SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICES QUESTIONS (60 marks) Circle the most appropriate answer 1.

A cystic lesion which is filled with chocolate brown sludge at its centre is called A. Leimyoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Endometrioma D. Adenomyosis E. Malignant mixed mullerian tumor
2. A 30-year old sexually active

A. Adenomyosis B. Pyometra C. Endemetriosis D. Hematometra E. Aria-stela reaction 4. A 56 woman was diagnosed of Leiomyosarcoma. What is the distant metastasis of this tumor A. Liver B. Spleen C. Lung D. Bones
E. Both C and D and brain

women has had a mucopurent vaginal discharge for 1 week. On pelvic examination, the cervix appears reddened around the OS. A pap smear shows numerous neutrophils but no dysplastic cells. Cervical biopsy shows marked follicular cervitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to produce these findings A. Clamydia trachomatis B. Candida albicans C. Herpes simplex virus D. Human papillomavirus E. Trichomonas vaginalis
3. Which one among the following

5. The largest of all ovarian tumors with cells resembling those of endocervix and gastric polyp is known as A. Serous carcinoma B. Mucinous carcinoma C. Endometriod carcinoma D. Clear cell tumor E. Brenner tumor 6. Papillary hydradenoma arises from which gland A. Batholin gland
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Inflammatory Uterine disorders is associated with Infertility

B. Sweat gland C. Vestibular gland D. Paraurethral gland E. Non of the above

C. Lobular carcinoma in situ D. Fibroadenoma E. Medullary carcinoma 9. A girl with multiple sexual partners is at high risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Which sexual organ part of the following will express this carcinoma more neoplastic when involved. A. Labia majora B. Labia minora C. Clitoris D. Cervix E. Uterus 10. Which of the following disorders is most frequently associated with obstruction to urine flow at an early stage of its development. A. Prostate cancer B. Renal adenocarcinoma C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia D. Carcinoma of the penis E. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder 11. In chronic renal failure, you would expect A. Low parathormone levels
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traumatic blow to the right breast. Initially, there was a 3-cm contusion that resolved with a few weeks, but she then felt a firm lumb below the site of the bruise. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis A. Fabroadenoma B. Sclerosing adenosis C. Fat necrosis D. Intraductal carcinoma E. mammary duct ectasia 8. A 28-year old woman in the third trimester of her third pregnancy discovered a lump in her right breast. The physician palpated a 2-cm discrete, freely movable mass beneath the nipple. After the birth of a term infant the mass appears to decrease in size slightly, the infant breast-feeds without difficulty. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Intraductal papilloma B. Phyllodes tumor

B. Macrocytic anemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Low arterial PH and low bicarbonate level E. Urine osmolarity > 500 mosm/kg 12. Diverticulosis and angiodysplasia both predispose to A. Colorectal cancer B. Hematochezia C. Fistula formation D. Bowel obstruction E. Infection 13. A 68- year old woman substernal pairs has had after meals for many years. For the past year, she has had increased difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy shows a lower esophageal mass that nearly occludes the lumen of the esophagus. Biopsy of this is likely toshow which of the following neoplasms? A. Adenocarcinoma B. Leimyosarcoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Non Hodgkin lymphoma E. Carcinoid tumor
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14. A 20-year old woman in her ninth month of pregnancy has increasing pain on defecation and notices bright red blood on the toilet paper. She has had no previous gastrointestinal problems. After she gives birth, the rectal pain subsides and there is no more bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Angiodysplasia B. Volvulus C. Hemonhoids D. Ischemic colitis E. Hirschsprung disease 15. A chalasia and Hirshsprungs disease are both associated with what of the following? A. Down syndrome B. Absence of ganglion cells C. A predisposition for cancer D. Aperistalsis of the proximal dilated segment E. Transmural Inflammation 16. A 32- year old man with flushing, diarrhea and multiple lesions in the liver on CT scan would most likely have a primary disorder located in the A. Esophagus B. Stomach C. Small bowel D. Appendix E. Rectosigmoid 17. An afebrile 28-year old woman with longstanding diarrhea has a positive quantitative stool for fat and an abnormal D-xylose test. You would expect this patient to most likely have a

