis.
Glycolysis is a process that The palisade parenchyma is adaxially
II:
partially oxidises glucose into placed.
Reason (R):
pyruvic acid without requiring
oxygen. 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 3. Both I and II are correct
1. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 98. Consider the given two statements:
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Statement Calcium ions play a crucial role in
I: muscle contraction.
Calcium ions bind to troponin,
95. Plants can get along without respiratory Statement causing conformational changes
organs. The reasons for this will include all the II: that expose binding sites on actin.
following except: 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
Each plant part takes care of its own gas- correct
1.
exchange needs. 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
Plants present great demands for gas incorrect
2.
exchange. 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
The distance that gases must diffuse even in correct
3. 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
large, bulky plants is not great.
Each living cell in a plant is located quite incorrect
4.
close to the surface of the plant.
99. In ETS in mitochondria, oxygen acts as a:
A. Final acceptor of electrons
96. The number of incorrectly matched pairs B. Final acceptor of protons
is/are: 1. Only A
an attachment point for actin 2. Only B
I: Z line 3. Both A and B
molecules
an attachment point for myosin 4. Neither A nor B
II: M line
molecules
100. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
A a band where only actin molecules
III: are produced by?
band are found
1. Apical meristems 2. Vascular cambium
a band where only myosin
IV: I band 3. Phellogen 4. Axillary meristems
molecules are found

1. 1
2. 2 101. The number of points in the TCA cycle
3. 3 where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2 is/are:
4. 4 1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

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102. Consider the given two statements: 105. The following diagram depicts the type of
The thyroid gland secretes vascular bundles found in:
Assertion (A): thyroxine, which regulates
metabolic rate.
Thyroid hormones are crucial
Reason (R): for normal growth and
development in children.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A). A: Monocot Roots
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. B: Monocot Stems
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. C: Dicot Roots
D: Dicot Stems
1. Only A and B
103. Where is the thymus gland located? 2. Only B and C
1. In the mediastinum ventral to aorta 3. Only A and C
2. In the mediastinum dorsal to aorta 4. Only B and D
3. In the abdomen at the superior pole of
kidney 106. Which enzyme converts sucrose into
4. In the abdomen at the inferior pole of kidney glucose and fructose for glycolysis?
1. Hexokinase 2. Invertase
104. How many of the given statements are
correct: 3. Pyruvate kinase 4. Phosphofructokinase
Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and
I: inhibits the secretion of hydrochloric acid
and pepsinogen. 107. Consider the given statements:
Secretin acts on the endocrine pancreas I: The axial skeleton includes the rib cage.
II: and inhibits secretion of water and The appendicular skeleton includes the
II:
bicarbonate ions. limb bones.
CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder III: The sternum is part of the axial skeleton.
III: and inhibits the secretion of pancreatic 1. Only I and II are correct
enzymes and bile juice, respectively. 2. Only I and III are correct
IV: GIP inhibits gastric secretion and motility. 3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct
1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4

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108. Identify the incorrect statement regarding 110. Regarding the epidermal tissue system of
the TCA (Krebs) cycle: angiosperms:
The TCA cycle begins with the condensation I: Cuticle is absent in roots
of the acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid Guard cells are dumb-bell shaped in
1. II:
(OAA) to form citric acid, catalyzed by citrate grasses and possess chloroplasts
synthase. Root hairs are multicellular and the stem
The TCA cycle involves three steps where III:
hairs are unicellular
2. NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH + H⁺ and one step
where FAD⁺ is reduced to FADH₂. 1. Only I is correct
During the conversion of succinyl-CoA to 2. Only I and II are correct
3. succinic acid, ATP is synthesized directly 3. Only II is correct
through substrate-level phosphorylation. 4. Only II and III are correct
The continuous functioning of the TCA cycle
depends on the regeneration of oxaloacetic
4.
acid as well as NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ from NADH
111. There are 8 and 7 bones respectively in:
and FADH₂.
1. tarsal [ankle] and carpal [wrist]
2. carpal[wrist] and tarsal[ankle]
109. Match List I with List II: 3. neurocranium and facial skeleton
List I List II 4. facial skeleton and neurocranium
Excess secretion of
Exophthalmic
A. I. cortisol, moon face
goiter 112. The correct chronology of steps of
& hyperglycemia
Hypo-secretion of formation of the given metabolites in TCA cycle
B. Acromegaly II. thyroid hormone and is:
stunted growth. Isocitrate – Citrate – Succinyl CoA – α
1.
Hyper secretion of ketoglutarate
Cushing's Citrate – Isocitrate – Succinyl CoA – α
C. III. thyroid hormone & 2.
syndrome ketoglutarate
protruding eye balls.
Excessive secretion of Citrate – Isocitrate – α ketoglutarate –
D. Cretinism IV. 3.
growth hormone. Succinyl CoA
Choose the correct answer from the options 4. Isocitrate – Citrate – α ketoglutarate –
given below: Succinyl CoA
1. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

