LSAT

PrepTest 141
The Law School Admission Council’s mission is to advance law and justice by encouraging diverse and talented individuals to study
law and by supporting their enrollment and learning journeys from prelaw through practice. See https://www.lsac.org/about.
©2024 Law School Admission Council, Inc. All rights reserved.
No part of this work, including information, data, or other portions of the work published in hardcopy or electronic format, may
be reproduced, distributed, or transmitted in any form or by any means, including photocopying, recording, or other electronic
or mechanical methods, without expressed permission from the publisher. For information and permission requests, contact
Assessment Publications at AssessmentPublications@LSAC.org.
LSAC® is a trademark of the Law School Admission Council. For a full list of LSAC’s trademarks, please see https://www.lsac.org/
about/lsac-policies/trademarks. LSAC’s trademarks are solely for use by LSAC and its affiliates, subsidiaries, and licensees. Use of
any LSAC logo or trademark is strictly prohibited without the prior written consent of an authorized representative of LSAC.
LSAC’s fees, policies, and procedures relating to, but not limited to, test registration, test administration, test score reporting,
misconduct and irregularities, Credential Assembly Service (CAS)SM, and other matters may change without notice at any time.
Up-to-date LSAC policies and procedures are available at LSAC.org.
From the Editor
Although this PrepTest is presented to you in paper form,
the LSAT® is now delivered electronically. Please visit LSAC.org
for the most up-to-date information about these tests.
1 -4-
1 1
SECTION I
Time—35 minutes
27 Questions

Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some questions, more than one of the
choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, choose the response that
most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your answer sheet.

Charles Darwin objected to all attempts to For that view assumes that adaptations are a response
reduce his theory of evolution to its doctrine of to conditions that are already in place at the time
natural selection. “Natural selection has been the the adaptations occur, and mammals could not have
main but not the exclusive means of modification,” adapted in advance to conditions caused by the impact.
he declared. Nonetheless, a group of self-proclaimed In a sense, their success was the result of dumb luck.
strict constructionist Darwinians has recently risen to
prominence by reducing Darwin’s theory in just this 1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
way. These theorists use the mechanism of natural main point of the passage?
selection to explain all biological phenomena; they (A) Evidence from two areas of science undermines
assert that natural selection is responsible for every the strict constructionist claim that natural
aspect of every species’ form and behavior, and for the selection is the only driving force behind
success or failure of species in general. evolution.
Natural selection is generally held to result in (B) According to strict constructionist Darwinians,
adaptation, the shaping of an organism’s form and new evidence suggests that natural selection
behavior in response to environmental conditions to is responsible for the failure of most extinct
achieve enhanced reproductive success. If the strict species.
constructionists are right, the persistence of every (C) New evidence demonstrates that natural selection
attribute and the survival of every species are due to can produce nonadaptive as well as adaptive
such adaptation. But in fact, nature provides numerous changes.
examples of attributes that are not adaptations for (D) Strict constructionist followers of Darwin
reproductive success and of species whose success or maintain that natural selection is responsible for
failure had little to do with their adaptations. all evolutionary change.
For example, while it is true that some random (E) Evidence from the study of population genetics
mutations of genetic material produce attributes that helps to disprove the claim that natural selection
enhance reproductive success and are thus favored by results in the survival of the fittest species.
natural selection, and others produce harmful attributes
that are weeded out, we now know from population 2. According to the author, mammals were able to survive
genetics that most mutations fall into neither category. catastrophic environmental changes that occurred roughly
Research has revealed that neutral, nonadaptive changes 65 million years ago because they
account to a large extent for the evolution of DNA.
Most substitutions of one unit of DNA for another (A) had adapted previously to similar changes
within a population have no effect on reproductive (B) were relatively small
success. These alterations often change the attributes of (C) were highly intelligent
species, but their persistence from one generation to the (D) lived in a wide range of environments
next is not explainable by natural selection. (E) were able to reproduce quickly
Additionally, the study of mass extinctions in
paleontology has undermined the strict constructionist
claim that natural selection can account for every
species’ success or failure. The extinction of the
dinosaurs some 65 million years ago was probably
caused by the impact of an extraterrestrial body. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
Smaller animal species are generally better able to
survive the catastrophic changes in climate that we
would expect to follow from such an impact, and
mammals in the Cretaceous period were quite small
because they could not compete on the large scale of the
dominant dinosaurs. But while this scenario explains
why dinosaurs died off and mammals fared relatively
well, it does not conform to the strict constructionist
view of the adaptive reasons for the success of species.
1 1 -5-
1
3. The author asserts which one of the following regarding 6. Which one of the following most accurately and
mutations of genetic material? completely describes the function of the second
paragraph of the passage?
(A) The majority of such mutations are not passed on
to subsequent generations. (A) It outlines the objections to traditional
(B) The majority of such mutations occur during evolutionary theory raised by the strict
periods when mass extinctions take place. constructionists mentioned in the first paragraph.
(C) The majority of such mutations change species’ (B) It lists recent evidence suggesting that the strict
behavior rather than their appearance. constructionist claims described in the first
(D) The majority of such mutations have no effect on paragraph are incorrect.
reproductive success. (C) It describes the strict constructionists’ view of
(E) The majority of such mutations occur in larger evolutionary theory in order to explain why the
rather than smaller species. evidence described in subsequent paragraphs
has recently gotten so much attention.
4. The author would be most likely to agree with which one (D) It enumerates the arguments for the strict
of the following statements? constructionist position that are rebutted in the
(A) Natural selection is responsible for almost none paragraphs that follow.
of the characteristics of existing species. (E) It explains the ramifications of the strict
(B) The fact that a species flourishes in a certain constructionists’ claims and helps clarify the
environment is not proof of its adaptation to that relevance of evidence offered in subsequent
environment. paragraphs.
(C) Only evolutionary changes that provide some
7. The primary purpose of the passage is to
advantage to a species are transmitted to
subsequent generations. (A) argue in favor of a recently proposed hypothesis
(D) Large animal species are generally unable to (B) summarize a contemporary debate
survive in harsh environmental conditions. (C) demonstrate that a particular view is incorrect
(E) Natural selection is useful for explaining the form (D) criticize the proponents of a traditional theory
but not the behavior of most species. (E) explain why a particular theory is gaining
popularity
5. The author’s stance toward the arguments of the strict
constructionist Darwinians can most accurately be
described as one of
(A) emphatic disagreement
(B) mild disapproval
(C) open-minded neutrality GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(D) conditional agreement
(E) unreserved endorsement
1 -6-
1 1
The following passage is adapted from a critical theatricals, The Passing of Arthur puts one in mind of
discussion of the work of Victorian photographer Julia good amateur theatricals one has seen, and recalls with
Margaret Cameron. shameless delight.

