04-05-2025

1501CMD303021250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Behavior of optical system in a medium is shown in figure :-

(1) Power = + ve
(2) Power = – ve
(3) Power = 0
(4) None of these

2) A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm is cut in to two halves and placed before an object at
distance 20 cm as shown in figure. The seperation between images formed by two halves of mirror is

:-

(1) 8 mm
(2) 4 mm
(3) 0 mm
(4) 6 mm

3) In process of charging a neutral body by induction using a charged body, the necessary condition
is that

(1) neutral body must be a conductor

(2) The charged body must be a conductor
(3) Neutral body should be in contact with the charged body
(4) None of these

4) The equation of motion of a projectiles is y = ax – bx2, where a and b are constants of motion.
Match the quantities of Column I with the relations of Column II and mark the correct choice from
the given codes.

Column I Column II

The initial velocity of

A. P.
projection
 The horizontal range of
B. Q.
projectile

The maximum vertical height

C. R.
attained by projectile

D. The time of flight of projectile S.

(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

(2) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(3) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
(4) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R

5) Consider the electric charges A, B, C shown in the figure below, where q is a positive number.
Which answer correctly describes the magnitude of the net force experienced by the charges ?

(1) FA > FB > FC

(2) FA > FC > FB
(3) FB > FA > FC
(4) FA = FB = FC

6) Five charges are placed at corners of a regular pentagon of side 'a'. The force on q0 which is

placed at centroid 'O' is :-

(1) zero

(2)
, along OE

(3)
, along EO

(4)
, along OE

7) A luminous point object is moving along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 12
cm towards it. When its distance from the mirror is 20 cm its velocity is 4 cm/s. The velocity of the
image in cm/s at that instant is

(1) 6, towards the mirror

(2) 6, away from the mirror
(3) 9, away from the mirror
(4) 9, towards the mirror.

8) Electric field at the centre 'O' of a semicircle of radius 'a' having linear charge density l is given as
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)

A small sphere carrying a charge ‘q’ is hanging in between two parallel plates by a string of length
L. Time period of pendulum is T0. When parallel plates are charged, the time period changes to T.

The ratio is equal to :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

10)

E-x graph will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Dimension of the electric field is :-

(1) M1L1T–3A1
(2) M1L1T–3A–1
(3) M1L1T–2A–1
(4) M–1L1T–3A–1

12) Which one of the following pattern of electrostatic field lines is not possible ________.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) When a ball is dropped into a lake from a height 4.9 m above the water level, it hits the water
with a velocity v and then sinks to the bottom with the constant velocity v. It reaches the bottom of
the lake 4.0 s after it is dropped. The approximate depth of the lake is (g = 9.8 ms–2)

(1) 19.6 m
(2) 29.4 m
(3) 39.2 m
(4) 73.5 m

14) Two mirrors are inclined at an angle θ as shown in the figure. Light ray is incident parallel to

one of the mirrors. Light will start retracing its path after third reflection if :

(1) θ = 45°
(2) θ = 30°
(3) θ = 60°
(4) all three

15) In the given figure flux through surface S1 is ϕ1 & through S2 is ϕ2. Which is correct ?
(1) ϕ1 = ϕ2
(2) ϕ1 > ϕ2
(3) ϕ1 < ϕ2
(4) None of these

16) Find the electric flux through the square surface ABCD surface of side L in given diagram (q is
perpandicular to the plane of the given square surface) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

17) A linear charge having linear charge density λ, penetrates a cube diagonally and then it
penetrate a sphere diametrically as shown. What will be the ratio of flux coming cut of cube and

sphere

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) Consider a rod of length ℓ having linear charge density ( λ = λ0x2) placed along x–axis whose

one end is placed at origin. Find charge on the rod :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A charge q is placed R distance away from a charged wire of density λ(c/m). Calculate electric

force between wire and charge :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A hollow charged spherical conductor has a tiny hole cut into its surface. If surface charge

density near the hole is σ then electric field in the hole is :-

(1)
, directed inward

(2)
, directed outward

(3)
, directed inward

(4)
, directed outward

21) Assertion : The path of one projectile as seen from another projectile is a straight line.
Reason : Two projectiles projected with same speed at angles α and (90° – α) have same range.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

22) A luminous object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from convex mirror. A plane mirror is set, so
that virctual image is formed by both mirror will coincide. If plane mirror is at distance of 12 cm

from object find out the focal length of mirror?

(1) +5cm
(2) – 5 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 25 cm

23) A point charge ' q ' is placed at a point inside a hollow conducting sphere. Which of the following
electric force pattern is correct?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24)

The given figure shows two parallel plates A and B of charge densities +σ and –σ respectively.
Electric intensity will be zero in the :

(1) region I
(2) region II
(3) region III
(4) region I and III

25) A 5 C charge experiences a force of 2000 N when moved between two points along the field
separated by a distance of 2 cm in a uniform electric field. The potential difference between the two
points is :-

(1) 8 volts
(2) 80 volts
(3) 800 volts
(4) 8000 volts
26) In the given figure, there are four point charges placed at the vertices of a square of side a = 1.4
m. If q1 = +18 nC, q2 = –24 nC, q3 = + 35 nC and q4 = + 16 nC, then find the electric potential at the

centre P of the square. Assume the potential to be zero at infinity.