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113. Given below are two statements: 116. What is the role of calcium ions in the
Parathyroid hormone acts on transmission of a nerve impulse across a
Statement I: bones and stimulates the process chemical synapse?
of bone resorption They are actively pumped into the pre-
Parathyroid hormone along with 1. synaptic neuron to initiate neurotransmitter
Thyrocalcitonin plays a release.
Statement II:
significant role in carbohydrate They cause depolarization of the post-
2.
metabolism. synaptic membrane.
In the light of the above statements, choose the They trigger the fusion of synaptic vesicles
correct answer from the options given below: 3. with the pre-synaptic membrane, releasing
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.
false They bind to neurotransmitters, allowing
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 4.
them to enter the post-synaptic neuron.
true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 117. Water containing cavities within the
vascular bundles is a feature of the anatomy of
114. In which type of tissue are Casparian strips a:
observed, and what is their function? 1. Monocot stem
Endodermis; prevent passive water flow 2. Dicot stem
1.
through the cell walls. 3. Monocot root
2. Pericycle; aid in lateral root initiation. 4. Dicot root
3. Xylem; regulate water conduction.
4. Phloem; facilitate translocation of food. 118. The PNS is divided into two divisions
where:
The somatic neural system relays impulses
I:
115. The coxal bone in the human skeleton: from the CNS to skeletal muscles
The autonomic neural system transmits
is a part of the pectoral girdle, has a glenoid II: impulses from the CNS to the involuntary
1. cavity that articulates with the head of the organs and smooth muscles of the body
femur. 1. Only I is correct
is a part of the pelvic girdle, has an 2. Only II is correct
2. acetabulum that articulates with the head of 3. Both I and II are correct
the humerus. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
is a part of the pelvic girdle and is formed by
3. 119. There can be a net gain of ­____ ATP
the fusion of three bones.
molecules during aerobic respiration of one
is a part of pectoral girdle and is formed by molecule of glucose
4.
the fusion of three bones. [as per NCERT textbook]:
1. 30
2. 36
3. 38
4. 40

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120. The axoplasm inside the axon contains: 122. Match each item in Column I [Hormone]
I: low concentration of K+ with one in Column II [Function] and select
your answer from the codes given:
high concentration of negatively charged
II: Column I Column II
proteins
III: high concentration of Na+ Makes collecting
A. ADH a. duct permeable to
1. Only I and III water and urea
2. I, II and III
Stimulates
3. Only II B. PTH b.
osteoclasts
4. Only I and II
Rupture of Graafian
121. Consider the given two statements: C. LH c. follicle leading to
Succinate dehydrogenase is an ovulation
enzyme complex found in the D. ANF d. Causes vasodilation
Statement I:
inner mitochondrial membrane
of eukaryotes. Codes:
Succinate dehydrogenase is the
A B C D
only enzyme that participates in
Statement II: 1. a b c d
both the citric acid cycle and the
electron transport chain. 2. a b d c
3. b a d c
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is 4. b a c d
correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct 123. Match List-I with List-II:
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is List-II Type
incorrect List-I Location of Joint
of Joint
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is Joint between humerus
incorrect A. I. Gliding joint
and pectoral girdle
Ball and
B. Knee joint II.
socket joint
Joint between atlas and
C. III. Hinge Joint
axis
D. Joint between carpals IV. Pivot joint
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I 2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
3. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II 4. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV

124. The correct chronological order

[superficial to deep] of the meninges is:
1. dura mater - pia mater - arachnoid mater
2. dura mater - arachnoid mater - pia mater
3. pia mater - dura mater - arachnoid mater
4. pia mater - arachnoid mater - dura mater