What Cameron called her “fancy-subject” 8. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
pictures—photographs in which two or more costumed main point of the passage?
sitters enacted, under Cameron’s direction, scenes from (A) The circumstances under which Cameron’s
the Bible, mythology, Shakespeare, or Tennyson—bear fancy-subject pictures were taken render them
unmistakable traces of the often comical conditions unintentionally comical.
under which they were taken. In many respects they (B) The peculiar charm of Cameron’s fancy-subject
have more connection to the family album pictures of pictures derives from the viewer’s simultaneous
recalcitrant relatives who have been herded together awareness of the fictional scene portrayed and
for the obligatory group picture than they do to the the circumstances of its portrayal.
masterpieces of Western painting. In Raphael and (C) The implicit claim of Cameron’s fancy-subject
Giotto there are no infant Christs whose faces are pictures to comparison with the masterpieces
blurred because they moved, or who are looking at of Western painting is undermined by the
the viewer with frank hatred. These traces, of course, obtrusiveness of the sitters.
are what give the photographs their life and charm. (D) The most successful of Cameron’s fancy-subject
If Cameron had succeeded in her project of making pictures from an aesthetic point of view are
seamless works of illustrative art, her work would be those in which the viewer is completely unaware
among the curiosities of Victorian photography—like that the sitters are engaged in role playing.
Oscar Gustave Rejlander’s extravagantly awful The (E) The interest of Cameron’s fancy-subject pictures
Two Ways of Life—rather than among its most vital consists in what they tell us about the sitters and
images. not in the imaginary scenes they portray.
It is precisely the camera’s realism—its stubborn
obsession with the surface of things—that has given 9. The author mentions the props employed in The Passing
Cameron’s theatricality and artificiality its atmosphere of Arthur as
of truth. It is the truth of the sitting, rather than the
fiction which all the dressing up was in aid of, that (A) examples of amateurish aspects of the work
wafts out of these wonderful and strange, not-quite- (B) evidence of the transformative power of theater
in-focus photographs. They are what they are: pictures (C) testimonies to Cameron’s ingenuity
of housemaids and nieces and husbands and village (D) indications that the work is intended ironically
children who are dressed up as Mary Madonnas and (E) support for a negative appraisal of the work
infant Jesuses and John the Baptists and Lancelots
and Guineveres and trying desperately hard to sit still. 10. Which one of the following, if true, would most help to
The way each sitter endures his or her ordeal is the explain the claim made near the middle of the second
collective action of the photograph, its “plot” so to paragraph about suspension of disbelief?
speak. When we look at a narrative painting we can (A) Sitting for a painting typically takes much longer
suspend our disbelief; when we look at a narrative than sitting for a photograph.
photograph we cannot. We are always aware of the (B) Paintings, unlike photographs, can depict
photograph’s doubleness—of each figure’s imaginary obviously impossible situations.
and real personas. Theater can transcend its doubleness, (C) All of the sitters for a painting do not have to be
can make us believe (for at least some of the time) that present at the same time.
we are seeing only Lear or Medea. Still photographs (D) A painter can suppress details about a sitter that
of theatrical scenes can never escape being pictures of are at odds with an imaginary persona.
actors. (E) Paintings typically bear the stylistic imprint of an
What gives Cameron’s pictures of actors their artist, school, or period.
special quality—their status as treasures of photography
of an unfathomably peculiar sort—is their singular
combination of amateurism and artistry. In The
Passing of Arthur, for example, the mast and oar of the
makeshift boat representing a royal barge are obviously
broomsticks and the water is white muslin drapery. But
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
these details are insignificant. For once, the homely
truth of the sitting gives right of place to the romantic
fantasy of its director. The picture, a night scene, is
magical and mysterious. While Cameron’s fancy-
subject pictures have been compared to poor amateur
1 1 -7-
1
11. Based on the passage, Cameron is most like which one of 14. The discussion of suspension of disbelief in the second
the following in relation to her fancy-subject pictures? paragraph serves which one of the following purposes?
(A) a playwright who introduces incongruous (A) It is the main conclusion of the passage, for
elements to preserve an aesthetic distance which the discussion of Cameron’s fancy-
between characters and audience subject pictures serves as a case study.
(B) a rap artist whose lyrics are designed to subvert (B) It introduces a contrast the author uses in
the meaning of a song sampled in his recording characterizing the peculiar nature of our
(C) a sculptor whose works possess a certain response to Cameron’s fancy-subject pictures.
grandeur even though they are clearly (C) It is the key step in an argument supporting the
constructed out of ordinary objects author’s negative appraisal of the project of
(D) an architect whose buildings are designed to be narrative photography.
as functional as possible (D) It is used to explain a criticism of Cameron’s
(E) a film director who employs ordinary people fancy-subject pictures that the author shows to
as actors in order to give the appearance of a be conceptually confused.
documentary (E) It draws a contrast between narrative painting and
drama to support the author’s conclusion that
12. Based on the passage, the author would agree with each Cameron’s fancy-subject pictures are more like
of the following statements except: the former.
(A) A less realistic medium can be more conducive
15. The main purpose of the passage is
to suspension of disbelief than a more realistic
medium. (A) to chronicle Cameron’s artistic development
(B) Amateurishness is a positive quality in some as a photographer, which culminated in her
works of art. masterpiece The Passing of Arthur
(C) What might appear to be an incongruity in a (B) to argue that the tension between Cameron’s
narrative photograph can actually enhance its aims and the results she achieved in some of her
aesthetic value. works enhances the works’ aesthetic value
(D) We are sometimes aware of both the real and the (C) to show that Cameron’s essentially theatrical
imaginary persona of an actor in a drama. vision accounts for both the strengths and the
(E) A work of art succeeds only to the extent that it weaknesses of her photographic oeuvre
realizes the artist’s intentions. (D) to explain why Cameron’s project of acquiring
for photography the prestige accorded to
13. The passage provides the most support for inferring that painting was doomed to failure
in Cameron’s era (E) to defend Cameron’s masterpiece The Passing of
(A) there was little interest in photographs Arthur against its detractors by showing that it
documenting contemporary life transcends the homely details of its setting
(B) photography was practiced mainly by wealthy
amateurs
(C) publicity stills of actors were coming into vogue
(D) there were no professional artist’s models
(E) the time required to take a picture was substantial
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
1 -8-
1 1
Some critics of advertising have assumed that the 16. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
creation of false needs in consumers is the principal main point of the passage?
mechanism underlying what these critics regard as its
(A) Advertising has greater social value than
manipulative and hegemonic power. Central to this type
Marcusians have supposed, because it is both
of critique are the writings of political theorist Herbert
an effective means of informing consumers and
Marcuse, who maintained that modern people succumb
often an intrinsically entertaining medium of
to oppression by believing themselves satisfied in spite
mass communication.
of their living in an objectively unsatisfying world.
(B) Even if, as Marcusians have argued, there is a
This process occurs because in mass market culture
theoretical difference between real and false
the powerful psychological techniques of advertising
needs, that difference is obscured in practice
create “needs” that are false and whose satisfaction
by the relationship of consumers to the forces
thus contributes, not to the genuine well-being of
of persuasion in profit-motivated, consumer-
consumers, but rather to the profit—and thereby the
oriented societies.
disproportionate power—of corporations.
(C) Marcusian arguments regarding advertisers’
Marcuse supposed that we all have certain real
creation of false needs are mistaken, because
needs, both physical and psychological. Advertising
individuals are able to make autonomous
appropriates these needs for its own purposes,
decisions regarding their needs and are even
forging psychological associations between them
able to use the elements of mass market culture
and consumer items, e.g., between sex and perfume,
to achieve genuine fulfillment.
thereby creating a false “need” for these items. Since
(D) Critics of advertising typically focus on the
the quest for fulfillment is thus displaced from its
development of false needs in the consumer
true objects to consumer items, the implicit promises
and do not fully consider the ability of people
of advertisements are never really fulfilled and the
to make independent choices by distinguishing
consumer remains at some level unsatisfied.
their own real needs from the apparent needs
Unfortunately, the distinction between real
that advertising induces.
and false needs upon which this critique depends is
(E) The problematic distinction that Marcusians have
extremely problematic. If Marcusians are right, we
drawn between real and false needs provides an
cannot, with any assurance, separate our real needs
inadequate basis for their attacks on advertising,
from the alleged false needs we feel as a result of the
because the distinction overlooks consumers’
manipulation of advertisers. For, in order to do so, it
physical and psychological needs.
would be necessary to eliminate forces of persuasion
that are so prevalent in society that they have come to 17. The author states that Marcuse believed that advertisers
inform our instinctive judgments about things.
But, in fact, Marcusians make a major mistake (A) base many of their manipulative strategies on
in assuming that the majority of consumers who psychological research findings
respond to advertising do not do so autonomously. (B) appeal to people’s real needs in order to create
Advertising techniques are unable to induce false needs
unwilling behavior in rational, informed adults, and (C) are restricted to a degree by regulations
regulations prohibit misinformation in advertising prohibiting misinformation
claims. Moreover, evidence suggests that most adults (D) exaggerate the consumer’s need for independent
understand and recognize the techniques used and are decision-making
not merely passive instruments. If there is a real need (E) deny that the needs they create in people are less
for emotional fulfillment, and if we can freely and real than other needs
authentically choose our means of obtaining it, then
free, informed individuals may choose to obtain it
through the purchase of commodities or even through
the enjoyment occasionally provided by advertisements
themselves. It is no doubt true that in many—perhaps
even most—cases the use of an advertised product does GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
not yield the precise sort of emotional dividend that
advertisements seem to promise. This does not mean,
however, that consumers do not freely and intentionally
use the product as a means to another sort of fulfillment,
or even that its genuine fulfillment of needs must be
less than the advertisement suggests.
1 1 -9-
1
18. The main function of the first paragraph is to 20. By the term “forces of persuasion” (last sentence of the
third paragraph), the author most probably refers to
(A) summarize the political and economic context
from which Marcusian critiques of advertising (A) intentionally dishonest claims that some theorists
arise argue are common in advertising
(B) outline the mechanisms by which false needs (B) innate, instinctual drives that some theorists say
originate in mass market culture are fundamental to human behavior
(C) evaluate the psychological processes by which (C) emotional pressures that some theorists claim are
the manipulative techniques of mass market exerted over individuals by society as a whole
advertising influence individuals (D) subtle practices of social indoctrination that some
(D) describe the prevailing views among theorists say are sponsored by the state
contemporary critics of advertising and (E) manipulative influences that some theorists say
categorize Marcuse’s theories in relation to go unrecognized by those affected by them
those views
(E) describe Marcusian views regarding mass market 21. Which one of the following sentences would most
manipulation and indicate their role in certain logically complete the passage?
criticisms of advertising (A) Therefore, while in principle there might
be grounds for holding that advertising is
19. Which one of the following is a claim that the author
detrimental to society, the Marcusian critique
attributes to Marcuse?
does not provide such grounds.
(A) In modern society, advertising helps lead people (B) Therefore, although Marcusian claims about
to think that they are satisfied. advertising are rationally justified, the mistake
(B) Modern societies differ from earlier societies in of many recent critics of advertising is in their
that they fail to satisfy basic physical needs. use of these claims for political gain.
(C) It is impossible to draw any meaningful (C) Therefore, any shift in basic assumptions
distinction between real and false psychological required to correct the abuses of advertising will
needs in modern society. require a change in the perception of human
(D) Advertising in modern society has sometimes nature held by corporate leaders.
become a tool of oppression working to the (D) Therefore, while emphasizing only detrimental
benefit of totalitarian political systems. social aspects of advertising, Marcusians have
(E) Advertising exploits basic human needs by failed to consider that such aspects are clearly
deriving from them certain secondary needs outweighed by numerous social benefits.
which, though they become real needs, subtly (E) Therefore, the Marcusian critique of advertising
work to the detriment of consumers. is mistaken except in its claim that advertisers
exert economic power over those few people
who are unable or unwilling to distinguish real
from false needs.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1 -10-
1 1
Passage A might have to be made. But the original wrong can most
There are two principles that are fundamental to easily be righted by returning the land to them—or by
a theory of justice regarding property. The principle returning it wherever that is feasible.
of justice in acquisition specifies the conditions
under which someone can legitimately come to own 22. Which one of the following most accurately describes the
something that was previously not owned by anyone. main purpose for which passage A was written and the
The principle of justice in transfer specifies the main purpose for which passage B was written?
conditions under which the transfer of property from (A) Passage A: to propose a solution to a moral
one person to another is justified. problem; Passage B: to criticize a proposed
Given such principles, if the world were wholly solution to a moral problem
just, the following definition would exhaustively cover (B) Passage A: to sketch a general outline of a branch
the subject of justice regarding property: of moral theory; Passage B: to give a particular
1. A person who acquires property in accordance moral analysis of a real case
with the principle of justice in acquisition is entitled to (C) Passage A: to spell out the details of two
that property. fundamental principles; Passage B: to examine a
2. A person who acquires property in accordance case that exemplifies a moral ideal
with the principle of justice in transfer, from someone (D) Passage A: to argue for a particular moral ideal;
else who is entitled to the property, is entitled to the Passage B: to question the assumptions of a
property. moral theory
3. No one is entitled to any property except by (E) Passage A: to advocate the use of certain
(repeated) applications of 1 and 2. moral principles; Passage B: to provide a
However, not all actual situations are generated in counterexample to some widely held moral
accordance with the principles of justice in acquisition principles
and justice in transfer. Some people steal from others
or defraud them, for example. The existence of past 23. Both passages explicitly mention which one of the
injustice raises the issue of the rectification of injustice. following?
If past injustice has shaped present ownership in
various ways, what, if anything, ought to be done to (A) transfer of property from one owner to another
rectify that injustice? A principle of rectification would (B) a legal basis for recovery of property
use historical information about previous situations (C) entitlement to property in a wholly just world
and injustices done in them, and information about (D) practicability of rectification of past injustice
the actual course of events that flowed from these (E) injustice committed as part of an invasion
injustices, to produce a description of the property
ownership that should have resulted. Actual ownership
of property must then be brought into conformity with
this description.
Passage B
In 1790, the United States Congress passed the GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
Indian Nonintercourse Act, which requires that all
transfers of lands from Native Americans to others
be approved by the federal government. The law
has not been changed in any relevant respect, and it
remains in effect today. Its purpose is clear. It was
meant to guarantee security to Native Americans
against fraudulent acquisition by others of the Native
Americans’ land holdings. Several suits have been
initiated by Native American tribes for recovery of
lands held by them when the Nonintercourse Act took
effect.
One natural (one might almost say obvious) way
of reasoning about Native American claims to land in
North America is this: Native Americans were the first
human occupants of this land. Before the European
invasion of North America, the land belonged to them.
In the course of that invasion and its aftermath, the land
was illicitly taken from them. The current owners lack
a well-founded right to the land, which now lies illicitly
in their hands. Ideally, the land should be restored to its
rightful owners. This may be impractical; compromises
1 1 -11-
1
24. Which one of the following is true of the relationship 26. The author of passage A would be most likely to
between passage A and the second paragraph of characterize the purpose of the Indian Nonintercourse Act
passage B? as which one of the following?
(A) The second paragraph of passage B attempts (A) legitimization of actual property holdings during
to develop a broader version of the theory the eighteenth century
presented in passage A. (B) clarification of existing laws regarding transfer of
(B) The second paragraph of passage B purports to property
state facts that bolster the argument made in (C) assurance of conformity to the principle of justice
passage A. in acquisition
(C) The argument in the second paragraph of passage (D) prevention of violations of the principle of justice
B is structurally parallel to the argument in in transfer
passage A, but the subject matter of the two is (E) implementation of a principle of rectification
different.
(D) Passage A presents a theory that tends to support 27. Which one of the following most accurately describes the
the argument presented in the second paragraph difference in approach taken by passage A as compared to
of passage B. passage B?
(E) The second paragraph of passage B attempts to (A) Passage A espouses a general view without
undermine the theory presented in passage A. providing details, while passage B sketches an
argument that it does not necessarily endorse.
25. Based on what can be inferred from their titles, the
(B) Passage A argues for the superiority of one
relationship between which one of the following pairs of
view over competing views, while passage B
documents is most analogous to the relationship between
considers only a single view.
passage A and passage B?
(C) Passage A invokes commonly held principles to
(A) “Card Counting for Everyone: A Can’t-Lose support a policy recommendation, while passage
System for Beating the Dealer”; “The Evils of B relies on the views of established authorities
Gambling” to support its claims.
(B) “Mayor McConnell Is Unfit to Serve”; “Why (D) Passage A briefly states a view and then provides
Mayor McConnell Should be Reelected” an argument for it, while passage B provides a
(C) “Pruning Fruit Trees: A Guide for the Novice”; detailed statement of a view but no argument.
“Easy Recipes for Beginning Cooks” (E) Passage A provides an argument in support of a
(D) “Notable Failures of the STORM Weather view, while passage B attempts to undermine a
Forecasting Model”; “Meteorologists’ Best Tool view.
Yet: The STORM Forecasting Model”
(E) “Fundamentals of Building Construction and
Repair”; “Engineering Report: The Repairs
Needed by the Thales Building”

S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
2 -12-
2
SECTION II
2 2
Time—35 minutes
25 Questions

Directions: Each question in this section is based on the reasoning presented in a brief passage. In answering the questions, you
should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. For
some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best
answer; that is, choose the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your
answer sheet.