A. Long history of recurrent pancreatitis B. Small bowel biopsy showing foamy macrophages in the lamina propria C. Small bowel biopsy showing dilated lymphatic channels in the submucosa D. Small bowel biopsy showing flattened villi and hyperplastic crypts E. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome with bile salt deficiency 18. Weight loss and dysphagia for solids in a 62-year old man with long history of alcoholism would most likely be secondary to A. An esophageal web B. A squamous carcinoma C. Esophageal varices D. A motor disorder of the esophagus E. Infectious esophagitis 19. A nonsmoking 29-year old homosexual male has non painful white patches located on the the lateral borders of his tongue. The patches do not wipe off with gauze. You suspect that these lesions is most closely related to A. A neoplastic process B. A fungal infection C. A dysplastic process D. A viral infection E. An autoimmune disease 20. The pathogenesis of both diverticulitis and acute appendicitis is most often associated with which of the following A. A previous history of viral gastroenteritis
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B. Luminal obstruction by fecalith C. Hematogeneous spread of infection D. Submucasal lymphoid hyperplasia E. Luminal obstruction by parasite 21. The most common site for polyps and adenocarcinoma in the gastrointestinal tract is the A. Esophagus B. Stomach C. Small bowel D. Right colon E. Rectosigmoid 22. Which of the following is more likely associated with Ulcerative colitis than with Crohns disease? A. Risk for adenocarcinoma B. Obstruction C. Fistula formation D. Transmural inflammation E. Apthoid Ulcers 23. A 65-year old woman goes to her physician for a routine health maintenance examination. A stool sample is positive for occult blood. CT scan of the abdomen shows numerous air-filled 1-cm outpouchings of the sigmoid and descending colon. Which of the following complications is most likely to develop in this patient? A. Adecarcinoma B. Pericolic abscess C. Bowel obstruction D. Malabsorption E. Toxic megacolon 24. A man of 20-years visits his physician because of increasing stuffiness of the nose; physical examination shows congestion of vessels, oedema of the tissue and

swelling of the mucosa. The likely diagnosis can also be found in all other parts except which of the following A. Nasal sinuses B. Larynx C. Trachea D. Pharynx E. Non of the above 25. On caesarian delivery, a diabetic mother gave birth to a premature baby with difficult breathing. On physical examination, the lungs are found to loose their expansivity and fetal circulation continued. The histogical findings shows collapse alvedi, distended bronchioles lined by prominent pink stain. What could be the hypoxic causes of this syndrome? A. Necrosis B. Formation of hyaline membrane C. Hemorrhage D. Thrombosis E. All of the above 26. Which one among of the following is not the complication of bronchopneumonia A. Death B. Fibrosis in consolidated pathes C. Distortion of lung structure D. Lung abscess E. Bronchiectasis 27. Initial shock reaction in the lungs is likely to develop from which of the following? A. Inhalation of gastric content B. Anaesthesia C. Coma D. Frequent regurgitation E. Esophageal obstruction
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28. A 6-year old child is rashed to the emergency room due to severe dyspnea and prolonged cough. On examination, red multilobar consolidation are observed , the alveoli are filled with eosinophilic exudate and clusters of organisms. 3 days later the child died because had received not treatment. What complication is likely to be the cause of this death? A. Fibrosis B. Bronchopneumonia C. Thrombosis D. TB E. A and D 29. Which one among the following is not the common cause of lung abscess A. Bronchopneumonia B. TB and bronchiectasis C. Trauma to the lung D. Bronchial obstruction E. Inhalation of infected material from the pharynx 30. A 29-year old man with a history of smoking tobacco has persistent cough with sputum production for at least 3 months in two consecutive years. What is the likely pulmonary disease? A. Bronchiectasis B. Emphysema C. Chronic bronchitis D. Asthma E. Acute bronchitis 31. Honeycomb lung is the complication of which disorder? A. Lung abscess B. Lung fibrosis C. Tuberculosis D. Pulmonary embolism E. Lunger cancer

