Actuarial Science MCQ PDF
Actuarial Science MCQ PDF
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Actuarial Science
MCQ PDF
Cou
Actuarial Science is a discipline that applies mathematical and statistical methods to
assess risk in industries such as insurance, finance, pensions, and investment. This
mathematics, life contingencies, and risk modeling, along with an overview of the
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Risk Management and Insurance 13th Edition by George E. Rejda
Page 2
Chapter 1: Risk and Its Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Curt borrowed money from a bank to purchase a fishing boat. He purchased
property insurance on the boat. Curt had difficulty making loan payments because he
did not catch many fish, and fish prices were low. Curt intentionally sunk the boat,
collected from his insurer, and paid off the loan balance. This scenario illustrates the
problem of
A) adverse selection.
B) moral hazard.
C) nondiversifiable risk.
D) attitudinal hazard.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Insurance and Risk
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Q1) According to the law of large numbers, what should happen as an insurance
company increases the number of loss exposures that it insures?
A) Fewer losses should be expected to occur.
B) The amount of premiums needed to cover losses should decrease.
C) The volatility of the insurance company's underwriting results should increase.
D) The difference between actual and expected results should decrease.
Answer: D
Q2) Methods by which insurers may minimize or avoid catastrophic losses include which
of the following?
I.The use of reinsurance
II.Concentrating coverage written in one geographic region
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Risk Management
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Q1) ABC Insurance retains the first $1 million of each property damage loss and
purchases reinsurance for that part of any property loss that exceeds $1 million. The
insurance for property losses above $1 million is called
A) excess insurance.
B) liability insurance.
C) coinsurance.
D) primary insurance.
Answer: A
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Enterprise Risk Management and Related Topics
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Q1) RST Company has production facilities in Salt Lake City and Cleveland. The
probability that in any given year a fire will damage the production facility in Salt Lake
City is 5 percent. The probability that in any given year a fire will damage the Cleveland
production facility is 4 percent. What is the probability that AT LEAST ONE of the
production facilities will be damaged by fire in any given year?
A) 0.20 percent
B) 2.00 percent
C) 8.80 percent
D) 9.00 percent
Q2) Which statement is (are) true regarding property and liability insurance market
conditions?
I.Premiums are high when the insurance market is "hard."
II.Underwriting standards are tight when the insurance market is "soft."
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Types of Insurers and Marketing Systems
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Q1) Sarah owns a property and liability insurance agency. She is authorized to represent
several insurance companies and she is compensated by commissions. Sarah's agency
owns the expiration rights to the business she sells. Sarah is a(n)
A) independent agent.
B) exclusive agent.
C) direct writer.
D) insurance broker.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Insurance Company Operations
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Q1) Which of the following statements is (are) true about life insurance company
investments?
I.The majority of life insurance company general account assets are invested in bonds.
II.The majority of life insurance company separate account assets are invested in stocks.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
Q2) One source of life and health insurance underwriting information is an organization
that life and health insurance companies can join. As a member, life and health
insurance companies report health impairments of applicants, and this information is
shared with member companies. Although the information is shared, the underwriting
decision of the member company is not disclosed. What is this organization called?
A) Fair Isaac Corporation (FICO)
B) Medical Information Bureau (MIB)
C) National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC)
D) National Association of Mutual Insurance Companies (NAMIC)
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Financial Operations of Insurers
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Q1) The unit of measurement used in property and casualty insurance pricing is called
the
A) unit rate.
B) premium.
C) exposure unit.
D) experience unit.
Q2) Under one type of merit rating, the class or manual rate is adjusted upward or
downward based on past loss history. This type of merit rating is called
A) schedule rating.
B) judgment rating.
C) experience rating.
D) retrospective rating.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Government Regulation of Insurance
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the licensing of insurance companies is
(are) true?
I.A new capital stock insurer must meet minimum capital and surplus requirements,
which vary by state and line of insurance.
II.The licensing requirements for insurance companies are less stringent than those
imposed on most other types of firms.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
Q2) An insurance company chartered in another country has been licensed to operate
in your state. In your state, the insurer would be considered a(n)
A) nonadmitted insurer.
B) foreign insurer.
C) alien insurer.
D) reciprocal insurer.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Fundamental Legal Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about offer and acceptance for insurance
contracts is true?