1. Editorial: The city has chosen a contractor to upgrade 3. Some video game makers have sold the movie rights for
the heating systems in public buildings. Only popular games. However, this move is rarely good from a
40 percent of the technicians employed by business perspective. After all, StarQuanta sold the movie
this contractor are certified by the Heating rights to its popular game Nostroma, but the poorly made
Technicians Association. So the city selected a film adaptation of the game was hated by critics and the
contractor 60 percent of whose technicians are public alike. Subsequent versions of the Nostroma video
unqualified, which is an outrage. game, although better than the original, sold poorly.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
the argument in the editorial? criticism in that the argument
(A) Certified technicians receive higher pay than (A) draws a general conclusion on the basis of just
uncertified technicians. one individual case
(B) There are no contractors with fewer than (B) infers that a product will be disliked by the public
40 percent of their technicians certified. merely from the claim that the product was
(C) Technicians who lack certification are not disliked by critics
qualified technicians. (C) restates as a conclusion a claim earlier presented
(D) Qualified technicians installed the heating as evidence for that conclusion
systems to be upgraded. (D) takes for granted that products with similar
(E) The contractor hired by the city has personal ties content that are in different media will be of
to city officials. roughly equal popularity
(E) treats a requirement for a product to be popular
2. Jeneta: Increasingly, I’ve noticed that when a salesperson as something that ensures that a product will be
thanks a customer for making a purchase, the popular
customer also says “Thank you” instead of saying
“You’re welcome.” I’ve even started doing that
myself. But when a friend thanks a friend for a
favor, the response is always “You’re welcome.”
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the discrepancy that Jeneta observes in people’s GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
responses?
(A) Customers regard themselves as doing
salespeople a favor by buying from them as
opposed to someone else.
(B) Salespeople are often instructed by their
employers to thank customers, whereas
customers are free to say what they want.
(C) Salespeople do not regard customers who buy
from them as doing them a favor.
(D) The way that people respond to being thanked
is generally determined by habit rather than by
conscious decision.
(E) In a commercial transaction, as opposed to a
favor, the customer feels that the benefits are
mutual.
2 4.
2
Principle: The executive in a given company whose 5.
2
Science writer: Lemaître argued that the universe began
-13-
2
compensation package is determined by with the explosion of a “primeval atom,” a
advice of an external consultant is likely to singular point of infinite gravity in space and
be overcompensated if the consultant also has time. If this is correct, our current observations
business interests with the company the executive should reveal galaxies accelerating away from
manages. one another. This is precisely what we observe.
Yet because there is another theory—the
Which one of the following judgments conforms most
oscillating universe theory—that makes exactly
closely to the principle stated above?
this same prediction, Lemaître’s theory must be
(A) The president of the Troskco Corporation is considered inadequate.
definitely overpaid, since he receives in salary
Which one of the following most accurately describes a
and benefits almost 40 times more than the
flaw in the science writer’s reasoning?
average employee of Troskco receives.
(B) The president of the Troskco Corporation is (A) The conclusion is derived partly from assertions
probably overpaid, since his total annual attributed to a purported expert whose
compensation package was determined five credibility is not established.
years ago, when the company’s profits were at (B) The conclusion is based on a shift in meaning
an all-time high. of a key term from one part of the argument to
(C) The president of the Troskco Corporation another part.
is probably not overpaid, since his total (C) The science writer takes for granted the existence
compensation package was determined by the of a causal connection between observed
Troskco board of directors without retaining the phenomena.
services of an external compensation consultant. (D) The science writer fails to see that one theory’s
(D) The president of Troskco Corporation is probably correctly predicting observed data cannot itself
overpaid, since the Troskco board of directors constitute evidence against an alternative theory
determined his compensation by following the that also does this.
advice of an external consultant who has many (E) The science writer presumes, without providing
other contracts with Troskco. justification, that there are only two possible
(E) The president of Troskco Corporation is explanations for the phenomena in question.
definitely not overpaid, since the external
consultant the board of directors retained 6. Critic: The criticism of the popular film comedy Quirks
to advise on executive salaries has no other for not being realistic is misguided. It is certainly
contracts with Troskco. true that the characters are too stylized to be real
people. That could be problematic, but in this
case the resulting film is funny. And that is the
important thing for a comedy.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning in the critic’s argument?
(A) Films should be judged on how well they
accurately capture the world.
(B) Films are successful as long as they are popular.
(C) Film comedies should find their humor in their
stylistic portrayals.
(D) Films are successful if they succeed within their
genre.
(E) Films should try to stay entirely within a single
genre.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2 -14-

7.
2
Party X has recently been accused by its opposition, 8.
2
Biologist: Marine animals known as box jellyfish
2
Party Y, of accepting international campaign have eyes with well-formed lenses capable of
contributions, which is illegal. Such accusations are, producing sharp images that reveal fine detail.
however, ill founded. Three years ago, Party Y itself was But the box jellyfish’s retinas are too far forward
involved in a scandal in which it was discovered that its to receive a clear image, so these jellyfish
national committee seriously violated campaign laws. can receive only a blurry image that reveals
prominent features of objects but not fine detail.
Which one of the following contains flawed reasoning
This example shows that eyes are adapted only
most similar to the flawed reasoning in the argument
to an animal’s needs rather than to some abstract
above?
sense of how a good eye would be designed.
(A) The plaintiff accuses the defendant of violating
The argument requires assuming which one of the
campaign laws, but the accusations are ill
following?
founded. While the defendant’s actions may
violate certain laws, they are not immoral, (A) Box jellyfish are the only kind of jellyfish with
because the laws in question are unjust. retinas that do not focus clearly.
(B) The plaintiff accuses the defendant of violating (B) Box jellyfish have a need to detect prominent
campaign laws, but these accusations show the features of objects but not fine details.
plaintiff to be hypocritical, because the plaintiff (C) Box jellyfish would benefit from having retinas
has engaged in similar conduct. that allowed their eyes to focus more sharply.
(C) The plaintiff accuses the defendant of violating (D) Box jellyfish developed from jellyfish whose
campaign laws, and, in the past, courts have retinas received clear images.
declared such violations illegal. Nevertheless, (E) Box jellyfish use vision as their main means of
because the plaintiff recently engaged in actions detecting prey.
that were similar to those of the defendant, the
plaintiff’s accusations are ill founded. 9. Columnist: Research shows significant reductions in
(D) The plaintiff accuses the defendant of violating the number of people smoking, and especially
campaign laws, but these accusations are ill in the number of first-time smokers in those
founded. They are clearly an attempt to stir up countries that have imposed stringent restrictions
controversy, because they were made just two on tobacco advertising. This provides substantial
weeks before the election. grounds for disputing tobacco companies’ claims
(E) The plaintiff accuses the defendant of voting that advertising has no significant causal impact
only for campaign laws that would favor the on the tendency to smoke.
defendant’s party. This accusation is ill founded, Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the
however, because it attacks the defendant’s columnist’s reasoning?
motivations instead of addressing the arguments
the defendant has put forth justifying these (A) People who smoke are unlikely to quit merely
votes. because they are no longer exposed to tobacco
advertising.
(B) Broadcast media tend to have stricter restrictions
on tobacco advertising than do print media.
(C) Restrictions on tobacco advertising are imposed
only in countries where a negative attitude
toward tobacco use is already widespread and
increasing.
(D) Most people who begin smoking during
adolescence continue to smoke throughout their
lives.
(E) People who are largely unaffected by tobacco
advertising tend to be unaffected by other kinds
of advertising as well.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2 2
10. Actor: Bertolt Brecht’s plays are not genuinely successful
2
12. The chairperson should not have released the Election
-15-
2
dramas. The roles in Brecht’s plays express such Commission’s report to the public, for the chairperson
incongruous motives and beliefs that audiences, did not consult any other members of the commission
as well as the actors playing the roles, invariably about releasing the report before having it released.
find it difficult, at best, to discern any of the
The argument’s conclusion can be properly inferred if
characters’ personalities. But, for a play to
which one of the following is assumed?
succeed as a drama, audiences must care what
happens to at least some of its characters. (A) It would have been permissible for the
chairperson to release the commission’s report
The conclusion of the actor’s argument can be properly
to the public only if most other members of the
drawn if which one of the following is assumed?
commission had first given their consent.
(A) An audience that cannot readily discern a (B) All of the members of the commission had signed
character’s personality will not take any interest the report prior to its release.
in that character. (C) The chairperson would not have been justified
(B) A character’s personality is determined primarily in releasing the commission’s report if any
by the motives and beliefs of that character. members of the commission had serious
(C) The extent to which a play succeeds as a drama is reservations about the report’s content.
directly proportional to the extent to which the (D) The chairperson would have been justified
play’s audiences care about its characters. in releasing the report only if each of the
(D) If the personalities of a play’s characters are not commission’s members would have agreed to its
readily discernible by the actors playing the being released had they been consulted.
roles, then those personalities are not readily (E) Some members of the commission would have
discernible by the play’s audience. preferred that the report not be released to the
(E) All plays that, unlike Brecht’s plays, have public.
characters with whom audiences empathize
succeed as dramas. 13. Reformer: A survey of police departments keeps track
of the national crime rate, which is the annual
11. Municipal legislator: The mayor proposes that the city number of crimes per 100,000 people. The survey
accept a lighting company’s gift of several shows no significant reduction in the crime rate
high-tech streetlights. Surely there would be no in the past 20 years, but the percentage of the
problem in accepting these despite some people’s population in prison has increased substantially,
fear that the company wants to influence the and public expenditure on prisons has grown at
city’s decision regarding park lighting contracts. an alarming rate. This demonstrates that putting
The only ulterior motive I can find is the more people in prison cannot help to reduce
company’s desire to have its products seen by crime.
mayors who will visit the city for an upcoming
A flaw in the reformer’s argument is that it
convention. In any case, favoritism in city
contracts is prevented by our competitive-bidding (A) infers without justification that because the
procedure. national crime rate has increased, the number of
crimes reported by each police department has
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
increased
the main conclusion of the municipal legislator’s
(B) ignores the possibility that the crime rate would
argument?
have significantly increased if it had not been for
(A) Some people’s fear that the company wants to the greater rate of imprisonment
influence the city’s decision regarding park (C) overlooks the possibility that the population has
lighting contracts is unfounded. increased significantly over the past 20 years
(B) The mayor’s proposal to accept the gift (D) presumes, without providing warrant, that
of streetlights should not be considered alternative measures for reducing crime would
problematic. be more effective than imprisonment
(C) It is not appropriate that any company should (E) takes for granted that the number of prisoners
have the unique opportunity to display its must be proportional to the number of crimes
products to mayors attending the upcoming committed
convention.
(D) The city’s competitive-bidding procedure
prevents favoritism in the dispensing of city
contracts.
(E) The lighting company’s desire to display
its products to visiting mayors is the real GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
motivation behind the suggested gift of
streetlights.
2 -16-
2
14. Inez: Space-exploration programs pay for themselves
2
16. The top prize in architecture, the Pritzker Prize, is
2
many times over, since such programs result awarded for individual achievement, like Nobel
in technological advances with everyday, Prizes for science. But architects are judged by their
practical applications. Space exploration is buildings, and buildings are the result of teamwork.
more than the search for knowledge for its own As achievements, buildings are not like scientific
sake; investment in space exploration is such discoveries, but like movies, which compete for awards
a productive investment in developing widely for best picture. Thus, it would be better if the top prize
useful technology that we can’t afford not to in architecture were awarded to the best building rather
invest in space exploration. than the best architect.
Winona: It is absurd to try to justify funding for space The argument proceeds by
exploration merely by pointing out that such
programs will lead to technological advances. If (A) reaching a conclusion about the way something
technology with practical applications is all that should be done in one field on the basis of
is desired, then it should be funded directly. comparisons with corresponding practices in
other fields
Winona responds to Inez by (B) making a distinction between two different types
(A) showing that there is no evidence that the of objects in order to conclude that one has more
outcome Inez anticipates will in fact be realized inherent value than the other
(B) suggesting that Inez has overlooked evidence (C) pointing to similarities between two practices
that directly argues against the programs Inez as a basis for concluding that criticisms of one
supports practice can rightly be applied to the other
(C) demonstrating that the pieces of evidence that (D) arguing that because two different fields are
Inez cites contradict each other disanalogous, the characteristics of one field are
(D) providing evidence that the beneficial effects not relevant to justifying a conclusion about the
that Inez desires can be achieved only at great other
expense (E) contending that an action is inappropriate by
(E) claiming that a goal that Inez mentions could be presenting an argument that a corresponding
pursued without the programs Inez endorses action in an analogous case is inappropriate