32. A 30 year old man was admitted because of increasing fever, caugh and dyspnea for the past 2 weeks. Laboratory diagnosis shows EBV infection and that he is HIV1 positive. Histological observation shows alveolar septal and intra-alveolar infiltration by small, mature, noncleaved polyclonal lymphadenopathy, vasculitis or necrosis. Interstial fibrosis and non seating granulomata were reported. What is the pulmonary pathology, related to these findings? A. Eosinophilic pneumonia B. Pneumocystic Carinii Pneumonia (PCP) C. Lymphocytic Interstial Pneumonia (LIP) D. Lobar pneumonia E. Legionnaires pneumonia 33. Eosinophilic pneumonia is commonly seen in all of the following except? A. Filariasis and Aspergillosis B. Helminthes and Ulcerative colitis C. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) and Rheumatoid arteritis (RA) D. Temporal arteritis (TA) E. Hypersensitivity to drugs 34. Clinically the lofflers syndrome present with all the following except A. Fever and dyspnea B. Peripheral eosinophilia C. Pulmonary infiltrate D. Weight loss E. Caugh 35. A 25 year old lady on her daily routine medical checkup is found with a swelling in the
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nasopharynx,It appears reddish grey, highly vascularized polypoid mass. Histological findings show small cells with round nucleus and fibrillary background with formation of rossete bodies. What is the likely diagnosis for this lady? A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma B. Non Keratinizing cell carcinoma C. Olfactory neutroblastoma D. Nasal papillosarcoma E. Carcinoma of the larynx 36. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma can metastasize to which of the following? A. Regional Lymphnode B. Skeletal system C. Kidney D. Brain E. A and B 37. Congenital heart disease are associated with which among the following? A. Rubella infection during pregnancy B. Chromosomal abnormalities C. Mutation D. Chromosomal deletion E. All of the above 38. Which one is not true about ASD? A. There is an abnormal opening in the afrterial setum B. Pulmonary hypertension is a long term complication C. Can result in left to right shunt D. It is acyanotic E. The opening can close spontaneously 39. Ashura is 25 years old. She has had left chest pains for past 6

months, physical examination shows Ischemia of the brain, eyes, face and arms with no palsation. What disease is Ashura likely to have if the histological slide shows path necrosis of the aortic arch media? A. Takayasus disease B. Polyathritis nodosa (PAN) C. Kawasaki disease D. Wegener granulomatosis E. Mucocuteneous lymp node syndrome 40. A 7-year old child is admitted to hospital after the physical examination that showed congested conjunctiva, oedema of the hands and feet and cervical lymphadeno pathy, later He died of complicated aneurysm, thrombosis and myocardial infarction. If at autopsy, acute necrotizing vasculitis was seen in small and medium sized vessels. What is the commonly involved vessel in this case? A. Capillaries B. Arterioles C. Coronary arteries D. Venules E. A, B and D 41. From the question no. 40 above, what is the likely diagnosis that led to child death? A. Buerger disease B. Wegner granulomat osis C. Kawasaki disease D. Poryrteritis nodosa (PAN) E. Takayasus disease 42. A 40 year old man with a history of heavy cigarette smoking, later in life he was found with complication of Ulceration of toes, feets and frank gangrene which
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extended to adjacent nerves and veins. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Thromboangitis obliterans B. Wegener granulomatosis C. Atherosclerosis D. Mucocutenous lymph node syndrome E. Takayasus disease 43. Hypertension and cystic medial necrosis are associated risk factors for dissecting hematoma. What site is most commonly affected by this hematoma? A. Circle of willis B. Descending aorta C. Ascending aorta D. Arch of aorta E. Coronary arteries 44. A 60 year old HIV positive man is admitted to the hospital because of increasing vomiting, dyphagia and abdominal pain. He presents with multiple skin lesions on the face and lower extremities. A stool sample test was positive for melena and histological findings included spindle cell proliferation and extravasated red blood cells. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Burkits lymphoma B. Lymphangioma C. Angiosarcoma D. Lymphangiosarcoma E. Kaposis sarcoma 45. From question 44 above, abnormality of which production is not considered the contributing factor for the cancer development in HIV patient? A. GM-CSF B. HIV-tat protein C. IL6 and IL1 D. TNF E. 6FGF