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125. Which of the following vascular bundle 128. Examine the following statements
arrangements is unique to roots, and how does regarding the axial skeleton:
it function? The axial skeleton includes the skull,
1.
Radial arrangement with alternating xylem vertebral column, ribs, and pectoral girdle.
1. and phloem on different radii, allowing The skull articulates with the vertebral
efficient water and food conduction. 2.
column through a dicondylic joint.
Conjoint arrangement with xylem and Select the correct option:
2. phloem on the same radius, supporting 1. Only 1
secondary growth. 2. Only 2
Closed bundles with no cambium, enabling 3. Both 1 and 2
3.
rapid elongation of primary roots. 4. Neither 1 nor 2
Vascular bundles with only xylem elements
4. specialized for water conduction in 129. Match List - I with List - II
monocots. List-I List-II
(A) Palm bones (I) Phalanges
(B) Wrist bones (II) Metacarpals
126. Identify the plant tissue shows in the given (C) Ankle bones (III) Carpals
figure:
(D) Digit bones (IV) Tarsals
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D)
1. II III I IV
2. IV I II III
3. III IV I II
4. II III IV I
1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Sclereids
4. Sclerenchyma fibers 130. Unmyelinated nerve fibre:
is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not
I:
127. The hormone secreted by the alpha cells of form a myelin sheath around the axon
the pancreas that raises blood glucose levels by is commonly found in autonomous and the
II:
promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis somatic neural systems
is:
1. Insulin 1. Only I 2. Only II
2. Glucagon 3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II
3. Cortisol
4. Epinephrine
131. NADH + H+ is reoxidised to NAD+ in:
I: Ethanol fermentation
II: Lactic acid fermentation
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

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132. The kidney's erythropoietin primarily 135. The process by which a neuron maintains
stimulates: its resting membrane potential through the
Bone marrow to produce red blood cells, active transport of ions against their
1. concentration gradients is facilitated by:
increasing oxygen-carrying capacity
2. Liver to increase glycogen storage 1. Sodium-potassium pump
2. Voltage-gated channels
Adrenal cortex to secrete more
3. 3. Ligand-gated channels
glucocorticoids
4. Synaptic vesicles
4. Immune cells to increase cytokine release
136. Association areas in the cerebral cortex:
are neither clearly sensory nor motor in
133. Consider the given two statements: I:
function.
The classical definition of hormone
are for complex functions like inter-sensory
describes hormone as a chemical II:
associations, memory and communication.
Statement produced by exocrine glands,
I: released into the blood and
1. Only I is correct
transported to a nearby located
2. Only II is correct
target organ.
3. Both I and II are correct
Current scientific definition 4. Both I and II are incorrect
describes hormones as non-
Statement
nutrient chemicals which act as 137. The sympathetic neural system and
II:
intercellular messengers and are parasympathetic neural system are the
produced in trace amounts. subdivisions of:
1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 1. Central neural system
correct 2. Somatic neural system
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is 3. Visceral neural system
incorrect 4. Autonomic neural system
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 138. During the contraction of a skeletal
incorrect muscle, calcium ions released from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum bind with:
134. Consider the given two statements: 1. F actin 2. G actin
During the depolarization phase of
3. troponin 4. tropomyosin
Assertion a nerve impulse, the inside of the
(A): neuron becomes positive compared
to the outside.
139. A motor neuron, at the neuromuscular
Depolarization occurs due to the junction, releases a neurotransmitter that is:
Reason
(R): influx of sodium ions (Na+) into the 1. Epinephrine
neuron through sodium channels. 2. Acetylcholine
3. Dopamine
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 4. Serotonin
1.
explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not 140. During muscle contraction, which of the
2. following retains its length?
correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 1. Sarcomere
2. I-bands
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
3. A-bands
4. H-zones

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141. Identify the incorrectly matched pair: 143. Match each item in Column I with one in
An auto-immune disorder Column II and select the correct match from the
affecting neuromuscular codes given:
Myasthenia
1. junction leading to fatigue, Column I Column II
gravis
weakening and paralysis of Conjoint and closed
skeletal muscle. A. Monocot stem P.
vascular bundles
Progressive degeneration of Polyarch xylem,
Muscular
2. skeletal muscle mostly due to a B. Monocot root Q. radial vascular
dystrophy
genetic disorder. bundles
Rapid spasms (wild Conjoint and open
3. Tetany contractions) in muscle due to C. Dicot stem R.
vascular bundles
high Ca2+ in body fluid. Two to four xylem
D. Dicot root S.
Inflammation of joints due to and phloem patches
4. Gout accumulation of uric acid
crystals. Codes:
A B C D
1. P Q R S
142. The thalamus in human brain is wrapped
2. S R Q P
around a structure which is a major
coordinating centre for sensory and motor 3. P Q S R
signalling. Which letter in the given figure 4. S R P Q
shows this structure?