15. Marketing consultant: Last year I predicted that LRG’s

latest advertising campaign would be unpopular
with customers and ineffective in promoting new
products. But LRG ignored my predictions and
took the advice of a competing consultant. This GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
season’s sales figures show that sales are down
and LRG’s new products are selling especially
poorly. Thus, the advertising campaign was ill
conceived.
The marketing consultant’s reasoning is most vulnerable
to criticism on the grounds that
(A) it takes for granted that LRG’s sales would not
have been lower still in the absence of the
competitor’s advertising campaign
(B) it fails to consider that economic factors
unrelated to the advertising campaign may have
caused LRG’s low sales figures
(C) it takes for granted that in LRG’s industry, new
products should outsell established products
(D) it takes for granted that the higher sales of
established products are due to effective
advertising
(E) it confuses a condition necessary for increasing
product sales with a condition that will ensure
increased sales
2 2
17. If Suarez is not the most qualified of the candidates for
2
19. A carved flint object depicting a stylized human head
-17-
2
sheriff, then Anderson is. Thus, if the most qualified with an open mouth was found in a Stone Age tomb in
candidate is elected and Suarez is not elected, then Ireland. Some archaeologists believe that the object was
Anderson will be. a weapon—the head of a warrior’s mace—but it is too
small for that purpose. Because of its size and the fact
The reasoning in which one of the following is most
that an open mouth symbolizes speaking, the object was
similar to the reasoning in the argument above?
probably the head of a speaking staff, a communal object
(A) If the excavation contract does not go to the passed around a small assembly to indicate who has the
lowest bidder, then it will go to Caldwell. So right to speak.
if Qiu gets the contract and Caldwell does not,
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken
then the contract will have been awarded to the
the argument?
lowest bidder.
(B) If the lowest bidder on the sanitation contract is (A) The tomb in which the object was found did not
not Dillon, then it is Ramsey. So if the contract contain any other objects that might have been
goes to the lowest bidder and it does not go to weapons.
Dillon, then it will go to Ramsey. (B) Communal objects were normally passed from
(C) If Kapshaw is not awarded the landscaping one generation to the next in Stone Age Ireland.
contract, then Johnson will be. So if the contract (C) The object was carved with an artistry that was
goes to the lowest bidder and it does not go to rare in Stone Age Ireland.
Johnson, then it will go to Kapshaw. (D) The tomb in which the object was found was that
(D) If Holihan did not submit the lowest bid on the of a politically prominent person.
maintenance contract, then neither did Easton. (E) A speaking staff with a stone head is thought to
So if the contract goes to the lowest bidder and symbolize a warrior’s mace.
it does not go to Easton, then it will not go to
Holihan either. 20. The advent of chemical fertilizers led the farmers in a
(E) If Perez is not the lowest bidder on the catering certain region to abandon the practice of periodically
contract, then Sullivan is. So if Sullivan does not growing a “green-manure” crop, such as alfalfa, in a field
get the contract and Perez does not get it either, to rejuvenate its soil. As a result, the soil structure in a
then it will not be awarded to the lowest bidder. typical farm field in the region is poor. So to significantly
improve the soil structure, farmers will need to abandon
18. Critic: An art historian argues that because fifteenth- the use of chemical fertilizers.
century European paintings were generally more
The argument relies on the assumption that
planimetric (that is, two-dimensional with no
attempt at suggesting depth) than were sixteenth- (A) most, if not all, farmers in the region who
century paintings, fifteenth-century painters had abandon the use of chemical fertilizers will
a greater mastery of painting than did sixteenth- periodically grow alfalfa
century painters. However, this conclusion is (B) applying chemical fertilizers to green-manure
wrong. Fifteenth-century European painters crops, such as alfalfa, has no positive effect on
did not have a greater mastery of painting, for their growth
the degree to which a painting is planimetric is (C) the most important factor influencing the soil
irrelevant to the painter’s mastery. quality of a farm field is soil structure
(D) chemical fertilizers themselves have a destructive
The argument is flawed in that it
effect on the soil structure of farm fields
(A) rejects a position merely because the proponent (E) many, if not all, farmers in the region will not
of the position has other objectionable views grow green-manure crops unless they abandon
(B) illicitly relies on two different meanings of the the use of chemical fertilizers
term “mastery”
(C) takes a necessary condition for an argument’s
being inadequate to be a sufficient condition for
an argument’s being inadequate
(D) bases its conclusion on two claims that contradict
each other GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(E) rejects a position on the grounds that an
inadequate argument has been made for it
2 -18-
2
21. Most of the students who took Spanish 101 at the
2
23. A developing country can substantially increase its
2
university last semester attended every class session. economic growth if its businesspeople are willing
However, each student who received a grade lower than to invest in modern industries that have not yet been
B minus missed at least one class session. pursued there. But being the first to invest in an industry
is very risky. Moreover, businesspeople have little
Which one of the following statements about the
incentive to take this risk since if the business succeeds,
students who took Spanish 101 at the university last
many other people will invest in the same industry, and
semester can be properly inferred from the information
the competition will cut into their profits.
above?
The statements above, if true, most strongly support
(A) At least some of the students who received a
which one of the following claims?
grade of A minus or higher attended every class
session. (A) Once a developing country has at least one
(B) Most, if not all, of the students who missed at business in a modern industry, further
least one class session received a grade lower investment in that industry will not contribute to
than B minus. the country’s economic growth.
(C) Most of the students received a grade higher than (B) In developing countries, there is greater
B minus. competition within modern industries than
(D) At least one student who received a grade of within traditional industries.
B minus or higher missed one or more class (C) A developing country can increase its prospects
sessions. for economic growth by providing added
(E) More than half of the students received a grade of incentive for investment in modern industries
B minus or higher. that have not yet been pursued there.
(D) A developing country will not experience
22. Because the native salmon in Lake Clearwater had nearly economic growth unless its businesspeople
disappeared, sockeye salmon were introduced in 1940. invest in modern industries.
After being introduced, this genetically uniform group of (E) Investments in a modern industry in a developing
sockeyes split into two distinct populations that do not country carry little risk as long as the country
interbreed, one inhabiting deep areas of the lake and the has at least one other business in that industry.
other inhabiting shallow areas. Since the two populations
now differ genetically, some researchers hypothesize that
each has adapted genetically to its distinct habitat.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports
the researchers’ hypothesis?
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(A) Neither of the two populations of sockeyes has
interbred with the native salmon.
(B) When the native salmon in Lake Clearwater
were numerous, they comprised two distinct
populations that did not interbreed.
(C) Most types of salmon that inhabit lakes spend
part of the time in shallow water and part in
deeper water.
(D) One of the populations of sockeyes is virtually
identical genetically to the sockeyes originally
introduced in 1940.
(E) The total number of sockeye salmon in the lake is
not as large as the number of native salmon had
been many years ago.
2 2
24. A survey of a city’s concertgoers found that almost all
2
25. Student: Before completing my research paper, I want
-19-
2
of them were dissatisfied with the local concert hall. A to find the book from which I copied a passage
large majority of them expressed a strong preference for to quote in the paper. Without the book, I will be
wider seats and better acoustics. And, even though the unable to write an accurate citation, and without
survey respondents were told that the existing concert an accurate citation, I will be unable to include
hall cannot feasibly be modified to provide these features, the quotation. Hence, since the completed paper
most of them opposed the idea of tearing down the will be much better with the quotation than
existing structure and replacing it with a concert hall with without, _______.
wider seats and better acoustics.
Which one of the following most logically completes the
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to student’s argument?
explain the apparent conflict in the concertgoers’ views,
(A) I will have to include an inaccurate citation
as revealed by the survey?
(B) I will be unable to complete my research paper
(A) Before any of the survey questions were asked, (C) if I do not find the book, my research paper will
the respondents were informed that the survey suffer
was sponsored by a group that advocates (D) if I do not find the book, I will include the
replacing the existing concert hall. quotation without an accurate citation
(B) Most of the people who live in the vicinity of (E) if I do not find the book, I will be unable to
the existing concert hall do not want it to be complete my research paper
torn down.
(C) The city’s construction industry will receive more
economic benefit from the construction of a
new concert hall than from renovations to the
existing concert hall.
(D) A well-publicized plan is being considered by the
city government that would convert the existing
concert hall into a public auditorium and build a
new concert hall nearby.
(E) Many popular singers and musicians who
currently do not hold concerts in the city would
begin to hold concerts there if a new concert hall
were built.

S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
3 -20-
3 3 3 3
SECTION III
Time—35 minutes
27 Questions

Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some questions, more than one of the
choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, choose the response that
most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your answer sheet.