A) In property and liability insurance, agents typically do not have the authority to bind
coverage.
B) In life insurance, the agent can usually accept an offer by immediately binding
coverage.
C) In property insurance, the offer and acceptance are usually in writing but may be oral.
D) In life insurance, completing the application and paying the first premium constitute
acceptance of the offer from the insurer.
Q2) Which distinct legal characteristic of insurance contracts states that only the
insurer's promise to perform is legally enforceable?
A) contracts of adhesion
B) unilateral contracts
C) aleatory contracts
D) personal contracts
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Analysis of Insurance Contracts
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Q1) The purpose of a coordination-of-benefits provision in group health insurance plans
is to
A) determine which plan pays first if more than one plan covers a loss.
B) determine which health care provider an insured may use for his or her care.
C) determine if the calendar-year deductible has been satisfied by the insured.
D) determine if the employee is eligible for coverage under the group health plan.
Q2) Mark reviewed his homeowners policy. He learned that his personal property was
insured on an actual cash value basis. He would like replacement cost coverage on his
personal property. He contacted his agent who said, "I'll simply add an amendment to
your contract that changes the basis of recovery to replacement cost." The written
provision the agent was referring to is called a(n)
A) endorsement.
B) coinsurance clause.
C) binder.
D) deductible.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Life Insurance
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Q1) The net amount at risk for an ordinary life insurance policy is the difference between
the
A) present value of future benefits and the present value of future premiums.
B) face amount of the policy and the total premiums that have been paid.
C) face amount of the policy and the legal reserve.
D) annual premium and the annual policyholder dividend.
Q2) Which of the following statements about policies sold to preferred risks is (are) true?
I.Preferred risks are people whose mortality experience (deaths per thousand at a given
age) is expected to be more favorable than average.
II.Insurers require preferred risks to purchase at least a minimum amount of life
insurance, such as $250,000.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Life Insurance Contractual Provisions
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Q1) Which of the following statements about life insurance policy loans is (are) true?
I.Interest is not required on a life insurance policy loan, as the policyholder is borrowing
his or her own money.
II.If there is an outstanding loan when the insured dies, payment to the beneficiary is
reduced by the amount of the loan.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
Q2) All of the following are requirements that must be satisfied before premiums are
waived under a waiver-of-premium provision EXCEPT
A) The insured must furnish proof of disability to the insurer.
B) The insured must be disabled before some specified age, such as age 60 or 65.
C) The insured must satisfy the definition of disability.
D) The insured must satisfy a 2-year waiting period.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Buying Life Insurance
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Q1) Each of the following helps to reduce federal estate taxes EXCEPT
A) the marital deduction.
B) the applicable unified tax credit amount.
C) life insurance policies in which the deceased had an incidents of ownership at the
time of death.
D) expenses such as the cost of the funeral, estate settlement costs, and probate costs.
Q2) Carl and Carol Williams, a married couple, are doing some estate planning. Upon his
death, Carl plans to leave $1,000,000 in property to his wife. This amount will reduce the
value of Carl's gross estate and will be taxed later when Carol dies. This reduction of the
gross estate is called the
A) unified tax credit.
B) taxable estate.
C) capital gains deduction.
D) marital deduction.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Annuities and Individual Retirement Accounts
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Q1) James is concerned that if he purchases a fixed immediate annuity his funds will be
tied-up and not accessible if an emergency arises. His insurance agent said that a rider
could be attached to his annuity to address this concern. The rider is a(n)
A) partial cash withdrawal rider.
B) return of premium rider.
C) guaranteed purchase option rider.
D) waiver-of-premium rider.
Q2) Life annuity payments are made up of all of the following EXCEPT
A) return of premiums.
B) interest earnings.
C) unliquidated principal of annuitants who live too long.
D) unliquidated principal of annuitants who die early.
Q3) Under an equity-indexed annuity, what name is given to the percentage increase in
the stock index that is credited to the contract?
A) the expense rate
B) the exclusion ratio
C) the indexing method
D) the participation rate
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Health-Care Reform; Individual Health
Insurance Coverages
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Q1) Beth's disability income insurance policy provides benefits for accidental death,
dismemberment, and loss of sight. The maximum amount payable under this benefit is
known as the
A) face value.
