PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT ; Agricultural Science .

CLASS : JSS1.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. Only one of the following can be used by farmers to sharpen other

agricultural tools (a) mattock (b) axe (c) pick axe (d) file (e) spade.
2. Animals that posses four stomach compartment are known as (a) rumen
(b) omasum (c) ruminant (d) non ruminant (e) non rumen.
3. The main breeds of cattle include these except (a) white Fulani (b)
Sokoto gudali (c) Sokoto red (d) red bororo (e) ham shine.
4. The short horned muturm and ndama cattle are (a) humples (b)
humped (c) long horned (d) long hornes (e) short horn.
5. The cattle that is mainly kept for milk production is cattle (a) dairy cattle
(b) beef cattle (c) work cattle (d) meat cattle (e) rich cattle.
6. Birds that are domesticated by man are known as (a) poultry (b) fowl (c)
birds (d) cock (e) hen.
7. The system of management of poultry that allows birds to be confined
or housed or cage with floor of wire is (a) deep litter system (b) battery
cage system (c) extensive system (d) the fold system (e) semi intensive
system.
8. A female cattle is known as (a) cow (b) bull (c) capon (d) ewe (e) gapon .
9. All these are examples of common fishing tools except (a) hook and line
(b) fishing trap (c) sickle (d) basket (e) spear.
10.One of these is a bad fishing method (a) use of explosive (b) use of nets
(c) use of fence (d) use of trap (e) use of basket.
11.The planting of crops and rearing of animals for man’s use is called (a)
horticulture (b) agriculture (c) crop science (d) animal science (e)
maniculture.
12.Crops with one seed leaf are (a) annual crop (b) perennial crop (c)
monocotyledons (d) dicoltyledons (e). Biennial crops.
13.The branch of agriculture that deals with crops and soil management is
(a) agronomy (b) soil science (c) animal science (d) horticulture (e)
monoculture.
14.Any crop that completes its life cycle for one year is called (a) biennial
crop (b) perennial crop (c) annual crop (d) imperial (e) geomerial.
15.A system of agriculture where a farmer produced enough food for his
family and has little or non for sale is (a) commercial agriculture (b)
subsistence agriculture (c) family agriculture (d) mechanised agriculture
(e) village agriculture.
16.All the animals kept by the farmer are called (a) aquatic animal (b) bush
animals (c) farm animals (d) house animal (e) home animal.
17.Any organism which destroy our crop is (a) rat (b) rabbit (c) pest (d)
monkey (e) bird.
18.Any plant found growing where they are not wanted are (a) weed (b)
animal (c) cassava (d) crops (e) melon.
19.The meat from cattle is called (a) bush meat (b) beef (c) mutton (d)
chevon (e) ewe.
20.The act of giving birth in cow is called (a) castration (b) gestation (c)
calving (d) mating (e) eating.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1a). Define agricultural science (3mks).

(1b). State four importance of agriculture (4mks).

(1c). Mention three branches of agriculture (3mks).

(2a). Define weed (3mks).

(2b). Mention four methods of weed control (4mks).

(2c). List three method of weed dispersal (3mks).

(3a). Define pest (3mks).

(3b), Give four examples of pest (4mks).

(3c). Mention three classes of pest (3mks).

(4a). List five grasses and their botanical names in a tabular form (5mks).
(4b). Mention five characteristics of weed (5mks).

(5a). Define production (2mks)

(5b). List four factors of production (4mks).

(5c). List four forms of farm animals (4mks).

(6a). Define market (2mks).

(6b). Mention four uses of land (4mks).

(6c). Mention four uses of labour (4mks).

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.
THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT ; Agricultural Science .

CLASS : JSS2.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. The art and science of feeding farm animals is referred to as (a) animals
nutrition (b) animal feeding (c) feed nutrition (d) animal feeding.
2. The food substance which fight against body disease of animal is called
(a) fruit (b) protein (c) carbohydrate (d) vitamins .
3. ------ is a form of animal feed cut and dried and preserved for future use
(a) bone meal (b) wood meal (c) hay (d) supplement.
4. The food given to animals to keep their live weight constant is called------
ration (a) maintenance (b)production (c) balanced (d) unbalanced.
5. The meat of sheep is called ----- (a) beef (b) mutton (c) chevron (d)
chicken.
6. The process of preventing the appearance of horn in cattle is called ------
(a) castration (b) parturition (c) servicing (d) dehorning.
7. The practice of multiplying plant species is called (a)reproduction (b)
nursery (c) nutrition (d) fertilization.
8. The removal of some plant stands for nutrient and space to avoid
competition of nutrient is referred to as (a) tillage (b) mulching (c)
supplying (d) thinning.
9. The breakdown of rocks into small particles is called (a) burning (b)
weathering (c) erosion (d) leaching.
10.All are factors affecting soil formation except (a) rainfall (b) wind (c )
industries (d) temperature.
11.The vertical section of the soil showing the different layers is called (a)
soil water (b) soil air (c) soil profile (d) soil structure.
12.The soil types which supports crop production is called (a) sandy soil (b)
loamy soil (c) clay soil (d) silt.
13.Those organisms which live in the body of their host are called (a) ecto
parasite (b) micro organisms (c) endo parasite (d) hook worm.
 14.Any practice carried out before planting crops is referred as (a) post
planting operation (b) pre-planting operation (c) planting operation (d)
harrowing operation.
15.All are the ways of nutrient loss in the soil except (a) leaching (b)
manuring (c) erosion (d) burning.
16.Roughage includes the following except (a) straw (b) hay (c) silage (d)
supplement.
17.In sheep, lambing is the act of (a) parturition (b) lactation (c) wearing (d)
feeding.
18.The meat from pigs is called (a) chevion (b) mutton (c) beef (d) pork.
19.All are common breeds of goat except (a) Sokoto red (b) surfi (c) west
African dwarf (d) garkasa.
20.------------- is a system of keeping farm animal where they are allowed to
roam about (a) intensive system (b) semi intensive system (c) extensive
system (d) semi extensive system.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1a). Define fishing (3mks).

(1b). Mention five fishing tools (5mks).

(1c). Define pests (2mks).

(2a). List five uses of fish (5mks).

(2b). Mention three risk involve in fishing or bad fishing method (3mks).

(2c). Define disease (2mks).

(3a). Define forest (3mks).

(3c). Mention four uses of forest (4mks).

(3c). Define cultural practice (3mks).

(4a). Define animal feed (3mks).

(4b). Mention four types of animals feed (4mks)/

(4c). Mention three factors to be considered in making choice of farm animal

feed production (3mks).
(5a). Define planting operation (3mks).

(5b) List five steps involved in pre planting operation (5mks).

(5c). Mention two steps involve in post planting operation (2mks).

(6a). Mention four causes of disease (4mks).

(6b). List four methods of disease control (4mks).

(6c). Mention two methods of fish preservation (2mks).

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT ; Agricultural Science .

CLASS : SS1.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. A rock that is formed as a result of cooling and solidification of molten