(1) 0 V
(2) 405 V
(3) 100 V
(4) None

27) Charge Q is uniformly distributed on a dielectric rod AB of length 2l. The potential at P shown in

the figure is equal to+

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

28) A hollow charged metal sphere has radius r. If the potential difference between its surface and a
point at a distance 2r from the center is V then the electric field intensity at a distance 2 r from the
center is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) For an isolated charged conductor shown in figure. The potential at points A,B,C and D are

VA,VB,VC and VD, respectively. Then:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30) In shown figure, a ray of light enters a liquid and is bent towards the normal. The speed of light

in the liquid is :-

(1) 3 × 108 m/s

(2) 2.75 × 108 m/s
(3) 2.50 × 108 m/s
(4) 2.25 × 108 m/s

31) Eight small Identical drops of radius 'r' combines and form a large drop. If the charge on each
small drop is 'q' then the electric potential of large drop is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The electric potential inside a conducting sphere :-

(1) Increases from centre to surface

(2) Decreases from centre to surface
(3) Remains constant from centre to surface
(4) Is zero at every point inside

33) An alpha particle of energy bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the
distance of closest approach for the alpha particle will be proportional to

(1) v2
(2) 1/m
(3) 1/v4
(4) 1/Ze

34) A point charge q of mass M is located at the centre of a ring having radius R and charge Q.
When it is displaced slightly, the point charge accelerates along the x-axis to infinity. Find the
ultimate speed of the point charge :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

35) A particle starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. Its velocity displacement curve
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Four equal charges of magnitude q are placed as shown in figure. Now the charge at center C is

taken to infinite slowly, then work done by external force will be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) A right angled glass prism is shown in the figure. A liquid film is in contact with the hypotenuse
face. A ray of light incident normally on the face AB will undergo total internal reflection from the

hypotenuse face. if the refractive index of the liquid is

(1)

(2)

(3) 1.7
(4) 1.5

38) Statement-I : Work done by electric field on moving a positive charge on an equipotential
surface is always zero.
Statement-II : Electric lines of forces are perpendicular to equipotential surface.

(1) Statement–I is True, Statement–II is True; Statement–II is a correct explanation for Statement–I.
Statement–I is True, Statement–II is True; Statement–II is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement–I.
(3) Statement–I is True, Statement–II is False.
(4) Statement–I is False, Statement–II is True.

39) Figure shows three equipotential surfaces in the surrounding of a point charge q. If t1 and t2 be

the distance between them, then :

(1) t1 > t2
(2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 = t2
(4) t1 ≥ t2

40) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = –x2y – xz3 + 4. The electric field at that
point is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of the river,
capable of swimming at 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across the river in the shortest time.
He should swim in a direction :-

(1) due north

(2) 30° east of north
(3) 30° west of north
(4) 60° east of north

42) In a compound microscope, the intermediate image, in normal use is

(1) Virtual, erect and magnified

(2) Real, erect and magnified
(3) Real, inverted and magnified
(4) Virtual, inverted and magnified

43) The variation of potential with distance 'r' from a fixed point is shown in figure. The electric field
at r = 5 cm is :-

(1) 2.5 V/cm

(2) – 2.5 V/cm

(3)

(4)

44) Which of the following statement(s) is/are wrong

(a) A body can have constant speed and varying velocity
(b) A body can have zero velocity and uniform acceleration
(c) A body can have constant velocity and uniform cceleration

(1) Only c
(2) Both b and c
(3) Both a and c
(4) All a, b, c

45) Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance x as shown in the figure. They are projected
at the same time as shown in the figure with different initial speeds. The time after which the

horizontal distance between them becomes zero will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

CHEMISTRY

1) A certain current liberated 0.50 gm of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be
liberated by the same current flowing for the same time in a copper sulphate solution :- (At. wt. of
Cu = 63.5)

(1) 12.7 gm
(2) 15.9 gm
(3) 31.8 gm
(4) 63.5 gm

2) In the process of electroplating, m g of silver is deposited when 4 ampere of current flows for 2
min. The amount (in g) of silver deposited by 6 ampere of current flowing for 40 sec will be :-

(1) 4m
(2) m/2
(3) 4m/3
(4) 3m

3) A certain current liberates 0.5 g of H2 in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be liberated by
the same current flowing for the same time in CuSO4 solution :-
(1) 31.8g
(2) 16.0g
(3) 12.7g
(4) 63.5g

4) How many minutes are required to deliver 3.21 × 106 C using a current of 500 ampere used in the
commercial production of chlorine :-

(1) 8.3
(2) 5.3 × 104
(3) 6420
(4) 107

5) What will be the EMF for the given cell ?

Pt|H2(g,P1)|H+(aq.)(1M)||H+(aq.)(1M)|H2(g,P2)|Pt

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

The oxidation potential of hydrogen electrode at pH = 10, 1 atm and 25°C is :-

(1) 0.591 volt

(2) 0.059 volt
(3) –0.059 volt
(4) None

7) How many grams of copper (atomic wt. = 64) would be displaced from the copper sulphate
solution by adding 27 g of aluminium
(atomic wt. = 27) :-

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 96
(4) 160

8) How many coulombs of electricity are required for the reduction of 1 mole of MnO4– to Mn2+ ?

(1) 96500 C
(2) 9.65 × 106 C
(3) 4.83 × 105 C
(4) 1.93 × 105 C

9) The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X,Y,Z are 0.52, –3.03 and –1.18
V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is :-

(1) Y > Z > X

(2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > Y > X
(4) Z > X > Y

10) Oxidation potential of Mg and Al are +2.37 and +1.66 volts respectively. Magnesium in a
chemical reaction :-

(1) Will be replaced by Al

(2) Will replace Al
(3) Will not replace Al
(4) Will do nothing as given above

11) Statement I : Electrolysis of CuCl2(aq) gives 1 mole of Cu and 1 mole of Cl2 by the passage of 2F
charge.
Statement II : Equal equivalents of Cu and Cl2 are formed during the passage of same charge.

(1) Both statements are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(2) Both statements are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

12) A current strength of 96.5 A is passed for 10 second through 1 L of a decimolar aqueous
CuSO4 solution. Calculate pH of solution :

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 13

13) Calculate the emf of the following concentration cell at 25°C :

Ag(s) | AgNO3 (0.01 M) | | AgNO3 (0.05 M) | Ag(s)

(1) –0.414 V
(2) 0.828 V
(3) 0.414 V
(4) 0.0414 V

14) During electrolysis of fused calcium hydride, the hydrogen is produced at :-

(1) Cathode
(2) Anode
(3) Hydrogen is not liberated at all
(4) H2 produced reacts with oxygen to form water

15)

With the help of following reactions, arrange metals A, B, D and E in decreasing order of their
reactivity:-
(I) B + ANO3 —→ BNO3 + A