B) cash value.
C) principal sum.
D) monthly benefit.
Q2) Which of the following statements about high deductible health insurance plans is
(are) true?
I.Coverage under a high deductible health plan is necessary to establish a qualified
health savings account (HSA).
II.High deductible health plans provide a maximum limit on annual out-of-pocket
expenses.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Employee Benefits: Group Life and Health
Insurance
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Q1) Under many cafeteria plans, employees make premium contributions with pre-tax
dollars and a salary reduction that are used to purchase group health insurance or
dental insurance. This type of cafeteria plan is called a
A) health reimbursement arrangement plan.
B) premium conversion plan.
C) full-choice plan.
D) flexible spending account plan.
Q2) Med Profs is a group of 18 doctors. These doctors work out of their own offices and
treat patients on a fee-for-service basis. In addition, Med Profs doctors also agree to
treat HMO members at reduced fees. The type of HMO that uses organizations like Med
Profs is called a(n)
A) group model plan.
B) closed panel plan.
C) individual practice association plan.
D) network model plan.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Employee Benefits: Retirement Plans
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Q1) All the following statements concerning a Roth 401(k) plan are true EXCEPT
A) After-tax dollars are used to fund the plan.
B) Investment earnings accumulate on a tax-free basis.
C) Employees at all income levels may contribute to the plan, but annual contributions
are limited.
D) Qualified distributions at retirement are fully taxable.
Q2) Which of the following statements about retirement benefits under pension plans is
true?
A) Under a flat percentage of annual earnings defined benefit formula, each employee
receives the same dollar benefit.
B) A benefit using final pay is usually based on an employee's earnings during the last
month of plan participation.
C) A unit-benefit formula considers both earnings and years of service.
D) Past service benefits are the result of bonuses and overtime pay during the period an
employee participated in the plan.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Social Insurance
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Q1) One insured status under Social Security requires you to have earned at least six
credits during the last 13 calendar quarters ending with the quarter of death, disability, or
entitlement to retirement benefits. This insured status is
A) disability insured.
B) temporarily insured.
C) fully insured.
D) currently insured.
Q2) Which of the following statements about taxation of Social Security retirement
benefits under federal law is (are) true?
I.Social Security retirement benefits are never considered taxable income.
II.Up to 85 percent of Social Security retirement benefits may be considered taxable
income, depending on the amount of other income received by the beneficiary.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Liability Risk
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Q1) Heather sued Robert for injuries suffered in an automobile accident. Based on the
facts presented, the jury concluded that Heather was 40 percent at fault in the accident
and Robert was 60 percent at fault. Under the common law doctrine of contributory
negligence, the jury should award Heather
A) nothing.
B) 40 percent of her actual damages.
C) 60 percent of her actual damages.
D) 100 percent of her actual damages.
Q2) All of the following are proposed solutions to the medical malpractice problem
EXCEPT
A) shortening the statute of limitations for filing lawsuits.
B) eliminating arbitration panels to resolve disputes.
C) placing limitations on contingent fees charged by attorneys.
D) placing limitations on damage awards.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Auto Insurance
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Q1) All of the following losses are excluded under Part D (coverage for damage to your
auto) of an unendorsed PAP EXCEPT
A) vandals damaged a portable cell phone kept in the car.
B) theft of a compact disc player which was permanently installed in the auto.
C) damage caused to a car's engine because the named insured never changed the oil.
D) destruction of a radar detector which overheated and caught on fire.
Q2) Which of the following situations would be covered by the liability section of an
unendorsed PAP if the insured is legally liable?
A) The insured injures a pedestrian while operating a friend's new motorcycle.
B) The insured backs into and damages the garage door of his rented house.
C) The insured intentionally runs into another motorist's car after the driver cut in front of
him.
D) The insured damages a parked car while driving a dump truck for his employer.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Auto Insurance (continued)
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Q1) All of the following are arguments for no-fault automobile insurance laws EXCEPT
A) No-fault is unnecessary as it's easy to determine which driver was negligent when a
multiple-vehicle accident occurs.
B) A large portion of each premium dollar is used for purposes other than compensating
accident victims for their losses.
C) There are delays in compensating accident victims under the tort system.
D) Seriously injured accident victims tend to be overcompensated, while those with
small economic losses are inadequately indemnified.