An organism is considered to have an infection supported the conclusion that prions are an entirely new
when a disease-causing agent, called a pathogen, class of infectious pathogens. Furthermore, it is now
establishes a viable presence in the organism. This can believed that a similar process of protein malformation
occur only if the pathogenic agent is able to reproduce may be involved in other, more common degenerative
itself in the host organism. The only agents believed neurological conditions such as Alzheimer’s disease
until recently to be responsible for infections—viruses, and Parkinson’s disease. This possibility has yet to be
bacteria, fungi, and parasites—reproduce and regulate fully explored, however, and the exact mechanisms by
their other life processes by means of genetic material, which prions reproduce themselves and cause cellular
composed of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA). It was thus destruction have yet to be completely understood.
widely assumed that all pathogens contain such genetic
material in their cellular structure. 1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
This assumption has been challenged, however, main point of the passage?
by scientists seeking to identify the pathogen that
(A) Although most organisms are known to produce
causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), a degenerative
several kinds of proteins, the mechanism by
form of dementia in humans. CJD causes the brain to
which isolated protein molecules such as prions
become riddled with tiny holes, like a sponge (evidence
reproduce themselves is not yet known in detail.
of extensive nerve cell death). Its symptoms include
(B) Research into the cause of CJD has uncovered
impaired muscle control, loss of mental acuity, memory
a deadly class of protein pathogens uniquely
loss, and chronic insomnia. Extensive experiments
capable of reproducing themselves without
aimed at identifying the pathogen responsible for
genetic material.
CJD have led surprisingly to the isolation of a disease
(C) Recent research suggests that prions may be
agent lacking nucleic acid and consisting mainly, if not
responsible not only for CJD, but for most other
exclusively, of protein. Researchers coined the term
degenerative neurological conditions as well.
“prion” for this new type of protein pathogen.
(D) The assertion that prions cause CJD has been
Upon further study, scientists discovered that
received with great skepticism in the scientific
prions normally exist as harmless cellular proteins in
community because it undermines a firmly
many of the body’s tissues, including white blood cells
entrenched view about the nature of pathogens.
and nerve cells in the brain; however, they possess
(E) Even though prions contain no genetic material, it
the capability of converting their structures into a
has become clear that they are somehow capable
dangerous abnormal shape. Prions exhibiting this
of reproducing themselves.
abnormal conformation were found to have infectious
properties and the ability to reproduce themselves
in an unexpected way, by initiating a chain reaction
that induces normally shaped prions to transform
themselves on contact, one after another, into the
abnormal, pathogenic conformation. This cascade of
transformations produces a plaque, consisting of thread- GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
like structures, that collects in the brain and ultimately
destroys nerve cells. Because prions, unlike other
pathogens, occur naturally in the body as proteins, the
body does not produce an immune response when they
are present. And in the absence of any effective therapy
for preventing the cascade process by which affected
prions reproduce themselves, CJD is inevitably fatal,
though there are wide variations in pre-symptomatic
incubation times and in how aggressively the disease
progresses.
Although the discovery of the link between prions
and CJD was initially received with great skepticism
in the scientific community, subsequent research has
3 3 3 3 -21-
3
2. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by 5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would
the passage? be least likely to agree with which one of the following?
(A) Understanding the cause of CJD has required (A) The presence of certain abnormally shaped prions
scientists to reconsider their traditional beliefs in brain tissue is a sign of neurological disease.
about the causes of infection. (B) Some patients currently infected with CJD will
(B) CJD is contagious, though not highly so. recover from the disease.
(C) The prevention of CJD would be most efficiently (C) Prions do not require nucleic acid for their
achieved by the prevention of certain genetic reproduction.
abnormalities. (D) The body has no natural defense against CJD.
(D) Although patients with CJD exhibit different (E) Scientists have only a partial understanding of the
incubation times, the disease progresses at about mechanism by which prions reproduce.
the same rate in all patients once symptoms are
manifested. 6. Given the manner in which the term “pathogen” is
(E) The prion theory of infection has weak support used in the passage, and assuming that the prion theory
within the scientific community. of infection is correct, which one of the following
statements must be false?
3. If the hypothesis that CJD is caused by prions is correct,
(A) Nothing that lacks nucleic acid is a pathogen.
finding the answer to which one of the following
(B) Prions are a relatively newly discovered type of
questions would tend most to help a physician in deciding
pathogen.
whether a patient has CJD?
(C) All pathogens can cause infection.
(A) Has the patient suffered a severe blow to the skull (D) Pathogens contribute in some manner to the
recently? occurrence of CJD.
(B) Does the patient experience occasional bouts of (E) There are other pathogens besides viruses,
insomnia? bacteria, fungi, and parasites.
(C) Has the patient been exposed to any forms of
radiation that have a known tendency to cause 7. Which one of the following, if true, would most
certain kinds of genetic damage? undermine the claim that prions cause CJD?
(D) Has any member of the patient’s immediate (A) Several symptoms closely resembling those of
family ever had a brain disease? CJD have been experienced by patients known
(E) Does the patient’s brain tissue exhibit the to have a specific viral infection.
presence of any abnormal thread-like structures? (B) None of the therapies currently available for
treating neurological diseases is designed to
4. Which one of the following is most strongly supported by
block the chain reaction by which abnormal
the passage?
prions are believed to reproduce.
(A) The only way in which CJD can be transmitted (C) Research undertaken subsequent to the studies
is through the injection of abnormally shaped on CJD has linked prions to degenerative
prions from an infected individual into an conditions not affecting the brain or the central
uninfected individual. nervous system.
(B) Most infectious diseases previously thought to be (D) Epidemiological studies carried out on a large
caused by other pathogens are now thought to population have failed to show any hereditary
be caused by prions. predisposition to CJD.
(C) If they were unable to reproduce themselves, (E) A newly developed antibacterial drug currently
abnormally shaped prions would not cause CJD. undergoing clinical trials is proving to be
(D) Alzheimer’s disease and Parkinson’s disease are effective in reversing the onset of CJD.
caused by different conformations of the same
prion pathogen that causes CJD.
(E) Prion diseases generally progress more
aggressively than diseases caused by other
known pathogens.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
3 -22-
3 3 3 3
One of the more striking developments in 8. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
modern North American dance was African American main point of the passage?
choreographer Katherine Dunham’s introduction of a
(A) Katherine Dunham transformed the field of
technique known as dance-isolation, in which one part
anthropology by developing innovative research
of the body moves in one rhythm while other parts are
methodologies for studying Caribbean and other
kept stationary or are moved in different rhythms. The
traditional dance styles and connecting them
incorporation of this technique into North American and
with African American dance.
European choreography is relatively recent, although
(B) Katherine Dunham’s ballets were distinct from
various forms of the technique have long been essential
others produced in North America in that they
to traditional dances of certain African, Caribbean, and
incorporated authentic dance techniques from
Pacific-island cultures. Dunham’s success in bringing
traditional cultures.
dance-isolation and other traditional techniques from
(C) Katherine Dunham’s expertise as an
those cultures into the mainstream of modern North
anthropologist allowed her to use Caribbean and
American dance is due in no small part to her training
African dance traditions to express the aesthetic
in both anthropological research and choreography.
and political concerns of African American
As an anthropologist in the 1930s, Dunham was
dancers and choreographers.
one of the pioneers in the field of dance ethnology.
(D) The innovative research methods of Katherine
Previously, dance had been neglected as an area of
Dunham made possible her discovery that the
social research, primarily because most social scientists
dance traditions of the Caribbean were derived
gravitated toward areas likely to be recognized by their
from earlier African dance traditions.
peers as befitting scientifically rigorous, and therefore
(E) Katherine Dunham’s anthropological and
legitimate, modes of inquiry. Moreover, no other social
choreographic expertise enabled her to make
scientist at that time was sufficiently trained in dance to
contributions that altered the landscape of
be able to understand dance techniques, while experts
modern dance in North America.
in dance were not trained in the methods of social
research. 9. According to the passage, Dunham’s work in
Starting in 1935, Dunham conducted a series anthropology differed from that of most other
of research projects into traditional Caribbean dance anthropologists in the 1930s in that Dunham
forms, with special interest in their origins in African
culture. Especially critical to her success was her (A) performed fieldwork for a very extended time
approach to research, which diverged radically from period
the methodology that prevailed at the time. Colleagues (B) related the traditions she studied to those of her
in anthropology advised her not to become too closely own culture
involved in the dances she was observing, both because (C) employed a participative approach in performing
of the extreme physical demands of the dances, and research
because they subscribed to the long-standing view, now (D) attached a high degree of political significance to
fortunately recognized as unrealistic, that effective data her research
gathering can and must be conducted from a position of (E) had prior familiarity with the cultural practices of
complete detachment. But because of her interest and the peoples she set out to study
her skill as a performer, she generally eschewed such
caution and participated in the dances herself. Through
prolonged immersion of this kind, Dunham was able
not only to comprehend various dances as complex
cultural practices, but also to learn the techniques well
enough to teach them to others and incorporate them GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
into new forms of ballet.
Between 1937 and 1945, Dunham developed
a research-to-performance method that she used to
adapt Caribbean dance forms for use in theatrical
performance, combining them with modern dance styles
she learned in Chicago. The ballets she created in this
fashion were among the first North American dances
to rectify the exclusion of African American themes
from the medium of modern dance. Her work was thus
crucial in establishing African American dance as an art
form in its own right, making possible future companies
such as Arthur Mitchell’s Dance Theater of Harlem.
3 3 3 3 -23-
3
10. The passage suggests that the “peers” mentioned in 13. Which one of the following is most analogous to
the middle of the second paragraph would have been Dunham’s work in anthropology and choreography as
most likely to agree with which one of the following that work is described in the passage?
statements about the study of dance?
(A) A French archaeologist with training in
(A) Most social scientists who have attempted to musicology researches instruments used in
study dance as a cultural phenomenon have seventeenth century France, and her findings
misinterpreted it. become the basis for a Korean engineer’s
(B) Social scientists need not be well versed in dance designs for devices to simulate the sounds those
traditions in order to obtain reliable data about instruments most likely made.
them. (B) An Australian medical researcher with training
(C) Research into dance as a cultural form cannot in botany analyzes the chemical composition
be conducted with a high degree of scientific of plants that other researchers have collected
precision. in the Philippines, and then an Australian
(D) Most experts in the field of dance are too pharmaceutical company uses her findings to
preoccupied to conduct studies in the field of develop successful new medicines.
dance ethnology. (C) A Canadian surgeon uses her skill in drawing
(E) Dance forms are too variable across cultures to to collaborate with a Vietnamese surgeon
permit rigorous means of data collection. to develop a manual containing detailed
illustrations of the proper techniques for certain
11. In the last sentence of the second paragraph, the author types of reconstructive surgery performed in
mentions “experts in dance” primarily in order to both countries.
(A) suggest why a group of social scientists did not (D) A Brazilian teacher with training in social
embrace the study of a particular cultural form psychology conducts a detailed study of
(B) suggest that a certain group was more qualified to teaching procedures while working with
study a particular cultural form than was another teachers in several Asian countries, then
group introduces the most effective of those
(C) identify an additional factor that motivated a procedures to teachers in his own country.
particular social scientist to pursue a specific (E) An Italian fashion designer researches the social
new line of research significance of clothing design in several
(D) contribute to an explanation of why a particular cultures and then presents his research in a
field of research was not previously pursued highly acclaimed book directed toward his
(E) indicate an additional possible reason for the colleagues in fashion design.
tension between the members of two distinct
14. The passage suggests that the author would be most
fields of research
likely to agree with which one of the following
12. According to the passage, which one of the following statements about the colleagues mentioned in the third
was true of the dance forms that Dunham began studying sentence of the third paragraph?
in 1935? (A) They were partly correct in recommending that
(A) They were more similar to dance forms used in Dunham change her methods of data collection,
Pacific-island cultures than to any other known since injury sustained during fieldwork might
dance forms. have compromised her research.
(B) They represented the first use of the technique (B) They were partly correct in advising Dunham to
of dance-isolation within a culture outside of exercise initial caution in participating in the
Africa. Caribbean dances, since her skill in performing
(C) They shared certain rhythmic characteristics with them improved with experience.
the dance forms employed in North American (C) They were incorrect in advising Dunham to
ballets. increase the degree of her detachment, since
(D) They had already influenced certain popular extensive personal investment in fieldwork
dances in North America. generally enhances scientific rigor.
(E) They were influenced by the traditions of non- (D) They were incorrect in assuming that researchers
Caribbean cultures. in the social sciences are able to gather data in
an entirely objective manner.
(E) They were incorrect in assuming that dance could
be studied with the same degree of scientific
rigor possible in other areas of ethnology.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