46. A 50 year old woman died of heart problems. An autopsy showed pale rounded mass with pedicle attached to endocardium in the left atrium. If the mitral valve was also found highly occluded, what disorder is suggestive for her dearth? A. Secondary heart tumors B. Myocardial infarction C. Cardiac myxoma D. Atherosclerosis E. Cardiomyopathy 47. Hamis is an old man aging 70years, He has had deep crushing chest pain which extends to the neck, jaws, left arm and upper abdomen. Laboratory diagnosis shows leucocytosis and enzyme changes. What changes will be observed in ECG? A. Increased amplitude of Q wave B. Decreased amplitude of Q wave C. T . wave inversion D. Depression of ST. segment E. A and C are correct 48. Which cardiac inflammation disorder can express as necrotising granulomatous vasculitis similar to that expressed in vessels of rapiratory tract and kidney? A. Buerger disease B. Kawasaki disease C. Pulseless disease D. Wegener granulomatosis E. Temporal arteritis 49. Anitha is a little girl of 6 years of age living in malaria endemic region. She was diagnosed to have a malignant tumor of which physical examination showed an
8

orbital swelling; the histological findings showed several prominent basophilic nucleoli, coarse chromatin and starry sky. Cytogerotics showed t(8;14). To which parts of the following is this lymphoma likely to metastasize? A. Bone marrow only B. Only CNS C. Lower extremities D. Nosal cavity E. Bone marrow and CNS 50. From question 49 above, the proliferation rate is increased by frequent mutation in which of the following genes? A. RB2/P130 B. blc-2 C. c-myc D. RB1/P130 E. BRCA-1 51. Ki-1 lymphoma is invasive to all of the following system except? A. Respiratory system B. Skeletal system C. Renal system D. GIT E. Circulatory system 52. Which one among the following is not a differential diagnosis anaplastic large cell lymphoma? A. Undifferentiated carcinoma B. Differentiated carcinoma C. Soft tissue sarcoma D. Melanoma E. Non of the above 53. A 9-year child is admitted to the hospital because of increasing fever and body malaise. On physical examination He has mediastinal mass in thyamic region, biopsy specimen shows leukemic blood. Few months later, the child died and an autopsy was

perfomed. Many system were found to be highly affected and neoplastic cells had scarity cytoplasm with round nucleus. What would be the cause of this dearth? A. Lymphocytic lymphoma B. Lymphoblastic lymphoma C. Hodgkins lymphoma D. Follicular lymphoma E. Richers syndrome 54. Which one of the following is not a differential diagnosis of the causal of dearth in the previous question? A. Burkitts lymphoma B. PNET C. Ewings sarcoma D. TB E. Non of the above 55. The patient aging 35 years was found to have lymphoma which was less aggressive and required a less toxic therapy for treatment. This type of non Hodgkins lymphoma is likely to be A. Small cell lymphoma B. Large lymphoma C. Diffuse cell lymphoma D. Small and follicular lymphoma E. Follicular lymphoma 56. With Hodgkins lymphoma liver involvement can be detected in which sites among the following? A. Para aortic lymphnode B. Splenic lymphnode C. Axillary lymphnode D. Retroperitoneal lympnode E. B and D are correct 57. Which one among the following types of Hodgkins disease has poor prognosis? A. Nodular sclerosis
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B. Mixed cellularity C. Lymphocyte predominance D. Lymphocyte depletion E. E and D 58. A patient developed skin rash, fever and generalized lymphadenopathy after taking certain drugs. The reactive germinal center showed folliclelysis. The lymphonode at two extrainnguinal sites was not explained. If the microscopic finding gave a month-eaten appearance, what is the likely disorder? A. Lympho granuloma venerum B. Cat scratch disease C. Chronic lymphadenopathy syndrome D. Mesenteric lymphadenopathy E. Rosai-Dorfman disease 59. An African man (black) aging 40 years complains of fever to His physician. Physical examination shows painless bilateral lymphnode enlargement in the neck. If the histological findings showed dilated lymph sinuses with lymphocytes, plasma cells and numerous cells of histiocytic appearance with large vesicular nucleus and abundant clear Cytoplasm, what is the likely diagnosis? A. Cat-scratch disease B. Hodgkins lymphoma C. Rosal-Dorfman disease D. LGV E. Toxoplasma lymphadenopathy