Q2) In Maryland, drivers who are unable to obtain auto insurance in the voluntary market
are insured through a(n)
A) state fund.
B) reinsurance facility.
C) joint underwriting association
D) automobile insurance plan.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Homeowners Insurance, Section I
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ellen believes the value of the loss to her home is $30,000. The insurer has offered
$18,000 to settle the loss. If Ellen and the insurer cannot agree on the value of the loss,
which homeowners policy provision specifies how this dispute will be settled?
A) insurer's option
B) appraisal clause
C) loss payment clause
D) mortgage clause
Q2) Which of the following statements about the personal property coverage (Coverage
C) of the Homeowners 3 policy is (are) true?
I. There are special limits of liability that apply to certain types of personal property.
II. The full amount of coverage applies only if the property is permanently located at any
residence of the insured.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Homeowners Insurance, Section II
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the additional coverage for damage to
property of others in Section II of the homeowners policy is true?
A) The maximum amount of coverage is $25,000 per occurrence.
B) Payments are made on the basis of the replacement cost of the damaged property.
C) There is coverage for property damage arising out of a business engaged in on a
full-time basis by an insured.
D) There is coverage for intentional property damage by any insured who is a teenager.
Q2) All of the following situations are excluded from coverage under Section II of the
homeowners policy EXCEPT
A) the rental of a spare bedroom which is used by the tenant as an office.
B) the use of a rented airplane to take a vacation.
C) the ownership of a ten-unit apartment house as an investment.
D) the performance of professional services by the insured at the residence premises.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Other Property and Liability Insurance
Coverages
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Q1) William would like to insure his home. He does not want theft or personal liability
coverage; however, he would like "open perils" (all-risks) coverage on the dwelling.
William should purchase a
A) Homeowners 3 Policy.
B) Dwelling Property 1 Form.
C) Dwelling Property 2 Form.
D) Dwelling Property 3 Form.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the eligibility requirements for insuring
mobile homes by endorsing a homeowners policy is (are) true?
I.The mobile home must be designed for year-round living.
II.The mobile home must be located in a fenced area with security guards.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Commercial Property Insurance
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Q1) All of the following statements about inland marine forms are true EXCEPT
A) A mail coverage form covers securities in transit by first-class mail, registered or
certified mail, or express mail.
B) A commercial articles coverage form is used to insure photographic equipment and
musical instruments.
C) A jewelers block coverage form is used by individuals to insure jewelry limited in
coverage by the homeowners form.
D) The signs coverage form covers neon, mechanical, and electrical signs.
Q2) The exterior walls, the roof, and the plumbing, heating and air conditioning systems
of a residential condominium can be insured through the purchase of which of the
following forms?
I.Condominium association coverage form
II.Condominium commercial unit-owners coverage form
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Commercial Liability Insurance
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Q1) Jenkins Company purchased a commercial umbrella policy with a $10 million limit
and a $100,000 self-insured retention. The insurer required Jenkins Company to carry a
$1 million per-occurrence limit on its general liability policy and a $1 million
per-occurrence limit on its business auto policy. Jenkins purchased these required limits.
A Jenkins driver was negligent while operating a company vehicle and killed another
motorist. The court ruled that Jenkins must pay $5 million. How much of this amount will
be paid by the umbrella policy?
A) $1.0 million
B) $3.9 million
C) $4.0 million
D) $5.0 million
Q2) One type of liability insurance covers damages arising from the failure of a data
holder to protect private information from being accessed by an unauthorized party.
This type of liability coverage is called
A) errors and omissions insurance.
B) cyber liability insurance.
C) terrorism insurance.
D) employment-related practices liability insurance.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Crime Insurance and Surety Bonds
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Q1) Which of the following statements is (are) true with regard to the ISO commercial
crime coverage forms?
I.The discovery version only covers losses which occur during the policy period.
II.The loss-sustained version covers losses which occur during the policy period and the
loss is discovered during the policy period or within one year after the policy expires.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
Q2) XYZ Insurance Company markets a wide range of coverages. One type of coverage
provides monetary compensation if a bonded party fails to perform certain acts. This
coverage is called
A) property insurance.
B) liability insurance.
C) a fidelity bond.
D) a surety bond.
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Page 29