magma is called (a) igneous rock (b) metamorphic rock (c) sedimentary
rock (d) magma rock.
2. The type of rock formed from pre-existing rock is called (a)
metamorphic rock (b) igneous rock (c) sedimentary rock (d) granite rock.
3. A type of soil that is causes grained and gritty is called (a) sandy soil (b)
clay soil (c) loamy soil (d) humus soil.
4. These are types of soil structure except (a) crumb (b) granular (c)
scattered (d) block like.
5. The best PH for crop is written the range of (a) 4.5 ----6.5 (b) 5.5 ---- 7.5
(c) 5.5 ----- 6.5 (d) 6.5 ---- 7.5.
6. The source of farm power that control other farm power is (a) animal
power (b) human power(c) biogas power (d) wind power.
7. The problem of farm mechanization include the following except (a) land
tenure system (b) topography (c) government policy (d) poverty .
8. The reward for capital as a factor of production is (a) interest (b) profit
(c) rent (d) wages.
9. The function of a farm manager fall under the following except (a)
organization (b) administration (c) evaluation (d) communication.
10.All are problems of agricultural development in Nigeria except (a)
ignorance (b) lack of social amenities (c) family size (d) poor storage
facilities.
11.The management of crops and soil science is called (a) horticulture (b)
agronomy (c) soil science (d) crop science.
12.The branch of agriculture that deals with the construction design, repair
and maintenance of farm machines is called al (a) agricultural economics
(b) agricultural education (c) agricultural engineering (d) agricultural
extension.
13.Crops that competes their life cycle for more than two yeas are called (a)
perennial crops (b) biennial crops (c) annual crops (d) cereal crops.
14.Those crops used for beautification of our environment are called (a)
cereal crops (b) leguminous crop (c) tuber crops (d) ornamental crops.
15.The act of giving birth in farm animal is called (a ) calving (b) kidding (c)
parturition (d) fighting.
16.---------- is the letdown of milk from the udder of farm animals (a)
colostrums (b) lactation (c) ovulation (d) oestrogen.
17.The milk produced by a cow three to four days is referred to as (a) udder
(b) lactation (c) ovulation (d) colostrum.
18.The period which female animal are ready and willing to accept the male
for mating is called (a) servicing (b) heat period (c) oestrogen (d)
testosterone.
19.A male reproductive hormone is called (a) oestrogen (b) penis (c) testes
(d) testosterone.
20.------- refers to a non refundable aid granted to a farmer (a) credit (b)
subsidy (c) loan (d) interest.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1a). Define agriculture (2mks).

(1b). List and explain four problems of agricultural development (4mks).

(1C) mention and discuss four importance of agriculture (4mks).

(2a) Define land (2mks).

(2b). Mention and explain four uses of land for agriculture (4mks).

(2c). List and discuss four uses of land for non- agriculture (4mks).

(3a) Define farm power (2mks).

(3b). List and explain four source of farm power (4mks).

(3c) State one advantage and one disadvantage of the four source of
farm power mentioned in above (4mks),

(4a). Define farm mechanization (2mks).

(4b) Mention and explain four problems of farm mechanization (4mks).

(4c). Mention four limitation of farm mechanization (4mks).

(5a). Define production (2mks).

(5b) List and explain four factors of production in agriculture (4mks).

(5c). Mention two characteristics each of the four factors of production

mentioned above.(4mks).

(6a). Define agricultural finance (2mks).

(6b). Mention and explain six source of farm finance (6mks).

(6c). Define farm manager (2mks).

 PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.
THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT ; Agricultural Science .

CLASS : SS2.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. Any material added to the soil to improve soil fertility is called (a)
compost (b) manure (c) animal ding (d) mulching.
2. Which of the following is an annual crop (a) maize (b) pineapple (c)
rubber (d) palm tree.
3. Which of the following is not a land tenure system (a) individual land (b)
communal land (c) family land (d) government land.
4. The practice of felling down trees is (a) afforestation (b) deforestation (c)
forest selection (d) forest regulation.
5. Which of the following pasture plant is a legume (a) cynodon
plectostachyus (b) stylosanthes gracilus (c) pannicum maximum (d)
pennisetum purpureum.
6. The following farm practices exposes the soil to agent of erosion except
(a) bush burning (b) land clearing (c) crop rotation (d) over grazing.
7. Food given to animal solely to sustain their lives weight is called (a)
balance diet (b) production ration (c) maintenance ration (d)
malnutrition .
8. Nutrients loss from the soil includes the following except (a) bush
burning (b) leaching (c) erosion (d) nitrogen fixation.
9. The survey instrument used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles
on the field is (a) arrow (b) theodolite (c) offset staff (d) prismatic
compass.
10.Chlorosis in plant result or occur as deficiency in (a) nitrogen (b) iron (c)
chorine (d) calcium .
11. –----------- is define as the production and management of ornamental
plant (a) olericulture (b) horticulture (c) promology (d) artiroclture .
12.Beautiful plants used to decorate our environment are called (a)
abioriculture (b) horticulture (c) pomoculture (d) ornamental plant.
13.-------- is a person that grow and sells flowers (a) horticulture (b)
floriculture (c) flourist (d) aborist .
14.Cassava mosaic is a disease of (a) fungi (b) virus (c) bacteria (d)
protozoan.
15.Insect are classified into -------------- classes (a) three (b) two (c) four (d)
five.
16.The common surveying equipment for farm land include the following
except (a) ranging pole (b) prismatic compass (c) spade (d) gunters chain.
17.Which of the following equipment is not used in farm surveying (a)
gunter chain (b) measuring tape (c) ranging pole (d) pick axe.
18.A farm surveying equipment made of steal and used for measuring
short distance is called (a) prismatic compass (b) measuring tape (c)
gunters chain (d) theodolites.
19.An important farm machines used for coupling or carrying farm
implement is (a) disc harrow (b) harvest (c) tractor (d) plough.
20.Which of the following should be checked daily before using a tractor (a)
engine oil (b) spark plug (c) distributor (a) air cleaner.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1a). Define farm machinery (2mks).

(1b). List four functions of tractor (4mks).

(1c). Mention four functions of bulldozer (4mks).

(2). Write short note on the following (i) plough (ii) harrow (iii) planter
(iv) harvester (v) ridger (2mks) each.

(3a). Mention four functions of a ridger (4mks).

(3b). State four function of a harrow (4mks).

(3c). Define tree puller (2mks). (4a). Define farm surveying (3mks).

(4b). List four importance of farm surveying(4mks). (4c), Mention and

explain three surveying equipment (3mk).

(5a). Define farm planning (2mks).

 (5b). Mention four importance of farm planning (4mks).

(5c). Define demand and supply (4mks). (6a). Define climate (2mks).

(6b). State four importance of climate (4mks).

(6c). List abd explain four elements of climate (4mks).

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT ; SOCIAL STUDIES .

CLASS : JSS1.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. The act of cheating during exanimation is -------- (a) armed robbery (b)
stealing (c) examination malpractice (d) corruption.
2. The punishment of anyone caught in the act of cheating during
examination is --------- imprisonment (a) 12 years (b) 21 years (c) 10
years (d) 5 years.
3. Who among these group is not involve in examination malpractice? (a)
teachers (b) parents (c) students (d) children.
4. A group of people who are members of a secret cult group are referred
to as (a) age mate (b) school mates (c) cultist (d) friend.
5. Which of these is not the activities of the cult group members? (a)
stealing (b) rape (c) killing (d) evangelism.
6. The consequence of cultism include all except (a) bad image (b) all of the
above (c) school dropout (d) academic failure .
7. HIV/AIDS cannot be transferred through ----------- (a) handshake (b)
sexual intercourse (c) mother to child (d) none of the above.
8. Which of these is not a symptom for HIV/AIDS? (a) loss of weight (b)
weakness of the body (c). Stomach pain (d) skin infection.
9. Sleeping on the same bed with a HIV/AIDS patient can make the infected
person to contact HIV/AIDS. (a) yes (b) no (c) maybe (d) none of the
above.
10.The state of being poor is called ------- (a) greed (b) laziness (c)
corruption (d) poverty.
11.All are the causes of social problems except (a) corruption (b) greed (c)
education (d) laziness.
12.The state or condition of being safe or free from damages is -------- (a)
security (b) safety (c) defence (d) policy.
13.The act of having sex before marriage is called ------------ (a) friendship (b)
homosexuality (c) pre-marital sex (d) love.
 14. -------- is a place where scientific experiment and tests are carried out (a)
workshop (b) laboratory (c) classroom (d) library .
15.The scientific equipment and tools are called (a) machines (b)
implements (c) apparatus (d) microscopes.
16.the absence of peace is known as ------- (a) conflict (b) interest (c) needs
(d) community.
17.A conflict that exists within the same ethnic group is called (a) violent
conflict (b) inter conflict (c) non- violent conflict (d) intra- ethnic conflict.
18.Any conflict which does not involve the use of physical for a is known as
------------ (a) violent conflict (b) inter-conflict (c) non-violent conflict (d)
war conflict.
19.Nigeria was amalgamated by sir Fredrick (Lord) Lugard in the year (a)
1960 (b) 1963 (c) 1914 (d) 1965.
20.In Nigeria, there are over ----- ethnic group (a) 230 (b) 500 (c) 1000 (d)
10,000.