(II) A + HCl —→ ACl + H2

(III) D + ECl —→ DCl + E

(IV) D + HNO3 —→ H2 gas is not evolved

(1) B > D > E > A
(2) B > A > D > E
(3) E > D > B > A
(4) None of these

16) The distance between two electrodes of a cell is 2.5 cm and area of each electrode is 5 cm2. The
cell constant is :-

(1) 0.5 m–1

(2) 12.5 cm3
(3) 2 cm
(4) 50 m–1

17) Based on the data given below, the correct order reducing power is

(1) Br– < Fe2+ < Al

(2) Fe2+ < Al < Br–
(3) Al < Br– < Fe2+
(4) Al < Fe2+ < Br–

18) Specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at 23ºC is 0.012 ohm–1 cm–1. Resistance of cell
containing the solution at same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant is

(1) 0.0616 cm–1

(2) 0.66 cm–1
(3) 6.60 cm–1
(4) 660 cm–1

19) The rate equation of a reaction is as follows :

Which is statement about the above equation is wrong ?

(1) Order with respect to P is one

(2) Total order of the reaction is two
(3) Order with respect to each of Q and R is 0.5
(4) Unit of specific reaction rate is mol L–1s–1

20) Which of the following graph represents zero order reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

21) A mixture of CH3OH and H2O contains 36% water by mass, then mole fraction of Methanol
(CH3OH) will be :

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.9

22) Osmotic pressure of blood is 7.40 atm, at 27°C. Number of moles of glucose to be used per litre
for an intravenous injection that is to have same osmotic pressure as that of blood is :-

(1) 0.3
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.4

23)
Which one has some van't Hoff factor 'i' as that of 50% dissociation of Hg2Cl2 :

(1) NaCl
(2) Na2SO4
(3) Al(NO3)3
(4) Al2(SO4)3

24) Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variations regarding solution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (2)

25)

Raoult’s law is obeyed by each constituent of a binary liquid solution when :

the forces of attractions between like molecules are greater than those between unlike
(1)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are smaller than those between unlike
(2)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are identical with those between unlike
(3)
molecules.
(4) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are different.

26) Correct order of acidic strength are -

(1) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH ≡ CH

(2) CH3 – CH2 – OH > (CH3)2 CH – OH > (CH3)3C – OH
(3) F – CH2 – COOH > F2CH – COOH > CF3 – COOH
(4)

27) Which of the following is correctly matched with types of effect -

A. πe– of multiple bond are transferred to that atom to which the reagent gets attached –(+E effect)
B. Transfer of πe– towards the atom of substituent group attached to the conjugated system (– M
effect)
C. Ethyl carbanion stablises because electron density from the adjacent σ bond helps in dispersing
the –ve charge. (+H effect)

(1) A,B
(2) A,B,C
(3) A,C
(4) B,C

28) Which of the following is most stable carbocation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Incorrect order is :-

–CHO > –F > –OH

(1)
(–I order)
(2)
(+I order)

(3)
(stability order)

(4)

(basic strength order)

30)

Which of the following compounds insoluble in NaOH ?

(1) Only II
(2) Only III
(3) I, II, III & IV
(4) Both II & III

31) Most stable resonating structure :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–NH–CH=CH–CH=CH2

(4)

32) Which of the following compound is/are Aromatic.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which of the following will show tautomerism.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

34)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Which carbocation does not undergo rearrangement?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36) Most basic in aqueous solution is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Assertion :- is more acidic than .

Reason :- Intra molecular H-bond is present in .

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Which of the following does not have allylic hydrogen :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Correct order of value of pKa is :

(1) Q < S < R < P

(2) P < R < Q < S
(3) P < R < S < Q
(4) S < Q < R < P

40) Rearrangement in this carbocation leads to :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) No rearrangement take place

41) Which is best leaving group among the following :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following pair are diastereomers?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) All of these

43) Correct order of nucleophilicity of following anions in polar protic solvent is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

44) Which pair (List-I) having incorrect relationship (List-II).

List-I List-II

(1) Diastereomer

(2) Enantiomer

(3) Identical

(4) Diastereomer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Which of the following nomenclature can be used for given compound.

(1) Only D/L

(2) Only erythro/threo
(3) D/L, Erythro/Threo
(4) D/L, R/S, Erythro/threo

BIOLOGY

1) Choose incorrect statement with respect to cell membrane :-

(1) It is asymmetrical in structure

(2) Peripheral membrane proteins are found only on the extracellular surface of cell membrane.
(3) Integral proteins are partially or totally buried in the membrane.
(4) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell membranes are structurally similar.

2) Read the following statements and find out the correct statement:
a. Mitochondria is typically sausage shaped or cylindrical
b. The inner compartment of the mitochondria is called stroma and of chloroplast is called matrix
c. Mitochondria and bacteria both divide by fission
d. Chromoplasts have fat insoluble carotenoid pigments like carotene and xanthophylls
e. Plastids are found in all plant cells and euglenoids

(1) b, c, e
(2) a, b, d
(3) c, d, e
(4) a, c, e

3) Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II

A Algae i Peptidoglycans

B Fungi ii Chitin

Cellulose, Galactans,
C Bacteria iii
Mannan, Minerals

Higher Cellulose,
D iv
plants Hemicellulose, Pectin
(1) A - ii; B - iii; C - i; D - iv
(2) A - ii; B - iii; C - iv; D - i
(3) A - iii; B - ii; C - i; D - iv
(4) A - iii; B - ii; C - iv; D - i

4) Statement-I : Cell membrane show fluidity.

Statement-II : Fluidity is due to presence of proteins.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

5) Match the column-I and II select the correct option:-

Column-I Column-II
a Cisternae I Proteinaceous structure in cytoplasm
b Thylakoid II Infolding of inner mitochondrial membrane
c Cristae III Flattened membranous sac
d Microtubule IV Membranous structure in Golgi complex
(1) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
(2) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
(3) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
(4) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II

6) Mitochondria and chloroplast are :-

(a) semi-autonomous organelles
(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing
machinery
Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) is true but (a) is false
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false
(4) Both (a) and (b) are false

7) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(a) ER divide the intracellular space into two distinct compartments
(b) Only one chloroplast is present in chlamydomonas
(c) Lysosomes is the double membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of
packaging in the golgi body
(d) In plant cells, the vacuole can occupy up to 90 percent of the volume of the cell

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

8) Find out the correct option regarding TS (Transvers Section) of cilia given below:

Peripheral
Central Radial Central
doublet
microtubule spoke sheath
microtubule

(1) 9 0 9 1

(2) 9 1 9 9

(3) 9 2 9 1
 (4) 9 0 1 9
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) If the number of chromosomes in a diploid cell is 24, then find out the number of chromosomes
during anaphase :-

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 48
(4) 36

10) Which of the following does not play a role in cytokinesis in plant cell.