60. Overexpression of which among the following gives a specific feature of mantle cell lymphoma? A. blc-2

B. C. D. E.

Cyclin DI PRAD I blc-1 A and C are correct

SECTION B: MATCHING ITEM QUESTIONS (15 marks) Match the items with corresponding statements or words by writing the letter on the spaces provided. Refer to this example 1. (i) Trisomy 18 .C. A. Li-fraumen syndrome (ii) OsteomalaciaE. B. Vitamin A (iii) XropthalmiaB C. Edward syndrome (iv) Brain tumorA D. (AD), MSH2 18q (v) Colon cancer.D. E. Vitamin D deficiency

61. (i) Olliers diseaseB..

(ii) Maffuccis syndromeC. (iii)Paget diseaseA (iv) Plump cellE. (v) Familial syndromeD
62. (i) Osteomalacia C..

A. Osteosarcoma B. Chondroma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Osteochondroma E. Peripheral chondrosarcoma A. Albers- schonbergs disease B. Broad costochondral junction C. Vitamin D defficiency D. Mutation of FGFR3 gene E. Small round blue cells A. Alcoholic hepatitis B. Chronic hepatitis C. Kalar azar D. Hepatic fibrosis E. Hereditary hepatitis A. Dwarfism B. Pretibial myxedema C. Subacute thyroiditis D. Fibrous thyroiditis E. Papillary carcinoma
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(ii) Rachitic rosaryB.. (iii) OstepetrosisA.. (iv) Ewing sarcomaE. (v) AchondroplasiaD
63. (i) Wilsons diseaseE..

(ii) Mallorys hyalineA (iii) Stellate patternD. (iv) Piece-meal necrosisB (v) Leishmania donovani bodiesC
64. (i) Craniopharyngioma A

(ii) de QuervainsC.. (iii) Hashimotos thyroiditisE (iv) Riedels thyroiditisD (v) Graves diseaseB

65. (i) Spinal muscular atrophyE

A. Graves disease (ii) Orion bulb formationC. B. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (iii)Diffuse toxic goitreA C. Refsum disease (iv) Small cell carcinoma of the lungB D. Werdnig-Hoffman disease (v) Congophilic angiopathyD E. Alzheimer disease

66. (i) Germ cell tumor B..

(ii) Parkinson disease.E. (iii) Alzheimer diseaseC (iv) Putamen A. (v) Sella tunicaD
67. (i) Leukoplakia

A. Likely to occur in Hypertension B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Neurofibllary tangles D. Pineal body E. Movement problems A. Gingivitis B. Bone destruction C. White plague D.Tobacco smoking E. Dental carries A. High levels of AFP B. Pelvic mass C. Meigs syndrome D. Call-exner bodies E. Hyperestrinism

C.. (ii) ErythroplakiaD.. (iii) Epulis A.. (iv) Sjogrens syndromeE (v) Fibrous epulisB (ii) Granulosa cell tumorD (iii) Sex cord stomal tumorC (iv) Choriocarcinoma B (v) Yolk sack tumorA..

68. (i) ThecomaE..