SECTION B ( THEROY) Answer four question only.

(1a). Mention five form of social problems in Nigeria (5mks).

(1b). List five causes of social problems in Nigeria (5mks).

(2a). Explain HIV/AIDS (3mks). each

(2b). State four modes of transmission of HIV/AIDS (4mks).

(3a). List five ways of preventing HIV/AIDS (4mks).

(3b). Mention five ways in which HIV/AIDS cannot be contacted (5mks).

(4a). Suggest five solutions to the social problem in Nigeria (5mks).

(4b). Write in full (i) EFCC (ii) ICPC (iii) NDLEA (iv) NYSC (v) WHO.

(5a). Mention five ways of examination malpractice (5mks).

(5b). What is national unity and integration? (5mks).

(6a). State five problem of national unity (5mks).

(6b). List five symbols of national unity (5mks)

 PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.
THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT ; SOCIAL STUDIES .

CLASS : JSS2.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. The illegal carrying about of hard or dangerous drugs from place of

production to where they are consumed is -------------(a) selling of drugs
(b) drug trafficking (c) drug abuse (d) drug addiction.
2. Which of these is not an examples of hard drug? (a) cocain (b) heroin (c)
indian hemp (d) cigarette.
3. The practice of telling lies is called -------- (a) stealing (b) falsehood (c)
419 (d) robbery.
4. ------------ is any offence against the laws of a state or land which attracts
punishment by law (a) murder (b) stealing (c) crime (d) rape.
5. The act of taking another person’s property without the persons
consent or permission is called (a) 419 (b) crime (c ) murder (d) theft.
6. A deliberate and unlawful killing of another person is known as ----- (a)
murder (b) false hood (c) rape (d) stealing.
7. Serious offences which attracts punishment that ranges from three years
to life imprisonment is called --- (a) misdemeanour (b) felony (c) simple
offence (d) theft.
8. Which of these causes stealing/ theft? (a) contentment (b) laziness (c)
kidnapping (d) imprisonment.
9. -------- is a sexual abuse meted out to one person or more than one
person by a group of person or by one person without the consent of
the victim or victims by threat or intimidation (a) indiscipline (b) rape (c)
prostitution (d) friendship.
 10.Rape is cause by the following except ------ (a) indiscipline (b) indecent
dressing (c) keeping late at night (d) killing.
11.Stealing is caused by the following factors except (a) hunger (b) lack of
contentment (c) greediness (d) none of the above.
12.Crimes are caused by the following except -------- (a) poverty (b) drug
abuse (c) contentment (d) unemployment.
13.The following ways can be used to prevent crime in our society except
(a) security agents (b) DSS (c) civil defence (d) drug peddlers.
14.An unplanned event that can cause death or injuries to student,
employee or members of the public is called (a) fire (b) emergency (c)
flood (d) explosion.
15.------ is the process of preparing for mitigating the suffering of victims of
emergency (a) management (b) emergency (c) earth quakes (d) winter
storm.
16.Which of these is not a type of emergency? (a) fire accident (b) drowning
(c) fake drug.
17.------------- are unfortunate incidents that happen unexpectedly which
could result to damage, injuries or death (a) road traffic(b) road accident
(c) drowning (d) food poisoning.
18.Those that help to fight against fire accident are called (a) first aiders (b)
doctor (c) nurse (d) fire-fighters.
19.The first treatment given to an injured person before taking him to the
doctor is called ----------- (a) first drug (b) first medicine (c) first aid (d)
wound dressing.
20. A situation of jobless or not being employed for a means of living is
--------------- (a) employment (b) unemployment (c) poverty )d) laziness.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four question only.

(1a). Define drug trafficking (5mks).

(1b). List five reasons for drug trafficking (5mks).

(2a). State five consequences of drug trafficking (5mks).

(2b). Mention five ways of preventing drug trafficking (5mks).

(3a). List five features of drug trafficking (5mks).

(3b). Mention five agencies for drug trafficking (5mks).

(4a). What is crime? (4mks).

(4b). Mention and explain three categories of crime (6mks).

(5a). List out ten common crimes (5mks).

(5b). Mention five causes of common crime (5mks).

(6a). State five effects of common crimes on the individuals and society
(5mks).

(6b). Mention five solutions to common crimes (5mks).

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT ; GOVERNMENT .

CLASS : SS1

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. ------------ is legal member of a state with full constitutional or legal right

in the country in which he or she resides (a) citizen (b) people (c)
organization (d) non of the above.
2. Which of these is not among the qualification of citizenship (a)
understanding each other (b) good character (c) statutory (d) through
marriage.
3. A citizen should obey all the laws of the state for the common good of its
citizen (a) true (b) false.
4. The cardinal plan or programme of the political party which the party
intend to fulfil to the people if elected into power is known as ------------
(a) manifesto (b) nomination (c) primary election (d) organisation
5. ----------is not among the types of political parties (a) leadership (b)
religions parties (c) broker parties (d) none of the above.
6. Which of these is the conduct of government based on the member of
system (a) party system (b) political party (c) electoral system (d) B and
A.
7. Citizen can be acquired by (a) nationalism (b) naturalization (c)
indenisation (d) collection.
8. An alien can obtain citizenship of another country through (a)
naturalization (b) birth (c) descent (d) nationalization.
9. It is not the duty or obligation of a citizen to (a) pay his tax (b) arrest and
prosecute offender (c) vote at elections (d) none of the above,
10.Which of the following is an obligation of a citizen? (a) arrest his
offender (b) voting at elections (c) prosecuting offender (d) adjudicating
case.
11.The right of a citizen to vote and be vote for in an election that (a)
indirect election (b) franchise (c) nomination (d) none of the above.
12.The primary duty of citizens to the state is (a) loyalty to traditional ruler
(b) allegiance to the government (c) obedience to ministers (d)
obedience to politicians
13.The ultimate aim of a political party is to (a) influence government
policies (b) seek to discredit (c) gain control of the government (d) none
of the above,
14.In a democratic state, the party system that is usually operated is (a)
mass party (b) multi party (c) one party (d) elite party.
15.Political legders are largel recruited in modern democracy through (a)
election commission (b) political parties (c) the judiciary (d) parliament.
16.Political parties are formed for all the following reasons except of (a)
from a government (b) organised election (c) educate the election rate
(d) canvass for vote.
 17.A political party is mainly interested in (a) opposing the government (b)
contesting election to gain power (c) educating the public (d) none of the
above.
18.In a modern state pressure groups find that the most effective way of
achieving their purpose is by (a) causing problem among the populace
(b) influencing decision of government (c) from political party (d) A and
C.
19.A major issue that distinguishes pressure group from political parties is
(a) membership drive (b) the voting pattern (c) ideology (d) the
objective.
20.The term franchise refers to (a) French – speaking people (b) properly
owners (c) the right to choose representatives (d) none of the above.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four question only.

(1a) Define the term party system.

(1b). List and explain the types of party system.

(2a ). What is electoral system?

(2b). Mention the types of electoral system.

(3). List and explain five duties and obligations of a citizenship.

(4a), Define the term citizenship.

(4b). List and explain four qualification of a citizenship.

(5). Define the following (i) franchise (ii) party system (iii) political part.

(6), List and explain the types of franchise.

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .
SUBJECT ; GOVERNMENT .