(1) Cell membrane

(2) Cell Plate
(3) Golgi body
(4) Microtubules

11) If pollen grain contains 30 chromosomes and 50pg DNA, then what will be the number of
chromosome and DNA amount in microspore (pollen) mother cell in G2 phase and in product of
meiosis-I ?
G2 phase Meiosis-I product

(1)
,

(2)
,

(3)
,

(4)
,

12) If the initial amount of DNA in a cell is represented as 2C then the amount of DNA in this cell
immediately after S phase, at metaphase and in anaphase, respectively, should be :-

(1) 4C, 4C and 2C

(2) 4C, 4C and 4C
(3) 2C, 4C and 4C
(4) 2C, 4C and 2C

13) Nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin fibres can be observed in :-

(1) Interphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Late prophase

14) First gap phase in cell cycle is :-

(1) interval between mitotic phase and initiation of DNA replication

(2) interval between end of DNA replication and DNA separation phase
(3) interval between karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) interval between DNA replication phase and second gap phase

15) Once heart cells become mature, they do not usually undergo cell division. The cell cycle of the
mature heart cells become arrested and this phase of cell cycle is known as :-

(1) G2 phase
(2) M-phase
(3) G1 phase
(4) G0 phase

16) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(I) S phase (i) Most of organelles duplication

(II) G1 phase (ii) Tubulin proteins are synthesised

(III) Anaphase (iii) DNA Replication

(IV) G2 phase (iv) Centromere split

(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i
(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv

17) Exchange of segments between .................... chromatids of ............. chromosomes occurs during
................ division.

(1) non sister, non homologous, reductional

(2) sister, homologous, equational
(3) non sister, homologous, equational
(4) non sister, homologous, reductional

18) Given below is diagrammatic view of cell cycle indicating formation of two cell from one cell.
Mark the correct one for the events of this cell cycle :-

(1) A G0 Cells is metabolically inactive

Amount of DNA per cell doubles but chromosome number

(2) B S
remain same

Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

(3) C G2
where cell continuously grows

Shortest phase of cell cycle in which most of the organelles

(4) D G1
duplicate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Pollen kit is generally found in

(1) Anemophilous flower

(2) Entomophilous flower
(3) Ornithophilous flower
(4) Malacophilous flower

20)

Match the column-I with column-II and select the right option:-

Column-I Column-II

A Male gametophyte (i) Embryosac

Pollen
B Megasporangium (ii)
grain

C Megasporophyll (iii) Ovule

D Female gametophyte (iv) Pistil/carpel

A B C D (1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) ii iii iv i (4) ii iii i iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) The provided figure represents cross section of an

unripened anther, correctly identify the labelled structure?

A B C D
(1) Connective Endothecium Tapetum Epidermis
Sporogenous
(2) Vascular tissue Exodermis Epidermis
tissue
Sporogenous
(3) Connective Endothecium Epidermis
tissue
(4) Sporogenous tissue Endothecium Connective Exodermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Assertion : The coconut water from tender coconut is free-nuclear endosperm.
Reason : Free nuclear mitotic division in PEC result in formation of Nuclear endosperm.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Only assertion is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

23) Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months.

(2) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.
(3) When pollen is shed at two - celled stage, double fertilization does not take place.
(4) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell.

24) One of the male gamete moves towards the egg cell & fuses with it, the process is known as -

(1) Syngamy
(2) Triple fusion
(3) Double fertilization
(4) Autogamy

25) The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac

(1) Through one of the synergids
(2) By directly penetrating the egg
(3) Between one synergid and central cell
(4) By knocking off the antipodal cells

26) Please give the answer according to given diagram below :-

Which part is a modified stem ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

27) Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Main plant body of angiosperm is a gametophyte.
(ii) Flower is a modified shoot.
(iii) Nodes and Internodes are absent on thalamus. (iv) Wheat is an annual and monocarpic plant.

(1) i, iii
(2) Only ii
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

28)

Read the following four statement (A-D)

(A) Flowers are the morphological and
embryological marvels and the site
of sexual reproduction.
(B) Anther is attached to proximal end
of the filament of stamen.
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent
the non essential parts of flower.
(D) The number and length of stamens are
variable in flowers of different species

How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

29) Monoecious plant with unisexual flowers prevents :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

30) In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by

(1) Insects or wind

(2) Water currents only
(3) Wind and water
(4) Insects and water

31) The number of chromosomes in a nucellus cell is 12 in a flowering plant. What would be the
chromosome number in antipodal cells, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus respectively :-

(1) 6,12,18
(2) 6,12,12
(3) 6,12,6
(4) 12,12,12

32) Anemophily occurs in :-

(1) Fig, Hydrilla

(2) Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(3) Maize, Grasses
(4) Kigelia, Fig

33) In tetrad, fours cells are attached together with the help of :-

(1) Callase
(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Pectin
(4) Callose

34)

How many plants in the list given below show hydrophily ?

Water hyacinth, Water lily, Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera, Maize, Yucca, Amorphophallus
(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

35) One advantage of cleistogamy is :-

(1) It leads to greater genetic diversity

(2) Seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread
(3) Seed set is not dependent on pollinators
(4) Each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains

36) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(1) The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the region called chalaza
(2) Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell above the egg apparatus.
(3) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
(4) Pollen tube releases the two male gametes in to the cytoplasm of egg cell

37) Tetrad of megaspore is generally ............... in angiosperms

(1) Tetrahedral
(2) Isobilateral
(3) Linear
(4) (1) & (2) both

38) In about 40% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 3 celled stage, these 3 cells are:

(1) Vegetative cell, tube cell and generative cell.