3 -24-
3 3 3 3
Passage A money per se—that provides the happiness. We use
Research concerning happiness and wealth reveals material wealth to show not just that we are prosperous,
a paradox: at any one time richer people report higher but that we are prosperous because we create value.
levels of happiness than poorer people in the same What scholars often portray as an ignoble
society report, and yet over time advanced societies tendency—wanting to have more than others—is really
have not grown happier as they have grown richer. evidence of a desire to create value. Wanting to create
Apparently, people are comparing their income with value benefits society. It is a bonus that it also brings
some norm, and that norm must be rising along with happiness.
actual income. Two phenomena—habituation and
rivalry—push up the norm. 15. Both passages are primarily concerned with explaining
When our living standards increase, we love it which one of the following?
initially but then we adjust and it makes little difference. (A) the human desire to create value
For example, if we ask people with different incomes (B) the relationship between income and happiness
what income they consider sufficient, the “required (C) the biological basis of people’s attitudes toward
income” correlates strongly with their actual income: wealth
a rise in actual income causes a roughly equivalent (D) the human propensity to become habituated to
rise in required income. We can also look at reported wealth
happiness over time. Job satisfaction depends little on (E) the concept of “required income”
the absolute level of wages but rises if wages rapidly
increase. 16. The author of passage B would be most likely to agree
We do not have the same experience with other with which one of the following statements?
aspects of our lives. We do not foresee how we adjust
to material possessions, so we overinvest in acquiring (A) The desire to demonstrate that one is wealthier
them, at the expense of leisure. than others is a remnant of human beings’
Now consider the phenomenon of rivalry. In a primeval past.
study conducted by Solnick and Hemenway, people (B) Very few people would be willing to accept a
were asked to choose between two options, with all lower standard of living in return for greater
prices held constant: relative wealth.
A. You earn $50,000 a year while everyone else (C) Being wealthier than other people would not
earns $25,000; make one happier if one believed that one’s
B. You earn $100,000 a year while others make wealth was due merely to luck.
$200,000. (D) Gradual increases in employees’ wages do not
The majority chose the first. They were happy to increase their job satisfaction.
be poorer, provided their relative position improved. (E) The overall level of happiness in a society usually
And indeed, how people compare to their increases as the society becomes wealthier.
“reference group”—those most like them—is crucial
for happiness. In East Germany, for example, living
standards have soared since 1990, but the level of
happiness has plummeted because people now compare
themselves with West Germans, rather than with people
in other Soviet bloc countries. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
Passage B
Does the Solnick and Hemenway study mean that
we care most about one-upmanship? Perhaps out of
our primeval past comes the urge to demonstrate our
superiority in order to help ensure mating prospects,
keeping our genetic lines going. Still programmed
like this, we get unexplainable pleasure from having a
bigger house than our neighbors.
This theory may sound good and is commonly
heard, but it is not the explanation best supported by
the evidence. Rather, the data show that earning more
makes people happier because relative prosperity makes
them feel that they are successful, that they have created
value.
If two people feel equally successful, they will
be equally happy even if their incomes differ greatly.
Of course, people who earn more generally view
themselves as successful. But it is the success—not the
3 3 3 3 -25-
3
17. The author of passage B would be most likely to regard 19. Which one of the following pairs of terms would most
the conclusion that the Solnick and Hemenway study likely be used by the authors of passage A and passage
points to the existence of a “phenomenon of rivalry” (first B, respectively, to describe a person who wants to make
sentence of the fourth paragraph of passage A) as more money than his or her neighbors?
(A) ungenerous in its view of human nature and (A) insular, cosmopolitan
mistaken in its interpretation of the evidence (B) altruistic, egocentric
(B) flattering in its implications about human nature (C) happy, miserable
but only weakly supported by the available (D) misguided, admirable
evidence (E) lucky, primitive
(C) plausible in its account of human nature but
based largely upon ambiguous evidence 20. In arguing for their respective positions, the author of
(D) unflattering in its implications about human passage A and the author of passage B both do which one
nature but more or less valid in the conclusions of the following?
drawn from the evidence (A) explain a phenomenon by pointing to its
(E) accurate concerning human nature and strongly biological origins
supported by the evidence (B) endorse a claim simply because it is widely
believed
18. Which one of the following pairs most accurately
(C) accept a claim for the sake of argument
describes why the authors of passage A and passage
(D) attempt to resolve an apparent paradox
B, respectively, mention the study by Solnick and
(E) assert that their positions are supported by data
Hemenway?
(A) to present a view that will be argued against
to present a view for which additional evidence
will be provided
(B) to present a view that will be argued against
to provide evidence for one explanation of a
phenomenon GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(C) to provide evidence for one explanation of a
phenomenon
to present a view for which additional evidence
will be provided
(D) to provide evidence for one explanation of a
phenomenon
to introduce the main topic to be discussed
(E) to introduce the main topic to be discussed
to present a view that will be argued against
3 -26-
3 3 3 3
It is generally believed that while in some cases 21. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
government should intervene to protect people from main point of the passage?
risk—by imposing air safety standards, for example—in
(A) In general, whether people characterize a risk as
other cases, such as mountain climbing, the onus should
voluntary or involuntary depends on whether
be on the individual to protect himself or herself. In the
they approve of the purpose for which the risk
eyes of the public at large, the demarcation between the
is taken.
two kinds of cases has mainly to do with whether the
(B) Decisions about government intervention to
risk in question is incurred voluntarily. This distinction
protect people from risks should be based
between voluntary and involuntary risk may in fact be
primarily on how many lives can be saved
the chief difference between lay and expert judgments
rather than on whether the risks are considered
about risk. Policy experts tend to focus on aggregate
voluntary.
lives at stake; laypeople care a great deal whether a
(C) Though laypeople may object, experts should be
risk is undertaken voluntarily. However, judgments
the ones to determine whether the risk incurred
about whether a risk is “involuntary” often stem from
in a particular action is voluntary or involuntary.
confusion and selective attention, and the real reason
(D) Public-policy decisions related to the protection
for such judgments frequently lies in an antecedent
of society against risk are difficult to make
judgment of some other kind. They are thus of little
because of the difficulty of distinguishing
utility in guiding policy decisions.
risks incurred voluntarily from those incurred
First, it is not easy to determine when a risk is
involuntarily.
voluntarily incurred. Although voluntariness may
(E) People who make judgments about the voluntary
be entirely absent in the case of an unforeseeable
or involuntary character of a risk are usually
collision with an asteroid, with most environmental,
unaware of the complicated motivations that
occupational, and other social risks, it is not an
lead people to take risks.
all-or-nothing matter, but rather one of degree. Risks
incurred by airline passengers are typically thought to 22. The passage indicates that which one of the following
be involuntary, since passengers have no control over is usually a significant factor in laypeople’s willingness
whether a plane is going to crash. But they can choose to support public funding for specific risk-reduction
airlines on the basis of safety records or choose not to measures?
fly. In characterizing the risks as involuntary, people
focus on a small part of a complex interaction, not the (A) an expectation about the ratio of dollars spent to
decision to fly, but the accident when it occurs. lives saved
Second, people often characterize risks as (B) deference to expert judgments concerning
“voluntary” when they do not approve of the purpose whether the government should intervene
for which people run the risks. It is unlikely that people (C) a belief as to whether the risk is incurred
would want to pour enormous taxpayer resources into voluntarily or involuntarily
lowering the risks associated with skydiving, even (D) a judgment as to whether the risk puts a great
if the ratio of dollars spent to lives saved were quite number of lives at stake
good. By contrast, people would probably not object to (E) a consideration of the total resources available for
spending enormous resources on improving the safety risk reduction
of firefighters, even though the decision to become
a firefighter is voluntary. In short, there is no special 23. According to the passage, which one of the following do
magic in notions like “voluntary” and “involuntary.” laypeople generally consider to involve risk that is not
Therefore, regulatory policy should be guided by freely assumed?
a better understanding of the factors that underlie (A) traveling in outer space
judgments about voluntariness. (B) participating in skydiving
In general, the government should attempt to (C) serving as a firefighter
save as many lives as it can, subject to the limited (D) traveling in airplanes
public and private resources devoted to risk reduction. (E) climbing mountains
Departures from this principle should be justified not
by invoking the allegedly voluntary or involuntary
nature of a particular risk, but rather by identifying
the more specific considerations for which notions of
voluntariness serve as proxies.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
3 3 3 3 -27-
3
24. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would 26. The passage most strongly supports the inference that the
be most likely to agree with which one of the following author believes which one of the following?
statements?
(A) Whenever an activity involves the risk of loss of
(A) People should generally not be protected against human life, the government should intervene to
the risks incurred through activities, such as reduce the degree of risk incurred.
skydiving, that are dangerous and serve no (B) Some environmental risks are voluntary to a
socially useful purpose. greater degree than others are.
(B) The fact that plane crash victims chose to fly (C) Policy experts are more likely than laypeople
would usually be deemed by policy experts to form an accurate judgment about the
to be largely irrelevant to decisions about the voluntariness or involuntariness of an activity.
government’s role in regulating air safety. (D) The government should increase the quantity
(C) Both the probability of occurrence and the of resources devoted to protecting people
probability of resulting death or injury are from risk.
higher for plane crashes than for any other kind (E) Government policies intended to reduce risk
of risk incurred by airline passengers. are not justified unless they comport with most
(D) For public-policy purposes, a risk should be people’s beliefs.
deemed voluntarily incurred if people are not
subject to that risk unless they make a particular 27. Which one of the following most accurately describes the
choice. author’s attitude in the passage?
(E) The main category of risk that is usually incurred (A) chagrin at the rampant misunderstanding of the
completely involuntarily is the risk of natural relative risks associated with various activities
disaster. (B) concern that policy guided mainly by laypeople’s
emphasis on the voluntariness of risk would lead
25. The author’s use of the phrase “no special magic”
to excessive government regulation
(second to last sentence of the third paragraph) is most
(C) skepticism about the reliability of laypeople’s
likely meant primarily to convey that notions like
intuitions as a general guide to deciding
“voluntary” and “involuntary”
government risk-management policy
(A) do not exhaustively characterize the risks that (D) conviction that the sole criterion that can justify
people commonly face government intervention to reduce risk is the
(B) have been used to intentionally conceal the saving of human lives
factors motivating government efforts to protect (E) eagerness to persuade the reader that policy
people from risks experts’ analysis of risk is distorted by subtle
(C) have no meaning beyond their literal, dictionary biases
definitions
(D) are mistakenly believed to be characteristics
that inform people’s understanding of the
consequences of risk
(E) provide a flawed mechanism for making public
policy decisions relating to risk reduction

S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
4 -28-
4 4 4 4 4
SECTION IV
Time—35 minutes
26 Questions

Directions: Each question in this section is based on the reasoning presented in a brief passage. In answering the questions, you
should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. For
some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best
answer; that is, choose the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your
answer sheet.

1. In an experiment, ten people were asked to taste samples 2. Residents of a coastal community are resisting the efforts
of coffee and rank them. Five of the people were given of one family to build a large house on the family’s
chocolate with the coffee, and this group subsequently land. Although the house would not violate any town
reported that all the coffee samples tasted pretty much codes, the land in question is depicted in a painting by a
the same as one another. Five others tasted coffee only, famous and beloved landscape painter who recently died.
and they were able to detect differences. Clearly, then, Residents argue that the house would alter the pristine
chocolate interferes with one’s ability to taste coffee. landscape and hence damage the community’s artistic
and historic heritage.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the
conclusion drawn above? Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning of the residents opposed to
(A) The ten people were randomly assigned to
building the house?
either the group that tasted only coffee or the
group that was also given chocolate, although (A) Every possible effort should be made to preserve
some people had asked to be in the group that historic buildings that are well known and well
received chocolate. loved.
(B) Similar results were achieved when the (B) Communities that seek to preserve undeveloped
experiment was repeated with a different, larger areas of landscape or historic neighborhoods
group of people. should purchase those properties for the public
(C) Chocolate is normally consumed as a solid, trust.
whereas coffee is normally consumed as a (C) Artists who choose to represent actual landscapes
liquid. in their paintings have the right to demand
(D) The five people who were originally given that the owners of the land represented do not
chocolate were asked a week later to taste significantly alter the landscape.
coffee samples without chocolate, and they (D) The right to build on one’s own property is
still detected no differences between the coffee constrained by the artistic and historical interests
samples. of the community at large.
(E) Some subjects who tasted just coffee reported (E) In historic communities, the building and zoning
only subtle differences between the coffee regulations should prohibit construction that
samples, while others thought the differences obstructs access to historic sites.
were considerable.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4 4 4 4 4 -29-
4
3. Moore: Sunscreen lotions, which are designed to block 5. While biodiversity is indispensable to the survival of
skin-cancer-causing ultraviolet radiation, do not life on Earth, biodiversity does not require the survival
do so effectively. Many scientific studies have of every currently existing species. For there to be life
shown that people who have consistently used on Earth, various ecological niches must be filled; many
these lotions develop, on average, as many skin niches, however, can be filled by more than one species.
cancers as those who have rarely, if ever, used
Which one of the following statements most accurately
them.
expresses the conclusion drawn in the argument?
The reasoning in Moore’s argument is most vulnerable
(A) Biodiversity does not require that all existing
to criticism on the grounds that the argument
species continue to exist.
(A) takes for granted that there are no other possible (B) There are various ecological niches that must be
health benefits of using sunscreen lotions other filled if there is to be life on Earth.
than blocking skin-cancer-causing ultraviolet (C) The survival of life on Earth depends upon
radiation biodiversity.
(B) fails to distinguish between the relative number (D) There are many ecological niches that can be
of cases of skin cancer and the severity of those filled by more than one species.
cases in measuring effectiveness at skin cancer (E) The species most indispensable for biodiversity
prevention fill more than one ecological niche.
(C) fails to consider the effectiveness of sunscreen
lotions that are not specifically designed to 6. Clinician: Patients with immune system disorders
block skin-cancer-causing ultraviolet radiation are usually treated with a class of drugs that,
(D) relies on evidence regarding the probability of unfortunately, increase the patient’s risk of
people in different groups developing cancer developing osteoporosis, a bone-loss disease.
that, in principle, would be impossible to So these patients take another drug that helps
challenge to preserve existing bone. Since a drug that
(E) overlooks the possibility that people who enhances the growth of new bone cells has now
consistently use sunscreen lotions spend more become available, these patients should take this
time in the sun, on average, than people who do new drug in addition to the drug that helps to
not preserve existing bone.
Which one of the following would be most useful to
4. Psychologist: Some have argued that Freudian
know in order to evaluate the clinician’s argument?
psychotherapy is the most effective kind because
it is so difficult and time consuming. But surely (A) How large is the class of drugs that increase the
this does not follow. Similar reasoning—e.g., risk of developing osteoporosis?
concluding that a car-repair chain has the most (B) Why are immune system disorders treated with
effective technique for repairing cars because drugs that increase the risk of developing
the cars it services receive so much work and osteoporosis?
spend so much time in the shop—would never be (C) Is the new drug more expensive than the drug
accepted. that helps to preserve existing bone?
(D) How long has the drug that helps to preserve
The reasoning technique employed by the psychologist
existing bone been in use?
is that of attempting to undermine an argument by
(E) To what extent does the new drug retain its
(A) introducing a principle that contradicts the one on efficacy when used in combination with the
which the argument is based other drugs?
(B) questioning the truth of its premises
(C) presenting an analogous argument whose
conclusion is thought to be obviously false
(D) claiming that the argument is based on a false
analogy
(E) suggesting that a supposed cause of a GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
phenomenon is actually an effect of that
phenomenon
4 -30-
4 4 4 4 4
7. Critic: The perennial image of the “city on a hill” 9. Fraenger’s assertion that the artist Hieronymus
associates elevated locations with elevated Bosch belonged to the Brethren of the Free Spirit, a
purposes. The city’s concert hall—its newest nonmainstream religious group, is unlikely to be correct.
civic building—is located on a spectacular Fraenger’s hypothesis explains much of Bosch’s unusual
hilltop site. But because it is far from the center subject matter. However, there is evidence that Bosch
of the city, it cannot fulfill the purpose of a was a member of a mainstream church, and no evidence
civic building. An example of a successful civic that he was a member of the Brethren.
building is the art museum, which is situated in a
The statement that there is no evidence that Bosch was a
densely populated downtown area. It encourages
member of the Brethren figures in the argument in which
social cohesion and makes the city more alive.
one of the following ways?
The critic’s reasoning most closely conforms to which
(A) It is a premise that, when combined with the
one of the following principles?
other premises, guarantees the falsity of
(A) A civic building that is located in a downtown Fraenger’s assertion.
area should, if possible, be located on an (B) It is used to support the claim that Bosch was a
elevated site. member of a mainstream church.
(B) A city needs to have civic buildings if it is to (C) It is used to dispute Fraenger’s hypothesis by
have social cohesion. questioning Fraenger’s credibility.
(C) A civic building with an elevated purpose should (D) It is intended to cast doubt on Fraenger’s
be located on a spectacular site. hypothesis by questioning the sufficiency of
(D) The downtown area of a city should be designed Fraenger’s evidence.
in a way that complements the area’s civic (E) It is intended to help show that Bosch’s choice of
buildings. subject matter remains unexplained.
(E) The purpose of a civic building is to encourage
social cohesion and to make a city more alive. 10. Vacuum cleaner salesperson: To prove that this Super XL
vacuum cleaner is better than your old vacuum
8. Fluoride enters a region’s groundwater when rain cleaner, I ran your old vacuum once over this
dissolves fluoride-bearing minerals in the soil. In a dirty carpet. Then I ran the Super XL over the
recent study, researchers found that when rainfall, same area. All that dirt that the Super XL picked
concentrations of fluoride-bearing minerals, and up is dirt your old vacuum left behind, proving
other relevant variables are held constant, fluoride the Super XL is the better vacuum.
concentrations in groundwater are significantly higher
The vacuum cleaner salesperson’s argument is most
in areas where the groundwater also contains a high
vulnerable to the criticism that it
concentration of sodium.
(A) ignores the possibility that dirt remained in the
Which one of the following can most reasonably be
carpet even after the Super XL had been used in
concluded on the basis of the researchers’ findings?
the test
(A) Fluoride-bearing minerals are not the primary (B) takes for granted that the Super XL will still
source of fluoride found in groundwater. perform better than the old vacuum cleaner
(B) Rainfall does not affect fluoride concentrations in when it is the same age as the old vacuum
groundwater. cleaner
(C) Sodium-bearing minerals dissolve at a faster rate (C) takes for granted that because the Super XL
than fluoride-bearing minerals. outperforms one vacuum cleaner it is the best
(D) Sodium in groundwater increases the rate at vacuum cleaner available
which fluoride-bearing minerals dissolve. (D) ignores the possibility that the amount of dirt
(E) Soil that contains high concentrations of removed in the test by the old vacuum cleaner is
sodium-bearing minerals also contains high greater than the amount of dirt removed by the
concentrations of fluoride-bearing minerals. Super XL
(E) ignores the possibility that if the Super XL had
been used first it would have left behind just as
much dirt as did the old vacuum cleaner