CLASS : SS2.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. The official members in the legislative council of the British colonial

government were (a) all African (b) all white (c) minority white (d)
majority African .
2. The first British west African country to practise the elective principle
was (a) Nigeria (b) the Gambia (c) Sierra-Leone (d) Ghana .
3. Regionalism was fully operated in Nigeria (a) Richard constitution (b)
Clifford constitution (c) Macpherson constitution (d) independence
constitution.
4. One major achievement of the Richard constitution of Nigeria was that it
(a) united the Northern southern under a single legislature (b) allowed
the participation of traditional rulers in government (c) provided for
official African in the membership (d) none of the above.
5. Nigeria first constitution was the (a) Clifford constitution (b) Lyttleton
constitution (c) Macpherson constitution (d) none of the above.
6. Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction
of the (a) 1954 Lyttleton constitution (b) Clifford constitution 1933 (c)
1946 Richard constitution (d) 1953 London conference constitution .
7. Federalism was introduce in Nigeria under the (a) Lyttleton constitution
(b) Macpherson constitution (c) Clifford constitution (d) none of the
above.
8. Nigeria became a republic with the (a) 1963 constitution (b) 1989
constitution (c) 1978 constitution (d) 1960 constitution.
9. Under the 1963 constitution federal judges were appointed by the (a)
president on the advice of the prime minister (b) chief justice of the
federation (c) prime minister (d) none of the above.
10. Under what constitution did the supreme court become the high court
of appeal in Nigeria?(a) (a) the 1963 constitution (b) Macpherson
constitution (c) Clifford constitution (d) Richard constitution.
11.The queen of England ceased to be the head of state of Nigeria at (a)
independence in October 1960 (b) the attainment of self government by
 the regions (c) the adoption of the republican constitution 1963 (d) none
of the above.
12.How many number of house of senate in the national assembling
according to the 1999 presidential constitution (a) 109 (b) 106 (c) 103 (d)
107.
13.Which of the highest court in Nigeria was located in chapter vii of the
1999 constitution (a) supreme court (b) appeal court (c) court of justice
(d) none of the above.
14.Which of the constitution was formed 1999 (a) presidential constitution
(b) Richard constitution (c) independence constitution (d) Macpherson
constitution .
15.In what year was Clifford constitution established (a) 1923 (b) 1922 (c)
1994 (d) 1932.
16.------- was the constitution that established written constitution (a)
Clifford constitution (b) Richard constitution (c) Macpherson constitution
(d) none of the above.
17.Which of the constitution that established newspaper? (a) Clifford (b)
Richard (c) Lyttleton (d) none of the above.
18.In what year was Richard constitution established (a) 1946 (b) 1948 (c)
1943 (d) 1999.
19.----------- took over from sir Richard constitution (c) Macpherson
constitution (b) Lyttleton constitution (c) Richard constitution (d) none
of the above.
20.-------- was the constitution that was established in 1960 (a)
independence constitution (b) Richard constitution (c) Macpherson
constitution (d) federalism.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1a). Who is hugh Clifford .

(1b). List and explain four features of Clifford constitution.

(2). Write short note about Richard constitution and its achievement.

(3). Explain six characteristics of independence constitution.

 (4). Write short note on the following and its three merits. (a) Lyttleton
constitution (b) the 1999 presidential constitution..

(5). Write five weakness of Richard constitution.

(6). Write five features of Lyttleton constitution.

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT C.R.S.

CLASS : SS1

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. As they were sharing Christ suffering, Peter advised Christians to (a)

rejoice (b) be prayerful (c) be truthful (d) persevere.
2. What does Paul advise Roman Christians to do those who persecute
them? (a) forgive them (b) feed them (c) give them when hungry (c)
bless them (d) give them drink when thirty.
3. According to Peter Christian who suffer for Christ should not be
ashamed but should (a) glorify God (b) be encourage (c) be pertinent (d)
none of the above,
4. According to Peter Christians who suffer, according to the will of God
will receive (a) the crown of glory (b) blessing (c) forgiveness 9d) the
Holy Spirit.
5. Peter teaches that Christians should prepare for the day of the Lord by
the Lord by (a) living holy and godly lives (b) giving aims to the poor (c)
having sober reflection (d) none of the above.
6. But you have dishonoured the poor man. By this statement, Same
intents to teach Christian not to be (a) partial (b) insultive (c) harmful (d)
arrogant.
7. Partiality means (a) discrimination (b) tolerance (c) pity (d) compassion.
8. Partiality according to James involves (a) discriminating among ourselves
(b) honouring the poor (c) speaking the truth (d) none of the above.
9. Paul stated that the signs for the second coming of Jesus will start with
(a) famine (b) rebellion (c) earthquake (d) darkness .
10.Accord to Paul, the second coming of Christ will take place (a) suddenly
and unexpected (b) in our lifetime (c) when sin shall be no more (d) none
of the above.
11.Christians are expected to be obedient to civil authorities because (a)
constitution of the country says so (b) God himself appointed them (c)
they will not persecute them (d) C and B.
12.According to Paul letter to the Romans, a citizen owes all the following
duties to the government except (a) payment of taxes (b) attitude of
non- resistance (c) obeying all good laws (d) none of the above.
13.Paul in Roman advised, believers are to respect those in authority to
avoid God’s wrath and also for the sake of (a) Christ (b) conscience (c)
faith (d) other.
14.In Romans believers are taught to obey those in authority because ruler
are representative of (a) the kingdom (b) God (c) the people (d) the
prophets.
15.According to Peter, a Christian should exercise his freedom by (a) during
pain while suffering (b) doing what is right (c) using it as a pretext for evil
(d) A and C
16.To be a good citizen, Peter advised believers to honour all men and (a)
live as free men (b) love the brotherhood (c) obey their lawful master
(d) C and A.
17.Peter taught that people who disregard authorities would (a) be
banished (b) be punished by God and king (c) lose eternal life (d) none of
the above.
18.For Peter, Christian liberty should not be used as a (a) pretext for love (b)
cover up for sin (c) way of disrespect (d) none of the above.
19.Paul teaches that believers who maintain good conduct before
government authorities shall (a) received approval (b) enjoy peace (c) be
shown hospitality (d) none of the above.
20.Peter urges Christian to live as free men without necessarily using their
freedom as a pretext for (a) immorality (b) evil (c) greed (d) partiality.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1a) What is social vice?

(1b). What do you understand by the word tolerance?.

(2). Write short note on Peter’s teaching on Christian attitude towards

persecution .

(3). List five social vice you know in the society.

(4a). Define civil responsibility .

 (4b). Explain the need for order in the society according to st Paul .

(5a). Define the following (i) Neposlism (ii) tribalism.

(6). Write short note on the following (i) persecution (ii) impartiality.

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT C.R.S.

CLASS : SS2

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. The contest between Elijah and the prophets of Baal took place on/at (a)
mount Carmel (b) mount Sinai (c) brook cherish (d) only B.
2. The contest at mount Carmel between Elijah and the prophets of Baal
was to (a) prove the supremacy of God (b) prove the immortality of
Elijah (c) show that God answers his prophets by fire (d) none of the
above.
3. Baal did not answer his worshippers at the contest on mount Carmel
because he (a) did not hear (b) was asleep (c) wanted to rest (d) was
playing ball.
4. Elijah was a prophets during the reign of (a) Ahab (b) Gideon (c) Rehbam
(d) David.
5. The condemnation of king Ahab by Elijah was not because of his (a)
ascension to the father’s throne (b) marriage to Jezebel (c) worship of
Baal (d) B only.
6. Josial began to rule as king at the age of (a) ten (b) eight (c) twelve (d)
twenty.
7. The book of the law found in the house of the lord during the reign of
king (a) Ahab (b) Josiah (c) Hezekial (d) Moses.
8. Josiah reign as king was popular because of his (a) victories in battle (b)
religions reforms (c) leadership style (d) none of the above.
9. Under whose reign did Hilkiah discover the books of the law in the
temple.(a) Ahaziah (b) Josiah (c) David (d) only A.
10.The leader of the Jews who rebuilt the wall of Jerusalem after the exile
was (a) Ezekiel (b) Nehemiah (c) Sedekiah (d) Jeremiah.
11.The rebuilding of the temple in Jerusalem became successful as a result
of God’s influence over king (a) Josiah (b) Cyrus (c) Darius (d) none of the
above.
12.Nehemiah had access to ask for permission to visit Jerusalem because
(a) his sister was kings wife (b) he was the kings cup bearer (c) the king
loves Jerusalem (d) only C.
13.Which of the following ways did Nehemiah demonstrate concern for his
nation he (b) rebuilt the worship of Yahweh (b) reconstructed the walls
of Jerusalem (c) rebuilt the temple of Jericho (d) none of the above.
14.The stiff opposition against Nehemiah during rebuilding of Jerusalem
walls same from (a) Goshen and king Artaxenxes (b) sanballat and
Tobiah (c) Geshen and sanballat (d) A and C.
15.Who among the following refused to worship the image set up by
Nebuchadnezzar? (a) Daniel (b) Ezra (c) Shadrach (d) Nehemiah.
16.Nebuchadnezzar punished those who refused to worship the golden
image by throwing them into (a) the river Nile (b) the river of Babylon
(c) a furnace (d) a lion den.
17.When Daniel was delivered from the den of lions, those who reported
him to the king were (a) demoted on the king’s palace (b) made to
worship his lord (c) given same treatment (d) sent on exile.
18.Daniel became distinguished above all other president and satrap
because (a) he was highly educated (b) the spirit of Darius was in him (c)
an excellent spirit was in him(d) A and B.
 19.King Darius decreed that men should tremble and fear the God of Daniel
because his God is the (a) saving God (b) powerful God (c) living God (d)
loving God.
20.The excellent spirit found in Daniel caused the satraps to be (a) angry
with him (b) bitter with him (c) jealous with him (d) none of the above.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1a). Write short note on Elijah at Mount Carmel.