(2) One generative cell and two tube cells.
(3) One vegetative cell and two male gametes.
(4) One generative cell and two male gametes.

39) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in:

(1) Rose
(2) Lotus
(3) Papaver
(4) Michelia

40)

Given below is the diagrammatic view of three dimensional cut section of an anther. Identify the
parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them.
 Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D
Pollen Pollen Filament Line Of
1
sacs grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Pollen Line Of Filament

2
sacs grains dehiscence (Stalk)

Pollen Filament Line Of

3 Pollen sacs
grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Line Of Pollen Filament

4
sacs dehiscence grains (Stalk)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) In geitonogamy pollen grains are transferred to:-

(1) Genetically different flower

(2) Genetically similar flower
(3) Stigma of another flower of a different plant
(4) Stigma of the same flower

42) Both male and female flowers are present on the different plants in:-

(1) Maize and papaya

(2) Castor and papaya
(3) Maize and castor
(4) Papaya and datepalm

43) Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of :-

(1) Brassica
(2) Gossypium
(3) Triticum
(4) Citrus

44) Perisperm is :-

(1) Persistent nucleus in seed

(2) Ovary wall
(3) Ovule coat
(4) Persistent nucellus in seed

45) In above diagram which of the following is correct function of the corresponding
labelling :-

(1) C - Formation of primary endosperm.

(2) E - Entry of pollen tube in embryosac.
(3) A - Guide the entry of pollen tube.
(4) D - Formation of zygote after fusing with one of the male gamete.

46) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) FSH (i) Maintain endometrium for implantation

Develop female secondary sexual

(b) LH (ii)
characters

(c) Progesterone (iii) Contraction of uterine wall

(d) Estrogen (iv) Development of corpus luteum

(v) Stimulates follicular development

(1) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v
(4) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

47) Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement A: All copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy.
Statement B: Fertilization is possible only if ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to
the ampullary region.

(1) A is true and B is incorrect statement

(2) Both A and B statements are correct
(3) Only B statement is correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

48) If vas deferens is cut & tied then what will happen?

(1) Inhibits spermatogenesis.

(2) Motility of sperms will be reduced.
(3) Inhibits release of semen.
(4) Seminal plasma without sperms is released.

49) Through which canal testis enter in scrotum from abdominal cavity

(1) Inguinal canal

(2) Epididymis
(3) Spermatic cord
(4) Vas deferens

50) Which cells provide nutrition to male germ cells (sperm) ?

(1) Macrophage
(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Leydig cells
(4) Sertoli cells

51) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

52) Match the Column-A with Column-B :-

Column -A Column-B

(A) Mons pubis (i) Fleshy folds of tissue

(B) Labia majora (ii) Paired folds of tissue

Membrane covering the

(C) Labia minora (iii)
vaginal opening

(D) Hymen (iv) Cushion of fatty tissue

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

53) Correctly matched pairs are :-

(a) Clitoris – Erectile tissue
(b) Colostrum – Secretion of cowper's gland
(c) Prolactin – Milk synthesis hormone
(d) Oxytocin – Milk synthesis hormone

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, c and d

54) Refer the given schematic representation of menstrual cycle showing three phases I, II and III.
Select the option that correctly matches these phases with the following events.

(i) FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the ovarian follicle
to secrete oestrogen which stimulates the proliferation of endometrium.
(ii) LH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the development of corpus luteum which
secretes progesterone. (iii) Reduced production of LH from anterior pituitary causes degeneration of
corpus luteum, thereby menstrual flow starts.

Phase-I Phase-II Phase-III

(1) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

Proliferative Corpus luteum

(A) (a) 14th day (i)
phase remains active
 Secretory Endometrial
(B) (b) 1st-4th day (ii)
phase growth

Menstruation Shedding of
(C) (c) 15tn-28th day (iii)
phase endometrium

Rupture of
Ovulatory mature
(D) (d) 5th-13tnday (iv)
phase graafian
follicle
(1) A → d → iii; B → c → i, C → b → iv, D → a → ii
(2) A → c → ii; B → b → iii, C → a → i,D → d → iv
(3) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv
(4) A → d → iii; B → b → iv, C → a → ii, D → c → i

56) Of the following male organs, which one is considered a primary sex organ?

(1) ejaculatory ducts

(2) gonads (testes)
(3) penis
(4) seminal vesicles

57) During sexual arousal, _________________ impulses cause vasodilation of the arterioles of the
penis.

(1) parasympathetic
(2) sympathetic
(3) somatic
(4) None of these - vasodilation is the result of hormonal influences.

58)

First or free milk is called

(1) Colostrum
(2) Baby's milk
(3) Rostrum
(4) Cholesterol

59) Menstruation is initiated by

(1) A sudden release of FSH from the anterior pituitary

(2) A lack of estrogen and progesterone due to degeneration of the corpus luteum
(3) An increased release of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum
(4) A sudden drop in FSH

60) These are some events associated with reproduction and embryonic development. Arrange these
from first to last and select the correct answer.
(a) Starts the formation of corpus luteum
(b) Cleavage
(c) Fertilisation
(d) Ovulation
(e) Implantation
(f) Formation of Graafian follicle
(g) Blastocyst
(h) Morula
(i) Zygote

(1) f, d, a, c, i, b, h, g, e
(2) f, d, i, c, a, b, h, g, e
(3) a, f, d, c, b, i, h, g, e
(4) i, h, g, f, d, c, b, e, a

61) Which of the following is diploid ?

(1) Secondary spermatocytes

(2) Spermatozoa & ova
(3) Spermatogonia, Oogonia , Primary spermatocyte
(4) Secondary oocytes

62) During spermatogenesis how many spermatozoa are formed from a single primary spermatocyte

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 8

63) Longest phase of spermatogenesis is :-

(1) Multiplication phase

(2) Growth phase
(3) Maturation phase
(4) Germinal phase

64) Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female :

(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo.
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

65) Assertion: Doctors use to inject oxytocin to induce delivery.