69. (i) Mucinous cystadenomaB

A. Hair and calcification (ii) ChoriocarcinomaD.. B. Mucoid fluid (iii) Mature cystic teratomaA C. Clear fluid (iv) Serous cystadenomaC D. Tan-white mass (v) DysgerminomaE E. Gestational in origin (ii) Stellate abscess.C (iii)Donovani bodiesD (iv) Acanthosis and Keratosis.. A (v) 4% risk of carcinomaB A. Squamous hyperplasia B. Lichen sclerosis C. Lymphogranuloma venerum D. Granuloma Inguinable E. syphilis

70. (i) Nemerous plasma cellsE

71. (i) St Mary Nodule ..E

A. Gally stones (ii) Virchows node.. C B. Cerebral Edema (iii) Pancreatic PseudocystD C. Distant metastasis (iv) Acute Pancreatitis A. D. Interstinal obstruction (v) Epilepsy B E. Poor prognosis
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72. (i) Bowens disease .D.

A. Melanoma (ii) Bowenoid papulosis.E . B. Low incidence of LN metastasis (iii) Verucous carcinomaC C. Type of SCC (iv) Microinvasive carcinomaB D. HPV 16 (v) Pagets diseaseA E. Clinically resemble condyloma or nevi C.. A. Psamomma bodies (ii) Turcots syndrome.D. B. Rossete formation (iii) Meningioma A.. C. Pale Islands (iv) RetinoblastomaB D.Medullablastoma (v) TuberculomaE E. Creamy color (ii) Askoff bodiesC (iii) Foam cells A (iv) sigarette smoking E (v) HBV InfectionB.. A. Atherosclerosis B. Polyarteritis nodosa C. myocarditis D. Takayasus disease E. Buerger disease A. Follicular hyperplasia B. Non coseating granuloma C. Large cell lymphoma D. Cat scratch disease E. Lymphogranuloma venerum

73. (i) Medulloblastoma

74. (i) Patch necrosisD..

75. (i) Ritchers syndromeC

(ii) Starry sky.A. (iii) Kviems testB (iv) Silver stainD (v) Inguinal lymphadenopathyE

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SECTION C: (TRUE/FALSE)-QUESTIONS (25 marks) Write T for True Statement and F for false statement. Leave the blank if you dont know NB: 0.5 mark will be deducted for wrong answer 76. Lymph Node EVALUATION can be done by a) Fine needle aspiration ( T ) b) Bacteriological examination (T) c) Immunotyping ( T ) d) Cytogenetics ( T ) 77. Regarding Piringer Kuchika lymphadenitis, a) It is common in anterior cervical node (F ) b) Mitotic activity is intense (T) c) Presents with marked follicular hyperplasia ( T) d) Leads to archtectual destruction (F ) 78. Mixed cellularity Hdgkins lymphoma, a. It is common in females ( F ) b. It affects mostly eldery people ( T) c. Presents with focal necrosis (T) d. Classic Reedsternberg cells are very few ( F ) 79. Small lymphocytic lymphoma a. Express Bcl-6 and Bcl-2 (F)
13 b. No follicles is expressed

histologically ( T ) c. It is normally genelarized (T) d. Can be seen in HIV infection ( F ) 80. Regarding lymphoblastic lymphoma a. Has follicular pattern appearance of intermediate sized lymphocytes ( ) b. Responds positively with TdT ( T ) c. Immunogenetics for T-cells are CD3 and CD8 ( F ) d. Immunogenetics for B-cells include CD19, CD10 and CD20 (T ) 81. Regarding Burkitt lymphoma a) It is TdT negative ( T ) b) May be seen with HIV infection ( T ) c) Immunogenetically presents with cyclin D1 ( ) d) t (8;14) T 82. General and clinical features of Hodgkins lymphoma include a) Immunological depression of T-cell function ( F )