(1b). What lesson did you learn, give three.

(2). King Josiah religions reform in Israel explain.

(3). How did the children of Israel went to Babylon? Write short note on it.

(4a). What is faith?

(4b). Discuss why king Nebuchadnezzar made a golden image.

(5). Why did God instructed Hosea to marry a harlotry.

(6), Write short note on faith and power of God in Daniel ( 6:1—28).

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .
SUBJECT COMPUTER STUDIES

CLASS : JSS1.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. The process of starting the computer is called ---------------------.

2. Two major types of booting are -------------- and ------------- .
3. The process of restarting a computer is called -----------.
4. The monitor is connected to the system unit through a 15pins port
called ------------.
5. The printer is connected to the system unit through a 25 pins port called
------------.
6. The keyboard is connected to the system unit via----------- port.
7. The mouse is connected to the system unit via ------------- port.
8. The mouse is usually connected to the source of power ( True / False.
9. The keyboard is usually connected to source of power True / False.
10.Monitor is connected to source of power and the system unit True False.
11.A device that supply power to computer and its devices during utility
power failure is called (a) UPS (b) CPU (c) USB..
12.All these are examples of computer software except (a) hardware (b)
command (c) programs (d) instruction.
13. Computer hardware include the following except (a) keyboard (b)
monitor (c) system unit (d) software.
14.The keyboard short cut to warm boot computer is (a) control + alternate
+ delete (b) control + escape + shift (c) shift + escape + delete.
15.How many major components has the computer system (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2
(d) 5.
16.Which of these is a component of the computer system? (a) data (b)
hardware (c) software (d) liveware (e) all of the above..
17.Another term for liveware is (a) hardware (b) software (c) data (d)
peopleware.
18.All these are element of a computer desktop screen except (a) icon (b)
sprite (c) scanner (d) start button (e) task bar .
19.The major types of primary memory are (a) RAM /ROM (b) DVD /VCD (c)
hardware / floppy disk.
 20.The father of modern computer is called (a) Microsoft (b) Bilgate (c)
Charles Babbage (d) Abraham Lincon.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1). Write these acronym in full. (a) RAM (b) ROM (c) CDROM (d) DVD (e) ICT (f)
UPS (g) USB (h) IT (i) KB (j) MB.

(2). Write these acronym in full (i) ALT (ii) DEL (iii) ESC (iv) CPU (v) SRAM (vi)
DRAM (vii) INTERNET (viii) FORTRAN (ix) VDU (x) HDD.

(3). Write in full (i) GIGO (ii) AI (iii) DOS (iv) BASIC (v) ASCII (vi) BCD (vii) EBCDIC
(viii) CDROM (ix) POST.

(4). List five features of Microsoft word as a word processor and explain any
two.

(5a). Draw and label the parts of window control button.

(5b). List five characteristics of Microsoft word environment .

(6a). Write four steps to launch Microsoft word from all program menu.

(6b). Briefly explain what happen during “ POST’.

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT COMPUTER STUDIES

CLASS : JSS2.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. An application program that is used to design or draw, edit, store and

retrieve graphical files is called --------------.
2. Two major types of graphic files are ---------------- and --------------.
3. Two examples of graphic packages are -------------- and --------------.
4. The fastest method to launch corel draw when the program icon is on
desktop is --------------- ..
5. Two examples of non- standard word processor are ----------- and ---------.
6. Two examples of standard word processor are ------------- and -------------.
7. The only language that the computer understands is called -------.
8. Binary symbols include -------------- and ----------------.
9. To convert decimal into binary, the method to use is -------------.
10.To convert binary number into denary, the method to use is -------------.
11.All these are component of the computer system except (a) data (b)
hardware (c) internet (d) liveware (e) software.
12.Pick out the odd member of the group (a) cuboid (b) cube (c) trapezium
(d) cylinder.
13.Pick out the one that does not belong to these shapes (a) circle (b)
rectangle (c) cube (d) kite (e) rhombus.
14.Two dimensional shapes are also called (a) flat shape (b) plane shape (c)
both A and B (d) only A.
15.Which symbols are use in machine language? (a) 1/0 (b) 2/3 (c) 4/5 (d)
6/7 (e) 8/9.
16.1/0 are called ------------- symbol?. (a) hexadecimal (b) octal (c) machine
(d) binary.
17. What is the sum of 101two and 111two ? (a) 212ten (b) 010two (c) 1100two
18.Give the different between 1011two and 100two (a) 911ten (b) 111two (c)
1111ten .
19.Which symbol is used for raised to power? (a) ** (b) ^ (c) both A and B.
(D) only A (e) none.
20.What is the product of 101two and 11two (a) 1111two (b) 112two (c) 1,111ten .

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only,

 1. Write these acronym in full (i) BCD (ii) EBCDIC (iii) ASCII (iv) UPS (v) CPU
(vi) SRAM (vii) DRAM (viii) PROM (ix) EPROM (x) CDROM (xi) DVD (xii)
CDRW (xiii) POST (xiv) SUB (xv) COBOL (xvi) BASIC (xvii) FORTRAN (xviii)
INTERNET (xix) GSM (xx) SIM.
2. Define the following. (a) booting (b) warm booting (c) peripheral (d)
hardware (e) software.
3. Write a short story on the history of the internet.

(4a). Convert 1011two to decimal .

(4b). Express 43ten in binary .

(5a). List five examples of two- dimensional shape.

(5b). List five examples of solid shapes.

(5c). Give four example of quadrilateral

(5d). Give the names of (i) five sided polygon and (ii) eight sided polygon.

(6a). Define computer network.

(6b). List five categories of network according to geographical classification.

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT : DATA PROCESSING.

CLASS : SS1.
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions

1. A system program that communicate with hardware and allow other

program to run is called -------- (a) application package (b) system
software (c) drivers (d) memory.
2. All these are examples of system software but one (a) spelling checker
(b) grammar checker (c) sorting program (d) Ms Access.
3. Which of these is a single user operating system (a) Ms Dos (b) Ups (c)
Cpu (d) Bus.
4. Which of these is not a major function of operating system? (a) File
manager (b) storage manger (c) system manager (d) application
developer.
5. All these are system programs except (a) translator (b) utilities (c)
operating system (d) all (e) none.
Form 6 ------- 10 ( pick out the odd).
6. (a) hard disk (b) DVD (c) RAM (d) Flash disk .
7. (a) control elements (b) memory unit (c) utilities (d) arithmetic / logic
gate.
8. (a) data (b) hardware (c) Ms word (d) software (e) liveware,.
9. (a) Bus (b) register (c) logic gate (d) DBMS (e) micro processor.
10.(a) scanner (b) keyboard (c) plotter (d) joystick (e) light pen.
11.Which of these is a standard word processor?. (a) Ms Access (b) Ms excel
(d) Ms power point (e) Ms out look.
12. All these are non- standard word processor except (a) note pad (b) word
star (c) word pad.
13.All these are spreadsheet packages except (a) Lotus 1—2—3 (b)
Microsoft excel (c) Ms power point (d) peach tree acc.
14.One of these is used to create electronic mail account (a) power point
(b) DBMS (c) Ms outlook (d) Ms word .
15.Which of these is not a graphic package? (a) Ms paint (b) Corel draw (c)
window media player (d) Auto card.
16.The place value of 3 in the number 4367 is (a) ¼ (b) 1000 (c) 100 (d) ⅛
(e) 3-unit.
17.The place value of 3 in 76. 345 is (a) ½ (b) ⅛ (c) 100 (d) 20
18.Express 1012 into diary (a) 500ten (b) 50ten (c) 5ten (d) 0.5ten (e) 5ten.
 19. The keyboard short cut to undo an action is (a) control + y (b) control + z
(c) Alt + F4 (d) control + A.
20.Which of these short cuts can close an active window? (a) shift + Alt +
Delete (b) Alt + F4 (c) control +A (d) ESC+ WIMP.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four question only.