Reason: Oxytocin causes uterine contraction which helps in delivery
 Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

66) The structure which is present in sperm and which stimulate division in zygote is :-

(1) Acrosome
(2) Tail
(3) Proximal centriole
(4) Mitochondria

67) How many sperms and ova are formed from 50 primary spermatocyte and 50 primary oocyte ?

(1) 200 sperm and 50 ovum

(2) 200 ovum and 50 sperm
(3) 50 sperm and 50 ovum
(4) 100 sperm and 200 ovum

68) Differentiation occurs in which stage :-

(1) Primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte

(2) Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatid
(3) Spermatid → Spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocyte

69) Identify correct match of column I, II and III

Column - I Column - II Column - III

(A) Sertoli cells (a) H.C.G. (i) Promote Spermatogenesis

(B) Leydig cells (b) Some factors (ii) Maintenance of the endometrium

(C) Trophoblast (c) Testosterone (iii) Help in the process of spermiogenesis

(D) Ovary (d) Progesterone (iv) Maintain the corpus luteum

(1) A-b-iii, B-c-i, C-a-iv, D-d-ii
(2) A-c-ii, B-b-i, C-d-iii, D-c-iv
(3) A-a-i, B-d-ii, C-b-iv, D-c-iii
(4) A-d-iv, B-c-iii, C-b-ii, D-a-i

70)

How many of the following are secondary sex organs in males ?

Uterus, Epididymis, Vas deferens, Prostate, Fallopian tube, Seminal vesicles, Penis, Vagina, Testes,
Bulbourethral glands
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Four

71) Identify the A, B, C & D in the diagram.

(1) A → Vasa efferentia, B → Vas deferens, C → Seminal vesicle, D → Prostate

(2) A → Vas deferens, B → Vas efferens, C → Prostate, D → Seminal vesicle
(3) A → Epididymis, B → Ureter, C → Prostate, D → Bulbourethral gland
(4) A → Rete testis, B → Ureter, C → Bulbourethral gland, D → Prostate

72) Read the following statements :-

(a) It is paired structure
(b) It is present at dorsolateral side of urinary bladder
(c) It help in coagulation of semen
In above statements "It' refers to :-

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Bartholin gland
(3) Bulbourethral gland
(4) Prostate gland

73) Read the following statement carefully "The spermatogonia undergo......A.......divisions leading to
sperm formation while......B......provide nutrition to the developing germ cells. The male external
genitalia is called.....C....... Which one of the following options gives the correct filling of A, B, & C ?

A B C

(1) Mitotic Interstitial cells Vulva

Mitotic
(2) Sustentacular cells Clitoris
& Meiotic

(3) Meiotic Sertoli cells Penis

(4) Meiotic Leydig cells Penis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
74) Which sequence is correct for male genital tract?

(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra
(2) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Urethra
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis → Urethra
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Seminal vesicle →
(4)
Urethra

75) The edges of infundibulum posses finger like projections called fimbriae which helps in :-

(1) Collection of sperms

(2) To facilitate implantation
(3) To pass nutrition towards ovum
(4) Collection of ovum after ovulation

76)

Which of the following contributes in the formation of seminal plasma ?

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Spermatogonia
(d) Leydig cells
(e) Bulbourethral gland
(f) Prostate gland

(1) b, c, e, f
(2) a, b, c, f
(3) b, c, d, e, f
(4) only b, e, f

77) The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select the option giving
correct identification together with site of occurrence ?

Developmental stage Site of occurrence

(1) (a) Fertilised egg Isthms part of fallopian tube

(2) (b) Zygote Distal part of fallopian tube

(3) (c) Morula Starting point of fallopian tube

(4) (d) Blastocyst Uterine cavity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) In the given figure identify the parts labelling as A,B,C and D and select correct option :-

A B C D

(1) Cervix Infundibulum Isthmus Fundus

(2) Ovary Ampulla Isthmus Fimbriae

(3) Ovary Infundibulum Ampulla Fundus

(4) Cervix Isthmus Ampulla Fimbriae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Assertion : In the absence of fertilisation the corpus luteum degenerates.

Reason : During pregnancy all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is Not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of A

80) The unique characteristic feature of sponges:

(1) Presence of water vascular system

(2) Presence of cnidoblast cells
(3) Presence of choanocyte cells
(4) Presence of diploblastic body

81) Which is not a character of cartilaginous fishes?

(1) 2- Chambered heart

(2) Paired fins
(3) Air or swim bladder
(4) Gills without operculum
82) Identify the name of given animals from the given option.

A B C D

(1) Struthio Neophron Pavo Psittacula

(2) Neophron Struthio Pavo Psittacula

(3) Neophron Struthio Psittacula Pavo

(4) Pavo Struthio Psittacula Neophron

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Match the columns and choose the correct answer from the options given below

Phylum Common name of animal Scientific name of animal

a Platyhelmintehs i) roundworm u) Taenia
b Aschelminthes ii) earthworm v) Pheretima
c Annelida iii) tapeworm w) Ascaris

a b c
1 ii,v i,w iii,u
2 iii,u ii,w i,v
3 iii,u ii,v i,w
4 iii,u i,w ii,v
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Which of the following character not correctly matched ?

 Chordata Non-Chordata

Post anal tail Post anal tail

1
present absent

2 Notochord present Notochord absent

Dorsal, hollow,
Solid, double,
3 tubular, single
ventral nerve cord
nerve cord

4 Ventral heart Dorsal heart

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Select the correct option to identify A, B and C in given chart :-

(1) A-Pisces, B-Tetrapoda, C-Cyclostomata

(2) A-Cyclostomata, B-Pisces, C-Tetrapoda
(3) A-Tetrapoda, B-Pisces, C-Cyclostomata
(4) A-Pisces, B-Cyclostomata, C-Tetrapoda

86) Spongilla commonly known as ________ :-

(1) Boring sponge

(2) Fresh water sponge
(3) Bath sponge
(4) Jelly fish

87) Identify A, B in the given figure :-

A B

Sexual Asexual
(1)
reproduction reproduction
 Asexual Sexual
(2)
reproduction reproduction

Asexual Asexual
(3)
reproduction reproduction

Sexual Sexual
(4)
reproduction reproduction
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Which is not true for reptiles?