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4 4 4 4 4 -31-
4
11. Manager: This company’s supply chain will develop 13. In early 2003, scientists detected methane in the
significant weaknesses unless we make changes atmosphere of Mars. Methane is a fragile compound
to our vendor contracts now. Some will argue that falls apart when hit by the ultraviolet radiation in
that this problem is so far in the future that there sunlight. So any methane in the Martian atmosphere
is no need to address it today. But that is an must have been released into the atmosphere relatively
irresponsible approach. Just imagine if a financial recently.
planner offered the same counsel to a 30-year-old
The argument relies on the assumption that
client: “Don’t worry, Jane, retirement is 35 years
away; you don’t need to save anything now.” That (A) Mars had no methane in its atmosphere prior to
planner would be guilty of gross malpractice. 2003
(B) all methane in the Martian atmosphere is
Which one of the following most accurately expresses the
eventually exposed to sunlight
overall conclusion drawn in the manager’s argument?
(C) methane cannot be detected until it has started to
(A) Some people argue that the supply-chain problem fall apart
is so far in the future that there is no need to (D) the methane that the scientists detected had been
address it now. exposed to ultraviolet radiation
(B) It would be irresponsible to postpone changes to (E) methane in Earth’s atmosphere does not fall apart
the vendor contracts just because the supply chain as a result of exposure to ultraviolet radiation
will not develop weaknesses for a long time.
(C) If no changes are made to the vendor contracts, the 14. Environmentalist: Pollution from gasoline burned by cars
supply chain will eventually develop significant contributes to serious environmental problems.
weaknesses. But the cost of these problems is not reflected
(D) In planning to meet its future obligations, a in gasoline prices, and hence usually does not
company should follow the same practices that affect consumers’ decisions about how much to
are appropriate for an individual who is planning drive. Heavier taxes on gasoline, however, would
for retirement. reflect this cost, and as a result consumers would
(E) Financial planners should advise their clients to pollute less.
save money for retirement only if retirement is The environmentalist’s statements, if true, most strongly
many years away. support which one of the following?
12. Worldwide, more books were sold last year than in any (A) The cost of pollution from driving should not
previous year. In particular, there were more cookbooks be reflected in the price of gasoline unless the
sold. For the first time ever, most of the cookbooks sold amount of pollution produced would be reduced
were not intended for beginners. Indeed, more cookbooks as a result.
than ever were purchased by professional cooks. However, (B) Heavier taxes on gasoline would increase
one of the few books available on every continent is a consumers’ awareness of the kinds of
cookbook written for beginners, entitled Problem-Free environmental problems to which pollution from
Cooking. driving contributes.
(C) Consumers would purchase less gasoline,
Which one of the following is most strongly supported by
on average, if the cost of the environmental
the information above?
problems to which pollution from driving
(A) Last year there were more cookbooks sold that contributes were fully reflected in the price of
were not intended for beginners than in any gasoline.
previous year. (D) The only cost considered by most consumers
(B) The best-selling cookbook last year was a when they are deciding how much to drive is the
cookbook that was intended for beginners. cost of gasoline.
(C) Sales of cookbooks intended for beginners were (E) Pollution from gasoline burned by cars will
lower last year than in previous years. be reduced only if consumers give more
(D) Most of the cookbooks purchased last year that consideration to the cost of that pollution when
were not intended for beginners were purchased deciding how much to drive.
by professional cooks.
(E) Problem-Free Cooking sold more copies last
year than did any cookbook written for
professional cooks.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4 -32-
4 4 4 4 4
15. Hine’s emerald dragonflies are an endangered species 17. A positive correlation has been found between the
that live in wetlands. The larvae of these dragonflies amount of soot in the atmosphere of cities and the
can survive only in the water, where they are subject to frequency of a certain ailment among those cities’
predation by several species including red devil crayfish. populations. However, the soot itself probably does not
Surprisingly, the dragonfly populations are more likely cause this ailment, since in cities where there are large
to remain healthy in areas where red devil crayfish are amounts of soot in the air, there are usually also high
present than in areas without red devil crayfish. concentrations of many other air pollutants.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to Which one of the following statements, if true, most
explain the surprising fact? weakens the argument?
(A) Red devil crayfish dig chambers that remain filled (A) In cities where there are high concentrations of
with water even when the surrounding wetlands many air pollutants but little if any soot in the
dry up. air, the frequency of the ailment is just as high,
(B) Red devil crayfish present no threat to adult on average, as it is in cities where there are large
Hine’s emerald dragonflies. amounts of soot in the air.
(C) The varied diet of the red devil crayfish does (B) If the ailment rarely occurs except in cities in
not include any animal species that prey on which there are large amounts of soot in the
dragonfly larvae. air, then the soot is probably the cause of the
(D) Red devil crayfish are found in many more ailment.
locations than Hine’s emerald dragonflies are. (C) In each of the cities where there are large
(E) Populations of red devil crayfish in a wetland do amounts of soot in the air but little other air
not drop significantly if the local population of pollution, the frequency of the ailment is at least
Hine’s emerald dragonflies dies out. as high as it is anywhere else.
(D) If high concentrations of many different
16. Stress is a common cause of high blood pressure. By pollutants in a city’s air are correlated with a
calming their minds and thereby reducing stress, some high frequency of the ailment among that city’s
people can lower their blood pressure. And most people population, then it is possible that two or more
can calm their minds, in turn, by engaging in exercise. of those pollutants each causally contributes to
Which one of the following is most strongly supported the ailment.
by the information above? (E) In cities in which there are high concentrations
of many air pollutants, there are generally also
(A) For at least some people, having lower blood high concentrations of other forms of pollution
pressure has at least some tendency to cause that are very likely to contribute causally to the
their stress levels to be reduced. ailment.
(B) Most people with high blood pressure can lower
their blood pressure by reducing their stress
levels.
(C) Most people who do not exercise regularly have
higher stress levels as a result.
(D) Engaging in exercise can directly lower one’s
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
blood pressure.
(E) For at least some people, engaging in exercise
can cause their stress levels to be reduced.
4 4 4 4 4 -33-
4
18. So far this summer there has been no rain in the valley. 19. Young people believe efforts to reduce pollution,
But usually a few inches of rain fall there each summer. poverty, and war are doomed to failure. This pessimism
Since only one week of summer is left, it will probably is probably harmful to humanity’s future, because
rain in the valley within the next week. people lose motivation to work for goals they think are
unrealizable. We must do what we can to prevent this loss
The flawed pattern of reasoning in the argument above is
of motivation and therefore must enable our children to
most similar to that in which one of the following
believe that better futures are possible.
arguments?
Which one of the following is an assumption on which
(A) Aisha has finished proofreading all but the last
the argument depends?
two pages of an issue of the journal Periodos
and has encountered no errors. However, there (A) Motivating people to work to solve humanity’s
are sometimes a few errors in an issue of the problems will enable them to believe that the
journal Periodos. So there may be errors in the future can be better and will cause them to be
pages that Aisha has not yet checked. less pessimistic.
(B) There are generally few errors in an issue (B) Enabling people to believe that better futures are
of the journal Periodos. Aisha has finished possible will help prevent the loss of motivation
proofreading all but the last two pages of an that results from pessimistic beliefs about the
issue of this journal but has encountered no future.
errors. Hence, there are probably no errors in (C) Optimism about the future is better than
the pages that Aisha has not yet checked in this pessimism, even if that optimism is based on an
issue of the journal. illusory vision of what is likely to occur.
(C) On average, there are a few errors in an issue (D) If future generations believe that the future can
of the journal Periodos. Aisha has finished be better, then pollution, poverty, and war will
proofreading all but the last two pages of an be eliminated.
issue of this journal but has encountered no (E) The current prevalence of such problems as
errors. So there are probably errors in the pages pollution and poverty stems from previous
she has not yet checked in this issue of the generations’ inability to believe that futures can
journal. be better.
(D) Aisha has proofread several issues of the journal
Periodos and has encountered no errors. But 20. In a recent study of stroke patients, those who exhibited
there are seldom any errors in an issue of this continuing deterioration of the nerve cells in the brain
journal. So there will probably be no errors in after the stroke also exhibited the highest levels of the
the next issue of the journal Periodos that she protein glutamate in their blood. Glutamate, which
proofreads. functions within nerve cells as a neurotransmitter, can
(E) There usually are errors in each issue of the kill surrounding nerve cells if it leaks from damaged or
journal Periodos. Since Aisha has finished oxygen-starved nerve cells. Thus glutamate leaking from
proofreading the latest issue of this journal and damaged or oxygen-starved nerve cells is a cause of
has detected no errors, Aisha has probably made long-term brain damage resulting from strokes.
a mistake in her proofreading. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the
argument?
(A) Any neurotransmitter that leaks from a damaged
or oxygen-starved nerve cell will damage
surrounding nerve cells.
(B) Stroke patients exhibit a wide variety of
abnormal chemical levels in their blood.
(C) Glutamate is the only neurotransmitter that leaks
from oxygen-starved or physically damaged
nerve cells.
(D) Leakage from damaged or oxygen-starved nerve
cells is the only possible source of glutamate in
the blood.
(E) Nerve cells can suffer enough damage to leak
glutamate without being destroyed themselves.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4 -34-
4 4 4 4 4
21. The only songs Amanda has ever written are blues songs 23. Problem: If Shayna congratulates Daniel on his award,
and punk rock songs. Most punk rock songs involve she will misrepresent her true feelings. However,
no more than three chords. So if the next song Amanda if Shayna does not congratulate Daniel, she will
writes is not a blues song, it probably will not involve hurt his feelings.
more than three chords. Principle: One should never be insincere about one’s
The reasoning in which one of the following arguments feelings, except possibly where one believes that
is most similar to that in the argument above? the person with whom one is speaking would
prefer kindness to honesty.
(A) The only pets the Gupta family has ever owned
are fish and parrots. Most parrots are very noisy. The principle, if valid, most helps to justify the
So if the next pet the Gupta family owns is a reasoning in which one of the following arguments
parrot, it will probably be very noisy. concerning the problem?
(B) Most parrots are very noisy. The Gupta family (A) If Shayna congratulates Daniel, she will avoid
has never owned any pets other than fish and hurting his feelings, so she should congratulate
parrots. So if the Gupta family has ever owned a him.
noisy pet, it was probably a parrot. (B) Daniel might prefer for Shayna to congratulate
(C) All the pets the Gupta family has ever owned him—even if insincerely—rather than for her
have been fish and parrots. Most parrots are very to express her true feelings, and so Shayna
noisy. So any pet the Gupta family ever owns would be doing nothing wrong in insincerely
that is not a fish will probably be very noisy. congratulating Daniel.
(D) Every pet the Gupta family has ever owned has (C) Shayna believes that kindness should be preferred
been a fish or a parrot. Most parrots are very to dishonesty when speaking to others, so she
noisy. So if the next pet the Gupta family owns should not tell Daniel her true feelings.
is not a parrot, it will probably not be very noisy. (D) Daniel’s feelings would be hurt if he knew that
(E) The Gupta family has never owned any pets other congratulations from Shayna were insincere, so
than fish and parrots. Most parrots are very Shayna should not congratulate him.
noisy. So the next pet the Gupta family owns (E) Shayna has no opinion about whether Daniel
will probably be very noisy if it is not a fish. would prefer kindness to honesty, so she should
not congratulate him.
22. Advertising tends to have a greater influence on
consumer preferences regarding brands of yogurt than 24. Clearly, a democracy cannot thrive without effective
it does on consumer preferences regarding brands of news media. After all, a democracy cannot thrive without
milk. Yet, since the LargeCo supermarket chain began an electorate that is knowledgeable about important
advertising its store-brand products, sales of its store- political issues, and an electorate can be knowledgeable
brand milk increased more than sales of its store-brand in this way only if it has access to unbiased information
yogurt. about the government.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve The argument’s conclusion is properly inferred if which
the apparent discrepancy described above? one of the following is assumed?
(A) There has recently been increased demand at (A) All societies that have effective news media are
LargeCo stores for the chain’s own brand of thriving democracies.
yogurt as well as for other brands of yogurt. (B) If an electorate has access to unbiased
(B) The typical shopper going to LargeCo for the information about the government, then
purpose of buying milk does not go with the that electorate will be knowledgeable about
intention of also buying yogurt. important political issues.
(C) Shoppers at LargeCo tend to purchase the chain’s (C) A democracy will thrive if its electorate is
own brand of dairy products more frequently knowledgeable about important political issues.
than other brands of dairy products. (D) A democracy cannot thrive if the electorate
(D) Supermarkets throughout the entire nation have is exposed to biased information about the
experienced a sharp decrease in sales of yogurt government.
recently. (E) Without effective news media, an electorate will
(E) Consumers tend to purchase store brands of not have access to unbiased information about
yogurt, but purchase whichever brand of milk is the government.
least expensive.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