(1a). How does data processing affects you as a students.

(1b). List seven aspects of data processing as a subject.

(2). With the aid of a table give three distinctions between (i) copy and paste
(ii) cut and paste.

(3a). Out line three possible way to launch Microsoft word,

(3b). Outline three possible ways to exit Microsoft word environment .

(4a). Enumerate the steps to save micro software document for the first time.

(4b). Outline three possible ways to resave already saved Microsoft word
document.

(5a). List five features of a standard processor and explain two.

(5b). Mention five feature of Microsoft word environment and explain any
two.

(6a). Define operating system.

(6b), State four major functions of operating system.

(6c). Define utility program and mention two examples.

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT : DATA PROCESSING.

CLASS : SS2.
SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions

Give the full meaning of.

1. Malware 2. Internet 3. ASCII 4. HTTP 5. WWW 6. IP 7 HPT 8.GUI 9. WIMP

10. URL.

11. Pick out the odd member of this group of application packages (a) Ms
power point (b) Ms Access (c) macromedia flash (d) Ms excel.

12. Which of this is not a utility program (a) paste (b) copy (c) xcopy (d)
delete (e) Ms paint.

13. Pick out the odd member (a) internet explorer (b) Netscape navigator
(c) Corel draw .

14. Pick out the odd member (a) Ms word (b) word star (c) Ms outlook (d)
word perfect.

15. Which of the keyboard short cut is used to cut text (a) control + V (b)
control + C (c) control +X (d) control + P.

Write down the keyboard short cut for the following activities.

16. copy

17. Paste text .

18. close active windows and shut down the computer.

19. Initiate warm booting.

20. Redo / Undo an action.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four question only.

(1a). Define data processing as a subject .

(1b). Highlight five aspects of data processing as a subject.

(1c). Highlight three positive ways that the subject data processing affects
you as a student .

(2a). Define presentation package.

 (2b) List three examples of preventative package .

(c). Enumerate five features of presentation package .

(3). Explain any two (a) Animation (b) transition (c) Automation (d) slide
show.

(4a) Explain the term INTERNET.

(4b). Identify three type of internet browser .

(4c). What is internet security ?.

(5) Explain any two (a) internet abuse (b) spam (c) phishing (d) malware.

(5b). List four type of malware.

(6a), Highlight the steps to launch Microsoft power point from all program
menu.

(6b). Highlight the steps to save a word document for the first time.

(6c). List three possible ways to resave a Microsoft word document .

(6d). Give two distinction between (a) copy text and (b) cut text.

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT : P H E. .

CLASS : JSS1.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions

1. -------- is one of the example of indoor recreational activities (a) walking
(b) sewing (c) jogging (d) mountaineering .
2. Rock –n- roll and highlife music are examples of ------- type of dance (a)
traditional music/ dance (b) foreign/social dance (c) Ekiti dance (d)
Oyoyo dance.
3. ------------- type of food are obtained from living organism and contains
carbon (a) body building food (b) inorganic foods (c) organic foods (d)
protective food.
4. ----------- are competitive sports which started during the time of the
early men (a) track events (b) field events (c) throwing (d) athletics.
5. Filed events are grouped into ------- and -------- (a) track and filed (b)
throws and jumps (c) sprint and long distance races (d) horizontal and
vertical jumps.
6. The examples of sprint races are -------- (a) 50m, 100m, 200m (b) 800m,
1500m, 2000m (c) 3000m, 5000m, 10,000m (d) marathons.
7. All these are examples of athletic missiles except -------- (a) short put (b)
discus (c) skipping rope (d) javelin.
8. In shot put and discus, a competitor is allowed how many trials (a) 5 (b)
3 (c) 4 (d) 10.
9. Volleyball as a game was invented by ------ (a) Kanu Nwankwo (b)
William J.Morgan (c) Dr. J.C. Omeruan (d) Engr.Dr. Okoro.
10.The international volleyball association was formed in the year ---- (a)
1977 (b) 1916 (c) 1947 (d) 1990.
11.Volleyball became an Olympic game in the year (a) 1964 (b) 1920 (c)
1966 (d) 1965.
12.The first chairman of Nigeria volleyball federation is ---------- (a) Dr, Amos
Olureremi (b) Dr, J.C Omoruan (c) Dr. Engr. I.J. okoro (d) Dr. Raandah
Stanley.
13.Volleyball is a game played between two teams of how many players
each? (a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8.
14.The volleyball court is ------ in shape (a) rectangular (b) spherical (c) oval
(d) triangular.
15.All these are the skills and techniques in volleyball except (a) service (b)
volleying (c) spiking (d) jumping.
 16.------------- is the act of putting a game into play (a) dig pass (b) service (c)
blocking (d) volleying.
17.The change of position/ movement of players is called ---------- (a)
deadball (b) rotation (c) deuce (d) rally.
18.In volleyball terminologies, a term used when the ball is not in play is
called -------- (a) side-out (b) deadball (c) let (d) out.
19.Athletic are grouped into ----------- and ------------ (a) high jump and long
jump (b) track event and long events (c) track and field events (d) all of
the above.
20.The person who takes part in Athletic events like 100m, 200m is called
(a) athlete (b) athletic (c) advertise (d)sporter.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1i). Define recreation, leisure and dance (6mks).

(1ii). Mention three examples of indoor and outdoor recreational activities

(3mks).

(1iii). State the two types of dance (1mk).

(2i). Define food (2mkd)

(2ii). Mention four importance of food (4mks).

(2iii). Explain organic and inorganic food (4mks).

(3i). Define athletics (2mks).

(3ii). Explain track events and field events (4mks).

(3iii). State four benefits of athletics (4mks).

(4i). Discuss shot put and discus (4mks).

(4ii). Mention four basic skill and techniques in short put and discus.

(4iii). State four safety measure in short put and discus (2mks)

(5i). Narrate the history of volleyball (3mks).

(5ii). Mention three facilities and equipment in volleyball (3mks).

(5iii). State four rights and duties of players in volleyball. (4mks)

(6i). Explain four basic skills and techniques in volleyball (4mks).

(6ii). Explain the following terminologies in volleyball (6mks).

(i) Net service (ii) rally (iii) let.

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT :HOME ECONOMICS

CLASS : JSS1.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions

1. ------------- refers to choosing nutritious food in a conscious way (a)