(1) They respire by lungs

(2) All have 4 – chambered heart
(3) They are chordate animals
(4) They have closed type of circulatory system

89)
identify the A, B and C :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by

(1) Ovary
(2) Placenta
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Pituitary
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 1 2 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 4 1 2 3 1 4 4 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 3 4 2 2 4 1 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 1 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 1 1 2 1 1 4 3 4 2 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 4 4 3 1 2 4 1 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 3 3 1 3 1 3 1 2 1 1 3 1 4 4 4 3 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) System is acting as diverging

5)

FB > FA > FC

6) Since, it is a regular polygen If all charges were positive net force would be zero. Now
one positive is missing and one additional –Q is placed at point E.

∴ Fnet =

8) , where = 180°

9)
12) Electrostatics field lines are not closed loops.

15) Both cuts equal number of electric lines

17)

18)

22)

Question Explanation : To Find the focal length of complex mirror. When image due to
combination of plane mirror and convex mirror comcedence.
Concept : Image Formation by combination of plane and spherical mirrors

Visual aid :

Formula : Mirror formula

Calculation : Given u = – 20 , v = +4 cm as IC (Image by convex mirror) IP (Image by Plane
mirror) concides So put the value in formula.

⇒
Final Answer : (1)

24)

Theoretical

25)
28)

Given → Vr – V2r = V ⇒ KQ =V

V= ...(1)

At r = 2r, E = = =

29) In electrostatic condition, all points on a conductor are at the same potential.

32)
Conducting sphere

Vcentre = Vinside = Vsurface =

33) At closest approach

34)

Apply energy conservation

(T.E.)Initial = (T.E.)Final
(KE + PE)Initial = (KE + PE)Final

36) W = qΔV
= q(V∞ – VC)

=q= =

38) 1. Explanation (30 words):

The problem involves understanding the relationship between electric fields, work done, and
equipotential surfaces. The statements discuss the work done by an electric field and the
orientation of electric lines of force.
2. Concept (20 words):
The work done by an electric field is zero on equipotential surfaces, and electric field lines are
always perpendicular to these surfaces.
 3. Analysis of Statements:

A. Statement I: Work done by an electric field in moving a positive charge on an

equipotential surface is always zero.
B. True. On an equipotential surface, the potential difference between any two points is zero.
Since work done by an electric field is (where is the potential difference), if
= 0, the work done is zero. Therefore, no work is done when moving a charge along an
equipotential surface.
C. Statement II: Electric lines of force are perpendicular to an equipotential surface.
D. True. The electric field is always perpendicular to the equipotential surface because the
electric field represents the direction of the greatest rate of change of potential, and there is
no change of potential along the surface.

39)
From the figure
(VA – VB) = (VB – VC) = 20 V

⇒ kq = kq

<1 (∵ rA < rC)

⇒ (t1 < t2)

42) Question Explanation : Describe the nature of the intermediate image formed by the
objective lens in a compound microscope.
Concept : Image formation in a compound microscope, objective lens.
Calculation : The objective lens of a compound microscope forms a real, inverted and
magnified image of the object. This image then acts as the object for the eyepiece.
Final Answer : 3. Real, inverted and magnified.

43) = – [slope of V - r graph]

45)

time =
 t=

t=

CHEMISTRY

50) H2(P1) + 2H+(aq) → 2H+(aq) + H2(P2)

Q=

E = 0–

E=

51) Question Explanation: The question asks for the oxidation potential of a hydrogen
electrode at a given pH, pressure, and temperature.

Given Data:

A. pH = 10
B. Pressure of H2 (PH2) = 1 atm
C. Temperature (T) = 25°C = 298 K

Concept: The Nernst equation is used to calculate the electrode potential under non-standard
conditions. For the hydrogen electrode, the reaction is: 2H+ + 2e– ⇌ H2. The Nernst equation for this
half-reaction is:

E = E° – (RT/nF) × ln(Q)

Where: • E is the electrode potential at the given conditions.

• E° is the standard electrode potential (0 V for hydrogen).
• R is the ideal gas constant.
• T is the temperature in Kelvin.
• n is the number of electrons transferred (2 for hydrogen).
• F is Faraday's constant.
• Q is the reaction quotient.

For the hydrogen electrode, Q = (PH2)/([H+]2). Since PH2 = 1 atm, Q = 1/ [H+]2. Also, pH =
–log[H+], so [H+] = 10(–pH)

Mathematical Calculation:

A. [H+] = 10(–10) M

B. Q = = 1020
C. E = 0 – (8.314 × 298 / (2 × 96485)) × ln(1020)
D. E = – (0.01285) × 20 × 2.303
 E. E ≈ –0.591 V (approximately)

Since the question asks for the oxidation potential, we need to change the sign. The reduction
potential is –0.591 V. Therefore, the oxidation potential is +0.591 V.

Final Answer: 0.59 volt (Option 1)

53)

Number of moles × V.F. =

V.F. = Change in O.N. of Mn

1×5=
Q = 482500 C
= 4.83 × 105 C

54)

More negative or lower is the reduction potential, more is the reducing power.

55)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the relative reactivity of Magnesium (Mg)
and Aluminum (Al) based on their oxidation potentials and how this affects their ability to
displace each other in chemical reactions.

Given Data:

A. Oxidation potential of Mg = +2.37 V

B. Oxidation potential of Al = +1.66 V

Concept:
Displacement Reaction and Oxidation potential

Ans. Explanation:-
Since Magnesium has a higher oxidation potential (+2.37 V) than Aluminum (+1.66 V), Magnesium
is more readily oxidized. This means Magnesium is more reactive than Aluminum. Therefore,
Magnesium will replace Al in a chemical reaction. The correct option is 2.