4 4 4 4 4 -35-
4
25. Roberta is irritable only when she is tired, and loses 26. Farmer: Crops genetically engineered to produce toxins
things only when she is tired. Since she has been that enable them to resist insect pests do not
yawning all day, and has just lost her keys, she is almost need to be sprayed with insecticides. Since
certainly irritable. excessive spraying of insecticides has harmed
wildlife populations near croplands, using such
The reasoning above is flawed in that it
genetically engineered crops more widely is
(A) infers from a correlation between tiredness and likely to help wildlife populations to recover.
yawning that tiredness causes yawning
Which one of the following is an assumption the
(B) assumes the conclusion that it sets out to prove
farmer’s argument requires?
(C) generalizes on the basis of a single instance
(D) takes a necessary condition for Roberta’s losing (A) Use of the crops that have been genetically
things to be a sufficient condition engineered to resist insect pests in place of crops
(E) takes a necessary condition for Roberta’s being that have been sprayed with insecticides will
irritable to be a sufficient condition cause less harm to wildlife populations.
(B) Wildlife populations that have been harmed
by the excessive spraying of insecticides on
croplands are likely to recover if the amount
of insecticides sprayed on those croplands is
reduced even slightly.
(C) Crops that have been genetically engineered
to resist insect pests are never sprayed with
insecticides that harm wildlife populations.
(D) Use of crops that have been genetically
engineered to resist insect pests is no more
costly to farmers than the use of insecticides on
crops that are not genetically engineered.
(E) If a wider use of certain crops that have been
genetically engineered to resist insect pests is
likely to help at least some wildlife populations
to recover, it is likely to have that effect only
because its use will prevent excessive and
ineffective spraying of insecticides on croplands.

S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
-36-

Acknowledgment is made to the following sources from which material has been adapted for use in
this test:

Arthur C. Brooks, “Can Money Buy Happiness?” ©2008 by American Enterprise Institute.
Vévé Clark, “Performing the Memory of Difference in Afro-Caribbean Dance: Katherine Dunham’s
Choreography, 1938-87.” ©1994 by Oxford University Press, Inc.
Stephen Jay Gould, “Darwinian Fundamentalism.” ©1997 by Stephen Jay Gould.
Helen Irving, “Little Elves and Mind Control.” ©1991 by The Australian Journal of Media and Culture.
Richard Layard, “Lionel Robbins Memorial Lectures 2002/3: Happiness: Has Social Science A Clue?”
©2003 by CEP.
David Lyons, “The New Indian Claims and Original Rights to Land” in Reading Nozick. Edited by Jeffrey
Paul. ©1981 by Rowman and Littlefield.
Janet Malcolm, “The Genius of the Glass House.” ©1999 by NYREV.
Susan Milius, “Built for Blurs.” ©2005 by Science Services, Inc.
Robert Nozick, Anarchy, State, and Utopia. ©1974 by Basic Books, Inc.
Cass R. Sunstein, “A Note on ‘Voluntary’ versus ‘Involuntary’ Risks.” ©1997 by Duke Environmental
Law and Policy Forum.
 -37-

Computing Your Score

Directions: Score Conversion Chart

1. Use the Answer Key on the next page to check Use the table below to convert your raw score to the
your answers. corresponding 120–180 scaled score for PrepTest 141.

2. Use the Scoring Worksheet below to compute

your raw score. Raw Score Scaled Score Raw Score Scaled Score
78 180 39 147
3. Use the Score Conversion Chart to convert
your raw score into the 120–180 scale.* 77 180 38 146
76 180 37 145
75 179 36 144
Scoring Worksheet
74 177 35 144
1. Enter the number of questions you 73 176 34 143
answered correctly in each section. 72 174 33 142
Number 71 173 32 141
Correct 70 172 31 140
69 171 30 140
SECTION I ____________
68 170 29 139
SECTION II ____________ 67 168 28 138
SECTION III Unscored
____________ 66 167 27 137
SECTION IV ____________ 65 167 26 136
2. Enter the sum here: ____________ 64 166 25 135
This is your 63 165 24 134
Raw Score. 62 164 23 133
61 163 22 132
60 162 21 131
59 161 20 130
58 160 19 128
57 160 18 127
56 159 17 126
55 158 16 124
54 157 15 123
53 157 14 122
52 156 13 120
51 155 12 120
50 154 11 120
49 154 10 120
48 153 9 120
47 152 8 120
46 152 7 120
45 151 6 120
44 150 5 120
43 150 4 120
*Scores are reported on a 120–180 score scale, with 120 42 149 3 120
being the lowest possible score and 180 being the highest
possible score. 41 148 2 120
40 147 1 120
0 120
-38-

Answer Key

Question Section I Section II Section III* Section IV

1 A C B D
2 B E A D
3 D A E E
4 B D C C
5 A D B A
6 E D A E
7 C C E E
8 B B E D
9 A C C D
10 D A C E
11 C B D B
12 E A E A
13 E B D B
14 B E D C
15 B B B A
16 C A C E
17 B B A C
18 E E D C
19 A B D B
20 E E E D
21 A E B E
22 B A C D
23 A C D E
24 D D B E
25 E C E E
26 D B A
27 A C

*Section III is unscored. The number of items answered correctly in Section III should not be added to the raw score.
t | | | | |
t
-39-
t
t LSAT Answer Sheet Section 1–4
t
t Instructions for completing these items are at the back of your
t
t LSAT test book.
t
t 1. Name (Print)
t Last First MI
t
t
t
t
t 2. LSAC Account Number L
t
t
t
t Section 1 Section 2 Section 3 Section 4
t
t
t 1 »»»»»
\\\\\
A B C D E 1 »»»»»
\\\\\
A B C D E 1 »»»»»
\\\\\
A B C D E 1 »»»»»
\\\\\
A B C D E

t 2 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 2 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 2 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 2 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 3 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 3 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 3 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 3 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 4 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 4 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 4 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 4 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 5 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 5 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 5 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 5 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 6 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 6 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 6 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 6 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 7 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 7 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 7 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 7 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 8 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 8 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 8 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 8 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 9 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 9 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 9 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 9 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 10 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 10 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 10 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 10 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 11 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 11 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 11 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 11 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 12 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 12 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 12 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 12 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 13 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 13 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 13 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 13 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 14 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 14 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 14 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 14 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 15 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 15 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 15 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 15 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 16 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 16 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 16 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 16 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 17 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 17 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 17 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 17 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 18 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 18 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 18 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 18 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 19 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 19 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 19 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 19 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 20 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 20 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 20 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 20 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 21 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 21 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 21 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 21 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 22 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 22 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 22 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 22 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 23 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 23 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 23 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 23 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 24 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 24 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 24 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 24 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 25 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 25 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 25 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 25 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 26 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 26 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 26 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 26 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 27 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 27 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 27 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 27 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 28 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 28 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 28 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 28 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 29 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 29 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 29 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 29 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 30 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 30 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 30 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 30 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t
t ©2022 Law School Admission Council
t
t
t
t
t
t
t
t
t
C
C
t | | | | |
t
t
t LSAT Answer Sheet Section 1–4
t
t Instructions for completing these items are at the back of your
t
t LSAT test book.
t
t 1. Name (Print)
t Last First MI
t
t
t
t
t 2. LSAC Account Number L
t
t
t
t Section 1 Section 2 Section 3 Section 4
t
t
t 1 »»»»»
\\\\\
A B C D E 1 »»»»»
\\\\\
A B C D E 1 »»»»»
\\\\\
A B C D E 1 »»»»»
\\\\\
A B C D E

t 2 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 2 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 2 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 2 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 3 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 3 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 3 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 3 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 4 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 4 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 4 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 4 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 5 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 5 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 5 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 5 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 6 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 6 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 6 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 6 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 7 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 7 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 7 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 7 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 8 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 8 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 8 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 8 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 9 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 9 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 9 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 9 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 10 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 10 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 10 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 10 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 11 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 11 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 11 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 11 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 12 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 12 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 12 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 12 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 13 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 13 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 13 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 13 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 14 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 14 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 14 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 14 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 15 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 15 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 15 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 15 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 16 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 16 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 16 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 16 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 17 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 17 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 17 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 17 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 18 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 18 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 18 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 18 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 19 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 19 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 19 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 19 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 20 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 20 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 20 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 20 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 21 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 21 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 21 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 21 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 22 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 22 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 22 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 22 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 23 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 23 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 23 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 23 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 24 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 24 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 24 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 24 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 25 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 25 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 25 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 25 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 26 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 26 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 26 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 26 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 27 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 27 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 27 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 27 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 28 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 28 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 28 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 28 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 29 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 29 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 29 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 29 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t 30 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 30 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 30 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E 30 \\\\\
»»»»»
A B C D E

t
t ©2022 Law School Admission Council
t
t
t
t
t
t
t
t
t
C
C