unhealthy feeding habits (b) healthy feeding habit (c) adequate diet (d)
feeding habits.
2. ---------is a diet that contains all the nutrients in it’s correct proportion
(a) balance sheet (b) balance diet (c) feeding habit ( d) eating habit.
3. All these are effects of unhealthy feeding practise except ----------- (a)
obesity (b) under weight (c) marasmius (d) nutrition .
4. -------- is any substance which when taken into the body changes or
modifies one or more functions of the body (a) drug abuse (b) drug (c)
drug addictives (d) drug misuse.
5. ----------- is the intentional improper use of a drug (a) drug abuse (b) drug
misuse (c) drug addictive (d) drug malnourishment.
6. The examples of primary needs are --------- (a) car (b) food (c) aeroplane
(d) bicycle.
7. All these are example of secondary needs excepts the following (a)
clothing (b) television (c) radio (d) car.
8. The two classes of resources are -------- and ------- (a) primary resource
and secondary resources (b) human and non- human resource (c) need
and want resources (d) all of the above.
9. The examples of human resources are ----- (a) skill, energy and time (b)
work, shop and rent (c) school, book and bag (d) none of the above.
10.The ability of the mind to be creative and resourceful is called ---------- (a)
skill (b) knowledge (c) imagination (d) time.
11.---------- is used with the resources to reach goals (a) time (b) energy (c)
skills (d) knowledge.
12.The two main types of material resources are -------- (a) utility and
money (b) family possessions and money (c) house possessions and
money (d) food possession and money.
13.All these are examples of those possession that last a long time and are
not used up readily except (a) furniture (b) car (c) food (d) house.
14.----------- are very important resource which can be used to buy most
things , including other resources (a) house (b) food (c) car (d) money.
15.A female who entertains is called a -------- (a ) host (b) hostess (c) guest
(d) entertainer.
16.A male who entertains is called a ------------- (a) host (b) guest (c) hostess
(d) visitor.
17.The person who is entertained is called a ------------ (a) host (b) hostess
(c) guest (d) visitor.
18.------------ is one of the responsibilities of a guest (a) dress properly for a
party (b) be late for a party (c) misbehave in a party (d) do not respect
the host/ hostess .
19.The common styles of serving food are -------- except (a) tray service (b)
plate service (c) buffet service (d) pot service.
20.---------- are substance applied to the skin to take odour out of
perspiration (a) cosmetic (b) deodorants (c) fragrance (d) make-up.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four question only.

(1i). Define food (2mks).

(1ii). State four functions of food (2mks).

(1iii). Explain four basic food groups (4mks).

(1iv). Mention four importance of healthy feeding habits (2mks).

(2i). State six guideline for health eating habits (3mks.

(2ii). Mention eight table manners (4mks).

(2iii). Define balance / adequate diet (3mks).

(3i). Explain four effects of unhealthy feeding practise (4mks).

(3ii). Mention four effects of unhealthy eating habit (4mks).

(3iii). Define food additives (2mks).

(4i). Define drug abuse (2mks).

(4ii). State four effects of drug abuse (4mks).

(4iii). Define drug (2mks).

(4iv). Mention two example of drug (2mks).

(5i). Explain family needs and resource (4mks)

(5ii) Explain the two types of needs (4mks).

(5iii) Mention two classification of resource (2mks).

(6i). Define entertainment (2mks).

(6ii). State four importance of serving food (4mks).

(6iii) State four common styles of serving food (4mks).

(6iv). Mention four responsibilities

 PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.
THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT : P H E. .

CLASS : JSS2.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. The agent causing diseases are called (a) pathology (b) pathogens (c)
diseases (d) all of the above.
2. The science and the study of disease is called ----------- (a) pathogen (b)
pathology (c) physiology (d) sociology.
3. The position in which you hold your body upright against gravity while
standing or sitting is called (a) position (b) posture (c) rotation (d)
postural defects.
4. A varus deformity of the knee is a --------deformity (a) knock-knee (b)
bow- legged (c) k- leg (d) hump back.
5. A knock- knee deformity is sometimes referred to as ------ (a) bow legged
(b) k-leg (c) hump leg (d) hump back.
6. ------- refers to excessive curving of the lower spine, sometimes
popularly called sways back (a) kyphosis (b) lordosis (c) scoliosis (d)
psychosis
7. Bow- leg Usually improves with --------? (a) exercise (b) age (c)
orthopaedic devices (d) stretching.
 8. ----------- can be improve with stretching exercise (a) Lordosis (b) scoliosis
(c) kyphosis (d) vague knee.
9. Act of restiveness include the following except (a) rape (b) ritual killing
(c) kidnapping (d) cooperation.
10.Scoliosis can be treated simply by ------- (a) orthopede devices (b)
radiographic device (c) surgical devices (d) medial devices.
11.The values/ functions of sports in the society include the following
except (a) cooperation (b) leadership (c) political thuggery (d) unity.
12.Restiveness among the youth is cause by their ---------- except (a) energy
(b) youthfulness (c) immaturity (d) cooperation.
13.Postural defects is caused by ----------- (a) trauma (b) cooperation (c)
unity (d) sport.
14.Keeping the head up and eyes looking straight ahead is one of the basic
position for ---------- (a) sitting position (b) walking position (c) lifting
position (d) standing position.
15.The equipment and facilities of table tennis are ------------ except (a) ball
(b) table (c) racket (d) missile.
16.All these are determinant of health except (a) heredity (b) environment
(c) life style (d) physical fitness.
17.------------ is when the environment is made uncomfortable, harmful and
hazardous to living habitation (a) pollution (b) pollutant (c) posture (d)
postural defects.
18.Rheumatism , heart attack and stroke are called by ------- (a)
malnutrition (b) physiological failure of the tissue (c) heredity (d) brain
damage.
19.Snake bite and stomach ulcer is called by -------- (a) chemical or atomic
fall outs (b) congenital problem (c) brain damage (d) malnutrition
20.------------ is an illness affecting human animals or plants often caused by
infection (a) pathogen (b) pathology (c) disease (d) psychosis.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four question only

(1i). Define diseases (2mks)

(1ii). Mention six non- communicable diseases and their causes (4mks).

(1iii). State six preventive measure against non- communicable diseases.

(2i). State four characteristic of good posture (2mks).

(2ii). Define postural defects (2mks).

(2iii). State two correct posture for the following postural positions

(i).standing (ii).sitting (iii) .walking(6mks).

(3i). Explain four postural problems / deviations (4mks).

(3ii). Mention four causes of postural defects (2mks).

(3iii). Define sports (2mks).

(4i). Explain three values / functions of sports in the society (6mks).

(4ii). Explain two ways sports can be used to control youth restiveness (2mks).

(4iii). State four act of restiveness (2mks).

(5i). Define sports law (2mks).

(5ii). Explain four aspects of sport law (4mks).

(5iii). Explain four examples of sports law in action (4mks).

(6i). Define human trafficking (2mks).

(6ii). State four problem / solution to human trafficking (4mks).

(6iii). Define communicable and non- communicable diseases. (4mks).

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT :HOME ECONOMICS

CLASS : JSS2.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. ------- are your every day pattern of eating (a) unhealthy feeding habits
(b) feeding or eating habits (c) healthy feeding habits (d) food and
nutrition.
2. -------- results from choosing nutritious food in a conscious way (a)
feeding habits (b) eating habits (c) healthy feeding habits (d) unhealthy
feeding habits.
3. ------------- result from making poor food choice over a period of time (a)
feeding habit (b) healthy feeding habits (c) unhealthy feeding habits (d)
eating habit,
4. ----------- means making people feel happy (a) entertainer (b)
entertainment (c) nutrition (d) refreshment .
5. A female who entertain is called a ----------- (a) host (b) hostess (c) gust
(d) visitor.
6. A male who entertains is called (a) hostess (b) host (c) entertainer (d)
guest,
7. The person who is entertained is the -------- (a) guest (b) host (c) hostess
(d) visitor.
8. Table laying is important because it makes the table ------------- (a)
comfortable (c) attractive (c) ugly (d) unkept .
9. -------- refers to the place set for a person on the table (a) table laying
(b) cover (c) setting (d) serving..
10.Which of these is a material for table setting (a) meat fork (b) dinner fork
(c) lunch fork (d) breakfast fork.
11.Factors to consider when buying food are ------- (a) quality of food (b)
quantity of food (c) where not to buy food (d) when not to buy food .
12.------ are food that can spoil easily (a) perishable food (b) non- perishable
food (c) adequate food (d) food storage.
13.-------- is one the example of perishable food (a) beans (b) fish (c) flour
(d) yam.
14.------- are those foods that do not spoil easily(a) perishable (b) non-
perishable (c) meal (d) diets
15.-------- is one of the example non-perishable food (a) fish (b) meat (c)
milk (d) yam.
16.The following are tools for taking body measurement except ------- (a)
pencil (b) paper (c) tape (d) cloth.
17.-------- are food item prepare and eaten usually at a specific time (a)
snacks (b) meals (c) breakfast (d) lunch.
18.These are light food items eaten between meals (a) snacks (b) meals (c)
dinner (d) lunch.
19.All these are example of meals except -------- (a) rice (b) yam (c) plantain
(d) biscuits.
20.The act of preventing harmful substance and micro organisms from
growing in food by keeping the food clean and safe is called (a) food
poisoning (b) food sanitation (c) food hygiene (d) food additives

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four question only.