Question Level: Easy

56)

Explanation

Electrolysis & Faraday’s Laws Electrolysis follows Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis, where the
amount of substance deposited or liberated is proportional to the charge passed. For CuCl2(aq)
electrolysis:
 A. At Cathode: Cu2++2e−→Cu

B. At Anode: 2Cl−→Cl2​+2e−

1 mole of Cu and 1 mole of Cl2 require 2 Faraday (F) of charge since 1 mole of electrons equals
1 Faraday.

Concept

Explanation of Statements:

A. Statement I: Correct, as 2F charge is needed to deposit 1 mole of Cu and release 1 mole

of Cl2.

B. Statement II: Correct, because "equivalents" are equal, i.e., Cu (2 eq) and Cl2 (2 eq)
match the charge used.

Answer Option 1, (Both statements are correct, and Statement II correctly explains Statement I).

57)

[H+] =

60) More reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from their salt solution.

63)

A. Question Explanation:

The question asks us to calculate the cell constant of a conductivity cell given the specific
conductance of a KCl solution and the resistance of that solution when measured in the cell.

B. Given Data:

A. Specific conductance (κ) = 0.012 ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹

B. Resistance (R) = 55 ohm

C. Concept:

The relationship between specific conductance (κ), resistance (R), and cell constant (G*) is:

κ = G* / R

D. Mathematical Calculation:
We need to find the cell constant (G*). Rearranging the formula, we get:

G* = κ × R

Substituting the given values:

G* = 0.012 ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹ * 55 ohm G* = 0.66 cm⁻¹

E. Final Answer:

The cell constant is 0.66 cm⁻¹.

65) Asking about : Graph identification

Concept :

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
We know, for zero order reaction -
At = A0 – Kt

t1/2 ∝ [A0]

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

70) Raoult's law is followed by ideal solution.

71)

NCERT 11th Page No. 394

72)

NCERT 11th Page No. 354, 355

74)

NCERT XIIth Page No. # 329, Part IInd Edition 2017

82)
 NCERT XIIth Page No. # 329, Part IInd Edition 2017

83) Allen Module pg no.136

84) A.S. ∝

86)

Bonding ability of leaving group ∝ stability of anion.

87) Geometrical isomers are diastereomers also.

89)

A. Both are non superimposable mirror image stereoisomers, called enantiomers. They are hot
identical compounds.

BIOLOGY

92) Module No.6 Pg.# 177,179

93) NCERT XI Pg # 139

94) Module Pg. # 170

97)

c is not correct

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 99

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 163

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

 103) NCERT Pg # 138

104) NCERT Pg. # 103

105) NCERT XI pg.# 122

106) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 163,164

108) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 163

109) Correct Answer: Entomophilous flower

Explanation:

A. Pollen kit is a sticky, oily coating found on the surface of pollen grains. It aids in pollen
transfer by sticking to the body of insects, thus facilitating insect pollination.
B. Such adaptations are characteristic of entomophilous flowers (insect-pollinated flowers).

Incorrect Options:

A. Anemophilous flowers: Pollinated by wind; pollen grains are lightweight and smooth,
without a pollen kit.
B. Ornithophilous flowers: Pollinated by birds; they do not rely on sticky pollen grains.
C. Malacophilous flowers: Pollinated by mollusks (very rare), typically not associated with a
pollen.

111) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 22, Fig. 2.3 (a)

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13

114) Calyx and gynoecium are non-essential whorls.

117) Answer: 3. (ii), (iv)

Solution:

A. (i) Incorrect: The main plant body of angiosperms is a sporophyte, not a gametophyte. The
gametophyte generation is highly reduced and exists as the male and female gametophytes
(pollen grain and embryo sac).
B. (ii) Correct: According to NCERT, the flower is a modified shoot where the internodes are
condensed, and floral whorls arise from nodes.
C. (iii) Incorrect: The thalamus is part of the flower that has condensed nodes and internodes;
they are not entirely absent.
D. (iv) Correct: Wheat is an annual plant (completes its lifecycle in one season) and is
monocarpic (flowers and produces seeds only once in its lifetime).

The correct answer is (ii), (iv)

118)

NCERT XII, Page # 20, 21

119)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 31 (E), 33 (H)

120)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 11 (III para)

122) NCERT XII Pg. # 29

124) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29 (II para)

125)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 28 (I para)

126) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 28, I para

129) NCERT XII pg. 25, Figure 2.7

130) NCERT XII pg. 21 Fig. 2.2 (b)

131) NCERT pg.# 28

132) NCERT XII pg.# 11(E), 12(H)

134)

NCERT-XII, Pg.#36

135) NCERT, Pg. # 17

136)

NCERT XII, Page # 33,34,35

137)
 NCERT Pg. 51

142)

NCERT, Pg. # 30

143)

The correct matches are Clitoris-erectile tissue and Prolactin-milk synthesis.

A. (a) Clitoris is made of erectile tissue – Correct.

B. (b) Colostrum is not from Cowper's gland, it's the first milk – Incorrect.
C. (c) Prolactin stimulates milk production –

Correct. (d) Oxytocin helps milk ejection, not synthesis – Incorrect.

The correct answer is Option 2: a and c.

145)

The correct answer is (3) A → d → ii; B → c → i; C → b → iii; D → a → iv.

Proliferative phase (5th-13th day) → Endometrial growth.
Secretory phase (15th-28th day) → Corpus luteum remains active
Menstruation phase (1st-4th day) → Shedding of endometrium
Ovulatory phase (14th day) → Rupture of mature Graafian follicle

149)

NCERT Pg. 50

150)

Conduction of gametes is function of secondary sex organs.

158) NCERT Pg. # 47

159)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 31

161)

NCERT Pg. 43

163)

NCERT Pg. 47
165) NCERT Pg. # 45

168) NCERT (XII) # Pg. # 45

169)

NCERT Page - 51

170) NCERT (XI) Pg# 40

171) NCERT (XI) Pg# 56 Para: 4.2.11.2

173) Platyhelminthes (Flatworms):

• Common name: Tapeworm
• Scientific name: Taenia
b) Aschelminthes (also called Nematoda, includes roundworms):
• Common name: Roundworm
• Scientific name: Ascaris

174) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 55

175) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 56

176) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

177) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

178) NCERT (XI) Pg# 58 Para: 4.2.11.5