144. A sagittal section of the human brain is

shown here. Identify at least two labels from A-
D:

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

1. C-Mid brain D-Cerebellum

2. A-Cerebrum C-Pons
3. B-Corpus callosum D-Medulla
4. A-Cerebral hemispheres B-Cerebellum

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145. Consider the given two statements: 149. Which of the following statements
The hypothalamus controls the correctly explains the role of guard cells in the
Assertion (A): epidermal tissue system?
pituitary gland.
The hypothalamus secretes Guard cells regulate gaseous exchange but
hormones that stimulate or 1. do not contain chloroplasts, so they are
Reason (R): unable to photosynthesize.
inhibit the release of pituitary
hormones. Guard cells have thickened outer walls and
2. thin inner walls, allowing for efficient
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the stomatal closure.
1.
correct explanation of (A) Guard cells possess chloroplasts and control
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 3. the opening and closing of stomata by
2. regulating turgor pressure.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Guard cells are specialized epidermal cells
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 4. that only assist in preventing excessive
water loss.

146. The names for Complex III and Complex IV

in the mitochondrial electron transport chain 150. The numbers of FADH2, ATP, Carbon
respectively are: dioxide and NADH molecules produced in a
1. NADH dehydrogenase and Succinic single turn of citric acid cycle respectively are:
dehydrogenase 1. One, Two, Three and Four
2. NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthase 2. One, One, Two and Three
3. Cytochrome bc1 and Cytochrome c oxidase 3. One, Two, Two and Three
4. Cytochrome bc1 and Cytochrome b6f 4. Two, One Two and Three

147. Osteoporosis, commonly seen in post 151. The four major hormones of the gastro-
menopausal women, is commonly caused by: intestinal tract, namely gastrin, secretin,
1. low levels of calcium ions in blood cholecystokinin (CCK) and gastric inhibitory
2. decreased levels of oestrogens peptide (GIP):
3. autoimmune destruction of joints and 1. are all secreted by the small intestine.
cartilages 2. are peptides.
4. accumulation of uric acid crystals 3. are secreted as inactive precursors.
4. have a sterol nucleus.
148. All the following produce secondary
tissues in a plant body except: 152. Regarding the relationship between sieve
1. Fascicular vascular cambium tube elements and companion cells in
2. Interfascicular cambium angiosperms:
3. Cork-cambium Sieve tube elements have a central nucleus,
1.
4. Intercalary meristem while companion cells lack a nucleus.
Sieve tube elements have a nucleus and
2.
control the functions of companion cells.
Sieve tube elements lack a nucleus, and their
3. functions are controlled by the nucleus of
companion cells.
Companion cells lack cytoplasm and are
4. primarily involved in providing structural
support to sieve tube elements

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153. A motor neuron along with the muscle 159. Identify the correct statements:
fibres connected to it constitutes a: Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads
1. Neuro-muscular junction I: to the formation of a hormone-receptor
2. Motor end plate complex.
3. Sarcomere Each receptor is specific to one hormone
II:
4. Motor unit only and hence receptors are specific.
Hormone-Receptor complex formation
III: leads to certain biochemical changes in the
154. All the following may be the target tissue.
signs/symptoms of Graves’ disease except: 1. Only I and II
1. Exopthalmic goitre 2. Only I and III
2. Decreased basal metabolic rate 3. Only II and III
3. Weight loss 4. I, II and III
4. Tremors
160. Which of the following is not an ear
155. Fats can also be used as respiratory ossicle?
substrates. How are fatty acids integrated into 1. Malleus
the Krebs cycle? 2. Hyoid
1. They are converted into glycerol. 3. Incus
4. Stapes
2. They are first converted into glucose.
3. They are broken down into amino acids. 161. Consider the given two statements:
4. They are directly converted into acetyl-CoA The medulla oblongata controls
Assertion
involuntary functions such as
(A):
heart rate and respiration.
156. During the conversion of succinyl-CoA to Reason The medulla oblongata is a part of
succinic acid: (R): the brain stem.
1. a molecule of GTP is synthesised.
2. a molecule of carbon dioxide is released.
3. a molecule of FAD gets reduced. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
4. a molecule of water is added as well as correct explanation of (A).
produced. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
157. Low Ca2+ in the body fluid may be the 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
cause of: 4. (A) is False but (R) is True
1. tetany
2. anaemia
3. angina pectoris 162. Consider the given two statements:
4. gout When a neuron is not conducting any
impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane
158. In a dorsiventral [dicot] leaf, the vascular I: is comparatively more permeable to
bindles present in the midrib are: potassium ions (K+ ) and nearly
1. smallest in size impermeable to sodium ions (Na+).
2. largest in size Similarly, the membrane is permeable to
3. equal in size to others II: negatively charged proteins present in the
4. radial axoplasm.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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163. In mitochondrial electron transport chain: 167. Which of the following is not a character of
I: Complex I is NADH dehydrogenase collenchyma tissue?
II: Complex II is succinate dehydrogenase They provide mechanical support to the
1.
III: Complex III is cytochrome b6f complex. growing part of the plant
1. Only I and II are correct They occur in layers below epidermis in
2.
2. Only I and III are correct dicotyledonous plants
3. Only II and III are correct They consist of cells with thick corners due
3.
4. I, II and III are correct to cellulose deposition
They are usually dead and without
4.
164. The corpora quadrigemina are part of the protoplasts
human:
1. Telencephalon 2. Diencephalon
3. Mid brain 4. Hind brain 168. For every NADH that enters the electron
transport system, the resulting number of ATP
will be:
165. The characteristic distribution of vascular 1. 1
bundles in the T.S. shown below tells us that the 2. 2
T.S. must be of a: 3. 3
4. 5

169. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
Provides additional
space for Neurons,
A. Pons I.
regulates posture and
balance
Controls respiration
1. Monocot stem B. Hypothalamus II.
and gastric secretions
2. Dicot stem
Connects different
3. Monocot root C. Medulla III.
regions of the brain
4. Dicot root
D. Cerebellum IV. Neuro secretory cells
166. Consider the given two statements:
Electron transport chain is located Choose the correct answer from the options
Statement given below:
in the outer mitochondrial
I: 1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
membrane.
2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
NADH and FADH2 donate
Statement 3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
II: electrons to the electron transport 4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
chain.

Statement I is correct; Statement II is

1.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

170. What is the consequence of thymus 173. Consider the following statements:
degeneration in old individuals? Impulses travel by the visceral nervous
Increased production of thymosins, leading I: system from the CNS to the viscera and from
1.
to enhanced immune responses the viscera to the CNS.
Decreased production of thymosins, Impulses travel by the autonomic nervous
2.
resulting in weaker immune responses II: system from the CNS to the involuntary
Increased production of antibodies, organs and smooth muscles of the body.
3.
providing stronger humoral immunity
1. Only I is correct
Enhanced differentiation of T-lymphocytes,
4. 2. Only II is correct
boosting cell-mediated immunity
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
171. Consider the given two statements:
Estrogens stimulate growth and
activities of female secondary sex 174. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:
Statement
organs, development of growing 1. Both sieve tubes and companion cells
I:
ovarian follicles, and appearance 2. Albuminous cells and sieve cells
of female secondary sex characters. 3. Sieve tubes only
Statement 4. Companion cells only
Progesterone supports pregnancy.
II:
1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 175. How many of the given statements are
correct correct:
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is Thyroid hormones play an important role
incorrect I: in the regulation of the basal metabolic
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is rate.
correct Thyroid hormones are most important
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is II: factors that affect the process of red blood
incorrect cell formation.
Thyroid hormones control the metabolism
172. What type of arthritis is a metabolic III: of carbohydrates but not of proteins and
disorder in which an abnormal amount of uric fats.
acid crystals is deposited in the joint?
Maintenance of water and electrolyte
1. gouty 2. rheumatoid IV: balance is also influenced by thyroid
3. osteo 4. psoriatic hormones.

1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4

176. Sternum:
1. is a U-shaped bone in the neck
is a flat bone on the ventral midline of
2.
thorax
is a small bone commonly found embedded
3.
within a muscle or tendon
4. provides attachment to floating ribs

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 Custom Practice Test - 12-Sep Contact Number: 8527521718

177. Which of the following is the complex III of

180. Match the plants in Column-I with the
the mitochondrial ETS? description of anatomy of vascular bundles in
1. NADH dehydrogenase them in Column-II and select the correct option
2. Succinic dehydrogenase from the codes given:
3. Cytochrome bc1 complex Column-I Column-II
4. Cytochrome c oxidase Collateral, closed
A. Dicot stem a. and scattered in
178. The midbrain, located between the ground tissue
thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and Conjoint, collateral
pons of the hindbrain, contains a canal that B. Monocot stem b.
endarch and open
passes through it called the:
Radial, exarch and
1. Cerebral aqueduct
C. Dicot root c. polyarch [usually
2. Corpus callosum
more than 6]
3. Central canal
4. Fourth ventricle Radial, exarch and
D. Monocot root d.
2 to 6 in number
179. Which of the following statement is not
Codes:
true for stomatal apparatus?
Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts A B C D
1.
and mitochondria
1. a b c d
Guard cells are always surrounded by
2. 2. b a d c
subsidiary cells
3. a b d c
3. Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange
4. b a c d
4. Inner walls of guard cells are thick

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