(1i). Define food (2mks).

(1ii). State four functions of food in the body (4mks).

(1iii). Mentions two importance of healthy feeding habits (2mks).

(1iv). State eight guideline for healthy feeding habits (4mks).

(2i). Explain four basic food group (4mks).

(2ii). List and explain two effects of unhealthy feeding practices.

(2iii). Mention four effects of unhealthy eating habits (2mks).

(2iv). State six table manners (2mks).

(3i). Define entertainment (2mks ).

(3ii). Mention six importance of entertainment (6mks).

(3iii). State two ways of preparing for entertainment (2mks).

(4i). Define table laying (2mks).

(4ii). Mention four importance of table laying (4mks).

(4iii). State four guidelines and processes of table laying (2mks).

(4iv). Mention six materials for table setting (2mks).

(5i). Mention six factors to consider when buying food (3mks).

 (5ii). State four wise buying practices (2mks).

(5iii). Define good quality food stuffs (2mks).

(5iv). State six importance of buying good quality food stuffs (3mkS).

(6i). Define perishable food (2mks).

(6ii). State three hints on storage of perishable foods (3mks).

(6iii). Define non- perishable foods (3mks)

(6iv). State three hints on storage of non-perishable foods (3mks).

PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.

THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT: ECONOMICS

CLASS :SS1.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. Nigeria has --------- geo-political zones (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3

2. Which of these states is not in the north east geo-political zone? (a)
Bomo (b) Bauchi (c) Benue (d) Gombe.
3. __________is not an example of a direct service (a) teaching (b) banking
(c) policing (d) transportation is
4. The system of farming where people come together and enjoy some
benefit from government is farming.(a) peasant (b) plantation (c)
cooperative (d). Mechanised.
5. Petroleum as a sedimentary rock mineral is form in ----------- (a) Anambra
(b) Rivers (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Gombe.
6. The ------------- of the banking institution are counted as part of money
supply. (a) assets (b) liabilities (c) deposits (d) loans.
7. Which of the following is a common mineral found in commercial
qualities in Nigeria . (a) gold (b) crude oil (c) iron ore (d) zinc.
8. Which of the following is a major challenge facing agriculture in Nigeria?
(a) abundant arable land (b) limited access to credit for farmer (c) high
level of mechanisation (d) favourable government policy.
9. Which of the following is not a major food crop in Nigeria (a) maize (b)
cassava (c) yam (d) cocoa.
10. The main source of Nigeria’s foreign exchange is the export of -------
(a) skilled workers (b) cocoa (c) crude oil (d) cotton.
11.The bank type that is responsible for the formation of rules and
regulations guiding the banking industry is known as --------- (a)
commercial (b) central (c) mortgage (d) merchant
12.-------- is an example of non-banking financial bank institution (a)
insurance companies (b) mortgage bank (c) commercial bank (d)central
bank
13.Public corporation are owneds by ------------- (a) shareholder (b)
government (c) individuals (d) cooperation society.
14. ---------- is a system of farming that cultivates only one crop (a)
subsistence farming (b) plantation farming (c) mechanical farming (d)
commercial farming.
15.The method used in mining petroleum is the -------- method (a) drilling
(b) pumping (c) frying
16.- 17. Coal is found in ----------- and ------------ zone (a) Enugu ---
southwest (b) Enugu - southeast (c) Rivers ----- south-south (d) Gombe
-Northeast.

18. Current account make payment through the use of _______________

(a) withdrawal slip (b) cheque (c) drafts (d) ATM..

19. The --------- of a banking financial institution are counted as part of

money supply (a) assets (b) liabilities (c) money (d) shares.

20. The objective of a cooperative society is to__________ (a) make profit

(b) get subsides (c) protect the internet of their members (d) generate
shares.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four question only.

(1a). What is agriculture? (2mks).

(1b). Mention four differences each between subsistence farming and

commercial farming (8mks).

(2a), Mention the six geo-political zones in Nigeria .

(2b).List two states from each of these zones .

(3a). Describe the method of mining petroleum .

(3b). Mention three adverse effects of mining .

(3c), List three importance of minerals in the Nigeria economy.

(4a). Define a bank.

(4b). Differentiate between banking and non- banking financial institution.

(5a). What are co-operative societies?

(5b). Enumerate five advantages of co-operative societies.

(6a). Define commercial bank.

(6b). Mention five functions of commercial banks.

 PARAGON CITY LIGHT COLLEGE, PORT HARCOURT.
THIRD TERM EXAMINATION FOR 2024 / 2025 SESSION .

SUBJECT: ECONOMICS

CLASS :SS2.

SECTION A: OBJECTIVE, answer all the questions.

1. Which factor influence the location of industries in Nigeria? (a)

availability of raw materials and access to market (b) level of rainfall (c)
level of political stability (d) lack of credit.
2. Which industry predominantly located in the Niger Delta region? (a).
Agriculture (b) tourism (c) oil gas (d) mining .
3. ------- is the principle of tax that states that people should be tax
according to the abilities. (a) equity (b) economy (c) certainty (d)
flexibility.
4. Who laid down the principle of a good tax system? (a) Alfred Marshal (b)
Lionel Robin (c) Adam Smith (d) J. S Mile.
5. Who bears the finl burden of tax on indirect tax? (a) government (b) firm
(c) tax payer (d) wholesaler.
6. P. A. Y. E is a good example of -------- tax system (a) proportional (b)
progressive (c) regressive (d) direct.
7. A decrease in taxes will lead to ------- (a) decrease in disposable income
(b) increase in government revenue (c) decrease in inflation (d) increase
in consumer spending.
8. What are the two primary tools of fiscal policy? (a) taxes and rates (b)
regulation (c) times (d) taxes and spending.
 9. The situation whereby in a fiscal year a government’ revenue receipt and
less them its expenditure is referred to as -------- (a) budget defeat (b)
balance budget (c) budget surplus (d) unfavourable budget.
10.The agency that as responsible for collecting tax for the federal
government is ----------- (a) FIF (b) RIRS (c) FIRS (d) NABTEC.
11.A fiscal policy instrument that influence the demand pattern in an
economy is ----------- (a) government spending (b) interest rate (c)
income tax (d) tariff.
12.The establishment of industries in rural areas will help to reduce ---------
immigration (a) urban – rural (b) rural - urban (c) rural-rural. (d ) urban -
urban,
13.Petro- chemical industries are located in the Rivers state of Nigeria
because of ------------- (a) favourable soil (b) coal deposit (c) crude oil
deposit (d) favourable climate.
14.One of the problem facing the Nigeria oil and gas industry is ------------
(a) over capacity reutilization (b) discovery of alternative oil source (c)
shortage of indigenous (d) excess of supply of petroleum products.
15.Localization of industries in Nigeria is manly influence by ------------
(a) market size (b) population grouping (c) raw materials (d) external
economics .
16.The manufacturer bears the ------------ burden of tax in case of indirect
taxes (a) initial (b) final (c) direct (d) poll
17.The purchasing power of money is the_________ (a) personal income
(b) qualities of goods money (c) mount of money people wish to hold
(d) nominal income.
18.The demand curve of a monopolist is ---------- sloping (a) upward (b)
perfectly elastic (c) document (d) bend.
19.The demand curve of a perfect market is also the (a) MC (b) MR (c) AC
(d) AR.
20.The market that deals on long term fund is the__________ (a) market
(b) labour (c) capital (c) money (d) commodity.

SECTION B ( THEORY) Answer four questions only.

(1). Explain the following briefly (i) industry (ii) plant (iii) factory (iv) firm.

(2a). Define public finance

(2b). Mention five objectives of public finance.

(3a). Explain these principle of tax (i) economy (ii) equality (iii) certainty.

(4a). What is a direct tax?.

(4b). State five advantages of direct taxes.

(5a). Define localization of industries.

(5b). List five problems of localization of industries.

(6a). With the aid of a graph explain (i) progressive tax system (ii) regressive
tax system (iii) proportional tax system.