b) Mediastinal compression

a. May be due to reflux of

due to lymph node enlargement ( T ) c) The enlarged lymph nodes are always painless (T ) d) TB is the differential diagnosis (T ) 83. With nodular lymphocytic Predominance Hodgkins lymphoma a. There is nodular pattern growth ( T ) b. Classic RS cells are absent ( T) c. Popcon cells are present ( T) d. The growth pattern is diffuse ( F ) 84. Regarding rosai-Dorfman disease a. Cause massive painful unilateral lymph node enlargement in the neck ( F) b. Hodgkins lymphoma is one of the differential diagnosis (T) c. Owl eye appearance ( F ) d. There is pronounced dilation of lymphsinuses (T ) 85. With catscratch disease a) Only axillary lymphadenopathy may occur ( F ) b) It is caused by Bartonella henselae ( T ) c) Can be identified by Kviems test ( F ) d) Neutrophils ,macrophages, basophils and plasma cells surround the area of necrosis ( T ) 86. Regarding peptic Oesophagitis
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acid from the stomach ( T ) b. Barrets Oesophagus is one of the main cTomplication ( T) c. Commonly presents as dysphagia (T ) d. Superficial Ulceration of Oesophageal mucosa is common ( T) 87. Crohns disease a) Commonly in eastern developed countries ( F ) b) Adhesions and fistula formation may occur ( T ) c) Crypt abscess may be seen on histological observation (T) d) Microcytic anemia is one of the complication (F ) 88. Regarding candyloma accuminatum a. HPV-6 is the cause (T ) b. Present with several soft elevated masses ( F ) c. Can grow fast in pregnancy (T ) d. Cauterization is one of the way of treatment (T ) 89. Endometrial hyperplasia a) Results from excessive estrogenic stimulation ( T ) b) Occurs with failure of ovulation (F ) c) Oral contraceptives is likely cause ( T ) d) May develop from endometritis (T ) 90. Regarding Adenosis a. There is squamous epithelial change to grandular type (T ) b. Present with excessive mucous discharge ( T )

c. It is associated with

exposure to DES in Utero (T ) d. The gross appearance shows red granular spot that stains Iodine (F ) 91. Respiratory distress syndrome a) It is a perinated lung disease ( T ) b) Much blood is drawn in the lungs ( F ) c) It is called hyaline membrane disease ( T) d) Low surface tension due to increase secretion of leci thin is the contributing factor ( F ) 92. Concerning Bronchopneumonia a. Patchy area of the alveoli is a common feature ( T ) b. Pores of Kohn favous spread to adjacent lobules (T) c. Lesions are usually at the upper lobes ( F ) d. Lesions at the bases coalesce and become confluent ( T ) 93. Regarding Emphysema a) May lead to dyspnea and chronic cough ( ) b) It is associated with 1antitrypsin defiency (T ) c) Smoking is a risk factor (T) d) Alveoli destruction with fibrosis is a common feature ( F ) 94. Intrinsic Asthma a. Family history is significant (F ) b. Can start in child hood (F ) c. Normally associated with nasal polp (F )
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d. Starts in adult life ( T ) 95. Regarding Angrofibroma a) It is common in females ( F ) b) Most are solitary ( T ) c) It is associated with HPV 11 and 6 infection ( ) d) The lining epithelia is columnar (F) 96. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) a. Affects small and medium sized arteries and arterioles (T) b. Present with aneurismal nodules ( T ) c. Involve commonly the coronary artery (T ) d. It is associated with HBV infection by 30% ( T ) 97. Regarding dissecting hematoma a) Occurs in pulmonary artery (F ) b) Pregnancy is one of the risk factor (T ) c) Can cause rupture of aorta (T) d) Also known as dissecting aneurysm ( T ) 98. Malignant HT, a) Majority arise out of benign essential ( F ) b) Few case are secondary to renal disease ( F ) c) Necrosis of the gut and perforation are among the pathology ( T ) d) Flea bitten appearance (T) 99. Regarding stable angina a. It is relieved by rest ( T ) b. Pain may be produced by emotion ( T ) c. Physical activity is unlikely to produce pain (F )

d. Pain may also be due to

a) Usually present at birth

spasm of coronary artery (F)

100. With regards to Juvinile/ hyperplastic hemangioma

(T) b) Can occur during 1st Month of life ( T ) c) Grows rapidly when the child is 6 months old (F ) d) Undergo spontaneous disappearance ( T )

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